Exam 1 Flashcards

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1
Q

Things like biological populations that grow at the constant or steady rate, R, double over the interval of

(1) ln(2)/R
(2) 0.693/R
(3) about (70/R%)
(4) all of above
(5) none of above

A

(4) all of the above

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2
Q

If you put money into a savings account paying 3.5% interest per year, your money would double in about

A

20

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3
Q

To illustrate how explosive steady growth is, consider bacteria in a bottle that grow by doubling every minute. Suppose that the bottle contains only a single bacterium at 11:00 pm, but is full at midnight. When is the bottle half full?

A

11:59

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4
Q

Suppose the bacteria discovered another bottle to colonize that was the same size as their home bottle. When will they fill up the new bottle?

A

12:01

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5
Q

Without hydrocarbons (coal, oil, gas), the survival of roughly ______ in 7 people living today could be in jeopardy.

A

5

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6
Q

The estimate of 50% of US and world hydrocarbons being consumed by 1975 and 2010, respectively.

A

Hubbert’s Peak

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7
Q

It took 6 doubling times over 240 years to use up 50% of the world’s supply of hydrocarbons. At this rate of consumption, another ______ years of supply is left.

A

40

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8
Q

What else grows at steady rates?

(1) car loan (2) credit card debt (3) student loan (4) all of above

A

(4) all of the above

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9
Q

Non-critical resource for humanity’s survival?

(1) food (2) fresh water (3) energy (4) internet

A

(4) internet

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10
Q

The frog resting in a stew-pot graphic signifies

(1) frogs are good eating (2) enjoy life while you can (3) taking the hazard as the norm (4) having excuses is ok

A

(3) taking the hazard as the norm

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11
Q

A growing humanity breeds more

(1) freedoms (2) fresh air (3) environmental resources (4) laws

A

(4) laws

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12
Q

Renewable resource

(1) coal (2) oil (3) uranium (4) wood (5) natural gas (6) methane

A

(4) wood

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13
Q

Geological hazard

(1) air pollution (2) water pollution (3) earthquake (4) flooding (5) landslide (6) all of the above

A

(6) all of the above

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14
Q

Malthus was the father of classical

(1) theology (2) economics (3) genetics (4) chemistry (5) political science (6) social science

A

(2) economics

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15
Q

The ‘trillion pound gorilla’ refers to 7 billion people each weighing about
(1) 20 lbs (2) 50 lbs (3) 150 lbs (4) 250 lbs (5) 300 lbs

A

(3) 150 lbs

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16
Q

The number of people at risk when fossil fuels dry up.

(1) 0/7
(2) 2/7
(3) 5/7
(4) 7/7

A

(3) 5/7

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17
Q

Egyptian hieroglyph in the trillion pound gorilla graph signifies
(1) female (2) mother (3) woman (4) key to solving the overpopulation problem (5) all of above

A

(5) all of above

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18
Q

The time it takes for Africa’s population to reach 1,888 million people is given by dividing 2.4% into

A

70

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19
Q

The time it takes for Europe’s population to decay to 367 million people is given by dividing 0.001 into

A

0.7 or ln(2)

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20
Q

Best argument for family planning.

(1) reduce abortion rate (2) grow tax base (3) estate preservation (4) grow government

A

(1) reduce abortion rate

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21
Q

Estimated number of people killed in WW I

(1) 16x106 (2) 16x103 (3) 16x109 (4) 16x1011 (5) 16x1012

A

(1) 16x106

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22
Q

Estimated number of people killed in WW II

(1) 60x106 (2) 60x103 (3) 60x109 (4) 60x1011 (5) 60x1012

A

(1) 60x106

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23
Q

Used for porcelain.

(1) copper (2) clays (3) salt (4) zinc (5) cement (6) iron ore

A

(3) clays

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24
Q

Mined in Ohio

(1) copper (2) gold (3) salt (4) zinc (5) cement (6) iron ore

A

(3) salt

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25
Q

How many tons of minerals, metals, and fuels are used by the average American in a lifetime?
(1) 1.8 (2) 18 (3) 180 (4) 1800

A

(4) 1800

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26
Q

Legacy of Ohio’s glaciers.

(1) agricultural soils (2) ground water (3) sands & gravels (4) all of above

A

(4) all of above

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27
Q

Hydrocarbons are found in ______ rocks.

(1) igneous (2) metamorphic (3) sedimentary (4) crystalline (5) volcanic

A

(3) sedimentary

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28
Q

Rocks holding hydrocarbons make up _____ part of the crust.

Rocks holding hydrocarbons make up _____ part of the crust. (1) a minor (2) a major (3) an intermediate (4) all of above

A

(1) a minor

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29
Q

Nature controls overpopulation by _______.

(1) disease & starvation (2) pestilence (3) war (4) all of above

A

(4) all of the above

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30
Q

When something is changing at a rate > 0, it is ____.

(1) declining (2) growing (3) constant (4) all of above

A

(2) growing

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31
Q

When something is changing at a rate < 0, it is ____.

(1) declining (2) growing (3) constant (4) all of above

A

(1) declining

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32
Q

When something is constant, it is changing at a rate _____.

(1) < 0 (2) > 0 (3) = 0 (4) all of above

A

(3) = 0

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33
Q

ln(y) = a×log(y) where a = ______.

(1) 2.3026×100 (2) 2.3026×10-1 (3) 2.3026×10-2 (4) 2.3026×10-3

A

(1) 2.3026×100

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34
Q

log(y) = b×ln(y) where b = _____.

(1) 4.3429×100 (2) 4.3429×10^-1 (3) 4.3429×10^-2 (4) 4.3429×10^-3

A

(2) 4.3429×10^-1

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35
Q

10% =

(1) 10 (2) 0.1 (3) 0.01 (4) 0.001

A

(2) 0.1

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36
Q

If R=10% and t=3 months, then R×t = _____ yrs.

(1) 2.5×100 (2) 2.5×10^-1 (3) 2.5×10^-2 (4) 2.5×10^-3

A

(3) 2.5×10^-2

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37
Q

If 10 lbs of something is growing at an annual rate of 30%, then in 6 months it will weigh (1) 11.0 lbs (2) 11.2 lbs (3) 11.4 lbs (4) 11.6 lbs (5) 11.8 lbs (6) 12.0 lbs

A

(4) 11.6 lbs

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38
Q

At 15% annual interest, the credit card debt doubles in a little over
(1) 3.5 yrs (2) 4.5 yrs (3) 5.5 yrs (4) 6.5 yrs (5) 7.5 yrs (6) 8.5 yrs

A

(2) 4.5 yrs

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39
Q

At 19% annual interest, the credit card debt doubles in a little over
(1) 3.5 yrs (2) 4.5 yrs (3) 5.5 yrs (4) 6.5 yrs (5) 7.5 yrs (6) 8.5 yrs

A

(1) 3.5 yrs

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40
Q

According to Bankrate.com, the average US savings account rate in 2014 is 0.48%, and thus your savings account doubles in a little over
(1) 14.5 yrs (2) 29 yrs (3) 45.5 yrs (4) 91 yrs (5) 145 yrs (6) 250 yrs

A

(5) 145 yrs

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41
Q

According to Bankrate.com, the average 30 yr fixed home mortgage rate in 2014 is 4.21%, and thus your mortgage doubles in a little over
(1) 16.5 yrs (2) 33 yrs (3) 49.5 yrs (4) 56 yrs (5) 72.5 yrs (6) 89 yrs

A

(1) 16.5 yrs

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42
Q

According to Bankrate.com, the average 36 month auto loan rate in 2014 is 2.93%, and thus your auto loan doubles in a little over (1) 16.5 yrs (2) 23 yrs (3) 49.5 yrs (4) 56 yrs (5) 72.5 yrs (6) 89 yrs

A

(2) 23 yrs

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43
Q

According to Bankrate.com, the average Stafford in-school loan rate in 2014 is 6.80%, and thus your school loan doubles in a little over
(1) 5 yrs (2) 10 yrs (3) 15 yrs (4) 20 yrs (5) 25 yrs (6) 30 yrs

A

(2) 10 yrs

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44
Q

Suppose you invest $100 at 7% per year. After 25 years, the value of your investment will be about
(1) $266 (2) $366 (3) $466 (4) $566 (5) $666 (6) $766

A

(4) $566

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45
Q

About how much do you need to invest at 7% per year to get a million dollars in 25 years?
(1) $1.77×102 (2) $1.77×103 (3) $1.77×104 (4) $1.77×105 (5) $1.77×106 (6) $1.77×107

A

(4) $1.77×105

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46
Q

2^0 =

(1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) 4

A

(2) 1

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47
Q

2^6 =

(1) 23 + 23 (2) 22×24 (3) 2×106 (4) 6

A

(2) 2^2×2^4

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48
Q

If carrying capacity involved 6 doubling times, then the first 50% of supply will be consumed in _____ doubling times.
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 5 (4) 6

A

(3) 5

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49
Q

The remaining 50% of supply will be consumed in _____ doubling times.
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 5 (4) 6

A

(1) 1

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50
Q

At any doubling time, the available and consumed supply amounts add up to ___.
(1) 50% (2) 75% (3) 100% (4) 200%

A

(3) 100%

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51
Q

Easter Island consists of about ____ square miles of land.

(1) 50 (2) 75 (3) 100 (4) 125 (5) none of the above

A

(5) 63

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52
Q

Easter Island is located about ____ kilometers west of the Chilean coast.
(1) 2.30×10^2 (2) 2.30×10^3 (3) 3.68×10^3 (4) 3.68×10^2

A

(3) 3.68×10^3

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53
Q

The Falkland Islands are located at about ____ E longitude.

(1) 300º (2) 240º (3) 180º (4) 120º

A

(1) 300º

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54
Q

Easter Island lies _______ of the equator.

(1) north (2) south (3) east (4) west

A

(2) south

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55
Q

A source of protein.

(1) palm fronds (2) sea water (3) humans (4) volcanic tuff

A

(3) humans

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56
Q

240 tons equals ___ lbs.

(1) 2.4×10^5 (2) 4.8×10^5 (3) 2.4×10^4 (4) 4.8×10^4

A

(2) 4.8×10^5

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57
Q

Moai-like lookouts for planet earth.

A

(3) satellites and telescopes

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58
Q

Renewable fuel.

(1) coal (2) oil (3) wood (4) uranium

A

(3) wood

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59
Q

Hydroelectric energy was ____% of the total US energy consumed in 2005.
(1) 45 (2) 0.027 (3) 2.7 (4) 27

A

(3) 2.7

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60
Q

Solar plus wind energy was ____% of the total US energy consumed in 2005.
(1) 3 (2) 1.8 (3) 0.18 (4) 0.018

A

(3) 0.18

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61
Q

Assuming the US consumes 30% of he world’s annual energy production, how many kilowatthours annually would it be consuming in an equable world?
(1) 2.931×10^13 (2) 4.4×10^13 (3) 0.44×10^13 (4) 0.2931×10^13

A

(3) 0.44×10^13

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62
Q

Assuming Hubbert’s global peak actually occurred in 2010, then the world is projected to run out of hydrocarbons around the year ____.
(1) 2034 (2) 2044 (3) 2054 (4) 2064

A

(3) 2054

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63
Q

The ‘Oil Depletion Timer’ at www.poodwaddle.com/clocks/earthclock roughly projects the year _____ for the end of oil.
(1) 2034 (2) 2044 (3) 2054 (4) 2064

A

2050 (choose 2054??)

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64
Q

Environmental geoscience dimensions.

(1) north-south & east-west directions (2) vertical direction (3) time (4) all of above

A

(4) all of above

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65
Q

In a college of arts and sciences, mathematics falls in the ______ category.
(1) arts (2) sciences (3) medical (4) social sciences

A

(1) arts

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66
Q

Inferring that your ancestors 10,000 years ago breathed air like you do is an application of the _____ principle.
(1) uniformitarianism (2) original horizontality (3) superposition (4) gravitational

A

(1) uniformitarianism

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67
Q

The original horizontality principle is due to the earth’s _______.
(1) heat (2) air (3) magnetism (4) gravity

A

(4) gravity

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68
Q

If the oldest rocks are on top of younger rocks, then
(1) the superposition principle doesn’t work (2) the rocks were disturbed (3) radioactivity reversed the original ages (4) none of above

A

(2) the rocks were disturbed

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69
Q

Scientific facts are

(1) absolute (2) conditional (3) valid for all time (4) faith-based

A

(2) conditional

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70
Q
The statement "the present is the key to the past" is the major emphasis of the principle of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
original horizontality
uniformitarianism
geologic time
superposition
elastic rebound
A

uniformitarianism

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71
Q

The principle of superposition (sequence) states that rocks get from top to bottom.

(1) darker
(2) older
(3) hotter
(4) younger
(5) more dense

A

(2) older

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72
Q

The Earth is fundamentally layered due to the effect of _____.
(1) heat (2) air (3) magnetism (4) gravity

A

(4) gravity

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73
Q

Your birthday is an example of _______ dating.

(1) relative (2) absolute (3) sequential (4) radiometric

A

(2) absolute

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74
Q

Recognizing that you are a middle child of the family is an example of _______ dating.
(1) relative (2) absolute (3) sequential (4) radiometric

A

(1) relative

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75
Q

Ohio’s Paleozoic rocks contain ___ unconformities.

(1) 5 (2) 6 (3) 7 (4) 9

A

(3) 7

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76
Q

Economically significant rocks.

(1) limestone (2) shale (3) coal (4) all of above

A

(4) all of the above

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77
Q

Changes in an organism observed from its fossils are taken as evidence of organic _____.
(1) turbulence (2) creationism (3) polar wandering (4) evolution

A

(4) evolution

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78
Q

The trilobite is the state fossil of _____.

A

Ohio

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79
Q

A fossil found in a limestone and a sandstone located 100 miles apart suggests that the two units are _____ ages.
(1) the same (2) different (3) all of above (4) none of above

A

(1) the same

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80
Q

A sandstone sits atop a 350-million- year-old granite, and a 15-million-year- old basalt dike cuts across both units. The sandstone is

A

between 15 and 350 million years old

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81
Q
Chunks of limestone in the underlying granite means the granite is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ the limestone.
older than
younger than
same age as
less weathered than
A

younger than

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82
Q

Only person to date who has won two Nobel Prizes in physics.

(1) Becquerel (2) M. Curie (3) Rutherford (4) Libby

A

(2) M. Curie

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83
Q

The time it takes for something to be steadily reduced to one half of its original amount.
(1) doubling time (2) carrying capacity (3) decay rate (4) half-life

A

(4) half-life

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84
Q

The half-life of a radioactive isotope is

A

.

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85
Q

2^1 ×2^-1=

A

1

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86
Q

2^5 ×2^-2 =

A

2^3

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87
Q

2^-6 =

(1) 2^-3 + 2^-3 (2) 2^-2•2^-4 (3) 2×10^-6 (4) -64

A

(2) 2^-2•2^-4

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88
Q

For a radioisotope system with a half-life of 1,000 years, the decay constant is _____.
(1) 6.93×10^-1 (2) 6.93×10^-2 (3) 6.93×10^-3 (4) 6.93×10^-4

A

(4) 6.93×10^-4

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89
Q

Units of the decay constant.

(1) dimensionless (2) years (3) years^-1 (4) months (5) months^-1 (6) percent

A

(3) years^-1

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90
Q

In seven half-lives, the amount of parent isotope has been reduced by about _____%.
(1) 99 (2) 90 (3) 75 (4) 50

A

(1) 99

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91
Q

In seven half-lives, the amount of daughter isotope has grown to about _____×Ci.
(1) 0.99 (2) 0.90 (3) 0.75 (4) 0.50

A

(1) 0.99

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92
Q

Thus, in seven half-lives, for every parent atom there are ____ daughter atoms.
(1) 127×10^-2 (2) 1.27×10 (3) 1.27×10^2 (3) 1.27×10^3

A

(2) 1.27×10

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93
Q

If there are 127 daughter atoms for every parent isotope with a half-life of ten thousand years in a rock, then the rock is ____ years old.
(1) 7×10 (2) 7×10^2 (3) 7×10^3 (4) 7×10^4

A

(4) 7x10^4

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94
Q

In the time equation (Cd/Cp) = ((2^N) – 1)

A

.

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95
Q

If (Cd/Cp) = 15 in a rock,

A

N=4

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96
Q

A rock started out with 4000 atoms of parent radioisotope X and none of its daughter Y. We now find in it 1,000 atoms of X and 3,000 of Y. The half- life of X is 10 million years. The rock is __________ years old.

A

20 million

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97
Q

The Tollund man died about 2,000 years ago. Assuming a 14C half-life of about 6,000 years means that he has been dead for about ______ half-lives.

A

1/3

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98
Q

Thus, the amount of 14C in the remains of Tollund man is about _____ of atmospheric concentration.

A

79%

99
Q

For an organism that’s been dead for roughly 17 thousand years, the amount of 14C in the remains should be about ____ of the concentration in the atmosphere.
(1) 0.125% (2) 1.25% (3) 12.5% (4) 125%

A

(3) 12.5%

100
Q

Periods of the geological calendar for the earth like the Cretaceous were established from _____.
(1) radioactive dating (2) plate tectonic theory (3) fossils (4) paleomagnetism

A

(3) fossils

101
Q

Relative dating of the periods of the geological calendar from _______ is consistent with absolute dates from ______.
(1) radioactive dating, plate tectonic theory (2) fossils, radioactive dating (3) paleomagnetism, radioactive dating (4) fossils, paleomagnetism

A

(2) fossils, radioactive dating

102
Q

Most of earth’s history is contained in the _______ era.

(1) Cenozoic (2) Mesozoic (3) Paleozoic (4) Precambrian

A

(4) Precambrian

103
Q

Radiometric clock that can date rocks containing both dinosaur and early human fossils.
(1) 14N/14C (2) 87Ar/40K (3) 87Sr/87Rb (4) 206Pb/238U

A

(3) 87Sr/87Rb

104
Q

The ‘tree of animal life’ including the names of eras, periods, and epochs was established from _____.
(1) radioactive dating (2) plate tectonic theory (3) fossils (4) paleomagnetism

A

(3) fossils

105
Q

The time scale for the ‘tree of animal life’ was established from _____.
(1) radioactive dating (2) plate tectonic theory (3) fossils (4) paleomagnetism

A

(1) radioactive dating

106
Q

The official state fossil of Ohio became extinct at the end of the ______.
(1) Carboniferous (2) Permian (3) Triassic (4) Cambrian

A

(2) Permian

107
Q

Fundamental source of the 6th major biological mass extinction of the earth.
(1) global climate change (2) air pollution (3) water pollution (4) human population bomb

A

(4) human population bomb

108
Q

The amounts of parent and daughter isotopes in a rock are measured by a

(1) magnetometer
(2) mass spectrometer
(3) barometer
(4) none of above

A

(2) mass spectrometer

109
Q

Which of the following represents the oldest time unit?

A

day?

110
Q

The nebular hypothesis for the solar system’s origin invokes a cosmic cloud of _____ dust and gas.
(1) bituminous (2) hot (3) cold (4) soupy

A

(3) cold

111
Q

Fourth rock from the sun.

(1) Jupiter (2) Mars (3) Earth (4) Venus

A

(2) Mars

112
Q

Comets originate mostly from ______.

(1) the asteroid belt (2) Saturn’s rings (3) the Kuiper belt (4) other galaxies

A

(3) the Kuiper belt

113
Q

The meteorite that made dinosaurs extinct probably came from ______.
(1) the asteroid belt (2) Saturn’s rings (3) the Kuiper belt (4) other galaxies

A

(1) the asteroid belt

114
Q

Pluto is sometimes closer to the sun than Neptune because of the ____ of its orbital plane.
(1) declination (2) inclination (3) azimuth (4) speed

A

(2) inclination

115
Q

Which of the following planets has an orbital radius between that of Mercury and Earth?

A

Venus

116
Q

The asteroid belt is located between

A

Mars and Jupiter

117
Q

Approximate age of the Earth.

A

4.6 billion years

118
Q

The blast furnace analogy for the earth’s formation is an application of the _____ principle.
(1) uniformitarianism (2) original horizontality (3) superposition (4) none of above

A

(1) uniformitarianism

119
Q

Oil floats on water because it is ______ than water.

(1) lighter (2) heavier (3) warmer (4) colder

A

(1) lighter

120
Q

Oil floats on water because its density is ______ that of water.
(1) less than (2) more than (3) equal to (4) hotter than

A

(1) less than

121
Q

The specific gravity of something is given by the ratio of its density to that of fresh water at 5ºC which is 1 g/cm^3. Thus, oil floats on water because its specific gravity is ______ than that of water.
(1) more (2) less (3) warmer (4) colder

A

(2) less

122
Q

The specific gravity of continental crust is ____.

(1) 5.5 (2) 10.7 (3) 4.5 (4) 2.8

A

(4) 2.8

123
Q

Using gravity measurements taken on Japan’s Mt. Fuji, OSU’s first geodesist, Prof. T.C. Mendenhall, estimated the Earth’s mean specific gravity given by _____.
(1) 5.5 (2) 10.7 (3) 4.5 (4) 2.8

A

(1) 5.5

124
Q

The quasi-liquid portion of the Earth that may accommodate the drift of the continents.
(1) crust (2) aesthenosphere (4) mantle (5) outer core

A

(2) aesthenosphere

125
Q

The quasi-liquid portion of the Earth where a time- and space-varying magnetic field may originate.
(1) crust (2) aesthenosphere (3) mantle (4) outer core

A

(4) outer core

126
Q

The formation of the atmosphere, hydrosphere, and biosphere is favored by the formation of the Earth from a _______ cosmic cloud of dust and gas.

A

cold

127
Q

The first to measure the Earth’s circumference.

A

Eratostenes

128
Q

You and I are moving through space at over _______ per hour.

A

67,000 miles per hour

129
Q

Earth’s parameter obtained by Eratostenes circa 240 BCE.

(1) diameter (2) circumference (3) volume (4) all of above

A

(2) circumference

130
Q

Difference in the Earth’s equatorial and polar radii.

(1) 21 km (2) 42 km (3) 5.5 km (4) 0 km

A

(1) 21 km

131
Q

The existence of hydrogen, oxygen, carbon, and other light elements on Earth is consistent with the Earth having formed from a ____ cloud of cosmic dust and gas.
(1) bituminous (2) hot (3) cold (4) soupy

A

(3) cold

132
Q

Free oxygen accumulating in the atmosphere is a waste product of _______.
(1) volcanic eruptions (2) bioturbation (3) ozone depletion (4) photosynthesis

A

(4) photosynthesis

133
Q

The crust of the oceans is generally _________ the crust of the continents.

A

younger

134
Q

The is the largest volumetric component of the Earth.

A

mantle

135
Q

The Mohorovicic Discontinuity (i.e., the Moho) is the boundary between the Earth’s

(1) lithosphere and asthenosphere
(2) crust and mantle
(3) core and mantle
(4) outer and inner core
(5) upper and lower mantle

A

(2) crust and mantle

136
Q

The gaseous envelope which surrounds the Earth.

A

atmosphere

137
Q
The mean density of crustal rocks is \_\_\_\_\_\_ the average density of Earth which is
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
(1) smaller than, 5.5 g/cm^3
(2) larger than, 2.67 g/cm^3
(3) about the same as, 5.5 g/cm^3
(4) smaller than, 2.67 g/cm^3
(5) about the same as, 2.67 g/cm^3
A

(1) smaller than (2.7), 5.5 g/cm^3

138
Q
The point of origin of an earthquake.
anticenter
epicenter
panic point
focus
seismic station
A

focus

139
Q

Surface wave that moves the ground up and down in a retrograde motion along the direction of propagation.
(1) L (Love) (2) P (Pressure or primary) (3) S (Shear or secondary) (4) R (Rayleigh)

A

(4) R (Rayleigh)

140
Q

Surface wave that moves the ground in a sideways motion along the direction of propagation.
(1) L (Love) (2) P (3) S (4) R (Rayleigh)

A

(1) L (Love)

141
Q

Body wave that moves the ground in a sideways motion along the direction of propagation.
(1) L (2) P (3) S (4) R

A

(3) S

142
Q

Body wave that moves the ground in a back-and-forth motion along the direction of propagation.
(1) L (2) P (3) S (4) R

A

(2) P

143
Q

First wave to arrive at seismograph station.

(1) L (2) P (3) S (4) R

A

(2) P

144
Q

S-waves travel ____ P-waves.

A

slower than

145
Q

The disappearance of earthquake ___ waves suggests that the ____ core may be something like a liquid.

A

S, outer

146
Q

Pressure waves (sound) travel faster in _____ than in ______.

A

water than in air
OR
hard rock than in water/air

147
Q

You hear the thunder about 5 seconds after the lightning flash. Thus, the lightning struck the ground about ___ mile(s) from you.
(1) 1 (2) 1.4 (3) 2 (4) 6

A

(1) 1

148
Q

If the lightning hits water 5 miles away, the fish will hear the thunder in about ____ seconds.
(1) 1 (2) 1.4 (3) 2 (4) 6

A

(4) 6

149
Q

If the lightning hits the hard rock 5 miles away, miners will hear the thunder in about ____ seconds.
(1) 1 (2) 1.4 (3) 2 (4) 6

A

(2) 1.4

150
Q

For hard rock with VP = 18.9×10^3 ft/sec, VS = ____ ft/sec.

(1) 11.34×10^3 (2) 1.134×10^3 (3) 113.4×10^3 (4) 1134.0×10^3

A

(1) 11.34×10^3

151
Q

For hard rock with VP = 18.9×10^3 ft/sec, VR = ____ ft/sec.

(1) 10.21×10^1 (2) 10.21×10^2 (3) 10.21×10^3 (4) 10.21×10^4

A

(3) 10.21×10^3

152
Q

Earthquake shear waves are not observed at and beyond epicentral distances of about ______ miles.
(1) 5×10^3 (2) 7×10^3 (3) 9×10^3 (4) 12×10^3

A

(2) 7x10^3

153
Q

Where the S waves disappear, P waves are delayed by about ____ minute(s).
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 4 (4) 10

A

(3) 4

154
Q

Half the shadow zone of P waves spans some ____ degrees.

(1) 103 (2) 43 (3) 40 (4) 77

A

(3) 40

155
Q

Half the shadow zone of S waves spans some ____ degrees.

(1) 103 (2) 43 (3) 40 (4) 77

A

(4) 77

156
Q

Surface waves produced by earthquakes.

A

R and L

157
Q

Epicentral distance decreases with _____ differences in arrival times between P and S waves.

A

decreasing

this said “increasing,” but I’m almost positive that’s wrong

158
Q

Wegner was a _____ by profession.

(1) geologist (2) biologist (3) geographer (4) meteorologist

A

(4) meteorologist

159
Q

Ohio is part of ____.

(1) Gondwana (2) Eurasia (3) Tethys Sea (4) none of above

A

(2) Eurasia

160
Q

A resource that southern Greenland shares with Ohio.

(1) rock salt (2) coal (3) rubies (4) gypsum

A

(2) coal

161
Q

Gondwana includes

A

Africa, South America, Australia, India, Antarctica, Madagascar

162
Q

The Earth’s magnetic field is derived from the part of the core that does not propagate seismic

A

S-wave

163
Q

The magnetic compass needle points vertical at the ____.

(1) north magnetic pole (2) magnetic equator (3) south magnetic pole (4) #1 & #3 above

A

(4) #1 and #3 above

164
Q

The magnetic compass needle points horizontal at the ____.

(1) north magnetic pole (2) magnetic equator (3) south magnetic pole (4) #1 & #3 above

A

(2) magnetic equator

165
Q

The crustal plates are riding on the ____.

(1) lithosphere (2) inner core (3) asthenosphere (4) outer core

A

(3) asthenosphere

166
Q

The Earth’s present day magnetic field has ______ polarity.

(1) positive (2) negative (3) obtuse (4) regular

A

(1) positive

167
Q

The Earth’s magnetic field 200 Myr ago had ______ polarity.

(1) reversed (2) normal (3) obtuse (4) regular

A

(1) reversed

168
Q

Absolute dates for the magnetic epochs were obtained from ______.
(1) relative dating. (2) fossils (3) radiometric methods (4) coprolites

A

(3) radiometric methods

169
Q

The Indo-Australian Plate includes ______.

(1) Africa. (2) Asia. (3) Sumatra. (4) India

A

(4) India

170
Q

The San Andreas Fault is a ____-lateral fault.

(1) left (2) right (3) back (4) front

A

(2) right

171
Q

The transform fault offsetting the oceanic ridge is a ____-lateral fault.
(1) left (2) right (3) back (4) front

A

(2) right

172
Q

Alaska’s Aleutian Islands are best characterized by ______ plate convergence.

A

ocean-ocean plate convergence

173
Q

India started to break away from Antarctica about ____ years ago.
(1) 200×10^6 (2) 150×10^6 (3) 100×10^6 (4) 50×10^6

A

(2) 150×10^6

174
Q

Australia started to break away from Antarctica about ____ years ago.
(1) 200×10^6 (2) 150×10^6 (3) 100×10^6 (4) 50×10^6

A

(4) 50×10^6

175
Q

According to plate tectonics, some ____% of the Earth’s surface was produced in roughly the last 200×10^6 years.
(1) 100 (2) 30 (3) 70 (4) 0

A

(3) 70

176
Q

The oldest rocks recovered from the sea floor are about years old.

A

200 million

177
Q

The igneous rocks of the sea floor.

A

basalt

178
Q

Metamorphosed limestone.

A

marble

179
Q

Metamorphosed shale.

A

slate

180
Q

Metamorphosed sandstone.

(1) slate (2) quartzite (3) marble (4) schist

A

(2) quartzite

181
Q

Unlikely sequence in the rock cycle.
(1) metamorphic to igneous rocks (2) sedimentary to igneous rocks (3) igneous to metamorphic rocks (4) metamorphic to sedimentary rocks

A

(2) sedimentary to igneous

182
Q

Which of the following is a mineral?

A

anything metallic/sans carbon and a solid

183
Q

The elements O, Si, Al and Fe account for about ____% of the Earth’s crust.
(1) 100 (2) 87 (3) 75 (4) 50

A

(2) 87

184
Q

Which of the Earth’s common crustal elements is radioactive?

(1) oxygen (2) silicon (3) sodium (4) potassium

A

(4) potassium

185
Q

The metal that is in greatest abundance in the Earth’s crust.
(1) magnesium (2) silicon (3) aluminum (4) iron

A

(3) aluminum

186
Q

Silicate mineral containing calcium.

(1) plagioclase (2) orthoclase (3) quartz (4) mica

A

(1) plagioclase

187
Q

Silicate mineral containing potassium.

(1) plagioclase (2) orthoclase (3) quartz (4) mica

A

(2) orthoclase

188
Q

Two most abundant elements (by weight)

A

oxygen and silicon

189
Q

The plastic zone of partial melting just below the brittle plates is the

A

asthenosphere

190
Q

Magnetic pole positions observed from igneous rocks produced today in Europe and North America are geographically _______________.

A

the same

191
Q

Magnetic pole positions observed from 500 million year old igneous rocks in Europe and North America are geographically _______________.

A

distinct/separate

192
Q

Magnetic poles of the same sign

(1) attract
(2) repulse
(3) glow
(4) decay
(5) none of the above

A

(2) repulse

193
Q

The magnetic field originates in the _________.

A

outer core

194
Q

Plate boundary where crust is not produced or consumed.

A

transform faults

195
Q

Tectonic plate boundaries control _______.

(1) earthquakes (2) mountains (3) volcanoes (4) all of the above (5) none of the above

A

(4) all of the above

196
Q

The elastic strength of the rock sample is the slope of the stress-strain curve up to the ____.
(1) proportional limit (2) elastic limit (3) ductile failure (4) none of above

A

(1) proportional limit

197
Q

Where equal amounts of stress produce equal amounts of strain on the stress-strain curve.
(1) linear elasticity (2) non-linear elasticity (3) plastic yielding (4) none of above

A

(1) linear elasticity

198
Q

A twisting force.

A

sheer (torque as backup)

199
Q

A pull-apart force.

A

tensile

200
Q

A squeezing force.

A

compression

201
Q

Hooke’s Law states that

(1) stress is proportional to strain
(2) older rocks are found under younger rocks
(3) layered rocks are deposited horizontally
(4) events of today happened in the past
(5) none of the above

A

(1) stress is proportional to strain

202
Q

The rocks become younger towards the middle of an eroded _______.

A

anticline (I think…. check on this)

203
Q

The rock ages increase outwards from the center of the fold.

(1) anticline (2) syncline (3) all of above (4) none of above

A

(1) anticline

204
Q

The rock ages decrease outwards from the center of the fold.

(1) anticline (2) syncline (3) all of above (4) none of above

A

(2) syncline

205
Q

The erosional V’s point down dip for the dipping _____.

(1) anticline (2) syncline (3) all of above (4) none of above

A

(1) anticline

206
Q

The erosional V’s point up dip for the dipping _____.

(1) anticline (2) syncline (3) all of above (4) none of above

A

(2) syncline

207
Q

Intersection of a dipping layer with the horizontal.

(1) azimuth (2) dip & inclination (3) strike (4) azimuth & strike

A

(4) azimuth and strike

208
Q

Angle of a dipping layer with the horizontal.

(1) azimuth (2) dip & inclination (3) strike (4) azimuth & strike

A

(2) dip and inclination

209
Q

Intersection of an inclined rock layer with the horizontal.

A

strike

210
Q

Produced by desiccation.

(1) mudcracks (2) columnar basalt (3) all of above (4) none of above

A

(1) mudcracks

211
Q

Produced by cooling.

(1) mudcracks (2) columnar basalt (3) all of above (4) none of above

A

(2) columnar basalt

212
Q

Fault resulting from squeezing rocks together.

(1) normal (2) reverse (3) dip slip (4) hanging

A

(2) reverse

213
Q

Fault resulting from pushing rocks apart.

(1) normal (2) reverse (3) strike slip (4) compressive

A

(1) normal

214
Q

Normal faulting implies _________.

A

tension

215
Q

The San Andreas is a ______, ______ fault.

A

right lateral

216
Q

The real-estate on the west side of the San Andreas fault resides on the ______ plate.

A

Pacific

217
Q

The fault results when the forces across it exceed the rock’s _______ strength.
(1) tensile (2) ductile (3) compressive (4) thermal

A

(3) compressive

218
Q

The last continental ice sheet of North America was centered on ______.
(1) the Great Lakes (2) Baffin Bay (3) Hudson Bay (4) the Northwest Passage

A

(3) Hudson Bay

219
Q

The average earth surface temperature.

(1) 14ºC (2) 57.2ºF (3) all of above (4) none of above

A

(3) all of the above

220
Q

Kames are produced from sand, gravel and till that accumulate in depressions of ______ glaciers.
(1) advancing (2) retreating (3) stationary (4) all of above

A

(2) retreating

221
Q

Stratification of glacial materials implies sorting by _____.
(1) wind (2) air (3) water (4) temperature

A

(3) water

222
Q

Loess deposits consist of ______ sediments.

(1) till (2) drift (3) eolian (4) subduction

A

(3) eolian

223
Q

Eolian glacial outwash deposits yielding desirable agricultural soils.

A

loess

224
Q

Ohio’s glaciers have produced

A

agricultural soils, groundwater, sands/gravel

225
Q

The density of ice is _____ that of water.

(1) higher than (2) lower than (3) the same as (4) none of above

A

(2) lower than

226
Q

The specific gravity of ice is _____ that of water.

(1) higher than (2) lower than (3) the same as (4) none of above

A

(2) lower than

227
Q

The specific gravity of ice is _____ that of air.

(1) higher than (2) lower than (3) the same as (4) none of above

A

(1) higher than

228
Q

Due to the retreat of the continental ice sheet, the St. Lawrence River Basin is _____ northwards to Hudson Bay.
(1) rising (2) sinking (3) subducting (4) overthrusting

A

(1) rising

229
Q

Columbus was connected to the _______ canal.

(1) Miami & Erie (2) Pennsylvania & Ohio (3) Ohio & Erie (4) Erie & Michigan

A

(3) Ohio & Erie

230
Q

In northern Ohio, the ground is ________ due to the retreat of the ice sheet some 12 thousand years ago.

A

rising

231
Q

The 14C concentration in Ohio’s plants and animals from the time that ice sheet began to retreat is about ____% of atmospheric concentration.

A

25%

232
Q

A plant root working its way into rock crevices and joints breaks the rock down when the root pressure exceeds the rock’s ______ strength.
(1) tensile (2) ductile (3) compressive (4) thermal

A

(1) tensile

233
Q

Frost wedging results when the force of the ice exceeds the rock’s _______ strength.
(1) tensile (2) ductile (3) compressive (4) thermal

A

(1) tensile

234
Q

A rotational slide.

(1) creep (2) rock slide (3) slump (4) mud slide

A

(3) slump

235
Q

The compass orientation of the line of intersection of an inclined plane with the horizontal is its ______.
(1) dip (2) plunge (3) vertical or plumb line (4) joint (5) strike

A

(5) strike

236
Q

Surface waves travel at roughly ____ of the speed of the P wave.
(1) 34% (2) 44% (3) 54% (4) 64%

A

(3) 54%

237
Q
A rock fold with the youngest rocks in the center flanked by older rocks is called a \_\_\_\_\_.
disconformity
nonconformity
angular unconformity
anticline
syncline
A

syncline

238
Q

Rock conversion prohibited by the rock cycle.

(1) metamorphic to igneous rocks
(2) sedimentary to igneous rocks
(3) igneous to metamorphic rocks
(4) metamorphic to sedimentary rocks

A

(2) sedimentary to igneous rocks

239
Q
To locate the epicenter, seismograms from at least \_\_\_ stations are needed.
2
3
4
6
A

3

240
Q

The seismogram observed closest to the epicenter shows the ____ difference in P- and S-wave arrival times.
(1) greatest (2) least (3) fastest (4) slowest

A

(2) least

241
Q

Due to retreat of the glaciers, northern Ohio is _____.

(1) sinking
(2) rising
(3) not moving
(4) melting

A

(2) rising

242
Q

Plate boundary predicted by plate tectonic theory.

(1) convergent
(2) transform
(3) divergent
(4) metamorphic

A

(2) transform

243
Q

The rock type containing fossil fuels.

(1) igneous
(2) metamorphic
(3) sedimentary
(4) none of above

A

(3) sedimentary