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Animal Physiology > Exam 2 > Flashcards

Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

How many miles would the human circulatory system be if all the arteries, veins, and capillaries were laid end to end?

A

50,000 miles, 2 1/2 times around the earth

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2
Q

What are the functions of the circulatory system?

A
  • Carry oxygen, nutrients, carbon dioxide, metabolic waste, and hormones
  • Maintain constant temperature, constant pH, constant osmotic pressure, proper waste balance, and, in part, pathogen free
  • Form clots
  • Affects organ activity
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3
Q

The muscles, brain, and heart all ______ in percent blood flow going from parasympathetic to sympathetic control. The skin, GI tract, liver, and kidney _____ in percent blood flow going from parasympathetic to sympathetic control.

A
  • Increase

- decrease

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4
Q

The parasympathetic system is in control during _____, and the sympathetic system is in control during ______.

A
  • rest

- Fight

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5
Q

On average, capillaries are about _____% full of blood.

A

50

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6
Q

What are the three categories of blood cells?

A

Erythrocytes, platelets, leukocytes

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7
Q

Leukocytes are _____ blood cells. Erythrocytes are _____ blood cells.

A
  • White

- Red

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8
Q

______ ______ is the red bone marrow of the long bone, ribs, sternum, pelvis, body vertebrae, and portions of the skull. What does it produce?

A
  • Myeloid tissue

- Different types of blood cells

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9
Q

_____ _____ is found as a cylinder of loosely organized cells surrounding small arteries in the liver and is mixed with blood-forming cells in the bone marrow.

A

Lymphoid tissue

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10
Q

Where are developing blood cells found? What kind of tissue is especially present here?

A
  • Bone marrow

- Fatty tissue

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11
Q

What kind of transplants are used in adult stem cell transplants?

A

Bone marrow transplants

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12
Q

How many RBC’s are there per mL of blood? How many are produced per second? How many in the human body?

A
  • 5 billion
  • 2 million
  • 25 trillion
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13
Q

_______ are an anucleated disc. What is their shape?

A
  • Erythrocytes

- Biconcave cell

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14
Q

What shape do erythrocytes take in hypoosmotic water? What shape do they take in salt?

A
  • Spherical

- crenate

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15
Q

Erythrocytes have _____ that stick out from their outer membrane. What do these determine?

A
  • proteins

- blood type

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16
Q

Red blood cell maturation requires what?

A
  • vitamin B12

- folic acid

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17
Q

What is the maturation process of erythrocytes like?

A
  • An erythroblast in the bone marrow expels its nucleus
  • The nucleus disintegrates and the cell is called a reticulocyte
  • Through autophagy, the erythrocyte loses its major organells and becomes an erythrocyte
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18
Q

An immature erythrocyte in the bone marrow is called a _______.

A

Reticulocyte

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19
Q

How are erythrocytes in a bird different?

A
  • Ellipsoid shape

- Still have nucleus

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20
Q

endothelial cells in the wall of capillaries form _____ _____ and have a _____ ____.

A
  • tight junctions

- basal lamina

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21
Q

_____ cells line blood vessels.

A

Endothelial

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22
Q

What are 5 characteristics of epithelial cells in the circulatory system?

A
  1. Interface the outside and inside (inside = endothelium)
  2. Form tight junctions with neighboring cells
  3. Sit on a basement membrane/basal lamina
  4. Innervated
  5. Avascular
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23
Q

Red blood cells have a _____ fit through capillaries.

A

Tight

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24
Q

What are the differences in a hematocrit and hemocytometer?

A
  • Hematocrit = determines concentration of red blood cells; also called packed cell volume; centrifuge a sample of blood to separate plasma, red blood cells, and white blood cells
  • Hemocytometer= Dilute a blood samle, then uses a microscope and a grid to count red blood cells
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25
Q

What does an oximeter do?

A

Uses the color of blood to determine the red blood cell count

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26
Q

What are two methods to count red blood cells?

A
  • Hematocrit

- Hemocytometer

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27
Q

What does the biconcave shape of red blood cells do?

A
  • Increases surface area 20-30% to allow gas exchange

- Allows bending in small capillaries

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28
Q

What is the main difference in bird erythrocytes versus mammal erythrocytes?

A

-No nucleus in mammal erythrocytes, birds do

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29
Q

What are platelets?

A

Small fragments of megakaryocyte cytoplasm released into the blood

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30
Q

______ sit on the outside of capillaries. They have “Fake legs” called ______ that extend into the capillary. When these break off, they form ______.

A
  • Megakaryocytes
  • pseudopodia
  • platelets
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31
Q

Platelets are also called ________. How do they help blood clot formation? Why do people with heart problems have to take baby aspirin daily?

A
  • thrombocytes
  • Their outer membrane is sticky to help with blood clot formation
  • Taking baby aspirin makes platelets less sticky so that blood clot formation is prevented
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32
Q

Leukocytes are a type of _____ ______ cell. How many do people produce in a day?

A
  • white blood

- 100 million

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33
Q

What are the two main categories of leukocytes?

A

Granulocytes and agranulocytes

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34
Q

What are the three kinds of granulocytes?

A
  • Neutrophils
  • Eosinophils
  • basophils
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35
Q

What are the two kinds of agranulocytes?

A
  • lymphocytes

- monocytes

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36
Q

Why are neutrophils named that?

A

They take up a neutral stain

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37
Q

What is the other name for neutrophils? Why are they called this?

A
  • Polymorphonuclear cells

- Their nucleus has many shapes

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38
Q

What are the main cells found in the pus of an abscess?

A

Neutrophils (white blood cells)

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39
Q

______ easily move out of blood vessels during ______ to fight infection.

A
  • Neutrophils

- chemotaxis

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40
Q

______ is the process of neutrophils moving through the tissue to a higher concentration of infection for phagocytosis. _______ is the movement of white blood cells through a blood vessel wall.

A
  • Chemotaxis

- Diapedesis

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41
Q

Another name for diapedesis is ______.

A

Extravasation

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42
Q

What is the first line of cellular defense?

A

Neutrophils

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43
Q

_____ _____ are emitted from tissue damage and create a _____ _____ that phagocytes can follow back to the origin of damage.

A
  • chemical signals

- concentration gradient

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44
Q

phagocytes utilize _____ movement to propel themselves through body fluids.

A

Ameboid

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45
Q

What causes phagocytes to migrate?

A

Leakage of cellular contents, interleukines, and other chemokines cause a chemical concentration gradient that cause phagocytes to migrate

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46
Q

What does interendothelial/paracellular diapedesis mean? What cells do this?

A
  • Between endothelial cells

- neutrophils

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47
Q

Whate does endothelial/transcellular diapedesis mean? What cells do this?

A
  • through endothelial cells

- lymphocytes and sperm cells

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48
Q

What is another name for eosinophils? Why are they called this?

A
  • Acidophils

- They take up an acid stain

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49
Q

The nucleus of eosinophils is what shape? Eosinophils are active in ____ ____, fight ____, and ____ is caused by overactive eosinophils.

A
  • Trilobular or bilobular
  • allergic reactions
  • parasites
  • asthma
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50
Q

How do eosinophils kill parasites or allergens?

A

-They have toxins and free radicals that they release

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51
Q

Mast cells gone into circulation are called _______. These have ____ and make ____.

A

-Basophils
-Granules
Secretions

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52
Q

What secretions do basophils make? What do they do?

A
  • Histamine, serotonin, and bradykinin are vasodialators

- Heparin stops blood clotting

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53
Q

What percentage of white blood cells do basophils make up?

A

-1%

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54
Q

What cells line a capillary?

A

Endothelial cells

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55
Q

_____ are agranular leukocytes with a large nucleus and little cytoplasm.

A

-Lymphocytes

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56
Q

What do agranular leukocytes make?

A
  • lymphokines such as cytokines and T cells

- Antibodies

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57
Q

When monocytes diapedese, they are called _____.

A

Macrophages

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58
Q

Monocytes have a ____ shaped nucleus and they are _______.

A
  • kidney

- phagocytic

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59
Q

Bone marrow stem cells can make ____ cells or ____ cells. What can each of these then become?

A
  • T cells: cytotoxic T cells or Helper T cells

- B cells: Memory cells or plasma cells, which become antibodies

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60
Q

Which kind of T cell can become a memory cell?

A

Helper T cells

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61
Q

T cells mature in the _____. B cells mature in the _____.

A
  • Thymus

- Bursa of Fabricus in birds, Bone in humans

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62
Q

Going from the bone to the lympoidal tissues is called the ____ ____.

A

Lymphoidal pathway

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63
Q

____ are secreted by T cells. They are chemical signals that turn on the rest of the immune system.

A

Lymphokines

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64
Q

What is the monocyte-macrophage system? What is another name for this? What was the old name?

A
  • Macrophage development takes place in the bone marrow. They are a stem cell, then a committed stem cell, then a monocyte in the bone marrow, then a monocyte in the peripheral blood, then a macrophage in the tissues.
  • Also called mononuclear macrphage system (MPS)
  • Used to be called reticuloendothelial system
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65
Q

Most tissues in the body contain _____ ____ of macrophages that protect the tissue from infection. These macrophages are called _____ macrophages. They have different _____ depending on where they are in the body.

A
  • resident populations
  • Fixed
  • Names
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66
Q

Each RBC contains _____ million hemoglobin molecules. They are ____ water and ____ hemoglobin;.

A
  • 280
  • 2/3
  • 1/3
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67
Q

What are the subunits of hemoglobin? Describe the structure of the subunits.

A
  • 2 alpha and 2 beta subunits

- Each subunit has a heme group (a disc with iron) surrounded by either an alpha or beta globin protein

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68
Q

How do RBC’s carry oxygen?

A

Oxygen oxidizes Fe2+ to Fe3+

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69
Q

What state must iron exist in to bind oxygen?

A

Fe2+

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70
Q

Low amounts of hemoglobin or iron can lead to _____, the most common disorder of the ____.

A
  • Anemia

- Blood

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71
Q

Anemia will lead to ______, and a subset of this is _____.

A
  • Hypoxia

- Ischemia

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72
Q

_____ is low oxygen supply to tissues. ______ is low blood flow to a site due to an obstruction such as vasoconstriction, thrombosis, or embolism.

A
  • Hypoxia

- Ischemia

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73
Q

_____ ____ anemia is when cells take on a sickle shape. It can be especially dangerous because anemia already causes a low RBC count. These cells can block blood flow through a ____ causing _____.

A
  • Sickle cell
  • capillary
  • Ischemia
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74
Q

In _____ _____ _____, cells have a greater tendency to stack on top of one another and crowd blood vessels. These invariably lead to painful _____ _____, which are a hallmark of the disease.

A
  • Sickle cell anemia

- vasoocclusive episodes

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75
Q

What is the cause of sickle cell anemia?

A

The beta globin has one amino acid changed, causing the protein to be linearized

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76
Q

What amino acid does normal beta chain have? What amino acid does sickle cell RBC’s have?

A
  • Normal: glutamic acid

- Sickle: valine

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77
Q

For people with sickle cell anemia, hematocrit levels are ____, so they have _____ the number of RBC’s.

A
  • half

- half

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78
Q

What is sickle cell trait?

A

The person does not have the disease, but has inherited the gene. People can be prone to ischemic events during exercise, but most live a normal life and have no symptoms.

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79
Q

What is sickle cell disease?

A

A genetic condition present at birth in someone who has inherited the gene from both parents. Sickle cells die early, causing a constant shortage of red blood cells, and some get stuck in blood vessels and clog blood flow.

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80
Q

_______ is a quantitative problem of too few globins synthesized. Sickle-cell disease, a _________, is a qualitative problem of synthesis of a non-functioning __________.

A
  • Thalassemia
  • Hemoglobinopathy
  • Hemoglobin
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81
Q

In lambs, what can you look at to see if they are anemic? What can this anemia be due to?

A
  • Conjunctiva of lower eyelid

- Internal parasites

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82
Q

How does the kidney respond to hypoxia?

A

The kidney releases erythropoietin, which stimulates RBC synthesis in bone marrow. When blood is back to normal, it no longer makes more erythropoietin.

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83
Q

WHat are other names for erythropoietin?

A

Hematopoietin, hemopoiten, or EPO

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84
Q

Can erythropoietin from a cow be given to a human?

A

No, it must be given within the same species.

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85
Q

What are the sites of RBC production throughout life?

A
  • Yolk sac in the early weeks of embryonic life
  • Liver in the middle trimester of gestation
  • Bone marrow during the last month of gestation and after birth
  • Only flat bones later in life, no longer long bones
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86
Q

In an anemic animal, _____ levels are high.

A

Erythropoietin

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87
Q

What is blood doping?

A

Giving erythropoietin to increase RBC’s

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88
Q

In younger animals, flat bones are _____ through out. As they age, _____ occurs of the cartilage. What can meat inspectors use to age carcasses?

A
  • vascularized
  • ossification
  • ossification
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89
Q

Why are baby pigs susceptible to anemia?

A

They grow so fast and may not make enough RBC’s to keep up with their growth

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90
Q

_____ is the liquid part of blood. ____ ____ ____ are involved in carrying oxygen.

A
  • Plasma

- Red Blood Cells

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91
Q

_____ is the rupture or destruction of red blood cells.

A

Hemolysis

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92
Q

_____ makes the majority of blood and is mostly _____.

A
  • Plasma

- Water

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93
Q

What are the three major groups of plasma proteins? Which is the most abundant and where is this made?

A
  • Albumin (most abundant; made by the liver)
  • Fibrinogen
  • Globulins
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94
Q

What are the two roles of albumin?

A
  1. Help maintain osmotic pressure by staying in the blood

2. Weakly bind and carry waste products, serving as a garbage bucket of the blood

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95
Q

Which blood component is like a “garbage bucket” of the blood?

A

Albumin

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96
Q

What is the role of fibrinogen?

A

It can be catalyzed to fibrin and work with RBCs to form a strong clot of blood if needed

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97
Q

______ is the blood fluid that carries blood clotting agents, while ____ is the water fluid from blood without the clotting factors. Fibrinogen is a clotting agent in _____.

A
  • plasma
  • serum
  • plasma
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98
Q

Serum has no _____ or other clotting factors.

A

Fibrinogen

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99
Q

What are the four globulins in serum?

A
  1. Alpha 1
  2. Alpha 2
  3. Beta
  4. Gamma
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100
Q

Which serum protein contains immunoglobulins and antibodies?

A

Gamma

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101
Q

The antibody titer in blood _____ when fighting an antigen.

A

Increases

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102
Q

Serum protein electrophoresis can be used as what?

A

A diagnostic tool when compared to normal elecrophoretic patterns.

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103
Q

______ goes into the extracellular matrix to fed the cells and pick up waste. Then it goes back to the capillaries and out of the system.

A

Plasma

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104
Q

What is in the spaces in a capillary bed?

A

Interstitial/extracellular fluid

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105
Q

Arterioles attach to ____ and direct blood ______ the heart. _____ attach to veins are direct blood ______ the heart.

A
  • Arteries
  • Away from
  • Toward
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106
Q

Hydrostatic pressure, also known as _____ pressure, _____ from arteriole to venule ends of capillaries.

A
  • Blood

- Decreases

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107
Q

What are the two forces acting on plasma?

A
  • Hydrostatic Force/Blood Pressure

- Osmotic pressure

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108
Q

In _____ _____, plasma is pushing against the capillary walls and wanting to escape to the interstitial fluid.

A

Hydrostatic Force

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109
Q

_____ pressure is pressure from the outside going in to the capillaries and is constant.

A

Osmotic

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110
Q

What are the two parts of osmotic pressure?

A
  1. Plasma Proteins

2. Cellular Proteins

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111
Q

Osmotic pressure is exerted by _____.

A

Proteins

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112
Q

What happens to hydrostatic pressure as blood flows from the arteriole end to the venule end of capillary beds?

A

Blood pressure decreases due to the extensive surface area of capillaries

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113
Q

What is the main protein exerting osmotic pressure?

A

Albumin

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114
Q

What is the equation for net osmotic pressure and what does each number mean?

A

28 mmHg (osmotic pressure due to plasma proteins) - 5mmHg (osmotic pressure due to proteins around cells not in the lumen) = 23 mmHg (net osmotic pressure; fluid wanting to get back into blood)

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115
Q

True or False: Plasma proteins can be found in interstitial fluid.

A

False, they remain in the blood

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116
Q

At the arteriole end, hydrostatic pressure is _____ than osmotic pressure. At the venule end, hydrostatic pressure is _____ than osmotic pressue.

A
  • Greater

- Less

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117
Q

_____ pressure is when the fluid goes out of the capillary due to greater hydrostatic pressure. _____ pressure is when the fluid enters the capillary due to greater osmotic pressure.

A
  • Filtration

- Reabsorptive

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118
Q

What is the equation for flow of fluid at the arteriole end?

A

32 mmHg (hydrostatic) - (28-5)(Osmotic) = 9 mmHg of Filtration Pressure

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119
Q

What is the equation for flow of fluid at the venule end of a capillary bed?

A

15 mmHg (hydrostatic) - (28-5)(osmotic) = -8 mmHg of reabsorptive pressure

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120
Q

When hydrostatic pressure is greater than osmotic pressure, fluid is ______ out. When hydrostatic pressure is less, fluid is ______.

A
  • Filtered

- Readsorbed

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121
Q

True or false: Osmotic pressure is greater at the venule end than the arteriole end of a capillary bed.

A

False: Osmotic pressure is constant

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122
Q

What is the underlying principle of capillary blood flow?

A

Microcirculation

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123
Q

What three things can cause abnormal blood flow in capillaries?

A
  1. Traumatic shock
  2. Anaphylactic Shock
  3. Pregnancy
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124
Q

What happens to microcirculation in traumatic shock?

A

Hydrostatic pressure greatly increases at the arteriole end, causing greater filtration. The interstitial space balloons up with an accumulation of interstitial fluid, leading to edema.

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125
Q

What is edema? What can be done to relieve it? What does it mean in greek?

A
  • Accumulation of interstitial fluid
  • You can five a vasodialator to bring the hydrostatic pressure down
  • Swelling
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126
Q

What happens to microcirculation in anaphylactic shock?

A

Osmotic pressure decreases, causing filtration pressure to increase and reabsorptive pressure to decrease.

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127
Q

What is anaphylactic shock due to?

A

It is due to severe allergies. The body releases vasodilators, so the blood vessels get bigger and some plasma proteins can leak into the interstitial fluid.

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128
Q

What happens to microcirculation during pregnancy?

A

Hydrostatic pressure increases at the venule end, causing a decrease in reabsorptive pressure. The gravid uterus pushes veins closed. But the arteries are thick walled with lots of pressure and are not closed off. This causes edema.

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129
Q

True or false: Arteries have more hydrostatic pressure than veins.

A

True

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130
Q

The _____ is the largest artery. The ______ _____ is the largest vein.

A
  • aorta

- vena cava

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131
Q

How do parasites cause edema?

A

Parasites suck up whole blood and plasma proteins. Because of the loss of plasma proteins, osmotic pressure decreases and not much fluid is reabsorped.

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132
Q

Parasites cause edema, resulting in ____ _____.

A

Bottle jaw

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133
Q

What two systems make up the circulatory system?

A

The cardiovascular and lymphatic systems

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134
Q

Some interstitial fluid returns to the blood. Where does the rest go?

A

To the lymphatic system to form lymph.

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135
Q

When there is more filtration than reabsorption, extra interstitial fluid is pick up by the _____ system.

A

Lymphatic

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136
Q

What other capillaries are found in a blood capillary bed?

A

Lymphatic capillaries

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137
Q

_____ cells line lymphatic capillaries and overlap to create valves and allow interstitial fluid in. _____ _____ attach to the outer membrane of the endothelial cells to hold the cells _____.

A
  • endothelial
  • Anchoring filaments
  • open
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138
Q

What do the valves created by endothelial cells lining lymphatic vessels do?

A

Allow extracellular flow into the lymph and large pathogens such as bacteria to enter the lymph

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139
Q

Lymphatic vessels have valves to prevent ______.

A

Backflow

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140
Q

Lymph is composed of what two things?

A
  1. Extracellular fluid

2. Lymphocytes

141
Q

What is not found in lymph?

A

RBC’s and platelets

142
Q

What happens if a lymph vessel breaks?

A

Fluid leaks out, resulting in edema

143
Q

Lymph vessels have smaller _____ and larger ____.

A
  • Nodules

- Nodes

144
Q

Lymphatic flow starts at the _____ _____ and connects to the _____ ____ at the heart to allow lymph to mix with _____.

A
  • Lymphatic capillaries
  • Subclavian vein
  • blood
145
Q

How is lymph returned to the blood stream?

A

Through the right and left subclavian veins

146
Q

Cells in the lymphatic system are called ______. What are the two kinds? How are they activated?

A
  • lymphocytes
  • T and B lymphocytes
  • Activated when they encounter “non-self” such as bacteria
147
Q

Where are lymph nodules and nodes placed?

A

where you’re most likely to get an infection

148
Q

Lymphocytes start in the ____ ____ and end up in the _____.

A
  • Lymph nodes

- Blood

149
Q

What do the lymph nodes and nodules do?

A

Screen and filter the lymph

150
Q

What is Caseous Lymphadentitis?

A

A bacterial infection in lymph nodes of goats and sheep, causing them to swell and form an abscess

151
Q

_____ have a bigger lumen, but _____ are thicker-walled.

A
  • Veins

- arteries

152
Q

Why can blood look brownish after you eat?

A

Because of chylomicrons

153
Q

True or False: Arteries are more superficial.

A

Falls, veins are

154
Q

What are the three layers around a blood vessel?

A

Outer: tunica adventitia
Middle: Tunica media
Inner: Tunica intima

155
Q

The ___ ____ of blood vessels is the outermost layer. The ___ ___ is the innermost layer of endothelial cells, and the ____ ____ is the muscular layer.

A
  • Tunica adventitia
  • Tunica intima
  • Tunica media
156
Q

What is the tunica adventitia made of? What does this structure allow it to do?

A

elastic connective tissue that allows the vessels to stretch and relax

157
Q

What happens to the tunica adventitia of the aorta as blood is pumped out of the heart?

A

As blood is pumped out, the tunica adventitia stretches. It then springs back, closing the valve

158
Q

The tunica media is made of ____ muscle. What two kinds of cells does it contain?

A
  • smooth

- The inner part has circular smooth muscle cells, and the outer part has longitudinal smooth muscle cells

159
Q

Why is the outer longitudinal cells of the smooth muscle of the tunica media at a 90 degree angle to the circular longitudinal cells?

A

To hold the inner layer tightly in place

160
Q

A _____ is a localized enlargement of an artery caused by a weakening of the artery wall.

A

Aneurysm

161
Q

What do elastic tissues do? What do fibrous tissues do?

A
  • Elastic: Rebounds and evens flow

- Fibrous: Tough and resists stretch

162
Q

True or False: All blood vessels have endothelial cells.

A

True

163
Q

Which blood vessels have elastic tissue?

A

Arteries and veins

164
Q

Which blood vessels have smooth muscle?

A

Ateries, arterioles, and veins

165
Q

Which blood vessels have fibrous tissue?

A

Arteries, venules, and veins

166
Q

_____ arteries supply blood to the wall of the heart.

A

Coronary

167
Q

The right coronary artery is ____, while the left has two ______. What are the names of the branches?

A
  • singular
  • branches
  • Left Anterior Descending artery (LAD) and circumflex artery
168
Q

What is the nickname of the LAD artery?

A

The widowmaker

169
Q

What causes a normal heart attack?

A

A plaque grows in the arteries, breaks and forms a blood clot at the site of the break

170
Q

What happens in aterosclerosis?

A

Plaque build-up in the carotid or coronary arteries causing a narrowing of blood vessels so that less blood can get to the heart

171
Q

What are the stages of development of a artherosclerotic lesion?

A

First a fatty streak forms, then an established lesion, then a vulnerable plaque

172
Q

When a monocyte diapedesis, it becomes a ______.

A

Macrophage

173
Q

The main artery that supplies blood to the front wall of the heart, the _____ artery, can get 95% or even 100% blockage, resulting in ______.

A
  • LAD

- Ischemia

174
Q

What is remote myocardial infarction?

A

When an area of the heart has ischemia and causes dead tissue

175
Q

Strokes and heart attacks are positively correlated with _____ and ____ levels.

A
  • LDL

- Cholesterol

176
Q

What do statin drugs such as lipitor do?

A

increase LDL receptors in the liver to decrease blood LDL

177
Q

What two diseases can statins reduce the risk of?

A

Cartiovascular disease and myocardial infarction

178
Q

What does a catheter angiogram do?

A

Uses a dye to find lesions in the blood vessels such as plaques that are concerning

179
Q

An example of a catheter used to examine the heart is a _____ catheter.

A

Pigtail

180
Q

_______ opens bloocked arteries and restores normal blood flow to the heart through use of a stent.

A

Angioplasty

181
Q

______ is the term for a heart valve that doesn’t open properly.

A

Stenosis

182
Q

If a stent doesn’t work, a ______ ______ _____ ____ can be done to provide an alternate route to connect vessels in the heart.

A

Coronary Artery Bypass Graft (CABG)

183
Q

True or False: Plaques are not able to be surgically removed.

A

False, they can be

184
Q

______ and _____ nerves go to the heart to speed it up or slow it down.

A
  • Sympathetic

- Parasympathetic

185
Q

______ monitor pCO2 and pH, and _______ monitor blood pressure.

A
  • chemoreceptors

- baroreceptors

186
Q

When running, _____ increases and ______ decreases. ______ detect this, and tell the heart to work faster.

A
  • pCO2
  • pH
  • Chemoreceptors
187
Q

_____ nerves tell the heart to speed up, while _____ nerves tell the heart to slow down. The vegas nerve is an example of a ______ nerve.

A
  • sympathetic
  • parasympathetic
  • parasympathetic
188
Q

Skeletal muscles in their normal contractions squeeze against _____ and push blood to the _____.

A
  • veins

- heart

189
Q

True or False: The amount of blood in the lungs and body is not 50:50

A

True

190
Q

All parts of the body have ____% of blood, except 60% is in _______ veins.

A
  • 10%

- Systemic

191
Q

Veins open up into little sacs called _____. An example of one of these is the _____. Where is the majority of blood?

A
  • sinuses
  • spleen
  • lumens and sinuses of veins
192
Q

Compared to arteries, what four things do veins have?

A
  1. larger lumen
  2. increased volume
  3. lower blood pressure
  4. lower velocity
193
Q

With the _____ nervous system, you can shift where blood is in the body using capillary beds.

A

-autonomic

194
Q

A ______ is a single layer of flat endothelial cells with a basement membrane.

A

Capillary

195
Q

Where are pericytes found and what do they do?

A
  • Sit periodically along the capillaries
  • May help endothelial cells, involved in angiogenesis, and can bore into an endothelial cell and start capillary formation
196
Q

_________ is the making of new capillary beds.

A

Angiogenesis

197
Q

In the capillary, _____ gives up its oxygen.

A

Hemoglobin

198
Q

A _____ is a short vessel that links arterioles and capillaries.

A

Metarteriole

199
Q

What do metarterioles do?

A
  • They are the main channel through capillaries

- They serve as a vascular shunt wen the precapillary sphincters are closed

200
Q

The precapillary sphincter allows ____ blood through when relaxed and ____ when contracted.

A
  • More

- Less

201
Q

When calculating carcass yield, what do you have to adjust for?

A

Kidney, pelvic, heart fat

202
Q

The aorta arches to the _____ side of the heart.

A

left

203
Q

Which side of the heart is thicker due to more myocardium?

A

Left

204
Q

In car accidents, many people are dead at the scene due to what?

A

aortic transection, in which the heart disattaches from the aorta

205
Q

An ______ _____ ____ occurs when an area of the aorta balloons out. What is it due to?

A
  • Abdominal aortic aneurysm

- Weakness in the wall of the artery

206
Q

What does the sulcus do?

A

It is a groove that separates the ventricles of the heart.

207
Q

What is the path of blood through the heart?

A

Caudal or cranial vena cava –> right atrium –> right atrioventricular valve –> right ventricle –> right semilunar valve –> pulmonary artery –> pulmonary circulation –> pulmonary veins –> left atrium –> left atrioventricular valve –> left ventricle –> left semilunar valve –> aorta

208
Q

What are the four valves in the heart?

A
  1. right atrioventricular valve (tricuspid)
  2. Right semilunar valve (tricuspid)
  3. Left atrioventricular valve/mitral valve (Bicuspid)
  4. Left semilunar valve/aortic valve (tricuspid)
209
Q

Which is the only bicuspid valve in the heart?

A

the Left AV/mitral valve

210
Q

In systemic circulation, arteries are ____ colored and veins are ____ colored. This is opposite in _____ circulation.

A
  • Red
  • Blue
  • Pulmonary
211
Q

True or False: All valves in the body are bicuspid except four tricuspids in the heart.

A

False, the heart has three tricuspids

212
Q

In pulmonary circulation, veins are _____ and arteries are ____ colored.

A
  • Red

- Arteries

213
Q

How many pulmonary veins come from each lung?

A

2

214
Q

Does blood flow into the heart faster from the cranial or caudal vena cava?

A

The cranial due to gravity

215
Q

_____ is heart muscle that composes the walls of the heart. Does the atrium or ventricle have more muscle?

A
  • Myocardium

- Ventricle

216
Q

What is Paroxymal Supraventricular Tachycardia? What does paroxymal mean?

A
  • episodes of rapid heart rate

- paroxymal means sudden recurrence

217
Q

The AV valves point toward the ______. Semilunar valves point toward the _____.

A
  • ventricle

- aorta

218
Q

True or False: AV valves are larger than semilunar valves

A

True

219
Q

What happens to venule blood flow in late pregnency or in right side heart failure? Where does this cause edema?

A
  • There is backflow of the blood, increasing venule blood pressure
  • Causes edema in extemities and legs
220
Q

What happens during left side heart failure?

A

There is backflow of blood into the lungs causing pulmonary edema

221
Q

Why are there a lot of fixed macrophages and mast cells in the lungs?

A

They sit there ready to fight blood clots. A lot of clots end up in the lungs because this is the first capillary bed they hit when they form in systemic circulation and break off

222
Q

What is the danger of treating heart worm in dogs?

A

When you treat it, the heart worms break up into fragments and can end up stuck in the lungs

223
Q

How are pulmonary arterial pressures obtained? What can this be used for?

A
  • A procedure called right heart catherization
  • Used to test bulls for which ones have the best circulation to their lungs so that offspring can adjust to high altitudes
224
Q

____ is contraction of the heart, while ____ is relaxation of the heart.

A
  • Systole

- Diastole

225
Q

What happens to pressure in the aorta during diastole?

A

It oscillates and does not go completely back to zero

226
Q

What happens to the aorta during systole and diastole?

A
  • Systole: stretching of the aorta wall

- Diastole: Elastic connective tissue squeezes aorta back into shape

227
Q

Order these from highest blood pressure to lowest: Aorta, veins, capillary bed

A
  1. Aorta
  2. Capillary bed
  3. Veins
228
Q

A blood pressure reading is ____ over ____ pressure. The pressure is _______ in systole, then stops moving .

A
  • systolic
  • diastolic
  • oscillating
229
Q

_____ is an instrument for measuring blood pressure.

A

Sphygmomanometer

230
Q

How many times during the cardiac cycle are AV valves and semilunar valves opened at the same time?

A

None

231
Q

What are the valves doing when the atria and ventricles are well into the diastole phase?

A

AV valves are open and semilunar valves are closed

232
Q

What valves are open during ventricular systole?

A

Semilunar valves

233
Q

During isovolumetric contraction, what is happening?

A

The ventricles contract with no volume change. All valves are closed.

234
Q

What is the order of ventriclar and atrial systole and diastole?

A

atria systole –> atria diastole –> ventricular systole –> ventricular diastole

235
Q

True or False: Most of the time, the heart is in systole.

A

False, diastole

236
Q

70% of ventricular filling happens in _____.

A

Diastole

237
Q

What are the seven steps of blood filling the heart?

A
  1. Blood flows into the atria. All valves closed.
  2. Greater pressure in the atria compared to the ventricle pushes AV valves open, and blood begins flowing into the ventricle
  3. Ventricular filling
  4. Atria go into systole and squeeze the last bit of blood into the ventriclea
  5. Ventricular pressure pushes AV valves closed. The atria go into diastole, and the ventricle enters isometric systole
  6. The blood pressure in the ventricle pushes the semilunar valves open and blood flows out
  7. Blood ejection continues
238
Q

True or False: The AV valves remain closed until the atria go into systole.

A

False, they open before, and 70% of bloodflow into ventricles occurs before atrial systole

239
Q

What happens to cardiac cells in culture? What happens if the colonies of cells attach to each other?

A
  • They beat on their own

- The colonies beat on the same rhythm

240
Q

What is the normal ejection efficiency of the heart?

A

50-75%

241
Q

Why does the atria contract first, and the ventricle follows?

A

The sinoatrial node (SA node) is located in the wall of the right atrium. Cells here have the fastest intrinsic beat.

242
Q

The SA node is called the _____ of the heart.

A

Pacemaker

243
Q

What are three sources of ejection inefficiency of the heart?

A
  1. Backflow in the atria to close AV valves
  2. Back flow in the ventricle to close semilunar valves
  3. Not all the blood in the ventricle gets squeezed out
244
Q

What is ephaptic conduction in the heart?

A

Cardiac muscle cells in the atria touch each other, so an action potential over once cell automatically progresses to neighboring cells

245
Q

What is sincytial contraction of the heart?

A

Myocardial cells of the atria contract as a mass

246
Q

Where are the fastest beating cells in the heart?

A

At the SA node

247
Q

Do the myocardial cells of the atria and ventricle touch? How does the AP spread?

A
  • They don’t touch

- The AV node bridges the atrium and ventricles to spread the AP

248
Q

Is the left or right ventricle wall bigger? Why?

A

The left ventricle wall is bigger because it pumps blood to systemic circulation

249
Q

How does an AP spread throughout the heart?

A
  1. Begin at SA node
  2. Spread throughout the atria
  3. travels through the AV node to the bundle of HIS
  4. the bundle of HIS divides into left and right branches so the AP travels through these to purkinje fibers in the ventricles
250
Q

True or False: The bundle of HIS, including the left and right branches, and the purkinje fibers are not neurons.

A

True

251
Q

What are two causes of paroxismal supraventricular tachycardia?

A
  1. The AP jumps back across the AV node

2. The AP spreads throughout the purkinje fibers and then returns to the atrium

252
Q

What does a pacemaker do?

A

If the heart beats too slow or irregularly, the pacemaker sets the heartbeat instead of the SA node

253
Q

What is hardware disease in cattle and why is it dangerous and how is it treated?

A
  • Cattle swallow metal and it settles in the reticulum
  • The heart sits close to the reticulum, so the metal could puncture through the reticulum and hit the heart
  • Cows are given a magnet to prevent the metal from puncturing the heart
254
Q

How many cows slaughtered in the US have hardware disease?

A

50-75%

255
Q

What does atropine do? If the heart was under sympathetic control what would it do?

A
  • It blocks the Acetulcholine neurotransmitters of the parasympathetic nervous system to combat slow heart rate.
  • Under sympathetic control of the heart, atropine would have no effect
256
Q

The vagus nerves are _____ nerves.

A

Parasympathetic

257
Q

What is the order of blood flow through a portal system?

A

artery –> capillary bed –> portal vessel –> capillary bed –> vein

258
Q

What are three places a portal system is found

A
  1. between the GI tract and liver
  2. between the hypothalamus and pituitary gland
  3. in the kidney
259
Q

What is the portal system called between the GI tract and liver?

A

The Hepatic Portal System

260
Q

Describe the hepatic portal system.

A

Blood goes from the artery to the first capillary bed in the wall of the GI tract, then to the hepaticlportal vein, then to the second capillary bed in the liver, then to the artery

261
Q

What are four advantages of the hepatic portal vein?

A
  1. cleans/screens blood from the intestine
  2. detoxifies products absorbed in the GI tract
  3. Stores nutrients
  4. Concentrates products between the small intestine and liver
262
Q

What is the enterohepatic loop?

A

This recycles bile. Bile is released from the liver to the small intestine to help absorb food. The bile can be readsorped and go back to the liver.

263
Q

There are over _____ muscles in the body, making up ____ to ___% of body composition.

A
  • 400
  • 40
  • 50
264
Q

____ muscle is the fastest and shortest. ____ muscle is striated. ____ muscle is the slowest and longest.

A
  • skeletal
  • cardiac
  • smooth
265
Q

What three phases does muscle go through when it contracts?

A
  1. latent period
  2. period of contraction
  3. period of relaxation
266
Q

____ muscle is the fastest in all three phases of contraction. ____ muscle is the slowest in all three phases, but hardly ever ____.

A
  • Skeletal
  • Smooth
  • Fatigues
267
Q

Cardiac muscle is sometimes called ______ _____ muscle and is controlled by the _____ nervous system.

A
  • involuntary
  • striated
  • autonomic
268
Q

Which muscle types are striated? Which are involuntary?

A
  • Striated: Cardiac and skeletal

- Involuntary: Cardiac and smooth

269
Q

What are three characteristics of smooth muscle?

A
  1. one nucleus
  2. plasticity
  3. touch neighboring cells by gap junctions so AP’s can spread
270
Q

What do progesterone and estrogen do to gap junctions?

A
  • Progesterone is a pro-gestational hormone that inhibits gap junctions
  • Estrogen increases gap junctions
271
Q

Smooth muscle is controlled by the ____ nervous system. 99% has ____ innervation. Why?

A
  • autonomic
  • visceral
  • Since the cells tounch through gap junctions, you only need a single nerve to spread the AP
272
Q

Why does 1% of smooth muscle need multi-unit innervation?

A

The cells that need this don’t touch and cannot spread the AP, so many nerves are needed.

273
Q

Where is the multi-unit innervation found in the body?

A
  1. tunica media of large arteries
  2. larger passage ways in the lung
  3. ciliary muscle of the iris and lens
  4. hair follicles
274
Q

What is dilated cardiomyopathy?

A

The heart becomes enlarged and cannot pump blood efficiently

275
Q

What happens immediately after atrial diastole?

A

ventricular systole

276
Q

Smooth muscle surrounds hollow structures in the repro and digestive tracts whose contractions lead to ______. _____ ___ are responsible for mixing of food.

A
  • Peristalsis

- Segmented contractions

277
Q

What are three characteristics of cardiac muscle?

A
  1. Striated
  2. cells touch through borders called intercalated discs
  3. one nucleus
278
Q

_____ ____ in the intercalated discs spread the ephaptic conduction in the heart.

A

Gap junctions

279
Q

non-skeletal voluntary striated muscles are still called _____ muscle. What is another name for them? Where is this muscle type found?

A
  • skeletal
  • non-skeletal skeletal muscle
  • Found in outer eye muscles, cutaneous muscles, esophagus, urethra, and anal sphincter
280
Q

Rectus muscle in the eye attaches to the ____ ____. What kind of muscle is this?

A
  • optic nerve

- Non-skeletal skeletal muscle

281
Q

The outer cell membrane of a muscle cell is called the ______. The cytoplasm is called the ______. The endoplasmic reticulum is called the _____.

A
  • sarcolemma
  • sarcoplasm
  • sarcoplasmic reticulum
282
Q

What does sarco mean?

A

Flesh

283
Q

What three things compose the sarcolemma?

A
  1. Sarcolemma Proper
  2. Reticular Fibers
  3. Motor End Plates
284
Q

The ____ _____ ___ are the area of receptors for ACh neurotransmitters from the motor nerve.

A

Motor End Plates

285
Q

How do motor end plates form? What do they participate in?

A
  • The sarcolemma hardens and specializes to form motor end plates
  • Participate in the neuroeffector junction between neurons and muscle
286
Q

The motor end plates have receptors for ________. What does acetylcholinesterase do?

A
  • Acetylcholine

- An enzyme in the motor end plates that break up acetylcholine

287
Q

What happens when ACh binds to receptors in the motor end plate?

A

The AP moves over the sarcolemma

288
Q

Muscle and nerve cells are ____ cells.

A

Bioexcitable

289
Q

What is the latent period of muscle contraction?

A

The period of time from ACh first binds to receptors to when contraction begins

290
Q

True or False: Smooth muscle has the longest latent period and skeletal muscle has the fastest.

A

True

291
Q

What is a motor unit?

A

A single motorneuron and the muscle fibers it innervates

292
Q

Myofibers don’t touch each other, so to spread an AP they need what?

A

a motor end plate

293
Q

The sarcoplasm is filled with tightly packs rod-shaped ______.

A

Myofibrils

294
Q

Muscle fibers have a _____ nucleus location.

A

Peripheral

295
Q

What three things are names for one muscle cell?

A
  1. One muscle fiber
  2. A myofiber
  3. A myocyte
296
Q

True or False: Only some muscle fibers are innervated.

A

False, all are innvervated

297
Q

Eye muscles have a ___:___ muscle to nerve ratio. Hamstrings have a ____:____ muscle to nerve ratio.

A
  • 1:1

- 300:1

298
Q

A myofiber is filled with ____, which is a series of ____ strung end to end.

A
  • Myofibrils

- sarcomeres

299
Q

How many nuclei do myofibers have?

A

They are multinucleated

300
Q

How do myofibers develope?

A

They are first myoblasts that develop into myotubes. The myotube membranes fuse together to form a single multinucleated myofiber.

301
Q

Reticular fibers connect the ____ to _____. What is in these fibers?

A
  • sarcolemma
  • endomysium
  • satellite cells
302
Q

What is the biggest muscle in a whale? What is unique about this muscle?

A
  • longissimus dorsi (80-90 ft long)

- Some myofibers are 80-90 ft long in theis muscle

303
Q

What are the three compartmentalization of muscle fibers?

A
  1. Epimysium is the outermost connective tissue around muscle
  2. Perimysium is connective tissue around the bundles
  3. Endomysium is connective tissue around the muscle fibers
304
Q

What are the three types of arrangements of muscle and give examples.

A
  1. Parallel (abdomen; contract greatest distance and weakest strength)
  2. Fusiform (bicep)
  3. Penniform (sholder blade; contract shortest distance and greatest strength)
305
Q

What are the three subsets of the penniform arrangment of muscle?

A
  1. unipennate
  2. bipennate
  3. multipennate
306
Q

What are the three types of attachements of muscle?

A
  1. Fleshy
  2. Tendons
  3. Origin vs. Insertion
307
Q

What are the six functional groups of muscle?

A
  1. flexor
  2. extensor
  3. adductor
  4. abductor
  5. spincter/circuar
  6. cutaneous
308
Q

Fleshy attachment in muscle is made of _____.

A

Microtendons

309
Q

What are the four types of contraction in muscle?

A
  1. Isometric
  2. Isotonic
  3. Concentric
  4. Ecentric
310
Q

______ muscle contraction means same meter. The muscle contracts but does not shorten. What is an example?

A
  • Isometric

- Postural muscles

311
Q

_____ muscle contraction means same tone. The muscle contracts and shortens.

A

Isotonic

312
Q

What are four factors influencing muscle contraction?

A
  1. Treppe
  2. Summation
  3. Tetany
  4. Fatigue
313
Q

Endomysium in muscle fibers is equivalent to the _____ _____.

A

Basement membrane

314
Q

What are satellite cells and what do they do?

A
  • They are an adult stem cell that can become myocytes, osteocytes, or adipocytes
  • As myocytes, they help repair injured muscle
315
Q

The epimysium, perimysium, and endomysium taper to form _____. This has all three connective tissues without ____ cells/

A
  • tendons

- muscle

316
Q

The _____ arrangement of muscle is spindle shaped.

A

Fusiform

317
Q

______ is the attachment of muscle to a bone that does not move when the muscle shortens. It is normally ______.

A
  • Origin

- Proximal

318
Q

_____ is the attachment of muscle to a moveable bone. It is normally _____.

A
  • Insertion

- Distal

319
Q

Muscles work in antagonistic pairs. Give an example of this.

A

When the bicep relaxes, the tricep is contracted

320
Q

Muscles work in pairs. The ____ ____ does the major work. _____ are additional muscles that help. The _____ is the relaxed muscle that works in the opposite direction.

A
  • Prime mover
  • Synergists
  • Antagonist
321
Q

Flexor and extensor muscles decrease or increase the _____.

A

Angle

322
Q

Adductor muscles move muscle _____. Abductor muscles move muscle ______.

A
  • Medially

- laterally

323
Q

_____ are non-skeletal skeletal muscles that close a lumen.

A

Sphincters

324
Q

______ muscles attach to skin.

A

Cutaneous

325
Q

________ muscle contraction shortens the muscles during force production. ______ muscle contraction produces force but the length of the fibers increase.

A
  • Concentric

- Eccentric

326
Q

________ is the percent of total motor units working and the overall strength of gross muscle.

A

Summation

327
Q

What are other names for treppe? What is treppe? What does it have to do with?

A
  • The Staircase Effect or the Warming up Effect
  • Cold muscles can not contract with the same force as warm muscles
  • Has to to with increasing efficiency of moving calcium within the fiber
328
Q

Summation ______ as the number of motor units turned on increases.

A

Increases

329
Q

When a second stimulus is applied to muscle before it can relax, ______ occurs, and the force of contraction is greater.

A

Summation

330
Q

What are the two meanings of tetany?

A
  1. The symptom of tetanus in which the nerves and muscles are hyperexcitable and cramp and spasm
  2. A state of sustained muscular contraction without periods of relaxation
331
Q

In _______, calcium stays in the sarcoplasm between action potentials and there is continual cross-briding.

A

Tetany

332
Q

True or False: Tetany in muscle contractions is abnormal.

A

False, this is normal muscle contraction

333
Q

A Z line to Z line is a ______. In the center of a this is a _____ filament. Sticking out from the Z line is a ____ filament.

A
  • sarcomere
  • thick
  • thin
334
Q

Thin filaments are made of ______. Thick filaments are made of _______.

A
  • actin

- myosin

335
Q

Do thick and thin filaments change their length during contraction?

A

No, they slide past each other during concentric contraction

336
Q

_____ thin filaments surround a _____ filament.

A
  • 6

- Thick

337
Q

There is a ____:____ ratio of thin filaments to thick filaments.

A

-2:1

338
Q

How many myosin molecules assemble to form a thick filament?

A

296

339
Q

True or False: Thick filaments are only composed of myosin.

A

True

340
Q

When myosin heads of thick filaments tought the thin filaments, what is occuring?

A

Cross-bridging

341
Q

Another name for myosing head is _____.

A

HMM

342
Q

What is the composition of actin in the thin filaments?

A

Alpha helix

343
Q

Each actin sphere has a ______ ______ _____ where the myosin head binds. When _____ is present, these are exposed.

A
  • myosin binding site

- calcium

344
Q

What are the three parts of thin filaments?

A

Actin, troponin, and tropomyosin

345
Q

_____ is the most common protein in cells in the body.

A

Actin

346
Q

______ covers the myosin binding sites when calcium is not present and muscles relax.

A

-Tropomyosin

347
Q

Calcium binds to _____ in the thin filaments. The structure of this is a ______.

A
  • Troponin

- Trimer

348
Q

When calcium binds to troponin, it pulls on _______ to open the myosin binding sites.

A

Tropomyosin

349
Q

The myosin heads are either at a _____ or _____ degree angle. The _____ controlls this.

A
  • 90
  • 45
  • Hinge

Animal Physiology (3 decks)

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