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Earth Science 2203 > Exam 3 > Flashcards

Exam 3 Flashcards

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1
Q

The human population is about ______ people.

A

7 billion

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2
Q

Without hydrocarbons (oil, gas, coal), the carrying capacity of the earth is about _____ people.

A

2 billion

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3
Q

When the hydrocarbons run out, the survival of some _____ people will be threatened.

A

5 billion

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4
Q

The use of hydrocarbons has exaggerated the earth’s carrying capacity by _______.

A

5 billion

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5
Q

After N half-lives, the number of daughter isotopes is ____.

A

1-(2^-N)

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6
Q

After N half-lives, the number of parent isotopes is ____.

A

2^-N

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7
Q

A body excavated in a floodplain contains about 25% (= ¼) of the atmospheric 14C concentration. Thus, it has been dead for some ____ years assuming a 14C half-life of about 6,000 years.

A

12,000

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8
Q

Your investment is doubling every 2 years. What is your investment’s rate of return.

A

35%

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9
Q

Since the beginning of 2013, some ____ species have gone extinct.

A

51,000

poodwaddle number: 25,775

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10
Q

Volcanic rocks erupted into the air.

A

tephra (XIII-22)

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11
Q

The catastrophically explosive eruptions of Mt. St. Helens in southern Washington involve ______, _______ magma.

A

high-viscosity?

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12
Q

Why are most active volcanoes associated with plate tectonic boundaries?

(1) plate tectonic boundaries are created by volcanism
(2) spreading or sinking plates interact at plate boundaries with other materials to produce magma
(3) earthquakes at plate boundaries bring large amounts of magma to the surface
(4) in reality, most volcanoes are in the plate interiors rather than at plate boundaries

A

(2) spreading or sinking plates interact at plate boundaries with other materials to produce magma

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13
Q

Volcanoes produce _____ rocks.

(1) sedimentary (2) metamorphic (3) igneous (4) evaporite

A

(3) igneous

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14
Q

Viscosity of a magma is controlled by _______.
(1) the eruptive processes at work (2) the types and amounts of gases dissolved in the magma (3) the water content of the magma (4) temperature and silicon content of the magma

A

(4) temperature and silicon content of the magma

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15
Q

Granitic magmas have densities ______ those of basaltic magmas.
(1) lower than (2) higher than (3) equal to (4) none of above

A

(1) lower than

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16
Q

Basaltic magmas have specific gravities ______ those of granitic magmas.
(1) lower than (2) higher than (3) equal to (4) none of above

A

(2) higher than

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17
Q

Magma type typically producing Pahohoe lava.

(1) basaltic (2) granitic (3) evaporite (4) none of above

A

(1) basaltic

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18
Q

Magma type typically producing Aa lava.

(1) basaltic (2) granitic (3) evaporite (4) none of above

A

(2) granitic

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19
Q

Plate margin setting where pillow lavas predominate.

(1) subduction (2) spreading (3) transform fault (4) none of above

A

(2) spreading

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20
Q

The abbreviation ‘asl’ stands for ‘________.’

(1) as little (2) above surface level (3) above sea level (4) none of above

A

(3) above sea level

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21
Q

The shape of shield volcanoes is a function of the _______.
(1) lava viscosity (2) proportion of pyroclastic debris included in the edifice (3) local variations in the tilt of the land surface (4) the explosive nature of the eruptions that produce the shield

A

(1) lava viscosity

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22
Q

Type of lava that flows most readily.

(1) Pahohoe (2) Aa (3) evaporite (4) granitic

A

(1) Pahohoe

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23
Q

Basaltic lava flows ______ granitic lava.

(1) faster than (2) slower than (3) at the rate as (4) none of above

A

(1) faster than

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24
Q

The relatively benign fluid eruptions of the Kilauea volcano in Hawaii involve ______, _______ magma.

A

Pahohoe, basaltic?

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25
Q

Mid-ocean ridge volcanism produces what type of volcanic rock?
(1) basalt (2) andesite (3) rhyolite (4) tephra

A

(1) basalt

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26
Q

Why do composite volcanoes consist of alternating lava and pyroclastic layers?

(1) composite cones are created by lava composition alternating between basalt and rhyolite
(2) composite cones typically are interlayered with lava flows from nearby shield volcanoes
(3) composite cones are created by a mixture of explosive activity and lava flows
(4) the lavas in composite cones are typically rhyolitic in composition

A

(3) composite cones are created by a mixture of explosive activity and lava flows

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27
Q

________ are small volcanoes formed from tephra accumulation near a volcanic vent.
(1) composite cones (2) cinder cones (3) shield calderas (4) submarine cones

A

(2) cinder cones

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28
Q

Composite cones are typically associated with what type of plate tectonic feature?

A

convergent

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29
Q

_____ volcanoes have the greatest topographic relief.

A

composite volcano

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30
Q

The May 18, 1980 eruption of Mt. St. Helens began with a massive ________.
(1) pyroclastic plume (2) caldera explosion (3) landslide (4) lava flow

A

(3) landslide

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31
Q

Killer of St. Pierre and Pompeii.

A

Vesuvius (or pyroclastic flow)

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32
Q

What is one reason that ash fall is such a significant hazard?
(1) the basaltic magma that produces the ash is low in silica (2) the weight of the ash can cause structural damage to buildings (3) the pyroclastic flow that deposits the ash is a hot, glowing cloud (4) the associated lava flows can cover large areas

A

(2) the weight of the ash can cause structural damage to buildings

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33
Q

The citizens of Heimaey, Iceland were successful in stopping the lava flow that threatened their harbor because
(1) they had a ready supply of water with which to chill the lava (2) the Icelandic air force bombed the lava flows (3) a giant sea wall was constructed to stop the lava flows (4) the lava was rhyolitic in composition

A

(1) they had a ready supply of water with which to chill the lava

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34
Q

The ages of the dikes are _____ those of the rocks on both sides.
(1) younger than (2) older than (3) the same age as (4) none of above

A

(1) younger than

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35
Q

The dikes are made of _____ rocks.

(1) igneous (2) metamorphic (3) sedimentary (4) evaporite

A

(1) igneous

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36
Q

Columnar jointing results from ______ cracks that develop as the basalt ______.
(1) compression, cools down (2) tension, heats up (3) compression, heats up (4) tension, cools down

A

(4) tension, cools down

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37
Q

What is the principal difference between craters and calderas?
(1) calderas are much larger depressions created by collapse of the upper portions of the volcano (2) calderas are associated with cinder cones, while craters are associated with shield volcanoes (3) craters are created by explosive eruptions, while calderas are not (4) craters are associated only with fissure eruptions

A

(1) calderas are much larger depressions created by collapse of the upper portions of the volcano

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38
Q

Pyroclastic plumes can race down a volcano’s side at speeds approaching ______ km per hour.
(1) 150 (2) 200 (3) 250 (4) 300

A

(3) 250

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39
Q

In 1991, the eruption of Mt. ________ killed several tens of people with pyroclastic flows.
(1) St. Helens (2) Pelee (3) Unzen (4) Vesuvius

A

(3) Unzen

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40
Q

Vesuvio is a ______ volcano.

(1) shield (2) cinder cone (3) composite (4) all of above

A

(3) composite

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41
Q

The abbreviation ‘CE’ stands for _____.

(1) Common Era (2) Current Era (3) Christian Era (4) all of above

A

(4) all of above

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42
Q

The abbreviation ‘BCE’ stands for _____.

(1) Before the Common Era (2) Before the Current Era (3) Before the Christian Era (4) all of above

A

(4) all of above

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43
Q

The date ‘2014 CE’ is numerically equivalent to _____.

(1) 2014 AD (2) AD 2014 (3) 2014 Anno Domini (4) all of above

A

(2) AD 2014

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44
Q

The date ‘399 BCE’ is numerically equivalent to _____.

(1) 399 BC (2) BC 399 (3) Before Christ 399 (4) all of above

A

(1) 399 BC

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45
Q

If Vesuvio took out Naples, global human breeding would replace the population lost in about _____ month(s).
(1) 1 (2) 3 (3) 6 (4) 12

A

(1) 1

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46
Q

Montserrat’s Soufrière Hills volcano is a typical ______ plate margin volcano.
(1) subduction (2) transform fault (3) spreading ridge (4) none of above

A

(1) subduction

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47
Q

A temperature of 400ºC is ____ times the temperature of boiling water on your stove.
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 4 (2) 8

A

(3) 4

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48
Q

A lahar is produced when

(1) ash is blown out of a vent and onto the side of the volcano
(2) ash and other pyroclastic ejecta become saturated with water
(3) a lateral blast spreads ash across a large area
(4) a lava flow breaks apart on the steep portion of a composite cone

A

(2) ash and other pyroclastic ejecta become saturated with water

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49
Q

Most dangerous volcano.

A

composite volcanoes are the most explosive

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50
Q

Chile’s Chaiten volcano is a typical ______ plate margin volcano.
(1) subduction (2) transform fault (3) spreading ridge (4) none of above

A

(1) subduction

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51
Q

About 1,700 residents near a dormant volcano at Lake Nyos died when
(1) a sudden volcanic eruption deposited thick ash over the town (2) an unexpected lahar destroyed the village (3) a dense cloud of volcanic gas was released (4) acid rain from sulfur dioxide emissions caused widespread damage to vegetation

A

(3) a dense cloud of volcanic gas was released

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52
Q

Global human breeding made up for the fatalities at Lake Nyos in about ____ minutes.
(1) 5 (2) 10 (3) 20 (4) 30

A

(2) 10

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53
Q

The growing magma chamber splits the surrounding country rock apart as the magma’s pressure exceeds the country rock’s ______ strength.
(1) shear (2) compressive (3) tensile (4) torque

A

(1) shear

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54
Q

Seismic activity serves as a tool of volcanic forecasting because
(1) moving magma causes earthquakes (2) earthquakes and dangerous volcanoes are both associated with subduction zones (3) seismic activity indicates emission of volcanic gases (4) earthquake usually cause the volcanic summit to collapse, setting off an eruption

A

(1) moving magma causes earthquakes

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55
Q

Why is the geologic history of a volcano important to hazard prediction?
(1) the geologic history helps to determine whether evacuation is necessary (2) the geologic history reflects the history of subduction beneath a volcano (3) the geologic history is an important indicator of seismic activity (4) the geologic history reveals the frequency and style of eruptions

A

(4) the geologic history reveals the frequency and style of eruptions

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56
Q

Why is topographic monitoring sometimes useful in forecasting a volcanic eruption?
(1) a volcano sometimes swells as lava moves into the edifice (2) volcanic eruption is more likely as an area undergoes tectonic uplift (3) seismic activity occurs as the volcano rises (4) topographic monitoring reveals the likelihood of lahar generation

A

(1) a volcano sometimes swells as lava moves into the edifice

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57
Q

As magma moves into the magma chamber, the tiltmeter’s air bubble moves ______ the vent.
(1) right (2) left (3) back and forth (4) none of above

A

(2) left

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58
Q

As magma moves out of the magma chamber, the tiltmeter’s air bubble moves ______ the vent.
(1) right (2) left (3) back and forth (4) none of above

A

(1) right

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59
Q

A volcanic eruption warning can be triggered by _______.
(1) topographic inflation alone (2) enhanced earthquake activity alone (3) both topographic inflation and enhanced earthquake activity (4) all of above

A

(4) all of above

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60
Q

A volcanic gas associated with acid rain and fog.

(1) sulfur dioxide (2) carbon dioxide (3) sodium chloride (4) iron sulfide

A

(1) sulfur dioxide

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61
Q

The specific gravity of carbon dioxide is _____ that of water.
(1) less than (2) more than (3) the same as (4) none of above

A

(1) less than

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62
Q

When a sufficient amount of carbon dioxide has accumulated on the lake bed, it rises ______ to the lake’s surface.
(1) tectonically (2) isostatically (3) hydrostatically (4) isothermally

A

(2) isostatically

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63
Q

Mitigation of volcanic disasters in densely populated areas requires an emergency plan designed to wait for an eruption and manage the _____.
(1) evacuation (2) shelters (3) hospitals (4) access to clean air and water

A

(1) evacuation

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64
Q

Composite volcanoes consist of alternating lava and pyroclastic layers because they are

(1) composite cones are created by lava composition alternating between basalt and rhyolite
(2) composite cones typically are interlayered with lava flows from nearby shield volcanoes
(3) composite cones are created by a mixture of explosive activity and lava flows
(4) the lavas in composite cones are typically rhyolitic in composition

A

(3) composite cones are created by a mixture of explosive activity and lava flows

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65
Q

A meteor is _______.
1) a small comet (2) a large meteoroid (3) a meteoroid that has entered the Earth’s atmosphere (4) a meteoroid that strikes the Earth’s surface

A

(3) a meteoroid that has entered the Earth’s atmosphere

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66
Q

In 1908, the Tunguska River valley, Siberia experienced

(1) a nuclear explosion (2) an aerial burst of a meteor (3) a major earthquake (4) a volcanic eruption

A

(2) an aerial burst of a meteor

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67
Q

A meteoroid is
(1) a small particle of an asteroid (2) a giant asteroid (3) a streak of light across the sky (4) a meteor that has struck the Earth’s surface

A

(1) a small particle of an asteroid

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68
Q

A meteorite is
(1) a small comet (2) a large meteoroid (3) a meteoroid that has entered the Earth’s atmosphere (4) a meteoroid, asteroid, or comet that strikes the Earth’s surface

A

(4) a meteoroid, asteroid, or comet that strikes the Earth’s surface

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69
Q

In 1994, the comet Shoemaker-Levy 9 collided with _____.

(1) Earth (2) Mars (3) Moon (4) Jupiter

A

(4) Jupiter

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70
Q

A meteorite impact crater can be distinguished from a volcanic crater through the presence of
(1) volcanic rock (2) high pressure metamorphic minerals (3) dust surrounding the crater (4) a raised crater rim

A

(2) high pressure metamorphic minerals

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71
Q

Impact craters are more common on the Moon and Mars than on Earth because the
(1) Moon and Mars have thinner atmospheres (2) More meteoroids approach the Moon and Mars (3) The Moon and Mars consist of stronger rock that preserves craters better (4) Meteorites striking Earth are typically larger

A

(1) Moon and Mars have thinner atmospheres

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72
Q

An astronomical unit is about ______ miles.

(1) 94×10^3 (2) 94×10^4 (3) 94×10^5 (4) 94×10^6

A

4) 94×10^6

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73
Q

The Cretaceous-Tertiary mass extinction was apparently caused by a meteorite that struck
(1) Yucatan Peninsula (2) Pacific coast of Canada (3) Europe (4) Australia

A

(1) Yucatan Peninsula

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74
Q

The probability of dying from a meteorite impact is greater than that of dying in an automobile accident because
(1) because fatal meteorite impacts are likely to occur very frequently (2) because there is a high probability that any person will be hit directly by a meteorite (3) because a large meteorite impact would cause a very high number of fatalities (4) because there are millions of meteoroids in near-Earth orbit

A

(3) because a large meteorite impact would cause a very high number of fatalities

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75
Q

A thin clay layer marking the Cretaceous-Tertiary boundary at several sites around the world is enriched in ______ which is found predominantly in meteorites.
(1) calcium (2) uranium (3) iridium (4) niobium

A

(3) iridium

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76
Q

How big was the meteorite that apparently caused the Cretaceous-Tertiary mass extinction?
(1) 1 km (2) 10 km (3) 60 km (4) 100 km

A

(2) 10 km

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77
Q

The greatest known mass extinction of life occurred at the ________ boundary.

A

Permian-Triassic (most killed)

Cretaceous (most famous [dinosaurs])

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78
Q

Some asteroids leave the asteroid belt and cross the orbits of Earth and other solar system bodies because
(1) the gravity of Earth and other bodies pull the asteroids out of the asteroid belt (2) asteroids collide in the asteroid belt and some asteroids are diverted into other orbits (3) comets passing through the asteroid belt pull asteroids away (4) the asteroid belt is slowly expanding with time, into orbits of Earth and other bodies

A

(2) asteroids collide in the asteroid belt and some asteroids are diverted into other orbits

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79
Q

Halley’s comet will visit earth again in _____ CE.

(1) 2023 (2) 2063 (3) 2083 (4) 2123

A

(2) 2063

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80
Q

In a day, the earth experiences roughly _____ shooting stars.
(1) 29×10^1 (2) 29×10^2 (3) 29×10^3 (4) 29×10^4

A

(2) 29×10^2

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81
Q

What element was found to be enriched in a thin clay layer marking the Cretaceous-Tertiary boundary at several sites around the world?
(1) calcium (2) uranium (3) iridium (4) niobium

A

(3) iridium

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82
Q

The meteorite that extinguished the dinosaurs struck the earth at ___ Ma.
(1) 65×10^3 (2) 65×10^4 (3) 65×10^5 (4) 65×10^6

A

(4) 65×10^6

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83
Q

The Permian-Triassic meteorite struck the earth at ___ Ma.

(1) 250×10^3 (2) 250×10^4 (3) 250 (4) 250×10^6

A

(1) 250×10^3
** this answer was given on the pre-lecture quiz, but this is wrong.
It was actually 250 million years ago. So choice (3) if it says Ma, or (4) if it just says years.

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84
Q

In the Antarctic map, geographic north is ______.

(1) to the top (2) to the left (3) to the bottom (4) all of above

A

(4) all of above

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85
Q

Antipodal volcanism for the K/T meteorite impact that extinguished the dinosaurs.
(1) Deccan Traps of India (2) Siberian Traps of Russia (3) Snake River Traps of USA (4) Edinburgh Traps of Scotland

A

(1) Deccan Traps of India

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86
Q

At roughly 250 Ma, India was connected to ______.

(1) Antarctica (2) Australia (3) Africa (4) all of above

A

(4) all of above

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87
Q

The presumed P/T bolide was roughly ____ times the size of the K/T bolide.
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 6

A

(4) 6

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88
Q

The ejecta basted out of the crater falls back onto the surface with ages that generally ______ with depth.
(1) increase (2) decrease (3) are uniform (4) none of above

A

(2) decrease

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89
Q

Arizona’s Meteorite Crater is a ______ crater.

(1) simple (2) complex (3) Permian (4) Precambrian

A

(1) simple

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90
Q

An impact’s enhancement of atmospheric carbon dioxide is most beneficial to the recovery of ______.
(1) animals (2) plants (3) glaciers (4) vertebrates

A

(2) plants

91
Q

What is an aerial burst?
(1) an explosion in the asteroid belt that sends asteroids hurtling toward Earth (2) a secondary explosion above an impact crater, occurring after impact (3) a meteor bursting into many smaller pieces when bombarded with nuclear weapons (4) an explosion of a meteor entering the Earth’s atmosphere

A

(4) an explosion of a meteor entering the Earth’s atmosphere

92
Q

Because of a thinner ________, there are more impact craters on the Moon than on Earth.
(1) biosphere (2) hydrosphere (3) atmosphere (4) cyrosphere

A

(3) atmosphere

93
Q

The Torino scale is analogous to the ______ scale for earthquakes.
1) magnitude (2) intensity (3) body wave (4) surface wave

A

(2) intensity

94
Q

Why are ancient impact craters difficult to identify on Earth?
(1) they typically have been eroded or infilled with younger sediments (2) impact craters on Earth are smaller than those on the Moon or Mars (3) they typically lack shock metamorphic minerals (4) there have been very few meteorite impacts on Earth

A

(1) they typically have been eroded or infilled with younger sediments

95
Q

skipped on key

A
96
Q

Why is the probability of dying from a meteorite impact greater than that of dying in an automobile accident?
(1) because fatal meteorite impacts are likely to occur very frequently (2) because there is a high probability that any person will be hit directly by a meteorite (3) because a large meteorite impact would cause a very high number of fatalities (4) because there are millions of meteoroids in near-Earth orbit

A

(3) because a large meteorite impact would cause a very high number of fatalities

97
Q

When a catastrophic meteorite impact is discovered, the principal option for preventing it is to (1) change the orbit of the object with small nuclear explosions (2) break the object into smaller pieces with nuclear explosions (3) evacuate the potentially affected area (4) construct a physical shield around Earth

A

(1) change the orbit of the object with small nuclear explosions

98
Q

Human breeding takes roughly ____ months to replace the roughly 5 million people lost annually to water-borne diseases.
(1) 1 (2) 3 (3) 6 (4) 9

A

(1) 1

99
Q

The cracks across a dried mud flat are caused by _______.

(1) compression (2) shearing (3) tension (4) subsidence

A

(3) tension

100
Q

If water is so abundant on Earth, why are water resources such a big concern?
(1) water resources are not necessarily where humans need them and when they need them (2) humans are not very adept at exploiting water resources, so many go unused (3) most of the water on earth is frozen in polar ice sheets (4) most of the water is caught up in the hydrologic cycle and is therefore not readily available

A

(1) water resources are not necessarily where humans need them and when they need them

101
Q

Most of the Earth’s freshwater is contained in the

A

freshwater glaciers

102
Q

The permeability of a rock is

A

Ability of porous material for water to pass through

103
Q

The porosity of a rock is

A

how much of a rock is open space

104
Q

The best aquifers in Ohio.

A

sand and gravel deposits

105
Q

Largest demand for freshwater comes from

A

Agriculture

106
Q

Second greatest global demand for freshwater.

(1) farming (2) factories and businesses (3) urbanization (4) water storage losses

A

(2) factories and businesses

107
Q

A liter is approximately one _____.

(1) quart (2) gallon (3) barrel (4) cubic meter

A

(1) quart

108
Q

Surface water and groundwater are _______.

(1) completely separate systems (2) interconnected systems (3) effluent systems (4) off-stream systems

A

(2) interconnected systems

109
Q

The most imminent water war will likely be fought over access to the _____ River.
(1) Nile (2) Jordan (3) Euphrates (4) Tigris

A

(2) Jordan

110
Q

Groundwater mining is accomplished by ______.
(1) high discharge of water to streams (2) thorough exploration for groundwater resources (3) pumping that exceeds recharge (4) very clean miners

A

(3) pumping that exceeds recharge

111
Q

The drainage density on clay soils is likely to be ______ the drainage density on gravel soils?
(1) greater than (2) less than (3) equal to (4) none of above

A

(1) greater than

112
Q

Where evapotranspiration exceeds precipitation, freshwater costs

A

More?

113
Q

The boundary between drainage basins is called the

(1) levee (2) canal (3) divide (4) watershed

A

(3) divide

114
Q

Groundwater satisfies the drinking requirements for about ____ of the US population.
(1) 10% (2) 25% (3) 50% (4) 75%

A

(3) 50%

115
Q

An artesian well is one that

(1) contains water (2) emits water without pumping (3) is dry most of the year (4) is in a confined aquifer

A

(2) emits water without pumping

116
Q

The most efficient form of irrigation.

(1) gravity flow (2) drip irrigation (3) low-pressure sprinkler (4) all of above

A

(2) drip irrigation

117
Q

The principal cultural cause of eutrophication is

A

Elevated levels of phosphorus and nitrogen

118
Q

Why is karst topography a concern for groundwater quality?
(1) waste disposed in karst areas can easily infiltrate into the ground (2) sinkholes form from collapsed caverns (3) the limestone of karst systems dissolves into the water (4) caves tend to have high levels of carbon monoxide, which dissolves in the water

A

(1) waste disposed in karst areas can easily infiltrate into the ground

119
Q

The rate of groundwater flow is proportional to the ______.
(1) recharge and discharge (2) the hydraulic gradient and hydraulic conductivity (3) confinement of the aquifer (4) rate of pumping

A

(2) the hydraulic gradient and hydraulic conductivity

120
Q

Globally, roughly ____ of people do not have regular access to clean water.
(1) 1% (2) 7% (3) 17% (4) 34%

A

(3) 17%

121
Q

Why is sediment yield an important consideration in a discussion of water supplies?

(1) sediment yield affects the amount of water that is available
(2) water resources and sediment resources are closely intertwined
(3) sediment is a common water pollutant
(4) soil erosion restricts water flow to streams

A

(3) sediment is a common water pollutant

122
Q

Major groundwater recharge mechanism.

(1) sun (2) evapotranspiration (3) lunar tides (4) precipitation

A

(4) precipitation

123
Q

Groundwater being mined in Ohio.

(1) Cleveland (2) Toledo (3) Columbus (4) Cincinnati-Dayton

A

4) Cincinnati-Dayton

124
Q

Pumping of groundwater from a well creates ________ in the aquifer.
(1) a cone of depression (2) an artesian system (3) a confined aquifer (4) an aquitard

A

(1) a cone of depression

125
Q

_______ is formed in saltwater as it intrudes fresh groundwater near a pumping well.
(1) An inverted cone of depression (2) An artesian system (3) A confined aquifer (4) An aquitard

A

(1) An inverted cone of depression

126
Q

Water-intensive crop.

(1) corn (2) tomatoes (3) soybeans (4) all of above

A

(4) all of above

127
Q

A non-consumptive use of water.

(1) hydroelectric power generation (2) agriculture (3) municipal drinking water (4) reservoir for recreation and fishing

A

(1) hydroelectric power generation

128
Q

Source of water for Phoenix and Tucson.

(1) Sacramento River (2) Mississippi River (3) Colorado River (4) Feather River

A

3) Colorado River

129
Q

White substance covering areas where the Aral Sea evaporated.
(1) chalk (2) limestone dust (3) salt (4) quartz

A

(3) salt

130
Q

The cost of ______ is the primary cost component of desalination.
(1) energy (2) brine waste disposal (3) reverse osmosis (4) restoration

A

(1) energy

131
Q

Concerns over water resources focus on the lack of _____ of water on Earth.
(1) abundance (2) accessibility (3) desalinization (4) permeability

A

(2) accessibility

132
Q

What happened to the Cuyahoga River in Cleveland in 1969?

A

It caught on fire

133
Q

Irrigation system that minimizes non-consumptive losses.

(1) gravity flow (2) drip irrigation (3) low-pressure sprinkler (4) all of above

A

(2) drip irrigation

134
Q

Movement of fluids in the ground is controlled primarily by the ground’s _____.
(1) porosity (2) permeability (3) compressive strength (4) tensile strength

A

(2) permeability

135
Q

The amount of the water used by humans globally that is wasted is roughly _____.
(1) 10% (2) 25% (3) 50% (4) 70%

A

(4) 70%

136
Q

Most effective mechanism for achieving sustainable water use.
(1) raise water prices (2) develop political agreements (3) protect wetlands (4) reduce population growth

A

(4) reduce population growth

137
Q

Most effective mechanism for reducing water pollution.

A

(4) reduce population growth

138
Q

Which of the following would be considered a point source of pollution?

A

(1) industrial wastewater discharge

139
Q

What measures have largely eliminated waterborne diseases in the US?

A

(2) separation of sewage and drinking water

140
Q

If sediment is from natural sources, why is it considered a water pollutant?

A

(1) it is an out-of-place resource

141
Q

The level of decaying organic matter in water is indicated by what measure?

A

(2) eutrophication index

142
Q

Acid mine drainage is a problem because _______.

A

(4) the acid water may mobilize hazardous heavy metals

143
Q

Saltwater intrusion results from

A

(2) over-pumping of groundwater

144
Q

Why are the impacts of coastal hazards so great?

A

(3) because many populated areas are located near the coasts

145
Q

How might global warming exacerbate coastal hazards?

A

(1) global warming will likely be accompanied by sea level rise

146
Q

The Mississippi delta is in _____.

A

(2) LA

147
Q

If the Missouri River were simply the west fork of the Mississippi River, then the redefined Mississippi River would be the _____ river on Earth.

A

(1) longest

148
Q

Why does river damming sometimes contribute to coastal erosion?

A

(1) the supply of sediment to beaches is shut off

149
Q

Why did Congress require the Environmental Protection Agency to establish minimum drinking water standards?

A

(3) the long-term effects of small amounts of chemical contamination were unknown

150
Q

What is the principal cause of septic system failure?

A

(2) poor soil drainage

151
Q

Why is municipal wastewater sludge considered problematic?

A

(2) it sometimes contains heavy metals

152
Q

Wastewater renovation relies on what processes to purify water?

A

(3) natural purification in the soil

153
Q

Best mechanism for reducing water pollution.

A

(2) reduce population growth

154
Q

Biomagnification is an especially important process in the concentration of ________ to toxic levels.

A

(3) mercury

155
Q

The fact that mineral resources are formed slowly over time means that mineral resources are our ________ heritage from the geologic past.
(1) renewable (2) non-renewable (3) ever-lasting (4) lost

A

(2) non-renewable

156
Q

A concentration of minerals that can be extracted at profit is called
(1) resource (2) reserve (3) mineral deposit (4) metal

A

(2) reserve

157
Q

Common table salt.

(1) calcite (2) halite (3) bauxite (4) apatite

A

(2) halite

158
Q

Ore of aluminum.

(1) calcite (2) halite (3) bauxite (4) apatite

A

(3) bauxite

159
Q

An ore of iron.

A

magnetite, hematite, geothite, limonite, or siderite

160
Q

Ore of mercury.

(1) cinnabar (2) sphalerite (3) magnetite (4) pyrolusite

A

(1) cinnabar

161
Q

Chemical formula for cinnabar.

(1) PbS (2) FeS2 (3) HgS (4) NaCl

A

(3) HgS

162
Q

Extensively used for thermal insulation.

(1) calcite (2) halite (3) asbestos (4) sylvite

A

(3) asbestos

163
Q

Predominant mineral in karst terrain.

(1) calcite (2) halite (3) asbestos (4) sylvite

A

(1) calcite

164
Q

Annual US per capita use of non-fuel earth materials equals roughly _____ American tons (ie., short tons).
(1) 5.5 (2) 11 (3) 16.5 (4) 22

A

(2) 11

165
Q

US per capita non-fuel earth materials required annually equals roughly _____ metric tons (ie., long tons).
(1) 5 (2) 10 (3) 15 (4) 20

A

(2) 10

166
Q

US needs for metals can be met with mines from within its borders except for ______.

A

tin (?)

167
Q

Hydrothermal mineral deposits would be least expected to form in what type of plate tectonic setting?
(1) transform boundary (2) oceanic divergent boundary (3) oceanic subduction zone (4) continental subduction zone

A

(1) transform boundary

168
Q

Metal used to induce hardness, toughness and chemical resistance in steel.
(1) fluorite (2) quartz (3) chromium (4) aluminum

A

(3) chromium

169
Q

Fluorite is used as a flux or slag maker in steelmaking to help _____ the steel.
(1) amalgamate (2) purify (3) agitate (4) lighten

A

(2) purify

170
Q

Molybdenum is a steel ______.

(1) softener (2) hardener (3) purifier (4) conductor

A

(2) hardener

171
Q

Most water pollution associated with mining operations has to do with _______.
(1) water passing through mine wastes (2) hazardous chemical spills (3) improper disposal of incinerator ash (4) failure of waste ponds

A

(1) water passing through mine wastes

172
Q

Pegmatite is typically a _____-colored rock.

(1) red (2) green (3) white (4) grey

A

(3) white

173
Q

What phase of mining generally causes the least environmental degradation?
(1) exploration and testing (2) extraction (3) processing (4) reclamation

A

(1) exploration and testing

174
Q

If surface mines tend to cause greater environmental impacts, why are they used?

(1) surface mines require the excavation of less rock
(2) cyanide is not required to process ore from a surface mine
(3) surface mines are more economical
(4) subsurface mines are more hazardous to miners

A

(3) surface mines are more economical

175
Q

Smelter emissions often cause what type of adverse environmental degradation?
(1) acid mine drainage (2) acid rain (3) asbestos deposition (4) global warming

A

(2) acid rain

176
Q

Mineral of pure carbon.

(1) talc (2) graphite (3) asbestos (4) marble

A

(2) graphite

177
Q

Common table salt begins to precipitate when the sea water has evaporated to less than about _____ of its original volume.
(1) 50% (2) 25% (3) 19% (4) 10%

A

4) 10%

178
Q

Organically precipitated component of the banded iron formation (BIF).
(1) iron ore (2) chert (3) slate (4) pegmatite

A

(2) chert

179
Q

What is the principal reason that iron and steel are recycled at such a high rate?
(1) iron and steel are highly valuable on the precious metals market (2) the market for steel is large and widespread (3) all sources of iron ore have been more or less exhausted (4) environmental regulations mandated iron and steel recycling starting in the 1950s

A

(2) the market for steel is large and widespread

180
Q

Main earthquake threat to buildings on the tailings delta in Lake Superior from the Reserve (Fe) Mining Co.
(1) overthrusting (2) strike-slip faulting (3) liquefaction (4) normal faulting

A

(3) liquefaction

181
Q

Important sedimentary ore deposit in the construction industry.
(1) clay (2) sand (3) granite (4) marble

A

(1) clay

182
Q

Important sedimentary ore deposit in porcelain production.

(1) clay (2) sand (3) granite (4) marble

A

(1) clay

183
Q

Placer deposits are expected in what type of rock?

(1) igneous (2) sedimentary (3) metamorphic (4) hydrothermal

A

(2) sedimentary

184
Q

The gold originally was deposited in the _____-stage development of igneous rocks.
(1) early (2) late (3) middle (4) sulfide

A

(2) late

185
Q

To help separate the gold from other materials, the centrifuge takes advantage of gold’s _____ specific gravity.
(1) high (2) low (3) intermediate (4) cold

A

(1) high

186
Q

The density of gold is ____ grams per cubic centimeter.

(1) 10 (2) 20 (3) 30 (4) 40

A

(2) 20

187
Q

The aspect of gold mining that is particularly susceptible to biomagnification.
(1) cyanide (2) gold (3) mercury (4) tailings

A

(3) mercury

188
Q

Weathering processes are primarily responsible for the concentration of what types of ore?

A

Aluminum

189
Q

________ deposits form through the desiccation of marine basins or lakes.

A

Evaporite

190
Q

Between 1965 and 2005, energy consumption in the US essentially

A

Increased, but at slower rate (?)

191
Q

The ultimate source of energy in fossil fuels is
(1) the sun (2) the Earth’s internal heat (3) the energy of the plants and animals from which the fuel is formed (4) biomass

A

(1) the sun

192
Q

Hydrocarbons account for roughly ____ of the US’ annual energy consumption.
(1) 50% (2) 86% (3) 92% (4) 98%

A

(3) 92%

193
Q

Scientific prognostications are made by a _____.

(1) futurist (2) psychic (3) shaman (4) nostradamusist

A

(1) futurist

194
Q

Renewable energy resource.

A

wood

195
Q

Which type of coal has the highest heat content?

A

anthracite

196
Q

Ohio’s coal is concentrated in the _______ basin.

(1) Western Interior (2) Appalachian (3) Powder River (4) Uinta

A

(2) Appalachian

197
Q

Why is coal usage likely to increase in the future?
(1) coal is a relatively clean energy resource in terms of air pollution (2) mining and processing of coal create minimal environmental impact (3) coal is an abundant resource in relation to oil and gas (4) coal is generally considered a renewable resource

A

(3) coal is an abundant resource in relation to oil and gas

198
Q

Hydrocarbons are concentrated in ______ rocks.

(1) igneous (2) metamorphic (3) sedimentary (4) glacial

A

(3) sedimentary

199
Q

If the Middle East holds 63% of world’s total oil reserves, then the US holds about ____ of the world’s total reserves.
(1) 3% (2) 6% (3) 12% (4) 18%

A

(2) 6%

200
Q

100ºC is how many times 212ºF?

(1) one (2) two (3) three (4) four

A

(1) one

201
Q

The salt dome rises isostatically through the sedimentary rocks, and thus the density of the salt dome is ______ the density of the sedimentary rocks.
(1) greater than (2) less than (3) the same as (4) none of above

A

(2) less than

202
Q

Which of the following geologic situations is most likely to contain significant oil concentrations?

(1) 1.1-billion-year-old rocks that accumulated in the vicinity of a divergent plate boundary
(2) 200-million-year-old rocks that have been exposed by uplift in a subduction zone
(3) 300-million-year-old rocks that accumulated in a subsiding sedimentary basin
(4) 150-million-year-old rocks that are flat lying and unfaulted

A

(3) 300-million-year-old rocks that accumulated in a subsiding sedimentary basin

203
Q

Which of the following geologic features is not required for an oil or gas deposit to form?

A

volcanic rock

204
Q

Production of shale oil from from the western US is likely to ______ the amount of Colorado river water.
(1) reduce (2) enhance (3) maintain (4) not affect

A

(1) reduce

205
Q

Devonian

(1) age of trilobites (2) age of dinosaurs (3) age of fishes (3) age of mammals

A

(3) age of fishes

206
Q

Use of land to transform petroleum into food.

A

modern agriculture

207
Q

Why does acid rain result from the consumption of fossil fuels?

A

fossil fuel burning releases nitrogen and sulfur oxides

208
Q

Lowest temperature distillation product of crude oil

A

gas (XIX-16)

209
Q

At two times the temperature of boiling water, petroleum yields ______.
(1) naptha (2) gasoline (3) kerosene (4) diesel

A

(4) diesel

210
Q

How about recycling waste plastic into fuel?

(1) excellent idea (2) not technologically feasible (3) not cost effective (4) not enough recyclable plastic waste

A

(1) excellent idea

211
Q

The energy returned on energy invested is lowest for ________.

A

oil ???? (XIX-18)

212
Q

If it takes 3 kiloWatthours (kWh) of electrical heating to process 1 kilogram (kg) of plastic waste into 1 liter of oil, which in turn yields roughly 30 kWh of energy, then the EROEI of the process is _______.
(1) 0.10 (2) 1.0 (3) 10 (4) 100

A

(3) 10

213
Q

Hubbert’s peak acknowledges that the amount of earth’s fossil fuels is finite, and thus the earth is _____.
(1) flat (2) spherical (3) infinite (4) without limits

A

(2) spherical

214
Q

Which country is the biggest per capita user of fossil fuels?
(1) China (2) Russia (3) USA (4) India

A

(3) USA

215
Q

Where is the greatest concentration of oil to be found?

(1) North America (2) Eurasia (3) Middle East (4) South America

A

(3) Middle East

216
Q

The expiration time for a reserve being consumed at a steadily growing rate is _______ the time required to consume it a constant rate.

A

less than

217
Q

R = 0.015 is ______.

(1) 0.015% (2) 0.15% (3) 1.5% (4) 15%

A

(3) 1.5%

218
Q 
The ratio (CT/Ci) is in units of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_. 
(1) tons (2) cubic meters (3) ton per cubic meter (4) dimensionless
A

(4) dimensionless

219
Q

The ultimate source of geothermal energy is _____.

(1) the sun (3) heat generated in the Earth’s interior (3) hydroelectric (4) deeply buried biomass

A

3) heat generated in the Earth’s interior

220
Q

What is the approximate maximum lifetime tmax in years for the coal reserve of 2400 qBTu that is consumed by 160 qBTu annually?
(1) 10 (2) 15 (3) 20 (4) 25

A

(2) 15

221
Q

What is the approximate lifetime te in years for the coal reserve of 2400 qBTu that is consumed by 160 qBTu with a 1.6% annual growth rate.
(1) 13.5 (2) 18.5 (3) 23.5 (4) 28.5

A

(1) 13.5

222
Q

SKIPPED

A
223
Q

The greatest amount of fossil energy consumed in the USA in 2012.

A

Petroleum (XIX-20)

224
Q

The largest fossil energy reserve of the USA in 2012.

A

Petroleum (XIX-21)

Earth Science 2203 (4 decks)

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