Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Microbiology Exam 3 > Exam 3 > Flashcards

Exam 3 Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

Viruses differ from bacteria in that viruses:

A. Do not have any nucleic acid
B. Are obligate intracellular parasites
C. Are filterable
D. Are not composed of cells

A

D. Are not composed of cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

How is a persistent viral infection different from a latent viral infection?

A. It remains in equilibrium with the host
B. It can be reactivated by immunosuppressive therapy
C. The infectious virus appears suddenly
D. The infectious virus gradually builds up over a long period of time

A

D. The infectious virus gradually builds up over a long period of time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the function of viral spikes?

A

Attachment; which contributes to specificity (tropism)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

The envelope of viruses often serves as protection because it contains spikes that are antigenic. What does the envelope mean in terms of treating viruses?

A

Envelopes are often more susceptible to disinfectants, which may mean that enveloped viruses are easier to treat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the steps of viral replication?

A

Attachment, penetration, uncoating, biosynthesis, maturation and release

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are two ways for viruses to attach and penetrate the host cell?

A

Pinocytosis (after attaching with spikes)

Fusion (requires viral envelope)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What enzyme helps a retrovirus integrate into the host cell genome?

A

Integrase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Why is HIV an exception to viral maturation and release?

A

HIV does not mature until after budding has occurred. Maturation involves cleavage of protein units with proteases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What type of virus is described as remaining in asymptomatic host cell for long periods of time, such as cold sores or shingles?

A

Latent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What type of virus is described as a disease process occurring over a long period of time and is generally fatal such as measles?

A

Persistent (chronic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How is HIV transmitted and how is its transmission unique?

A

HIV is transmitted when infected blood, semen, or vaginal secretions come in contact with broken skin or mucous membranes

Unique because sexual transmission is 100,000x more virulent than other transmission methods due to high number of dendritic cells in mucous membranes and dendritic cells have CCR5 receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What receptors are important for HIV attachment?

A

HIV has a Gp120 spike that attaches to CD4 cells and requires co-receptors CCR5 and CXCR-4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What phase of HIV begins 2-8 weeks after initial infection and patients experience brief flu-like illness followed by rapid multiplication and dissemination of virus throughout the body and stimulation of the immune response?

A

Acute phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What phase of HIV may last from 6 months to 10 years, at which time levels of detectable HIV in blood decrease, although viral replication continues (particularly in lymphoid tissue)

A

Asymptomatic (latent)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What phase of HIV can last for months to years, at which time viral replication continues and numbers of CD4+ cells in blood significantly decrease (resulting in patients developing a variety of illnesses often caused by opportunistic pathogens and AIDS related cancers)

A

Chronic symptomatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What stage of HIV is represented when the immune system is no longer able to defend against the virus

A

AIDS (fourth and final stage)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How is HIV diagnosed? (Most common way, and most sensitive way)

A

Most common: detection of specific anti-HIV antibodies in the blood by ELISA assay followed by confirmation with Western blot technique

Most sensitive: using polymerase chain reaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

The treatment of HIV/AIDS is directed at reducing the viral load, disease symptoms, and treating disease and malignancies. The most successful treatment involves a combination of what types of drugs?

A 
Nucleoside RT inhibitors (AZT)
Nonnucleoside RT inhibitors (delavirdine)
Protease inhibitors (indinavir)
Fusion inhibitors (enfuvirtide)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Why is HIV/AIDS treated with a combination of drugs?

A

Reverse transcriptase is very prone to errors due to poor proofreading mechanisms, this makes it very easy for HIV to develop resistance to treatment very quickly due to viral evolution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the biggest issue with trying to develop an HIV vaccine?

A

Envelope proteins of virus continually change their antigenic properties

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the largest group of known viruses?

A

Double-stranded DNA viruses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Where is the herpesvirus virion envelope derived from?

A

The host’s golgi apparatus membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Where is the herpesvirus latent infection taking place if the viral protein VP16 and host cell factor (HCF) enter the nucleus with the viral genome?

A

epithelial cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Where is the herpesvirus latent infection taking place if VP16 and HCF do not enter the nucleus, resulting in decreased early gene expression and microRNA production?

A

neurons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are the different types of Herpes Simplex presentation?

A

Cold sores aka Fever blisters
Herpes gladiatorum - vesicles on skin
Herpes whitlow - vesicles on fingers
Herpes encephalitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What are all possible names for HHV-1?

A

HSV-1, herpes simplex 1, oral herpes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the cell target for HHV-1?

A

epithelial cells and nerve cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Where does HHV-1 remain latent?

A

Typically in the trigeminal nerve, but it can also remain latent in the vagus nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are some unique features of HHV-1 in terms of signs/symptoms, cell features, and treatment options?

A

Signs/symptoms: cold sores, gingivostomatitis, herpetic keratitis (cornea)

Cell features: multinucleated (used in diagnosis)

Treatment: Acyclovir, education for prevention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are all possible names for HHV-2?

A

HSV-2, herpes simplex 2, genital herpes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the cell target for HHV-2?

A

epithelial cells and nerve cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Where does HHV-2 remain latent?

A

Sacral nerves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What are some unique features of HHV-2 in terms of transmission, signs/symptoms, cell features, and treatment options?

A

Transmission: STD or congenital (associated with high mortality rate)

Signs/symptoms: fever, burning sensation, genital soreness, blisters

Cell features: multinucleated (used in diagnosis)

Treatment: Acyclovir, education for prevention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What are all possible names of HHV-3?

A

Human herpesvirus 3, Chicken Pox (Varicella), Shingles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is the cell target of HHV-3?

A

epithelial cells and nerve cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Where does HHV-3 remain latent?

A

dorsal root ganglia of cranial/sensory nerves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What are some unique features of HHV-3 in terms of reservoir, signs/symptoms, and treatment options?

A

Reservoir: humans

Signs/symptoms: varies from Varicella to Shingles, may have viremia - bloodstream infection

Treatment: vaccination for Varicella, Acyclovir for Shingles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What are all possible names for HHV-4?

A

Ebstein Barr virus (EBV), Infectious mononucleosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is the cell target of HHV-4?

A

B cells and epithelial cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What are some unique features of HHV4 in terms of cell features, complications, and signs/symptoms?

A

Cell features: mononucleated (proliferation of monocytes)

Complications: Oncogenic -> Burkitt’s Lymphoma or nasopharyngeal carcinoma

Signs/symptoms: Often asymptomatic in children, swollen lymph nodes, spleen enlargement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What are all possible names of HHV-5?

A

Human cytomegalovirus (HCMV), Inclusion disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is the cell target of HHV-5?

A

CMV can infect any cell!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Where does HHV-5 remain latent?

A

White blood cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What are some unique features of HHV-5 in terms of cytopathic effects, treatment options, and risk of transmission?

A

Cytopathic effects: causes formation of inclusion bodies in cytoplasm or nucleus of cells

Treatment options: Antiviral therapy

Transmission risks with organ transplants or blood transfusions, can also cross placenta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What are all possible names of HHV-8?

A

Human herpesvirus-8, Kaposi’s Sarcoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is the cell target of HHV-8?

A

Lymphocytes and other cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What are some unique features of HHV-8 in terms of signs/symptoms and complications?

A

Complications: causes Kaposi’s Sarcoma (oncogenic) which is indicated by skin lesion, KS is common in AIDS patients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Which herpes viruses may lead to hepatitis?

A

HHV-4 (EBV) and HHV-5 (CMV)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Almost all forms of Hepatitis have an RNA genome, what type did we learn has a DNA genome?

A

Hepatitis B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Which type of Hepatitis is a current epidemic?

A

Hepatitis C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Which types of Hepatitis are thought to be carcinogenic?

A

Hepatitis B and Hepatitis C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Which types of Hepatitis exist as co-infections?

A

Hep D (with Hep B) and Hep E (with Hep A)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Which types of Hepatitis cause chronic liver disease?

A

B, C, and D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Which types of Hepatitis have vaccines and what type of vaccines are they?

A

Hep A (also covers Hep E) - inactivated HAV

Hep B (also covers Hep D) - recombinant HBV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Which type of hepatitis is characterized by DANE particles as its infectious form?

A

Hep B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What do Hep B, C, and D have in common in terms of transmission?

A

Parenteral transmission possible!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What type of genome is seen with the influenza virus?

A

RNA with segmented genome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What is the reservoir for influenza?

A

numerous animal reservoirs, i.e., swine, birds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What is the difference between hemagglutinin (HA) and neuraminidase (NA) spikes found on influenza virus?

A

HA spikes = attachment
NA spikes = release

Spikes determine influenza subtype

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Why is there a new version of the flu vaccine each year?

A

Antigenic shift and antigenic drift

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Describe antigenic drift

A

occurs due to accumulation of mutations in a strain within a geographic area (more local)

may involve only 1 amino acid

allows virus to avoid mucosal IgA antibodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Describe antigenic shift

A

Changes in HA and NA spikes due to reassortment of genomes when two different strains of flu virus (from humans and animals) infect the same cell and are incorporated into a single new capsid

For example: H1N1 - swine flu, H5N1 - bird flu

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Koplik’s spots are diagnostic for:

A. Rubella
B. Measles
C. Herpes simplex
D. Chickenpox

A

B. Measles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Shingles is caused by the reactivation of the latent organism:

A. Human parvovirus B19
B. Human herpesvirus 3
C. Rubella virus
D. Human herpesvirus 6

A

B. Human herpesvirus 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Which virus infects pregnant women and causes birth defects?

A. Ebstein-Barr virus
B. Cytomegalovirus
C. Hantavirus
D. Marburg virus

A

B. Cytomegalovirus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Ebola virus is transmitted from human to human by:

A. Contact with blood
B. Inhalation
C. Arthropod vector
D. Ingestion

A

A. Contact with blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Describe Measles (Rubeola) virus in terms of genome, transmission, signs/symptoms, and treatment/prevention

A

Enveloped RNA virus transmitted through respiratory tract

Signs/symptoms: initial cough followed by macular rash and Koplik’s spots in the mouth

Treatment/prevention: Symptomatic/supportive therapy, prevention by live-attenuated MMR vaccine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Describe the Mumps virus in terms of genome, clinical manifestations (signs/symptoms), and treatment/prevention

A

Enveloped RNA virus with 16-18 day incubation period

Signs/symptoms: fever and swelling/tenderness of salivary glands (possible complication = meningitis or orchitis)

Treatment/prevention: symptomatic/supportive therapy; live-attenuated MMR vaccine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Describe Rubella (German Measles) virus in terms of genome, transmission, symptoms, complications, and prevention

A

Enveloped RNA virus transmitted through respiratory droplets

Symptoms: mild, brief rash
Complications: Congenital rubella syndrome leading to fetal death, premature delivery, or congenital defects

Prevention: live-attenuated MMR vaccine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Describe Human Papillomavirus in terms of genome, characteristics, transmission, and treatment

A

DNA virus that causes verrucae (horny projections on skin)

Infects epithelium and mucous membranes causing benign epithelial tumors or certain cancers (cervical, pharyngeal)

Transmitted by direct contact and autoinoculation

Treatment: physical destruction (activates immune response), topical medications, or injection of IFN-alpha

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Which type of HPV do we have a vaccine for?

A

HPV 16, which should protect against 80-100% of cervical cancers and other cancers (pharyngeal)

18 is also carcinogenic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Describe Polio virus in terms of genome, characteristics, and clinical signs/symptoms

A

Plus(+) strand RNA enterovirus with 3 subtypes offering no cross-immunity

Very stable in food and water; multiplies in throat and intestinal mucosa

Usually asymptomatic or brief, mild illness. Viremia sometimes occurs and persists as virus enters CNS causing paralytic polio (rare)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Describe preventative measures against Polio

A

Two types of vaccine:
IPV is dead strain and injected (U.S.)

OPV is live-attenuated and taken orally - high risk of reversion leading to active polio infection. It is cheaper to make and administer and is used in developing countries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Describe Ebola in terms of genome, reservoir, transmission, characteristics, and potential treatment

A

Negative(-) strand RNA virus with ~80% mortality rate

Reservoir: fruit bats

Transmission: direct-contact with Ebola victim, body fluids, or clinical samples

Characteristics: internal hemorrhage

No treatment available; potential treatment could be antibodies from survivors of Ebola

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What are symptoms and complications of Zika?

A

Fever, rash, joint pain, conjunctivitis

Complications: GBS, microcephaly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Describe modes of transmission for Zika

A

Primarily through Aedes mosquitoes, the same kind that spread dengue and chikungunya

Also spread from mother-to-child, through sexual contact, or through blood transfusions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Prions are misfolded and highly stable; their mode of disease production is still not well understood. What is the current accepted model of disease production by prions?

A

PrP(sc) causes PrP(c) to CHANGE ITS CONFORMATION to the abnormal form; newly produced PrP(sc) molecules convert other normal molecules to abnormal forms, causing NEURODEGENERATIVE DISEASE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What is the most common form of TSE in humans?

A

CJD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Generally, in an infection caused by a DNA-containing virus, the host animal cell supplies all of the following except:

A. RNA polymerase
B. Nucleotides
C. DNA polymerase
D. tRNA

A

C. DNA polymerase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

True or false: co-infection with HIV and HHV-8 can greatly promote the development of cancer in AIDS patients

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

True or false: hepatitis can be caused by cytomegalovirus and Ebstein-Barr virus

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Women of childbearing age should be vaccinated against:

A. Cytomegalovirus
B. Varicella virus
C. Rubella virus
D. Ebstein-Barr virus

A

C. Rubella virus

*We do not have a vaccine for Cytomegalovirus or EBV. Varicella in pregnancy would be treated with Acyclovir

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Which of the following is a prion disease of humans associated with cannibalism?

A. CJD
B. Kuru
C. CJD and Kuru
D. None of the above

A

B. Kuru

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Using a homemade saline solution for contact lenses can result in:

A. Acanthamoeba keratitis
B. Trachoma
C. Ophthalmia neonatorum
D. Inclusion conjunctivitis

A

A. Acanthamoeba keratitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Trypanosoma brucei is transmitted by:

A. Tsetse fly
B. Body lice
C. Houseflies
D. Head lice

A

A. Tsetse fly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Chaga’s disease is caused by:

A. Toxoplasma gondii
B. Trypanosomiasis cruzi
C. Plasmodium vivax
D. Leishmania donovani

A

B. Trypanosomiasis cruzi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Anopheles is the vector for the disease:

A. Babesiosis
B. Schistosomiasis
C. Malaria
D. Swimmer’s itch

A

C. Malaria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Which organism is a flagellate protozoan that is able to attach firmly to a human’s intestinal wall?

A. Giardiasis lamblia
B. Entamoeba histolytica
C. Cyclospora cayetanensis
D. Cryptosporidium hominis

A

A. Giardia lamblia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What organism produces cysts that contaminate food and water and cause dysentary?

A. Cyclospora cayetanensis
B. Giardia lamblia
C. Entamoeba histolytica
D. Asergillus flavus

A

C. Entamoeba histolytica

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

The only protozoan that causes an STI, which affects mostly women is:

A. Trichomonas vaginalis
B. Gardnerella vaginalis
C. Mycoplasma hominis
D. Haemophilus ducreyi

A

A. Trichomonas vaginalis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Which stage of the plasmodium protozoan infects the RBCs of humans?

A. Schizont
B. Merozoite
C. Sporozoite
D. Gametocyte

A

B. Merozoite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Currently the most promising method to control malaria is:

A. Antibiotics
B. Vaccine
C. Bed nets
D. Chloroquine

A

C. Bed nets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Why are protists considered difficult to treat?

A

They are eukaryotic, so differentiating treatments between animal cells and their cells is difficult

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Euglenozoa are hemoflagellates associated with which two protozoan diseases?

A

Trypanosoma cruzi: Chaga’s disease

Trypanosoma gambiense and Trypanosoma rhodesiense: African sleeping sickness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Trypanosomes have a unique appearance under the microscope; they are large and move in a spiral-twisting motion using flagella. What is an important virulence factor of trypanosomes?

A

They have the ability to undergo antigenic variation by changing their protein coat (thick glycoproteins layer coating cell wall) which allows them to evade the immunologic response and we cannot develop a vaccine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

What are the vectors for african sleeping sickness and chaga’s disease?

A

African sleeping sickness: tsetse fly

Chaga’s disease: kissing bug

Reservoirs include cattle and other animals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Involvement of what system makes the treatment of African trypanosomiasis difficult?

A

CNS, because arsenic must be used to allow compounds across the blood brain barrier

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

What is the difference between transmission of African sleeping sickness and Chaga’s disease?

A

African sleeping sickness is caused by the bite of the tsetse fly (metacyclic trypanomastigotes present in salivary glands of fly)

Chaga’s disease is caused by the kissing bug defecating into its bite, where the trypanosome moves through the bloodstream, enters cells, and becomes obligate intracellular parasite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Leishmaniasis is caused by flagellated protists and can be transmitted by what means?

A

Sand flies or Parentaral route - blood transfusions causing cutaneous infection

Reservoir is mammals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

What is unique about the life cycle of Leishmania parasite?

A

Injected by sandfly as promastigote which is then phagocytized by host macrophages where it transforms into amastigote and multiplies

Sandfly picks up these macrophages with blood meal; amastigotes transform into promastigotes in midgut of fly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

How do Entamoeba and acanthamoeba move?

A

Pseudopods, or false feet typical of amoeba

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

What organ system gets damaged by Entamoeba histolytica?

A

Small intestines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

What mode of transmission is used by Entamoeba histolytica?

A

Fecal/oral, typically vehicle involved

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Entamoeba histolytica is an obligate intracellular parasite causing what?

A

Amoebic dysentary (bloody diarrhea)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Amebic dysentary infection is caused by what?

A

Ingestion of mature cysts from fecally contaminated food, water, or hands; or from fecal exposure during sexual contact

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

What is the etiological agent of malaria?

A

Plasmodium (four species - each cause different degree of severity)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

What is the method of transmission for malaria?

A

Female anopheles mosquitos

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

What protozoan disease is associated with transmission from animal reservoirs, recreational water, and daycares by ingestion of cysts?

A

Cryptosporidiosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Cryptosporidium is concerning for what population?

A

Immunocompromised; AIDs and HIV patients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

What method of movement does Giardia lamblia use?

A

Multiple flagella found on the end of the organism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

How do people become infected with giardiasis?

A

Drinking fresh water that has become contaminated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

Describe the motility of toxoplasma Gondi

A

Apicomplexan (nonmotile)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

What is the reservoir and method of transmission of Toxoplasma gondii?

A

Reservoir: wild rodents, birds, small mammals

Transmission: fecal/oral from infected animals, cat litter; also by ingestion of undercooked meat

114
Q

Describe the life cycle of Toxoplasma gondii

A

Immature oocyst is shed in cat feces which then undergoes sporogony and matures to contain sporocytes which contain sporozoites - these can be transferred to humans by a variety of ways (cat litter, mice, food)

Sporozoites from ingested oocysts invade animal tissue and develop into bradyzoites within tissue cysts or into tissue-invading tachyzoites

115
Q

The unicellular form of fungi is ________; the multicellular form is ________

A

Yeast; mold

116
Q

What characteristic feature of fungi is important in identification?

A

Sexual and asexual spores

117
Q

How are fungal spores different from bacterial spores?

A

Fungal spores are used for reproduction. They are not like bacterial spores in that they are not resistant to things like UV light, chemicals, heat, etc.

118
Q

Unicellular fungi can divide symmetrically by _______, or asymmetrically by __________

A

Symmetrically = fission

Asymmetrically = budding

119
Q

Pathogenic dimorphic fungi are yeastlike at ______ temperature and mold-like at _______ temperature

A

Yeastlike at body temperature (37 C)

Mold-like at room temperature (25 C)

120
Q

Which of the fungal diseases is known for being an obligate intracellular parasite?

A

Microsporidia

121
Q

Which fungal disease involves insertion of the polar tubule and is dangerous for AIDS/HIV patients?

A

Microsporidia

122
Q

Where are systemic mycoses found?

A

Deep within the body (oftentimes due to inhalation)

123
Q

Where are cutaneous mycoses found?

A

Hair, skin, and nails

124
Q

What are opportunistic mycoses?

A

They care caused by normal microbiota or environmental fungi and may be seen as nosocomial infections, or when they are not kept in check by other microbes

125
Q

Describe blastomycosis in terms of dimorphism (Y/N), mode of transmission, and symptoms

A

Blastomycosis is dimorphic

Systemic transmission (inhalation)

Spreads to skin causing cutaneous ulcers and abscesses

126
Q

Coccidiomycosis is diagnosed by demonstration of what characteristic?

A

Large spherule found in patient sample

127
Q

Cocciodiomycosis is dimorphic and prevention involves avoiding exposure to ______

A

Dust

128
Q

Which of the fungal diseases has CNS involvement, since it leads to meningitis?

A

Cryptococcosis

129
Q

What diagnostic characteristic is looked for when diagnosing cryptococcosis?

A

Encapsulated yeast - the capsule allows the organism to avoid phagocytosis by alveolar macrophages in the lungs

130
Q

What is the difference between the transmission of cryptococcosis and histoplasmosis?

A

Cryptococcosis is inhaled from pigeon droppings, whereas histoplasmosis is associated inhalation of dirt/dust that was fertilized with with bird or bat droppings

Note that birds cannot be hosts of histoplasmosis because it requires a particular body temperature

131
Q

What are the common hosts of histoplasmosis?

A

Humans and bats

132
Q

Describe the following cutaneous mycoses in terms of where they are found

Tinea capitis
Tinea pedis
Tinea unguium
Tinea cruris
Tinea barbae
Tinea corporis
A 
Capitis = scalp hair
Pedis = athlete's foot
Unguium = nailbed
Cruris = jock itch
Barbae = beard hairs
Corporis = smooth or bare parts of skin
133
Q

Which of the fungal diseases is a class I known carcinogen and causes the lungs to fill with mycelia?

A

Aspergillosis

134
Q

What type of fungal infection is aspergillosis?

A

Opportunistic

135
Q

Which of the opportunistic fungal infections can be sexually transmitted?

A

Candidiasis

136
Q

True or false: diagnosis of candidiasis is difficult and there are no satisfactory treatments

A

True

137
Q

Which of the fungal diseases is NOT found more often in immunocompromised patients?

A

Blastomycosis

138
Q

What are the reservoirs of microsporidia?

A

Domestic and feral animals

139
Q

Which of the fungal diseases occurs almost exclusively in immunocompromised hosts?

A

Pneumocystis pneumonia (PCP)

140
Q

Most systemic mycoses are acquired from:

A. Insect vectors
B. Puncture wounds
C. Inhaling spores
D. Contact with bodily fluids

A

C. Inhaling spores

141
Q

Which of the following is NOT caused by a protozoan?

A. Cryptococcosis
B. Sleeping sickness
C. Cryptosporidiosis
D. Giardiasis

A

A. Cryptococcosis

142
Q

In humans, cryptococcus grows as a:

A. Mold
B. Yeast
C. Dimorphism
D. Mycelium

A

B. Yeast

143
Q

Vaccines are not effective against trypanosomiasis because:

A. The organisms are obligate intracellular parasites, therefore are never exposed to the immune system
B. The organism is only weakly antigenic
C. The organism can change its protein coat and thereby evade the immune response
D. All of the above

A

C. The organism can change its protein coat and thereby evade the immune response

144
Q

True or false: Candida albicans is normally found in the vagina but does not usually cause disease because of the acidic pH created by the lactobacilli prevents their overgrowth

A

True

145
Q

What is one of the most common antifungal treatments and how does it work?

A

Amphotericin B - binds sterols in membranes

146
Q

Tamiflu is an anti-influenza agent that shortens the course of the flu, what is its mechanism of action?

A

Neuraminidase inhibitor

147
Q

What is the mechanism of action of acyclovir?

A

Inhibits herpes virus DNA polymerase

148
Q

What is the prodrug form of acyclovir?

A

Valacyclovir

149
Q

What are the 3 targets of HIV drugs?

A

Reverse transcriptase inhibitors (nucleoside and nonnucleoside)

Protease inhibitors

Fusion inhibitors

150
Q

Chloroquine and Mefloquine are used to treat ________

A

Malaria

151
Q

__________ is the predominate form of food spoilage for foods made up primarily of carbohydrates. It works by degrading the carbs by ___________

A

Mold; hydrolysis

152
Q

__________ is the predominate form of food spoilage for foods made up primarily of proteins or fats. Its primary mechanism is ___________

A

Bacterial growth; putrefication

153
Q

A low pH favors what type of food spoilage?

A

Yeast and mold

154
Q

In terms of antimicrobial substances, _______ exists in cow’s milk and eggs

A

Lysozyme

155
Q

Do lower or higher temperatures slow microbial growth?

A

Lower

156
Q

Does lower or higher humidity promote bacterial growth?

A

Higher humidity

157
Q

In terms of atmosphere, does high or low oxygen content promote microbial growth? What discovery did this lead to?

A

High oxygen promotes microbial growth, which led to the discovery of shrink wrapping foods for freshness

158
Q

How does adding nitrites act as a food preservative?

A

Nitrites prevent the germination of any spores that are present

It is not meant to control microbial growth in general, it is specific for spore germination (prevents things like botulism)

159
Q

High hydrostatic pressure works to preserve some foods without significantly altering their temperature; it is highly detrimental to the cell _______ and is effective at eliminating ___________ microbes

A

Membranes; eukaryotic

160
Q

High hydrostatic pressure is not effective at eliminating ______________ microbes due to their _______________

A

Gram-positive; thick peptidoglycan content

161
Q

Define food-borne infection and give possible sources

A

Ingestion of a pathogen, followed by growth, tissue invasion, and/or release of toxins

Possible sources: raw foods like sprouts, raspberries, and seafood

162
Q

Which food-borne bacteria is gram-negative, causes fever, and is associated with poultry, shellfish, green onions, lettuce, mushrooms, potatoes, peppers, and spinach?

A

C. jejuni

163
Q

Staph aureus, Bacillus cereus, Clostridium perfringens, and Clostridium botulinum all have what in common?

A

Gram-positive

164
Q

What gram-positive food-borne infection is a cause for concern in pregnant women, the young and old, and immunocompromised individuals? Hint: it was responsible for the largest meat recall in the US and at-risk people should not eat soft cheese, refrigerated smoked meats, deli meats, or under-cooked hot dogs

A

Listeriosis

165
Q

Define food-borne intoxication and give examples

A

Ingestion of toxins in foods in which microbes have grown; produce symptoms shortly after food is consumed because growth of disease-causing microorganism is not required

Examples: staphylococcal, botulism, Clostridium perfringens, B. Cereus

166
Q

The majority of fermented milk products rely on _____________ bacteria which are gram-positives that tolerate acidic conditions. They are non-spore forming, aerotolerant, and strictly fermentative

A

Lactic acid

167
Q

What generalized three steps produce chocolate flavor?

A

Fermentation, drying, and roasting

168
Q

What are the 2 primary acids produced during cocoa fermentation and which one is responsible for most of the chocolate flavor?

A

Lactic acid and acetic acid

Acetic acid penetrates and activates hydrolytic enzymes leading to flavor development

169
Q

In order of increasing time cocoa is fermenting, name the byproducts. Name the byproduct that is at a steady low state throughout the process

A

Yeast, Lactic acid bacteria, acetic acid, spore-forming bacteria

Filamentous fungi are at low level throughout

170
Q

Which byproducts of cocoa fermentation contribute to off-flavor (bad chocolate flavor)?

A

Spore-forming bacteria (Bacillus species) and filamentous fungi

171
Q

Do the following increase or decrease throughout the fermentation process?

Sucrose
Citric acid
pH
Ethyl alcohol
Acetic acid
A 
Sucrose decreases
Citric acid decreases
pH increases
Ethyl alcohol increases
Acetic acid increases
172
Q

Why is yeast growth during fermentation not surprising?

A

Acidic pH (4-6) and high sugar content at the start of fermentation are conducive to the growth of yeast

173
Q

What byproduct of cocoa fermentation plays a role in ethanol production, breakdown of citric acid (increased pH), and the production of organic acids, volatiles, and pectinolytic enzymes?

A

Yeast

174
Q

Conditions generated by yeast favor the growth of …

A

Lactic acid bacteria

175
Q

Aeration of the fermentation mass favors _____ bacteria. Oxidation of ethanol is key!

A

Acetic acid

176
Q

Which two probiotics are credited with helping to minimize lactose intolerance, improving general intestinal health and balance, lowering serum cholesterol, and potential anti-tumor activity?

A

Lactobacillus acidophilus and Bifidobacterium

177
Q

Genetic engineering involves the deliberate modification of an organism’s genetic information by directly changing the sequence of nucleic acids in its genome using _________________ technology

A

Recombinant DNA

178
Q

What are the 4 steps in generating recombinant DNA?

A
  1. Isolate DNA to be cloned
  2. Use a restriction enzyme or PCR to generate fragments of DNA
  3. Generate a recombinant molecule by inserting DNA fragments into a cloning vector
  4. Introduce recombinant molecule into new host which expresses the gene
179
Q

What key development in recombinant DNA technology recognizes and binds specific sequences in DNA known as recognition sites, then cleaves DNA at that site or a defined distance from it?

A

Restriction enzymes

180
Q

cDNA synthesis involves synthesis of a double stranded DNA from ______ using __________

A

mRNA; reverse transcriptase

181
Q

Gel electrophoresis is used to separate molecules based on their ________ and __________ using agarose or acrylamide gels

A

Charge; molecular weight

182
Q

DNA is _______ and ______ charged; it migrates from the ________ to the _______ end of the gel

A

Acidic; negatively; negative; positive

183
Q

What is the term for the method of amplifying a specific segment of a DNA molecule within a complex mixture of DNA?

A

Polymerase chain reaction

184
Q

What 4 things are contained within a PCR reaction mix?

A

Primers
Target DNA
Thermostable DNA polymerase
dNTPs

185
Q

What type of cloning vector is most commonly used?

A

Plasmids

186
Q

What type of cloning vector can carry the largest DNA inserts?

A

Artificial chromosomes, specifically YACs

187
Q

What is the biggest reason that YACs are chosen instead of BACs as vectors for creating recombinant DNA?

A

YACs are yeast, so they are eukaryotic and are able to maintain/recognize post-translational modification that happens in eukaryotic cells, making it a better model system than bacteria

188
Q

What are the 3 requirements for a DNA vector?

A

An origin of replication
A selectable marker
A multi cloning site or polylinker

189
Q

The Blue-White screen allows you to more easily find genes of interest. When looking at the resulting screen transformants, how do you tell which colonies contain our recombinant plasmids?

A

They appear white!

190
Q

On the blue-white screen, what are the blue colonies?

A

Original plasmids, they do not contain the recombinant plasmids of interest

all colonies on the plate are ampicillin resistant

191
Q

What type of cloning vectors are engineered genomes previously modified to include restriction sites?

A

Phage vectors (These have undergone lysogeny!!)

192
Q

What is the difference between the genomic library and cDNA library, and how is each one useful?

A

Genomic library contains DNA from nucleus - contains everything in genome

cDNA starts with mRNA, so it only includes genes that are being expressed - gives you an idea of which genes are on/off

193
Q

What must recombinant genes have so that they are recognized by the host RNA polymerase?

A

A promoter

194
Q

During His-tagging, why is the buffer wash step so important?

A

It gets rid of all the nonspecific, unbound proteins as well as other cellular material

195
Q

During His-tagging, how is the purified protein of interest released from the column?

A

A solution of Imidazole

196
Q

What are RNAi’s?

A

RNAi = interfering RNA’s which are short, mirror-image fragments recognized by cellular enzymes, signaling degradation of RNAi and anything similar to it

197
Q

What is the basis of CRISPR?

A

RNA is used as a guide to bring a nuclease to a specific DNA sequence to alter it

198
Q

What is the difference between RNAi and CRISPR technology in terms of what is being altered?

A

RNAi’s alter gene expression (RNA)

CRISPR alters the genes themselves (DNA)

199
Q

The CRISPR associated (cas) gene operon contains _____ and ______

A

Tracr RNA and the CRISPR array

200
Q

What are the two putative nuclease domains associated with cas9?

A

HNH and RuvC

201
Q

TracrRNA is essential for maturation of crRNA by _____ and ________

A

Cas9; ribonuclease III

202
Q

What type of compounds are used for emulsification, increasing detergency, wetting and phase dispersion, and solubilization?

A

Biosurfactants

203
Q

True or false: biosurfactants are important in oil spill recovery, and may also have antibacterial/antifungal/antiviral properties

A

True

204
Q 
Movement of charged molecules in an electrical field, which is used to separate nucleic acid fragments for recombinant DNA work? 
A. Reverse transcripatase 
B. Southern blotting
C. Electrophoresis
D. Plasmaphoresis
A

C. Electrophoresis

205
Q

The thermostable enzyme most commonly used in PCR is reverse transcriptase. True or false?

A

False

206
Q 
In order to express eukaryotic genes in a bacterium, the \_\_\_\_ must first be removed
A. Introns
B. Exons
C. Enhancers
D. 3' poly A sequence
A

A. Introns

207
Q 
Recombinant DNA technology does not rely on which of the following enzymes?
A. Restriction endonucleases
B. RNA methylase 
C. DNA ligase
D. Reverse transcriptase
A

RNA methylase

208
Q

Restriction endonucleases in bacteria may have evolved in order to
A. Carry out natural genetic engineering
B. Protect the bacteria from infection by viruses
C. Use nucleic acids as food (energy) source
D. All of the above

A

B. Protect the bacteria from infection by viruses

209
Q 
Complementary DNA (cDNA) probes are produced using
A. Restriction endonucleases 
B. RNA polymerase 
C. DNA ligas
D. Reverse transcriptase
A

D. Reverse transcriptase

210
Q 
A \_\_\_\_\_\_ is a DNA molecule used in hybridization reactions to detect the presence of a particular gene in separated DNA fragments
 A. Plasmid
B. Vector
C. Probe
D. Blot
A

C. Probe

211
Q 
Restriction endonucleases are produced by
A. Fungi
B. Bacteria
C. Protozoa 
D. Plants
E. all of the above
A

B. Bacteria

212
Q

The production of large quantities of a particular DNA sequence is known as gene _______.

A

Amplification

213
Q

The three steps that take place in each cycle during PCR occur in which order?
A. DNA annealing, denaturation, and synthesis.
B. DNA denaturation, annealing, and synthesis
C. DNA synthesis, denaturation, and annealing
D. None of the above

A

B. Denaturation, annealing, synthesis

214
Q

Which of the following is NOT true of cloning vectors?
A. They usually contain multicloning sites or polylinkers
B. They contain at least two origins of replication
C. They can be replicated within an appropriate host
D. All of these are true of cloning vectors

A

B. They contain at least two replication origins

215
Q

Plasmid vectors often contain ______ genes that can be used to screen for recombinants

A

Antibiotic resistance

216
Q

Antibiotics incorporated into the culture medium can do what?

A

Select against organisms that have not incorporated the plasmid.

217
Q

T/F promoters for genes that code for proteins can be isolated from a cDNA library

A

False

218
Q

T/F some plasmid vectors have incorporated the regulatory sequences of the lac operon so that the expression of the recomnbinant gene can be induced at the appropriate time

A

True

219
Q

What biofuel can be produced from degradation of plant starches in corn by amylases and amyloglucosidases, followed by microbial fermentation of sugars?

A

Ethanol

220
Q

What are some disadvantages to Ethanol use?

A

Drives up production of food prices
Absorbs water and can’t be shipped through existing pipelines
Less energy in its bonds than other molecules
Not carbon-neutral

221
Q

What is an advantage to using ethanol as a biofuel?

A

Ethanol can be used directly or it can be added to existing petroleum-based fuels

It can also be made using crop residues (waste material) so that food production costs don’t increase

222
Q

What is an advantage to hydrogen gas as a biofuel?

A

It has 3x more potential energy per unit weight than gasoline, making it the highest energy-content fuel available

223
Q

What are the two biggest problems associated with hydrogen gas as a biofuel?

A

It is flammable, so the biggest problems are storage and distribution

224
Q

How might hydrogen gas be produced as a biofuel?

A

It can be produced as a direct product of fermentation using hydrogenase and nitrogenase enzymes

225
Q

When making hydrogen gas, why does production slow down as you get more product?

A

Negative feedback mechanism

226
Q

The _____________ is produced during sporulation of Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) as an intracellular protein toxin crystal which acts as a microbial ________ for specific groups of insects

A

Parasporal body; insecticide

227
Q

The Bt toxin binds to phospholipids and inserts into the membranes of cells in the ___________ pH of the insect ________

A

Alkaline; hindgut

228
Q

After Bt toxin causes aggregation and pore formation in the cells of the insect hindgut, there is efflux of ______ ion and ________, which disrupts the ability to form action potentials. This leads to gut _______, starvation, and __________

A

Potassium, ATP, paralysis, explosion

229
Q

Why are products treated with Bt not dangerous to humans?

A

The Bt toxin is specific to the alkaline pH of the hindgut of certain insects, it would not activate in the human body pH and it would not be specific to our cells

230
Q

What part of the multiple tube fermentation test for the sanitary analysis of water determines the MPN?

A

The presumptive step (step 1)

231
Q

What indicates a positive result for the presumptive step of the multiple tube fermentation test?

A

Phenol red broth turns yellow and gas production is seen

232
Q

What process uses microbes to transform toxic molecules to nontoxic degradation products and what is an example?

A

Bioremediation

Ex: Reductive dehalogenation

233
Q

During bioremediation, it is necessary to supply ________________ at the site, such as nitrogen and phosphorus so that co-metabolism can occur

A

Limiting factors

234
Q

What type of microbes would you add to an area that has experienced an oil spill?

A

Microbes that naturally produce surfactants

235
Q

What two organisms have a limiting effect on surfactant-producing microbes added after an oil spill?

A

Phage-mediated lysis and protozoan predation

236
Q

After surfactant-producing microbes have been added to an oil spill and primary oil degradation has occurred, the degradation intermediates are taken up by what?

A

Secondary consumers

237
Q

Describe the life cycle of plasmodium

A
  1. Mosquito injects sporozoites (infectious form)
  2. Sporozoites become schizont, then merozoites in the liver hepatocytes
  3. Merozoites infect RBCs and are released when RBC ruptures
  4. Merozoites become trophozoites then mature gametocytes
  5. Gametocytes are ingested by mosquito
238
Q

What is the infectious form of malaria in the plasmodium life cycle?

A

Sporozoites

239
Q

What form of plasmodium is present in human hepatocytes?

A

Merozoites

240
Q

A ____-strand viral genome can be used right away, but a _____-strand viral genome needs to be transcribed first

A

+ strand (sense)

  • strand (antisense)
241
Q

3 examples of viruses with latent infection

A

HIV, shingles, hepatitis

242
Q

What type of drug targets the maturation of HIV?

A

protease inhibitor

243
Q

Which herpes virus is the biggest pregnancy concern

A

CMV

244
Q

Which forms of herpes are carcinogenic?

A

EBV, HHV8, CMV

245
Q

True or false: HPV has over 150 strains, but not all are oncogenic

A

true

246
Q

mode of transmission for polio

A

fecal-oral

247
Q

Of all the viruses, which ones have the greatest pregnancy concerns?

A 
CMV
Rubella
Zika
HIV
HSV2
248
Q

Differentiate the different causes of CJD:

Familial
Sporadic
Iatrogenic
Variant

A 
Familial = genetic
Sporadic = Unknown cause
Iatrogenic = surgery/transplant
Variant = consumption of contaminated meat
249
Q

Differentiate between coccidiomycosis, cryptosporidium, cryptococcosis, and cyclospora in general

A

Coccidiomycosis and cryptococcosis are fungal diseases

Cryptosporidiosis and cyclospora are protozoan diseases caused by ingestion of cysts

250
Q

What are the 2 opportunistic fungi we learned about?

A

aspergillosis and candidiasis (thrush)

251
Q

what causes pneumocystis pneumonia?

A

microsporidia

252
Q

In protists that cause diarrhea, what specifically causes the diarrhea?

A

ingestion of cysts

253
Q

What 4 protists cause diarrhea?

A

Giardia
Entamoeba histolytica
Cryptosporidium
Cyclospora

254
Q

Are any of the fungi that we learned about vector borne?

A

NO

255
Q

What is the one virus we learned that is vector-borne?

A

Zika

256
Q

What 4 protozoan diseases are vector-borne?

A

Malaria
African Sleeping Sickness
Chagas Disease
Leishmaniasis

257
Q

anemia results from which vector-borne protozoal disease?

A

malaria

258
Q

A women presents for her annual physical exam and while doing her GU exam you see that she has what is known as a “strawberry cervix”, what STI does this woman have?

A

trichomoniasis

259
Q

What pH is favored by bacteria?

A

neutral

260
Q

The position of a multi-cloning site is located within a ______ gene for the blue-white screen, which has beta-glucosidase enzyme activity and provides a chromogenic substrate for our bacteria

A

lacZ

261
Q

Where does Bt toxin come from?

A

Bacillus thuringiensis

262
Q

What is Bt toxin for/how is it beneficial?

A

It provides an insecticide that does not accumulate in the environment

263
Q

How is Bt toxin activated?

A

By the alkaline hindgut of the insect followed by proteolysis

264
Q

What color do gram positive cells stain?

A

purple

265
Q

What color do gram negative cells stain?

A

pink or red

266
Q

Which type of bacterial cell has a thicker layer of peptidoglycan and techoic acids in its cell wall?

A

Gram positive

267
Q

Which type of bacterial cell has a thinner peptidoglycan cell wall and includes an outer membrane?

A

Gram negative

268
Q

Which type of bacterial cell tends to be more resistant to antibiotics?

A

gram negative

269
Q

Since bacterial cells replicate by binary fission, what are some possible sources of genetic variation?

A
  • Mutation
  • Horizontal gene transfer through conjugation
  • Transduction
  • Transformation
270
Q 
Which of the following is not a method of genetic variation used in bacteria?
A. Mutation
B. Opsonization
C. Transduction
D. Transformation
A

B. Opsonization

271
Q

What is unique about prokaryotic transcription and translation as it compares to eukaryotic?

A

Prokaryotic transcription/translation all happens simultaneously since there are no organelles, everything is located in the cytoplasm

272
Q

In terms of viral genome integration, or __________, these strains are often pathogenic because ________ has occurred

A

lysogeny; transduction

273
Q

Define the symbiotic relationship: Commensalism

A

One organism benefits while the other is unaffected/unharmed

274
Q

Define the symbiotic relationship: Mutualism

A

Both organisms benefit

275
Q

Define the symbiotic relationship: Parasitism

A

One organism benefits at the expense of the other (host is harmed)

276
Q

Functions of lysozyme as an antimicrobial secretion

A

Hydrolyzes bond connecting sugars in peptidoglycan

277
Q 
Which host defense is more effective against gram positive bacteria than gram negative bacteria?
A. Mucus
B. Sebum
C. Gastric juice
D. Lysozyme
A

D. Lysozyme

Because of thicker layer of peptidoglycan, it will have a greater impact – gram negative are protected by outer membrane

278
Q

What are some mechanisms for drug resistance?

A

Efflux pumps
Mutation in target protein
Degradation
Enzymatic inactivation

279
Q

What is an example of a drug target for enzymatic inactivation?

A

beta-lactamases for penicillin

280
Q

Describe endotoxins in terms of their source, metabolic product, chemical make-up, ability to cause fever, ability to be neutralized by antitoxin, and magnitude of LD50

A 
Source: gram-negative
Metabolic product: present in LPS of outer membrane 
Chemistry: lipid
Fever? YES
Neutralized by antitoxin? NO
LD50: relatively large
281
Q

Describe exotoxins in terms of their source, metabolic product, chemical make-up, ability to cause fever, ability to be neutralized by antitoxin, and magnitude of LD50

A

Source: mostly gram-positive
Metabolic product: by-products of growing cell
Chemistry: protein (soluble, heat-labile)
Fever? NO
Neutralized by antitoxin? YES
LD50: small (among the most lethal substances known)

Microbiology Exam 3 (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions