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Earth Science 2203 > Exam 2 > Flashcards

Exam 2 Flashcards

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1
Q

By the end of the year, the human

population will grow by about ___ people.

A

87,600,000 (240,000 per day)

80,000,000

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2
Q 
If your investment doubles every 10 years, 
it is generating \_\_\_% interest per year.
(1) ~3.5	
(2) ~ 7.0
(3) ~ 14.0
(4) ~ 21.0
(5) ~ 28.0
A

(2) ~ 7.0

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3
Q

In a closed system of steady growth, supply

and demand add up to

A

100%

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4
Q

Moai refers to the

A

Easter Island statues

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5
Q

If a mastodon found in an Ohio peat bog
died 24,000 years ago, we would expect the
remains to contain about ______ of the
atmospheric 14C concentration assuming a
14C half-life of 6,000 years.

A

6.25% (1/16)

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6
Q

In a closed system of steady decay, parent

and daughter isotopes add up to

A

100%

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7
Q

Hurricane that struck Columbus, Ohio.

A

Ike

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8
Q

As waves enter shallow water ________.
(1) wavelength decreases and wave height increases (2) wavelength increases and wave height increases (3) wavelength decreases and wave height decreases (4) wavelength increases and wave height decreases

A

(1) wavelength decreases and wave height increases

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9
Q

Hurricanes in the tropical Atlantic Ocean
tend to originate as ____.
(1) minor perturbations of the jet stream (2) thunderstorms in West Africa (3) major pressure lows over the equatorial ocean (4) typhoons off the Iberian Peninsula

A

(2) thunderstorms in West Africa

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10
Q

The aspect of hurricanes that typically
cause the greatest death and destruction.
(1) the intensely low atmospheric pressure in the storm’s eye (2) the intense wind (3) flooding from rain, waves, and storm surge (4) lightning from thunderstorms spawned by the hurricane

A

(3) flooding from rain, waves, and storm surge

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11
Q

The aspect of Ike that caused the greatest
destruction in Ohio.
(1) the intensely low atmospheric pressure in the storm’s eye (2) the intense wind (3) flooding from rain, waves, and storm surge (4) lightning from thunderstorms spawned by the hurricane

A

(2) the intense wind

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12
Q

_______ buildings mitigate the effects of
storm surges and tsunamis.
(1) Wood-framed (2) Steel-anchored (3) Stilt-elevated (4) Ocean-facing

A

(3) stilt-elevated

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13
Q

Hurricane Katrina flooded New Orleans
when a ________ broke.
(1) dam (2) levee (3) pumping station (4) generator

A

(2) levee

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14
Q

The impacts of coastal hazards are so great
because ________.
(1) coastal erosion extends far inland (2) coastal hazards are particularly intense natural hazards (3) many populated areas are located near the coasts (4) they are high magnitude/low frequency hazards

A

(3) many populated areas are located near the coasts

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15
Q

Global warming might exacerbate coastal
hazards because _______.
(1) it will likely be accompanied by sea level rise (2) warmer water is more highly erosive on coastlines (3) ocean currents will be stronger in a warmer world (4) under warmer conditions, waves are likely to be substantially larger

A

(1) it will likely be accompanied by sea level rise

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16
Q

Natural hazards of Ohio.

(1) tornados & hurricanes (2) flooding & wildfires (3) beach erosion & landslides (4) all of above

A

(4) all of the above

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17
Q

Natural hazard that enriches soils and
creates new land.
(1) storms (2) wild fires (3) landslides (4) volcanism

A

(4) volcanism

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18
Q

Inversely related variables are _____

correlated.
(1) positively (2) negatively (3) null (4) directly

A

(2) negatively

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19
Q

The frequency of geological hazards _____

with increasing magnitude.

A

generally decreases

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20
Q

How does a catastrophe differ from a
disaster?
(1) damages from a catastrophe are of such a magnitude to require a long recovery period (2) a disaster is typically much worse than a catastrophe (3) a catastrophe involves loss of life, while a disaster does not (4) a disaster occurs across a much greater geographic area than does a catastrophe

A

(1) damages from a catastrophe are of such a magnitude to require a long recovery period

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21
Q

Loss of life and property damage from a
natural hazard tend to be ______ correlated
parameters.
(1) positively (2) negatively (3) null (4) inversely

A

(1) positively

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22
Q

Global breeding replenishes the average
number of people dying in the US from
natural hazards in about ____ minutes.
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4

A

(3) 3

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23
Q

Mitigating the impact of natural hazards

requires

A

risk analysis/planning

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24
Q

The risk for a particular hazard is the
probability of its occurrence multiplied by
______.
(1) its consequences (2) the level of consequences of a false prediction (3) the number of people that it may kill (4) the amount of land that it may affect

A

(1) its consequences

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25
Q

History is important in understanding
natural hazards because ________.
(1) a natural hazard typically does not recur, so the history of a natural hazard reveals where it won’t happen (2) most natural hazards are low magnitude, high frequency events (3) most natural hazards are repetitive events (4) the history of natural hazards is always interesting

A

(3) most natural hazards are repetitive events

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26
Q

The recurrence interval of a natural
hazard is also known as its ________.
(1) wavelength (2) frequency (3) magnitude (4) mode

A

(2) frequency

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27
Q

Precursors are important in hazard
analysis because they _____.
(1) provide warning that a hazardous process is becoming active (2) help to define the magnitude and frequency of an event (3) define the history of a hazardous process (4) reveal linkages between hazards

A

(1) provide warning that a hazardous process is becoming active

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28
Q

Hazard warnings are sometime
problematic because ______.
(1) people do not believe scientists (2) warnings are occasionally inaccurate (3) people do not want to hear bad news (4) the probability of natural hazards is so low that warnings are irrelevant

A

(2) warnings are occasionally inaccurate

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29
Q

Scientists issue disaster warnings based
on ____.
(1) data (2) consensus of peers (3) absolute facts (4) strength of will

A

(1) data

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30
Q

Agencies issue disaster warnings based
on ____.
(1) data (2) consensus of peers (3) absolute facts (4) strength of will

A

(2) consensus of peers

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31
Q

Acceptable risk refers to
(1) the fact that natural hazards always have risks (2) the risk that a prediction of an event is likely to be inaccurate (3) the risk that is inherent in predicting natural hazards (4) the risk that society or individuals are willing to endure

A

(4) the risk that society or individuals are willing to endure

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32
Q

Population increase affects the number of
catastrophic events because
(1) greater numbers of people occupy marginal lands in the path of hazardous processes (2) population affects the magnitude and frequency of hazardous events (3) hazardous events are more likely to occur in areas with more people (4) as in Mexico City, earthquake magnitude is directly related to population

A

(1) greater numbers of people occupy marginal lands in the path of hazardous processes

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33
Q

Global breeding replenishes the average
number of people dying worldwide from
natural hazards in about ____ days.
(1) 0.7 (2) 1.7 (3) 2.7 (4) 3.7

A

(1) 0.7

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34
Q

The correlation coefficient between number
of hazardous events and associated
economic loss approaches ____.
(1) +1 (2) -1 (3) 0 (4) none of above

A

(1) +1

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35
Q

What is the difference between a reactive
response and an anticipatory response in
hazard analysis.
(1) a reactive response is typically stronger than an anticipatory response (2) an anticipatory response is typically stronger than a reactive response (3) a reactive response has to do with recovery, while an anticipatory response has to do with preparedness (4) a reactive response has much less value to society than an anticipatory response

A

(3) a reactive response has to do with recovery, while an anticipatory response has to do with preparedness

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36
Q

Completion of search and rescue occurs
near the end of the _____ cycle.
(1) emergency (2) restoration (3) basic reconstruction (4) enhanced reconstruction

A

(1) emergency

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37
Q

Why is land use planning typically more
effective than artificial control of natural
hazards?
(1) land use planning often reduces the probability that a hazardous event will occur (2) most hazardous natural processes are not amenable to artificial control (3) artificial controls usually increase the probability that a hazardous event will occur (4) land use planning is an accepted societal tool for hazards, while artificial control is not

A

(2) most hazardous natural processes are not amenable to artificial control

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38
Q

All you need is will power.

(1) Murphy’s Law (2) Disney’s First Law (3) Newton’s First Law (4) Coulomb’s Law

A

(2) Disney’s First Law

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39
Q

Wishing will make it so or happen.

(1) Murphy’s Law (2) Disney’s First Law (3) Newton’s First Law (4) Coulomb’s Law

A

(2) Disney’s First Law

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40
Q

Global climate change can impact the
magnitude and frequency of hazardous
events because ______.
(1) many hazardous natural events are controlled in part by the amount of water in the system (2) climate change may cause the acceptable risk of a natural hazard to increase (3) climate change will likely increase the likelihood of earthquakes (4) climate change is directly related to land use planning efforts

A

(1) many hazardous natural events are controlled in part by the amount of water in the system

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41
Q

Global climate change can impact the
magnitude and frequency of hazardous
events because ______.
(1) global warming will affect the fundamental processes occurring in the atmosphere (2) warmer clouds are more likely to generate tornadoes (3) warmer air is able to hold less water, leading to heavier rains (4) warmer ocean waters will channel more energy into the atmosphere

A

(4) warmer ocean waters will channel more energy into the atmosphere

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42
Q

________ magnified the catastrophe
caused by Hurricane Mitch that hit Central
America in 1998.
(1) Air pollution (2) Water pollution (3) Earthquakes (4) Deforestation

A

(4) Deforestation

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43
Q

Global breeding replenished the 3.0×105
people killed by the 2003 Iranian
earthquake in about ____ hours.
(1) 10 (2) 20 (3) 30 (4) 40

A

(3) 30

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44
Q

Downstream floods typically cover ____
areas than do upstream floods.
(1) larger (2) smaller (3) about the same (4) higher

A

(1) larger

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45
Q

The longitudinal profile marks a _____
topographic gradient.
(1) positive (2) negative (3) zero (4) none of above

A

(1) positive

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46
Q

The portion of rainfall that flows off the
land directly into a river.
(1) watershed (2) flood magnitude (3) recurrence interval (4) runoff

A

(4) runoff

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47
Q

Why did extensive flooding occur upstream
of St. Louis during the 1993 Mississippi
River flood?
(1) widespread urbanization in the upper portion of the basin increased runoff to a great degree (2) the St. Louis floodwall failed, flooding St. Louis and the area upstream (3) floodwalls protecting St. Louis caused a bottleneck in the river’s flow (4) an intense thunderstorm dropped several inches of rain on the area in only a few hours

A

(3) floodwalls protecting St. Louis caused a bottleneck in the river’s flow

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48
Q

In what way can structural control of floods
actually increase flood damage?
(1) by decreasing impervious cover in the urban environment (2) by increasing runoff in the upper portions of drainage basins (3) by encouraging development on the floodplain (4) by making the water transmitting capacity of the stream less efficient

A

(3) by encouraging development on the floodplain

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49
Q

The eastern margin of the central US
drainage basin is formed by _____.
(1) Rocky Mts. (2) Ouachita Mts. (3) Appalachian Mts. (4) glacial isostasy

A

(3) Appalachian Mts.

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50
Q

The southwestern margin of the central US
drainage basin is formed by _____.
(1) Rocky Mts. (2) Ouachita Mts. (3) Appalachian Mts. (4) glacial isostasy

A

(2) Ouachita Mts.

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51
Q

The northwestern margin of the central US
drainage basin is formed by _____.
(1) Rocky Mts. (2) Ouachita Mts. (3) Appalachian Mts. (4) glacial isostasy

A

(1) Rocky Mts.

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52
Q

The northern margin of the central US
drainage basin is formed by the _____.
(1) Rocky Mts. (2) Ouachita Mts. (3) Appalachian Mts. (4) ground rising due to the retreat of the glaciers (i.e., glacial isostasy)

A

(4) ground rising due to the retreat of the glaciers (i.e., glacial isostasy)

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53
Q

Why might logging of a drainage basin
change the slope of the river? (VII-4… not on quiz)
(1) the base level of the stream is altered by the increased sediment load
(2) the stream must steepen to accommodate the increased runoff
(3) increased sediment load causes the river to steepen its gradient to transport more sediment
(4) decreased erosion shuts off sediment supply, causing the river to erode

A

(3) increased sediment load causes the river to steepen its gradient to transport more sediment

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54
Q

A stream channel of constant width and

depth accommodates increased discharge

A

by increasing velocity

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55
Q

The stream’s gradient is maximum at its

A

head waters / delta

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56
Q

A steam’s gradient is minimum at its

A

end

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57
Q

Streams flow ______ around Cleveland
and _______ in Columbus because of
crustal ______.

A

north, south, glacial isostasy

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58
Q

Drainage pattern typical of eroded

anticlines and synclines.

A

trellis

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59
Q

The trellis drainage pattern develops over
eroded ______.
(1) anticline (2) syncline (3) dome (4) fault block

A

(2) syncline

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60
Q

The radial drainage pattern develops over
eroded ______.
(1) anticline (2) syncline (3) dome (4) fault block

A

(3) dome

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61
Q

Maximum erosion occurs where the river
banks are _______-gradient.
(1) high (2) low (3) zero (4) shallow

A

(1) high

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62
Q

Stream meanders produce

A

cutoffs, oxbow lakes, cut banks, point bars

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63
Q

Fastest stream flow occurs at the stream’s
______.
(1) delta (2) flood plain (3) head waters (4) drainage basin (VII-7)

A

(3) head waters

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64
Q

Erosion of finer materials like clay and
deposition of coarser materials like gravel
are promoted by _____ stream velocities.
(1) higher (2) lower (3) constant (4) uniform

A

(1) higher

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65
Q

If a stream channel is of constant width and
depth, how must increased discharge be
accommodated?
(1) greater sediment transport (2) flooding (3) increased velocity (4) steeper channel slope

A

(3) increased velocity

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66
Q

For the same amount of discharge, a
narrow, shallow channel will have a _____
water velocity than will a wide, deep
channel.
(1) higher (2) lower (3) broader (4) more uniform

A

(1) higher

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67
Q

Solutioning is an especially important
mechanism in the erosion and transport of
_____.
(1) granite (2) basalt (3) sandstone (4) salt

A

(4) salt

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68
Q

A form of mass wasting.

(1) hydraulic action (2) solutioning (3) abrasion (4) landslides

A

(4) landslides

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69
Q

Downcutting is greatest at the stream’s
_____.
(1) delta (2) flood plain (3) head waters (4) all of above

A

(3) head waters

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70
Q

The lowest level to which a river can erode.

(1) sea level (2) base level (3) the elevation of the stream bed (4) discharge level

A

(2) base level

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71
Q

The base levels of northern Ohio streams
and rivers are ______.
(1) rising (2) sinking (3) meandering (4) disappearing

A

(2) sinking

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72
Q

Drainage pattern typical of headward

erosion.
(1) trellis (2) radial (3) dendritic (4) rectangular

A

(3) dendritic

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73
Q

How do point bars and cut banks differ
from one another in a stream system?
(1) cut banks are sites of erosion, while point bars are sites of deposition
(2) cut banks typically host riffles, while point bars are characterized by pools
(3) point bars are characteristic of meandering streams, while cut banks are characteristic of braided streams
(4) they are both areas of deposition, but the cut bank typically receives a greater volume of sediment

A

(1) cut banks are sites of erosion, while point bars are sites of deposition

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74
Q

________ are shallow portions of a
meandering stream, in which the water is
typically fast-moving at low flows.
(1) Pools (2) Oxbows (3) Riffles (4) Beachheads

A

(3) Riffles

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75
Q

As the land is uplifted, the base level
_____.
(1) sinks (2) rises (3) meanders (4) disappears

A

(1) sinks

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76
Q

Point bars and cut banks in a stream system
are areas of ____ and ____, respectively.
(1) erosion, deposition
(2) evaporation, precipitation
(3) deposition, erosion
(4) precipation, evaporation

A

(3) deposition, erosion

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77
Q

The ages of stream terraces ______ from

top to bottom.

A

get younger

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78
Q

Delta of the desert.

A

alluvial fan

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79
Q

The top-most stream terrace is the _____

terrace.
(1) oldest (2) youngest (3) least eroded (4) narrowest

A

(1) oldest

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80
Q

The total load of sediment that a river
carries in a given period of time is called
______.
(1) competency (2) bed load (3) base level (4) capacity

A

(4) capacity

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81
Q

The suspended load of rivers consists
mostly of ______.
(1) sand and gravel (2) erratics (3) silt and clay (4) dissolved substances

A

(3) silt and clay

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82
Q

The bed load of rivers consists mostly of
______.
(1) sand and gravel (2) erratics (3) silt and clay (4) dissolved substances

A

(1) sand and gravel

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83
Q

The total load of a river is dominated by
the ________ load.
(1) suspended (2) bed (3) dissolved (4) sodium chloride

A

(1) suspended

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Perfectly
84
Q 
The North Platte River is a tributary of the 
\_\_\_\_\_ river. 
(1) Mississippi
(2) Ohio
(3) Missouri
(4) Illinois
A

(3) Missouri

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85
Q

Most effective uses of floodplains.

(1) agriculture (2) roads (3) houses (4) #1- & #2-above

A

(4) #1- & #2-above

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86
Q

Discolored areas off-shore of the
Mississippi delta are from the Mississippi’s
_____ load.
(1) saltation (2) suspended (3) dissolved (4) traction

A

(2) suspended

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87
Q

Salt deposits of the alluvial fan are derived
from the _____ load of the flash flood.
(1) saltation (2) suspended (3) dissolved (4) traction

A

(3) dissolved

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88
Q

Which type of flood is typically caused by
intense rainfall of short duration?
(1) downstream flood (2) stage flood (3) overbank flood (4) upstream flood

A

(4) upstream flood

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89
Q

A 10-year flood is
(1) a flood that can occur only once every 10 years (2) a flood that has a 10% chance of occurring each year (3) a flood that occurred within the last 10 years (4) a flood that lasts for approximately 10 years

A

(2) a flood that has a 10% chance of occurring each year

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90
Q

How many months does it take for modern
breeding to replace the 7 million people
lost to China’s Sorrow?
(1) 1.5 (2) 2.5 (3) 3.5 (4) 7

A

(1) 1.5

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91
Q

Most susceptible to flooding.

A

urban areas, mountainous streams and rivers

92
Q

Type of river with multiple channels and

gravel bars.

A

braided

93
Q

The degree of urbanization consists of
_______.
(1) percentage of impervious cover and the percentage of area served by storm sewers (2) the number of buildings taller than two stories (3) the degree to which streams are impacted by paving of streets (4) the proportion by which infiltration capacity of soils is changed

A

(1) percentage of impervious cover and the percentage of area served by storm sewers

94
Q

Urbanization generally ______ the lag time
between the peak of rainfall and the peak of
the resulting flood.
(1) increases (2) decreases (3) softens (4) hardens

A

(2) decreases

95
Q

The lag time peak stream discharge is
typically ______ by urbanization.
(1) increased (2) decreased (3) softened (4) hardened

A

(2) decreased

96
Q

Downstream floods typically cover ______
areas than do upstream floods.
(1) larger (2) smaller (3) higher (4) none of above

A

(1) larger

97
Q

In what way can structural control of floods
actually increase flood damage?
(1) by decreasing impervious cover in the urban environment (2) by increasing runoff in the upper portions of drainage basins (3) by encouraging development on the floodplain (4) by making the water transmitting capacity of the stream less efficient

A

(3) by encouraging development on the floodplain

98
Q

A ________ pond is used to hold back
water during a storm and release it more
slowly into the stream system.
(1) oxbow (2) retention (3) tailings (4) none of above

A

(2) retention

99
Q

Why is flood hazard mapping considered
an important step in floodplain
management?
(1) flood hazard mapping guides appropriate development in the floodplain (2) flood hazard mapping mandates that the floodplain should not be developed (3) flood hazard mapping shows those parts of the urban environment that are impervious (4) flood hazard mapping is a first step toward channel restoration

A

(1) flood hazard mapping guides appropriate development in the floodplain

100
Q

If you must enter murky or unfamiliar
water, do it _______.
(1) feet-first (2) head-first (3) bum-first (4) with abandon because Disney’s First Law will protect you

A

(1) feet-first

101
Q

A comprehensive term for any type of
downslope movement of Earth materials is
______.
(1) subsidence (2) debris flow (3) avalanche (4) mass wasting

A

(4) mass wasting

102
Q

Why are landslides more common on steep
slopes?
(1) slope angle determines the relative magnitude of driving forces (2) water flows much faster on steep slopes (3) the steeper the slope, the less vegetation plays a role in anchoring the slope (4) steeper slopes typically are underlain by weaker Earth materials

A

(1) slope angle determines the relative magnitude of driving forces

103
Q

Vegetation influences landslides in part by
_______.
(1) anchoring the slope materials (2) influencing the local climate (3) aerating the soil (4) promoting deeper weathering of underlying rock

A

(1) anchoring the slope materials

104
Q

Why might the infiltration of water deep
into a slide mass increase landslide
hazards?
(1) deep infiltration forces vegetation to root more deeply (2) water will erode the subsurface materials, reducing strength of the slide mass (3) water in the deep subsurface influences soil formation, leading to shallow soil slips (4) the water increases the pore water pressure, effectively lifting the slide mass from stable ground beneath

A

(4) the water increases the pore water pressure, effectively lifting the slide mass from stable ground beneath

105
Q

On what information is a landslide hazard
map based?
(1) geology and inventory of past landslides (2) subsurface water flow (3) climate (4) home construction codes

A

(1) geology and inventory of past landslides

106
Q

The La Conchita landslide is ________ the
highway it covered above the town.
(1) younger than (2) older than (3) the same age as (4) none of above

A

(1) younger than

107
Q

Down slope moving mass where the
particles within the mass move relative to
each other.
(1) flow (2) slide (3) fall (4) subsidence

A

(1) flow

108
Q

Down slope moving mass where the
particles within the mass do not move
relative to each other.
(1) flow (2) slide (3) creep (4) none of above

A

(2) slide

109
Q

Mass wasting that includes both slippage
and flowage components.
(1) rock slides (2) soil creep (3) earth slumps (4) rock falls

A

(3) earth slumps

110
Q

Terracettes are most common to ______
Ohio.
(1) northern (2) western (3) northeastern (4) southeastern

A

(4) southeastern

111
Q

The slump involves _______ faulting.

(1) reverse (2) normal (3) compressive (4) thrust

A

(2) normal

112
Q

The rock fall that destroyed a Rockville
house was a ______ event.
(1) low probability, high impact (2) high probability, low impact (3) high probability, high impact (4) low probability, low impact

A

(1) low probability, high impact

113
Q

Sandstone is a(n) ______ rock.

(1) igneous (2) metamorphic (3) sedimentary (4) unconsolidated

A

(3) sedimentary

114
Q

Quartzite is metamorphosed _______.

(1) granite (2) limestone (3) basalt (4) sandstone

A

(4) sandstone

115
Q

Frost wedging is possible because water
______ with rock-breaking force as it
crystallizes.
(1) contracts (2) expands (3) implodes (4) dissolves

A

(2) expands

116
Q

The rock slide involves _______ faulting.

(1) reverse (2) normal (3) compressive (4) thrust

A

(2) normal

117
Q

The tensile strength of sandstone is _______
that of clay.
(1) less than (2) greater than (3) equal to (4) none of above

A

(2) greater than

118
Q

Volcanic eruptions spawn intense ________.

(1) tornados (2) hurricanes (3) thunderstorms (4) droughts

A

(3) thunderstorms

119
Q

Soil/rock creep is most prevalent in _____

climates.
(1) tropical (2) polar (3) temperate (4) arid

A

(3) temperate

120
Q

Why is drainage control sometimes an
effective method of landslide control?
(1) it reduces the amount of water in the hillslope materials (2) it reduces the growth of vegetation (3) it reduces the thickness of the slide mass (4) it reduces the permeability of the rocks

A

(1) it reduces the amount of water in the hillslope materials

121
Q

Material that the homes along California’s
Pacific coast highway are perched on.
(1) igneous rock (2) metamorphic rock (3) sedimentary rock (4) unconsolidated rock

A

(4) unconsolidated rock

122
Q

What aspect of hillside development has
contributed to the frequency of landslides
in southern California?
(1) drainage of naturally occurring subsurface water (2) grading of hillslopes to create pads for home construction (3) logging of hillside vegetation (4) addition of weight to slide masses

A

(2) grading of hillslopes to create pads for home construction

123
Q

Mass movement where a coherent mass of

material slips along a well-defined plane.

A

slide

124
Q

Mass wasting is applicable to ______.

A

any type of downslope movement of earth materials

125
Q

Sign of past mass movements

A

talus slopes, curve tree trunks, cracks in the ground surface across slope face

126
Q

Repeated freezing and thawing facilitates

A

thermokarst/frost heaving ??

127
Q

Mass wasting driven by isostatic rebound

of the crust due to deglaciation.

A

Ohio landslides along Lake Erie

128
Q

Base level of southern Lake Erie is _______
because of glacial isostasy.
(1) rising (2) sinking (3) inflating (4) constant

A

(2) sinking

129
Q

A _______ base level in northern Ohio

facilitates Lake Erie erosion.

A

sinking

130
Q

Jetties _______ the suspension load flowing
around the Lake Erie’s shoreline.
(1) reduce (2) enhance (3) do not affect (4) maintain

A

(1) reduce

131
Q

In one hundred years, the Painesville shore
line receded about ____×10-2
miles.
(1) 5.5 (2) 6.5 (3) 7.5 (4) 8.5

A

(4) 8.5

132
Q

The bluff collapse is ______ the car in the
debris flow.
(1) older than (2) younger than (3) the same age as (4) not related to

A

(2) younger than

133
Q

Dates on Erie shoreline erosion history may
be obtained from _____.
(1) house deed (2) 14C-dating of the trees (3) tree rings (4) all of above

A

(4) all of above (house deed, 14C dating of the trees, tree rings)

134
Q

Painsville houses sit on a foundation of soil
covering ______ rocks.
(1) igneous (2) sedimentary (3) metamorphic (4) none of above

A

(2) sedimentary

135
Q

Ohio sink holes related to abandoned mines
are found predominantly in the _____ part
of the state.
(1) western (2) northern (3) eastern (4) southern

A

(3) eastern

136
Q

Ohio’s mines are related mostly to the
mining of _______.
(1) salt (2) limestone (3) shale (4) coal

A

(4) coal

137
Q 
The 1996 collapse of highway I-70 into an 
abandoned mine near Cambridge, Ohio is 
an example of ground
(1) subsidence
(2) creep
(3) flowage
(4) slippage
A

(1) subsidence

138
Q

Florida’s sink holes originate in _____.

(1) sandstone (2) granite (3) limestone (4) shale

A

(3) limestone

139
Q

Missouri’s sink holes originate in _____.

(1) sandstone (2) granite (3) limestone (4) shale

A

(3) limestone

140
Q

Where Ohio salt mining mostly occurs.

(1) Cincinnati (2) Columbus (3) Toledo (4) Cleveland

A

(4) Cleveland

141
Q

Kentucky’s sink holes originate in _____.

(1) sandstone (2) granite (3) limestone (4) shale

A

(3) limestone

142
Q

Limestone of the mid-western US comes
from _____.
(1) the metamorphism of marble (2) the evaporation of ancient salt water seas (3) the evaporation of ancient fresh water lakes (4) volcanism

A

(2) the evaporation of ancient salt water seas

143
Q

Marble quarried in Georgia was produced
by limestone metamorphosed as the result
of the collision of _____ with North
America.
(1) Pangea (2) India (3) Africa (4) Australia

A

(3) Africa

144
Q

The chemical formula for calcium
carbonate or limestone that crystallizes out
of evaporating water.
(1) SiO2 (2) NaCl (3) CaCO3 (4) SO2

A

(3) CaCO3

145
Q

The oceans serve as a major reservoir of
what greenhouse gas?
(1) quartz (2) sodium chloride (3) carbon dioxide (4) sulfur dioxide

A

(3) carbon dioxide

146
Q

Stalactites grow from the _____.

(1) floor (2) roof (3) column (4) shield

A

(2) roof

147
Q

Stalagmites grow from the _____.

(1) floor (2) roof (3) column (4) shield

A

(1) floor

148
Q

Some ______ miles of Mammoth Cave
have been mapped.
(1) 2,750 (2) 3,750 (3) 4,750 (4) 5,750

A

(2) 3,750

149
Q

If limestone comes from the evaporation of
both fresh and salt water, how is it known
that the limestone of Mammoth Cave and
the rest of the mid-continental US is from
salt water oceans?
(1) the salt in the limestone (2) fossils (3) 14C-dating of the limestone (4) radiometric dating of the limestone

A

(2) fossils

150
Q

The boundary between earth and the
underworld in Greek mythology.
(1) River Stix (2) River Hades (3) Mississippi River (4) Ohio River

A

(1) River Stix

151
Q

Tower karst forms as the ground is
tectonically uplifted around a millimeter
per year and fractured. Water percolates
into the fractures and dissolves and carries
away the ground over time. Thus, these
towers are simply islands of ______
produced by this process.
(1) sandstone (2) limestone (3) shale (4) columnar basalt

A

(2) limestone

152
Q

The tectonic uplift generating tower karst
of southeast Asia is from ______ plate
convergence.
(1) ocean-ocean (2) continent-continent (3) ocean-continent (4) transform-fault

A

(3) ocean-continent

153
Q

Karst topography is associated with

(1) granite
(2) sandstone
(3) basalt
(4) limestone

A

(4) limestone

154
Q

Resulting from ground water fluctuations.

A

sinkholes (girl in lobby)

thermokarst / frost heaving (us)

155
Q

Resulting from ground temperature

fluctuations.

A

thermokarst / frost heaving

156
Q

Frost heaving is caused by the mineral state
of _______.
(1) soil (2) tundra (3) water (4) lava

A

(3) water

157
Q

The world’s largest sawgrass swamp.

(1) Okeechobee (2) Big Cypress (3) Everglades (4) Seminole Flats

A

(3) Everglades

158
Q

Largest sinkhole in south Florida.

(1) Okeechobee (2) Big Cypress (3) Everglades (4) Seminole Flats

A

(1) Okeechobee

159
Q

South-central Florida is subsiding due to
agricultural demands to the northwest and
the growing demand for ______ to the
southwest.
(1) land development (2) food (3) drinking water (4) marinas

A

(3) drinking water

160
Q

South Florida is _____ due to the pumping
of fresh water from the Everglades to
service growing human and agricultural
demands.

A

subsiding

161
Q

Groundwater pumping in Central Valley
(CA) has caused the ground to subside
some ____ meters in 50 years.
(1) 3 (2) 5 (3) 7 (4) 10

A

(4) 10

162
Q

Drinking water requirements of the
Cincinnati-Dayton area are sucking up an
aquifer mostly in ____.
(1) Ohio (2) Indiana (3) West Virginia (4) Kentucky

A

(4) Kentucky

163
Q

Ohio is roughly _____ km across.

(1) 100 (2) 300 (3) 500 (4) 700

A

say 500 to get this right

164
Q

Human breeding replaces the global average
of 20×103 people lost to earthquakes in
about _____.
(1) 2 hours (2) 2 weeks (3) 2 months (4) 2 years

A

(1) 2 hours

165
Q

The Benioff zone reaches a depth of
roughly ____ Ohios.
(1) 1.4 (2) 2.4 (3) 3.4 (4) 4.4

A

(1) 1.4

166
Q

Oceanic ridges are marked by _____ focus

earthquakes.
(1) shallow (2) intermediate (3) deep (4) all of above

A

(1) shallow

167
Q

Oceanic trenches are marked by _____
focus earthquakes.
(1) shallow (2) intermediate (3) deep (4) none of above

A

(3) deep

168
Q

Oceanic transform plate margins are marked
by _____ focus earthquakes.
(1) shallow (2) intermediate (3) deep (4) all of above

A

(1) shallow

169
Q

Based on the modified Mercalli scale, the
San Francisco earthquake of 1906 probably
had a Richter magnitude of roughly ____.
(1) < 4 (2) 5-6 (3) 6-7 (4) 7-8

A

(4) 7-8

170
Q

Annual US energy consumption is _____
ergs.
(1) 6.3×10^14 (2) 6.3×10^17 (3) 6.3×10^20 (4) 6.3×10^23 (5) 6.3x10^26

A
  • the correct answer on the quiz was 6.3x10^20, but that should have been in “millions of ergs”
  • the real correct answer is 6.3x10^26 (choose this if it appears, since it wasn’t an option before. If not, they didn’t change it and go with ^20)
171
Q

Energy released by a maximum magnitude
Ohio earthquake is _____ ergs.
(1) 2.0×10^15 (2) 2.0×10^16 (3) 2.0×10^17 (4) 2.0×10^18

A

(2) 2.0×10^16

172
Q

Annual probability of observing a
magnitude 8+ earthquake is about _______.
(1) 7×10^-6 (2) 7×10^-7 (3) 7×10^-8 (4) 7×10^-9

A

(2) 7x10^-7

173
Q

Chance of observing a magnitude 8+
earthquake is about one in _______.
(1) 1.5×10^6 (2) 1.5×10^7 (3) 1.5×10^8 (4) 1.5×10^9

A

(3) 1.5x10^8
* *note: this was wrong on the quiz (^7 was correct there) but Allie said that it will be changed to ^8 for the midterm (I feel like you could argue for points with either 7 or 8 as a response)

174
Q

A ___ color in earthquake intensity maps
typically indicates areas with the highest
insurance rates.
(1) white (2) green (3) yellow (4) red

A

(4) red

175
Q

BLANK

A

BLANK

176
Q

A ___ color in earthquake intensity maps
typically indicates areas with the lowest
insurance rates.
(1) white (2) green (3) yellow (4) red

A

(2) green

177
Q

Areas with the most expensive building
codes are typically indicated by the ____
color in earthquake intensity maps.
(1) white (2) green (3) yellow (4) red

A

(4) red

178
Q

Process by which ground shaking causes
saturated soil to loose shear strength.
(1) soil creep (2) mud flow (3) land slide (4) liquefaction

A

(4) liquefaction

179
Q

The most dangerous materials to build on in

the earthquake-prone region of Mexico City.

A

ancient lake deposits

180
Q

The Mercalli intensity that describes the
earthquake collapsed Benito Juarez Hospital
in Mexico City.
(1) I (2) XX (3) XV (4) XII

A

(4) XII

181
Q

Earthquakes in the Aleutian Islands are due
to ______ plate subduction.
(1) ocean-ocean (2) ocean-continent (3) continent-continent (4) all of above

A

(1) ocean-ocean

182
Q

San Andreas earthquakes are due to an
ocean-continent _______ margin.
(1) subduction (2) spreading (3) strike-slip fault (4) thermal

A

(3) strike-slip fault

183
Q

Plate tectonics accounts for US earthquakes
except in ______.
(1) the east coast (2) the west coast (3) Alaska (4) Hawaii and the mid-continent

A

(4) Hawaii and the mid-continent

184
Q

Maximum probability of a magnitude 6.7
earthquake occurring before 2032 on the
San Andreas Fault is ______%.
(1) 3 (2) 21 (3) 10 (4) 27

A

(2) 21

185
Q

Maximum intensity of the 1994 Northridge,
CA earthquake.
(1) I (2) XX (3) XI (4) XII (5) IX

A

(5) IX

186
Q

Largest magnitude earthquake along the
Denali fault since 2000.
(1) 8.8 (2) 6.7 (3) 9 (4) 7.9

A

(4) 7.9

187
Q

Trans-Alaska pipeline failure is most
susceptible to _____ faulting.
(1) strike-slip (2) dip-slip (3) oblique-slip (4) none of above

A

(1) strike-slip

188
Q

Metropolitan area most threatened by a
New Madrid event.
(1) St. Louis (2) Nashville (3) Memphis (4) Little Rock

A

(3) Memphis

189
Q

Mid-continent earthquakes affect bigger
areas than west coast events because the
rocks in which they are generated are ____.
(1) wetter (2) more consolidated (3) looser (4) more sedimentary

A

(2) more consolidated

190
Q

Greatest danger to people from an
earthquake is _______.
(1) building collapse (2) ground shaking (3) burned in a fire (4) drowned in a flood caused by a broken dam or levee

A

(1) building collapse

191
Q

Epicenter distance decreases with _____
differences in arrival times
between P and S waves.

A

decreasing

192
Q

A quantitative estimate of the total energy
released by an earthquake is given by
(1) the Richter magnitude scale.
(2) the modified Mercalli intensity scale.
(3) the Mohs’ hardness scale.
(4) the isoseismal map.

A

(1) the Richter magnitude scale

193
Q

Earthquake insurance rates are higher for
buildings built on _____ than for buildings
built on _____

A

ancient lake deposits; volcanic rock

194
Q

Maximum magnitude estimate for Ohio

earthquakes.

A

7.3

195
Q

Mercalli intensity values are based on

A

qualitative information of what people felt

196
Q 
Transforming saturated sediments from the 
solid to liquid form
(1) hydrolysis
(2) dissolution
(3) subcutaneous hydration
(4) liquefaction
A

(4) liquefaction

197
Q

Deep earthquakes occur at depths of

A

300-700 km

198
Q

Deep earthquakes mark the leading edge of

the _______ plate.

A

oceanic/subducting seafloor

199
Q

The Benioff zone passes through a region
of partial melting just below the brittle
plates called the _______.

A

asthenosphere

200
Q 
The 1811-1812 New Madrid and 1886 
Charleston were major \_\_\_\_ earthquakes.
(1) convergent plate boundary
(2) intraplate
(3) subduction plate
(4) underplate
A

(2) intraplate

201
Q

Relative to California earthquakes, mid- continent earthquakes are felt over _______ areas.

A

larger

202
Q 
Earthquake capital of Ohio in frequency 
and magnitude.
(1) Cincinnati
(2) New Madrid
(3) Anna
(4) Toledo
A

(3) Anna

203
Q

Most active earthquake zone of the US mid- continent is centered on ______.
(1) Anna, OH (2) Painesville, OH (3) New Madrid, MO (4) Charleston, SC

A

(3) New Madrid, MO

204
Q

Ohio earthquakes are generated in its
underlying _____ rocks.
(1) sedimentary (2) igneous and metamorphic (3) unconsolidated basement (4) glacial drift

A

(2) igneous and metamorphic

205
Q

Calhio argued that the ______ earthquake
was God’s will.
(1) Anna (2) New Madrid (3) Lake County (4) Rangely

A

(3) Lake County

206
Q

The court basically ______ Calhio’s

argument.
(1) concurred with (2) rejected (3) deferred to the US Supreme Court (4) shelved

A

(1) concurred with

207
Q

The correlation between waste injection and
earthquake activity at the Rocky Mountain
Arsenal’s disposal well is ______.
(1) null (2) positive (3) negative (4) inverse

A

(2) positive

208
Q

The 1986 Lake County earthquake that
knocked out the Perry Nuclear Power Plant
originated in Ohio’s ________

A

crystalline (igneous and metamorphic) basement rock

209
Q

The Lake County earthquake may have

been caused by

A

deep well injections

210
Q

Tsunami.

A

Japanese for “large harbor wave”

211
Q

Tsunamis are caused by

A

displacements of water from large earthquakes, underwater landslides, volcano collapses, submarine volcanic eruptions, asteroid impacts

212
Q

Tsunamis travel at the speed of

A

~500 km/hour

213
Q

The great Boxing Day earthquake and

tsunami occurred on

A

December 26, 2004

214
Q

Major tsunami threat to the eastern US

coast.

A

Teide

215
Q

How many meters above sea level generally
gets you out of the tsunami’s killing zone?
(1) 1 (2) 3 (3) 5 (4) 10+

A

(4) 10+

216
Q

Global human breeding replaced the
2.3×10^5 people lost to the Boxing Day
tsunami in about _____.
(1) 1 day (2) 2 days (3) 0.5 days (4) 5 days

A

(1) 1 day

217
Q

The Boxing Day tsunami reached the
Maldives in a little more than _____ after
the earthquake.
(1) 1 hour (2) 1 day (3) 6.5 hours (4) 4 hours

A

(4) 4 hours

218
Q

An earthquake in the Aleutian Islands can
produce a tsunami along the California
coast in about ____ hours.
(1) 1-2 (2) 2-3 (3) 3-4 (4) 4-5

A

(4) 4-5

219
Q

One kilogram equals _____ pounds.

(1) 1.2 (2) 2.2 (3) 3.2 (4) 4.2

A

(2) 2.2

220
Q

With the passage of a 500 km/hr
propagating tsunami with ~1 m wave crests
at the surface separated by ~160 km, the
tsunameter will observe a time difference
between the waves of about _____ minutes.
(1) 10 (2) 15 (3) 20 (4) 25

A

(3) 20

221
Q

A volcanic eruption in the Hawiian Islands
can produce a tsunami along the Aleutian
Islands in about ____ hours.
(1) 1-2 (2) 2-3 (3) 3-4 (4) 4-5

A

(4) 4-5

222
Q

The tsunameters in the Caribbean and off
the eastern US coast principally warn of
______ tsunamis.
(1) in-bound (2) out-bound (3) volcano-generated (4) all of above

A

(4) all of above (in-bound, out-bound, volcano-generated)

223
Q

The tsunami from an eruption of an Easter
Island volcano would reach Hawaii in about
____ hours.
(1) 4 (2) 6 (3) 8 (4) 10

A

(4) 10

224
Q

The earth’s largest volcanoes are _____

features.
(1) oceanic (2) continental (3) ionospheric (4) stratospheric

A

(1) oceanic

225
Q 
Tsunami waves of about 3-13 m in height 
from an eruption of the Teide volcano can 
hit the eastern US coast roughly 3,300 
miles away in about \_\_\_\_ hours. 
(1) 3-4 (2) 5-6 (3) 8-9 (4) 11-12
A

(4) 11-12

226
Q

Global warming can increase the magnitude and/or frequency of weather-related hazards because ______.

(1) global warming will affect the fundamental processes occurring in the atmosphere
(2) warmer clouds are more likely to generate tornadoes
(3) warmer air is able to hold less water, leading to heavier rains
(4) warmer ocean waters will channel more energy into the atmosphere

A

(4) warmer ocean waters will channel more energy into the atmosphere

Earth Science 2203 (4 decks)

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