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Vertebrae Physiology > Exam 3 > Flashcards

Exam 3 Flashcards

0
Q

Chemicals secreted by cells that aren’t neurons

A

Hormones

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1
Q

The study of secretion of hormones from glands

A

Endocrinology

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2
Q

Tissues that secrete a chemical

A

Glands

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3
Q

Secretion OUTSIDE the body

A

Exocrine glands

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4
Q

Secretion INTO the blood, acting on distant tissues

A

Endocrine glands

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5
Q

Secretion acting on NEARBY cells

A

Paracrine glands

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6
Q

Secretion acting on SAME cell

A

Autocrine glands

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7
Q

Sweat glands are an example of what kind of glands?

A

Exocrine glands

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8
Q

Exocrine and endocrine cells that secrete chemicals are called?

A

Glands

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9
Q

Secreted chemicals act via _____ on the _____ ___

A

Receptors

Target cells

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10
Q

When stimulated, endocrine cell secretes ____ into the blood

A

Hormone

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11
Q

In a normal cell, no hormones lead to?

A

Disease

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12
Q

In a normal cell, bad receptors lead to?

A

Disease

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13
Q

What was the demonstration of the endocrine system?

A

Leptin

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14
Q

If an animal has no hormone, what happens when there is shared circulation with a normal animal?

A

Cures the disease

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15
Q

If an animal has no receptors or target cells, what happens when there is shared circulation with a normal animal?

A

Excess hormone

No effect on disease

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16
Q

Leptin serves as a what?

A

Feedback signal

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17
Q

Ob/Ob mutation’s extra stop codon terminates what?

A

Leptin transcript

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18
Q

Hypoleptinemia is related to what mouse mutation?

A

Ob/Ob mutation

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19
Q

db/db’s extra stop codon terminates what?

A

Leptin receptor

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20
Q

Functional hypoleptinemia is related to what mutation?

A

db/db mutation

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21
Q

ob/ob is missing?

A

Leptin hormone

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22
Q

db/db is missing?

A

Leptin receptor

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23
Q

When an ob/ob mouse shares blood with a Wildtype mouse, what happens?

A

The Wildtype blood normalizes ob/ob

Therefore, Wildtype has hormone that ob/ob is missing

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24
Q

When a db/db mouse shares blood with a Wildtype mouse, what happens?

A

db/db blood makes Wildtype anorexic

Therefore, db/db has excess hormone that Wildtype can detect

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25
Q

When a db/db mouse shares blood with an ob/ob mouse, what happens?

A

db/db blood makes ob/ob anorexic

Therefore db/db has excess hormone that ob/ob is missing

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26
Q

Since ob/ob has no Leptin hormone, it can’t produce what?

A

Negative feedback signal

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27
Q

db/db has no Leptin receptors, so it can’t detect what?

A

Negative feedback signal

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28
Q

What happens if you add or subtract Leptin in normal people?

A

Nothing

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29
Q

Pre-hormones circulate where?

A

In the blood

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30
Q

Which of the following is NOT a symptom of Cushing’s Syndrome?
A. Wasting of muscles and most fat depots
B. Tumor of the adrenal medulla
C. Suppressed immune system
D. Excess cortisol secretion by the adrenal cortex
E. Changes in mood and sleep

A

Tumor of the adrenal medulla

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31
Q 
\_\_\_\_\_, excreted by adipocytes, serve as negative feedback to the \_\_\_\_\_ in order to reduce feeding behavior.
A. Ghrelin; anterior pituitary
B. Thyroxine; posterior pituitary
C. POMC; adrenal medulla
D. Leptin; hypothalamus
E. Terraiodothyronine; thyroid gland
A

D. Leptin; hypothalamus

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32
Q

Steroid hormones must dissociate from ______ in order to pass through the cell membrane. Inside the cytoplasm, steroid hormones bind to the _____ of receptor proteins in order to influence gene expression.
A. transport proteins; DNA binding domain
B. Transit proteins; steroid binding domain
C. Transmission proteins; response element
D. Extracellular transient proteins; transcription factor
E. Carrier proteins; ligand binding domain

A

Carrier proteins; ligand binding domain

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33
Q 
After the circulatory systems of two mice are surgically connects, one mouse remains obese while the second mouse becomes anorexic. One mouse is \_\_\_ and the anorexic mouse is \_\_\_.
A. db/db; Wildtype
B. db/db; ob/ob
C. ob/ob; db/db
D. A or B
E. B or C
D. A or B
A

D. A or B

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34
Q

Addison’s Disease is caused by:
A. Excess ACTH secretion
B. Excess cortisol secretion by the adrenal cortex
C. Loss of the adrenal cortex
D. Transection of the infundibulum
E. Secretion of ACTH by a lung cancer tumor

A

Loss of the adrenal cortex

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35
Q

Negative feedback in a hypothalamic-pituitary axis involves:
A. An elevation in hypothalamic releasing hormones
B. Peripheral target hormones acting on receptors in the hypothalamus and pituitary
C. A drop in blood glucose
D. Comparison in hypothalamic releasing hormones
E. Unpleasant systems of hormone release

A

B. Peripheral target hormones acting on receptors in the hypothalamus and pituitary

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36
Q

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a db/db mouse?
A. No Leptin receptors
B. No Leptin hormone
C. Can’t detect negative feedback signal from fat
D. Overproduction of Leptin hormone
E. Functional hypoleptinemia

A

B. No Leptin hormone

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37
Q

The long-term response to stress includes:
A. The release of epinephrine from the adrenal medulla
B. an increase in heart rate
C. Parasympathetic nerve activation
D. Fear
E. An increase in corticosteroids in the blood

A

E. An increase in corticosteroids in the blood

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38
Q 
After transection of the infundibulum, the secretion of most pituitary hormones goes down, but secretion of \_\_\_\_\_ increases.
A. Thyroid stimulating hormone
B. ADH
C. Prolactin 
D. ACTH
E. ACTH
A

C. Prolactin

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39
Q 
This second messenger molecule releases Ca++ from the endoplasmic reticulum after it is converted from phospholipids by phospholipase C.
A. Tyrosine 
B. IP3
C. cAMP
D. DAG
E. Calmodulin
A

B. IP3

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40
Q

What are the three types of lipophilic hormones?

A

Steroids
Thyroid hormone
Retinoic acid

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41
Q

Steroids, thyroid hormone, and Retinoic acid are all what types of hormones?

A

Lipophilic hormones

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42
Q

Lipophilic molecules are usually bound in the blood to what kind of proteins?

A

Carrier proteins

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43
Q

Nuclear receptor hormones coordinate what two responses?

A

Peripheral physiological response

Central neural response

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44
Q

Nuclear receptor hormones bind to specific sequences called _____ _____ in gene promoters.

A

Response elements

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45
Q

Nuclear receptor hormones are synthesized from lipid-soluble store by ______.

A

Enzymes

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46
Q

Steroid hormones are derived from ______.

A

Cholesterol

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47
Q

The adrenal gland converts ______ into _______.

A

Cholesterol into cortisol

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48
Q

Steroids are produced by what kind of glands?

A

Endocrine glands

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49
Q

Estrogen receptor in presence of estrogen binds to __________?

A

Estrogen response element (ERE)

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50
Q

_______ blocks estrogen receptors and is used se treatment for breast cancer

A

Tamoxifen

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51
Q

Polypeptide and glycoprotein hormones are examples of what kind of hormones?

A

Second-messenger coupled hormones

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52
Q

Polypeptide and glycoprotein hormones are coded for by _____.

A

Genes

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53
Q

Polypeptide and glycoprotein hormones are packaged in _______.

A

Vesicles

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54
Q

Polypeptide and glycoprotein hormones are hydrophilic/hydrophobic molecules?

A

Hydrophilic

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55
Q

Polypeptide and glycoprotein hormones circulate and act on what kind of receptors?

A

Plasma membrane receptors

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56
Q

What are the 3 common hormone receptor signaling pathways?

A

GPCR linked to cAMP
GPCR linked to phospholipase C and Ca++
Tyrosine Kinase Receptors

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57
Q

When cAMP acts as a second messenger it gets the message across the _______ to?

A

Membrane to inside the cell

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58
Q

When cAMP acts as a second messenger it amplifies the message by production of many of what kind of molecules?

A

cAMP molecules

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59
Q

When cAMP acts as a second messenger it spreads the message by _______ of ______ throughout the cell

A

Diffusion ; cAMP

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60
Q

Insulin, Leptin, and cytokines are examples of what?

A

Tyrosine receptor kinases

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61
Q

Tyrosine receptor kinases are located where?

A

Outside of the cell

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62
Q

When intracellular Ca++ acts as a second messenger it is located where?

A

Endoplasmic reticulum

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63
Q

When cAMP acts as a second messenger it is located where?

A

Plasma membrane

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64
Q

Brain region between brainstem and cerebellum that integrates sensory information and generates physiological responses to maintain homeostasis

A

Hypothalamus

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65
Q

The ______ is attached to the underside of the hypothalamus by the ______?

A

Pituitary gland ; infundibulum

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66
Q

The hypothalamus is connected to the anterior pituitary by what kind of veins

A

Hypothalamo-hypophyseal portal veins

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67
Q

The hypothalamus is connected to the posterior pituitary by what kind of tract?

A

Hypothalamo-hypophyseal tract

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68
Q

Which lobe contains endocrine cells that secrete trophic hormones into the circulation that stimulate target organs in the body

A

Anterior lobe

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69
Q

The anterior lobe contains endocrine cells that secrete what into circulation?

A

Trophic hormones

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70
Q

What lobe contains axon terminals of ADH and oxytocin neurons that originate in the hypothalamus?

A

Posterior lobe

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71
Q

The posterior lobe contains axon terminals of what two types of neurons?

A

ADH and oxytocin

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72
Q

Which type of pituitary (anterior or posterior) has an extra step of regulation?

A

Anterior pituitary

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73
Q

The _______ regulates the pituitary function with releasing and release-inhibitory hormones.

A

Hypothalamus

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74
Q

Releasing hormones cause the pituitary to release what?

A

Stimulatory hormones

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75
Q

Stimulatory hormones increase/decrease target glands activity

A

Increase

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76
Q

Inhibitory hormones cause the pituitary to suppress/release Stimulatory hormones.

A

Suppress

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77
Q

Inhibitory hormones increase/decrease target gland activity

A

Decrease

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78
Q

The transection of infundibulum causes a decrease of all pituitary hormones except ______ increases

A

Prolactin

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79
Q

Target hormones: _____ feedback to hypothalamus and pituitary

A

Negative

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80
Q

Target hormones: _____ levels of releasing hormones and Stimulatory hormones

A

Decreased

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81
Q

If you’re producing a lot of milk then it might be a ______ problem.

A

Dopamine

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82
Q

In a feed forward loop the releasing hormone goes from the _____ to the _____

A

Hypothalamus —–> pituitary

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83
Q

In a feed forward loop the trophic hormone goes from the ______ to the ______

A

Pituitary ——-> target glans

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84
Q

Tumors, lack of negative feedback, and inappropriate synthesis/degradation can lead to what?

A

Hypersecretion

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85
Q

Lack of releasing/trophic hormone, lack of synthetic enzymes, and lack of receptors can lead to what?

A

Real or functional hyposecretion

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86
Q

Long-term, transcriptional stress response are mediated by?

A

Glucocorticoids

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87
Q

What hormone is associated with long term stress?

A

ACTH

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88
Q

The hypersecretion of _______ is a symptom of PTSD and depression

A

Cortisol

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89
Q

_______ levels are highest in highest the morning which is why you are supposed to draw blood in the morning.

A

Cortisol

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90
Q

What are the 3 zones of the adrenal cortex?

A

Zona glomerulosa
Zona fasciculata
Zona reticularis

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91
Q

The adrenal medulla releases ____ and _____ into the blood

A

Norepinephrine and epinephrine

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92
Q

Zona glomerulosa produces what steroid?

A

Aldosterone

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93
Q

Zona fasciculata produces what steroid?

A

Cortisol

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94
Q

Zona reticularis produces what steroid?

A

Androgens

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95
Q

Glucocorticoids contain the _____ response

A

Stress

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96
Q

Glucocorticoids suppress ____ and suppress the _____

A

Swelling ; the immune system

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97
Q

Glucocorticoids reduce ________.

A

Tissue damage

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98
Q

Glucocorticoids mobilize energy from ____ and ______.

A

Muscle ; fat

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99
Q

Glucocorticoids induce ________ for detoxification

A

Liver enzymes

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100
Q

In negative feedback of cortisol: if cortisol synthesis is blocked them ACTH levels stay ____

A

Elevated

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101
Q

If excess glucocorticoids are administered, HPA detects __________, so then ACTH and cortisol levels should ____.

A

High negative feedback ; fall

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102
Q

The _________ test administers an artificial glucocorticoid to confirm that HPA responds to negative feedback.

A

Dexamethasone suppression test

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103
Q

In the HPA axis, negative feedback: cortisol feeds back to the ______ and the _____

A

Pituitary ; hypothalamus

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104
Q

In HPA axis, negative feedback: the pituitary inhibits _____ release

A

ACTH

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105
Q

In HPA axis, negative feedback: the hypothalamus inhibits ____ release

A

CRH

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106
Q

In the HPA axis, if you remove negative feedback then the ____ and ____ levels will increase

A

ACTH and CRH

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107
Q

In HPA axis, enhanced negative feedback: a Dex pretreatment will cause blunted ______ response to ____.

A

ACTH ; CRH

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108
Q

Tumors can ______ hormones

A

Oversecrete

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109
Q

Tumors of the adrenal gland can produce too much ________.

A

Cortisol

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110
Q

Tumors of the pituitary gland or lung can produce too much _______.

A

ACTH

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111
Q

Tumors of the adrenal medulla produce too much _____.

A

Epinephrine

112
Q

Hyper-epinephrine ——-> increase/decrease heart rate

Hyper-norepinephrine —–> increase/decrease heart rate

A

Increase ; decrease

113
Q

What disease is caused by autoimmune or infectious destruction of adrenal cortex?

A

Addison’s disease

114
Q

In Addison’s disease there are no _______.

A

Glucocorticoids

115
Q

In Addison’s disease there are low ____ and high ____.

A

Corticosteroids ; ACTH

116
Q

The hypersecretion of cortisol describes what syndrome?

A

Cushing’s syndrome

117
Q

TRH stands for?

A

Thyrotropin-Releasing Hormone

118
Q

The hypothalamus secretes _____ into short portal vessels

A

TRH

119
Q

TRH stimulates thyrotroph cells in the pituitary to secrete _____ into the blood

A

TSH

120
Q

What does TSH stand for?

A

Thyroid-stimulating hormone

121
Q

TSH stimulates _____ to synthesize and release ______.

A

Thyroid gland ; thyroxine

122
Q

Thyroxine binds to nuclear thyroid hormone recoveries to upregulate ______.

A

Metabolism

123
Q

Lack of TSH will cause the thyroid gland to become _____

A

Small

124
Q

Increase of TSH will cause the thyroid gland to become _____.

A

Large

125
Q

______ are follicular cells surrounding colloid

A

Spherical follicles

126
Q

Iodide is concentrated in follicular cells by _____

A

Na+/I- cotransporter

127
Q

I- is concentrated in the colloid by transporter _____.

A

Pendrin

128
Q

The synthesis of thyroxin occurs in the ____

A

Colloid

129
Q

Hypertrophy of the thyroid gland describes what disease?

A

Goiter

130
Q

Endemic goiter is caused by a lack of _____ in the diet

A

Iodine

131
Q

Mental retardation due to hypothyroidism during pregnancy and after birth is what disease?

A

Cretinism (an example of hypothyroidism)

132
Q

Graves’ disease is another symptom of _____

A

Hyperthyroidism

133
Q

Hypothyroid treatment includes what 2 things?

A

Iodized salt, T4 injections

134
Q

Hyperthyroid treatment includes what?

A

Radioactive iodine to kill thyroid gland cells

135
Q

The auditory sound referred to as a heart beat is produced by pressure differences between the _____ that closes the AV valve. Likewise, the pressure difference between _____ closes the semilunar valves.
A. Diastole and systole; systole and diastole
B. Atria and ventricle; the ventricles and aorta/pulmonary artery
C. Bicuspid valve and tricuspid valve; pulmonary valve; aortic valve
D. Vena cava/pulmonary vein and the aorta/pulmonary artery; atria and ventricles
E. Vena cava/pulmonary vein and the atria; atria and ventricles

A

B. Atria and ventricle; the ventricles and aorta/pulmonary artery

136
Q

The opening of _________ channels result in the rapid depolarization of myocardial cells in the ventricles; whereas the opening of ______ channels results in the slow plateau of the AP. ________ efflux then hyperpolarizes the cell.
A. Fast Ca2+ channels; slow K+; Na+
B. Fast Ca2+ channels; slow Na+ channels; K+
C. Fast Na+ channels; slow K+; Ca2+
D. Fast K+ channels; slow Ca2+ channels; Na+
E. Fast Na+ channels; slow Ca2+ channels; K+

A

E. Fast Na+ channels; slow Ca2+ channels; K+

137
Q

Blood pressure, measured by mm Hg, is lowest in the ______; however, blood is prevented from back flow by ______.
A. Capillaries; fenestra
B. Ventricles; valves
C. Veins; valves
D. Lungs; systole
E. Arteries; skeletal muscle contractions

A

C. Veins; valves

138
Q

According to an electrocardiogram, the ___ wave is created by atrial depolarization, the ___ wave is due to the spread of depolarization to the ventricles, and the S-T interval is due to the _____.
A. P; QRS; plateau phase of the cardiac action potential
B. T; QRS; repolarization of myocardial cells
C. PQR; S; plateau phase of the cardiac action potential
D. P; QRS; repolarization of myocardial cells
E. PQR; S; hyperpolerization of the myocardial cell

A

A. P; QRS; plateau phase of the cardiac action potential

139
Q

Damage to the Purkinje fibers due to ischemia can result in:
A. Circus rhythms
B. Out of synch heart contractions
C. Death
D. Lack of proper coordination of refractory periods
E. All of the above

A

E. All of the above

140
Q

In response to ACh, HCN channels open ____; which _____ heart rate due to the opening of more ___ channels.
A. Slower; increases; Ca2+
B. Quicker; slows; Na+
C. Slower; slows; K+
D. Slower and then quicker; ultimately increases; NE
E. Quicker; increases; Ca2+

A

C. Slower; slows; K+

141
Q

The pacemaker cells are different than neurons because:
A. Pacemaker cells both depolarize and hyperpolarize; whereas neurons do not
B. In pacemaker cells, depolarization results due to the opening of voltage-gated ion channels in response to a slight depolarization, as opposed to hyperpolarization in neurons
C. In pacemaker cells, depolarization results from voltage-gated ion channels that open in response to hyperpolarization, as opposed to depolarization in neurons
D. Neurons both hyperpolarize and depolarize; whereas pacemaker cells do not
E. Pacemaker cells are in the heart and neurons are in the brain

A

C. In pacemaker cells, depolarization results from voltage-gated ion channels that open in response to hyperpolarization, as opposed to depolarization in neurons

142
Q 
A fenestrated capillary is \_\_\_\_\_ to compounds found in Horne blood; however, the majority of capillaries in the brain have \_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A. Permeable; high oxygen levels
B. Impermeable; mitochondria
C. Permeable; mitochondria
D. Impermeable; tight junctions
E. Permeable; tight junctions
A

E. Permeable; tight junction

143
Q

Lidocaine and Verapamil are different from Propranolol in which of the following ways?
A. Lidocaine binds to an Adrenergic receptor; whereas Propranolol and Verapamil bind to voltage-gated channels
B. Lidocaine and Verapamil directly influence ion channel permeability; whereas Propranolol indirectly influences ion channel permeability
C. Lidocaine and Verapamil are released by the sympathetic nervous system, Propranolol from the parasympathetic vagus
D. Lidocaine and Verapamil are ion channel antagonists; whereas Propranolol is an ion channel agonist
E. Lidocaine and Verapamil are ion channel agonists; whereas Propranolol is an ion channel antagonist

A

B. Lidocaine and Verapamil directly influence ion channel permeability; whereas Propranolol indirectly influences ion channel permeability

144
Q

The ______ is the origin of the action potential that spreads from the pacemaker cells located at the top of the right atria. Due to fibrous skeleton of the heart, this action potential must then pass through the _____ in order to depolarize the ventricles of the heart.
A. Sinoatrial node; atrioventricular node
B. Atrioventricular bundle; AV node
C. Purkinje fibers; SA node
D. His node; HCN channel
E. AV node; atrioventricular bundle

A

A. Sinoatrial node; atrioventricular node

145
Q

What receives incoming blood and then passes it to the ventricle?

A

Atrium

146
Q

What is the muscular pump that sends blood to a separate circulation?

A

Ventricle

147
Q

What are the vessels that carry blood from the heart towards the capillaries?

A

Arteries

148
Q

Arteries are high in ________.

A

Oxygen

149
Q

What carries blood from capillaries back to the heart?

A

Veins

150
Q

Veins are low in _______.

A

Oxygen

151
Q

What are very small vesicles that perfuse all the tissues?

A

Capillaries

152
Q

When you hear “lub-dub” the “lub” is the sound of what?

A

Closing of AV valves

153
Q

When you hear “lub-dub” the “dub” is he sound of what?

A

The closing of the semilunar valves

154
Q

The Cardiac Cycle: Where are the chambers relaxed, where blood can flow in?

A

Diastole

155
Q

The Cardiac Cycle: where is the atria contracting, pushing blood into ventricles?

A

Atrial systole

156
Q

The Cardiac Cycle: where do ventricles contract with high pressure, pushing blood into the lungs and systemic circulation?

A

Ventricular systole

157
Q

The Cardiac Cycle: Arterial pressure when ventricle is relaxed is called?

A

Diastolic pressure (bottom number)

158
Q

The Cardiac Cycle: Arterial pressure when ventricle contracts and pumps is called?

A

Systolic pressure (top number)

159
Q

AP starts from pacemaker cells in ______.

A

Sinoatrial node

160
Q

Myocardium forms a functional ______, via _____

A

Syncitium ; gap junctions

161
Q

Myocardial AP has slow _____ channels

A

Ca2+

162
Q

Tissue damage due to lack of oxygen is called?

A

Myocardial infarction

163
Q

Which wave is this describing: AP spreads rapidly across atria to cause depolarization and atrial systole contraction

A

P wave

164
Q

AP cannot cross directly to ventricles. It must pass through ________.

A

Atrioventricular node

165
Q

What wave is this?: ventricles depolarize and contract

A

QRS wave

166
Q

What wave is this?: ventricles repolarize

A

T wave

167
Q

What segment/internal is this? Time for AP to spread from atrial to ventricles

A

P-Q segment

168
Q

What interval/segment is this?: time for ventricles to depolarize and repolarize

A

S-T interval

169
Q

Slow heart beat

A

Bradycardia

170
Q

Rapid heart beat

A

Tachycardia

171
Q

Loss of rhythm

A

Arrhythmia

172
Q

Loss of oxygen due to reduced blood flow, leads to cell damage and death

A

Ischemia

173
Q

“Quivering” of myocardium; uncoordinated contraction

A

Fibrillation

174
Q

During an AV node block,you can observe __ waves without ___ wave

A

P waves

QRS wave

175
Q

Electrical shock depolarized all of he myocardial cells at the same time, and synchronize in refractory state so SA node can restart contract - what is this?

A

Defribillator

176
Q

Continuous recycling of AP around ventricles when refractory periods of myocardial cells become desynchronized - what is this?

A

Circus rhythms

177
Q

When you see depression of ST interval (swoops down low on the graph) that means there is damage to the ________

A

Myocardium

178
Q

Loss of oxygen due to reduced blood flow

A

Ischemia

179
Q

Which nervous system decreases heart rate?

A

Parasympathetic nervous system

180
Q

Which nervous system increases heart rate?

A

Sympathetic nervous system

181
Q

Which drug blocks voltage-gated Na+ channels?

A

Lidocaine

182
Q

Which drug is a “beta blocker” which blocks norepinephrine from binding beta-Adrenergic receptors?

A

Propranolol

183
Q

Which drug blocks the voltage-gated Ca2+ channels?

A

Verapamil

184
Q

NE increases/decreases cAMP?

A

Increases

185
Q

ACh increases/decreases cAMP?

A

Decreases

186
Q

When NE effects pacemaker cells, HCN/Ca2+ channels open ______.

A

Faster

187
Q

The effect of NE on pacemaker cells means that there is a ________ heart beat

A

Faster

188
Q

When ACh effects pacemaker cells, HCN channels open _______.

A

Slower

189
Q

When ACh effects pacemaker cells, more ____ channels open.

A

K+

190
Q

When ACh effects pacemaker cells, there is a ____ heart beat

A

Slower

191
Q

Arteries are high in ______

A

Oxygen

192
Q

________ can regulate blood flow to capillaries or bypass through shunt.

A

Pre-capillary sphincters

193
Q

Most capillaries are _____ which means they have channels.

A

Fenestrated

194
Q

Because veins have low blood pressure, they have two adaptions, which are?

A
  1. Contraction of skeletal muscle surrounding the veins

2. Valves that prevent the flood from flowing backwards

195
Q

When you’re arm is swelling after cutting off the circulation, what exactly is the swelling?

A

Blood backing up against the one-way valves

196
Q

The greater the SA of blood vessels, the greater the ______.

A

Resistance (blood flow slows down!)

197
Q

Increased blood in the ventricles of the heart results in greater strength during contraction (Frank Starling Law) because:
A. The actin and myosin in the sarcomeres have less overlap due to the stretch
B. The heart has more O2 available to it
C. The AV valves are more tightly shut
D. More blood in the ventricle means higher blood pressure in the ventricle
E. More K+ channels are open

A

A. The actin and myosin in the sarcomere have less overlap due to stretch

198
Q 
An increase in the following will decrease the resistance of a blood vessel:
A. Oxygen
B. Viscosity
C. Radius
D. Length
E. Carbon dioxide
A

C. Radius

199
Q 
Exercise \_\_\_\_\_\_blood flow to skeletal muscles, \_\_\_\_ blood flow to the gastrointestinal tract and liver, and \_\_\_\_\_\_ blood flow to the brain.
A. Increases; decreases; increases
B. Increases; decreases; does not change
C. Increases; does not change; decreases
D. Does not change; decreases; increases
E. Increases; increases; increases
A

B. Increases; decreases; does not change

200
Q 
A healthy heart has an ejection volume that is maintained at \_\_\_\_\_ of end-diastolic volume (EDV):
A. 60%
B. 70%
C. 80%
D. 90%
E. 100%
A

A. 60%

201
Q

When blood flow and pressure is reduced in the renal artery, the juxtaglomerular apparatus secretes ______ into the blood. This enzyme cleaves _____ into ______.
A. Alsosterone; angiotensin I; angiotensin II
B. Thrombin; fibrinogen; fibrin
C. Renin; angiotensin I; angiotensin II
D. Renin; angiotensinogen; angiotensin I
E. Aldosterone; angiotensinogen; angiotensin I

A

D. Renin; angiotensinogen; angiotensin I

202
Q

After lying down, you sit up and notice your vision starts turning black. You come to the conclusion that your blood pressure was too low to adequately supply your brain with oxygenated blood. Which of the following is NOT a part of orthostatic regulation of blood pressure?
A. Sympathetic innervation
B. Osmoreceptors in the hypothalamus
C. Increased cardiac output
D. Baroreceptors in the aorta and carotid sinus
E. The medulla oblongata

A

B. Osmoreceptors in the hypothalamus

203
Q

Baroreceptors detect changes in ______; whereas osomoseceptors detect changes in _____.
A. Oxygen concentration; carbon dioxide concentration
B. Sympathetic input; parasympathetic input
C. Oncotic pressure; resistance of blood flow
D. Blood osmolality; vasoconstriction
E. Blood pressure; blood concentration

A

E. Blood pressure; blood concentration

204
Q

Which of the following is TRUE about the lymphatic system?
A. The lymphatic system prevents the formation and spread of cancer in the human body
B. The lymphatic system has no connections with the intestines
C. Lymph is dumped into subclavian veins via the thoracic duct and right lymphatic duct
D. Lymphatic capillaries make up a closed circulatory system
E. Because the lymph ducts lack a heart-like organ, lymph can only passively move in the lymphatic system

A

C. Lymph is dumped into subclavian veins via the thoracic duct and right lymphatic duct

205
Q 
Which of the following does NOT contribute to an increase in end-diastolic volume?
A. Skeletal muscle lumps
B. Breathing
C. Sympathetic nerve stimulation
D. Tissue-fluid volume
E. Negative intrathoracic pressure
A

D. Tissue-fluid volume

206
Q 
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is secreted from the left atrium; \_\_\_\_\_\_ is secreted from the posterior pituitary.
A. Renin; aldosterone
B. Norepi; Epi
C. ANP; ADH
D. Water; NaCl
E. AngII; ACTH
A

C. ANP; ADH

207
Q

What is the correct terminology for blood clotting?

A

Hemostasis

208
Q

In a damaged blood vessel, platelets bind to collagen and __________.

A

von Willbrand’s factor

209
Q

In a damaged blood vessel, platelets activate plasma clotting factors, converting soluble _____ to insoluble ______

A

Fibrinogen ; fibrin

210
Q

In an intact blood vessel, prostaglandin and NO keep vessel ______

A

Dilated

211
Q

In an intact blood vessel, ADP levels are ____.

A

Low

212
Q

In intact blood vessels, platelets are _______.

A

Inactive

213
Q

In a damaged blood vessel, ADP levels are ____.

A

High

214
Q

In damaged blood vessels, platelets are ______

A

Active

215
Q

In damaged blood vessels, activated platelets bind to _____ and ______

A

Collagen ; Von Willbrand’s factor

216
Q

A clot formation causes ____ formation to reinforce platelet plug

A

Fibrin

217
Q

When blood clots on its own, what kind of pathway is that?

A

Intrinsic pathway

218
Q

When damaged tissue releases tissue factor that accelerates clotting, what pathway is that?

A

Extrinsic pathway

219
Q

In clotting, prothrombin is converted into ____.

A

Thrombin

220
Q

Thrombin converts fibrinogen to ________.

A

Fibrin

221
Q

__________ converts glutamate residues of clotting factors into gamma-carboglutamate

A

Vitamin K

222
Q

Gamma-carboyglutamate increases binding of _____ to clotting factors

A

Ca++

223
Q

Vitamin K deficiency or blockage by drugs lead to _______ clotting ability

A

Decreased

224
Q

In clot dissolution, factor XII activated ________

A

Kallikrein

225
Q

In clot dissolution, Kallikrein converts _______ into _______.

A

Plasminogen into plasmin

226
Q

There is NO clotting in ________.

A

Hemophilia

227
Q

Vitamin K helps ______

A

Blood clots

228
Q

Hemophilia is genetic how?

A

X-linked recessive

229
Q

If you mix hemophilia blood with normal blood you will get?

A

Blood clots

230
Q

If you mix hemophilia A with hemophilia B what do you get?

A

Blood clots

231
Q

Volume of blood pumped each minute by each ventricle

A

Cardiac output

232
Q

Cardiac output is the product of _____ and ____

A

Cardiac rate x Stroke volume

233
Q

Cardiac output that is too low to maintain blood supply to the body leads to?

A

Cardiac failure

234
Q

SA node and AV node are _______

A

Chronotropic

235
Q

Atrial muscle and ventricular muscle are ______

A

Inotropic

236
Q

Amount of blood in vesicles right before they contract

A

End-diastolic volume (EDV)

237
Q

Strength of ventricle contraction

A

Contractibility

238
Q

Frictional resistance of arteries to increased blood flow

A

Total peripheral resistance

239
Q

The frank-starling law is what kind of control?

A

Intrinsic

240
Q

Stroke volume is the product of what divided by what?

A

(EDV x Contractibility)/total peripheral resistance

241
Q

Ejection fraction in healthy heart is maintained at ___%

A

60%

242
Q

The more blood in a ventricle, the more the ventricle _____.

A

Contracts

243
Q

The return of blood to the heart via the veins

A

Venous return

244
Q

Veins have higher compliance

A

Capacitance vessels

245
Q

_________ capillaries are closed end but very porous vessels in interstitial space

A

Lymphatic

246
Q

In the Lymphatic system, capillaries merge to form _________, similar to veins with valves.

A

Lymph ducts

247
Q

Lymph is moved by _____ contractions of smooth muscle of lymph ducts.

A

Peristaltic

248
Q

Lymph is dumped into subclavian veins via _______ and _______

A

Thoracic duct and right lymphatic duct

249
Q

Excessive interstitial fluid

A

Edema

250
Q

Pressure at which blood can first get past cuff gives ______ pressure

A

Systolic

251
Q

Pressure at which all blood can get past cuff gives _______ pressure

A

Diastolic

252
Q

Smaller, longer vessels have _______ resistance

A

Greater

253
Q

Wider vessels have ______ resistance

A

Lower

254
Q

When there is a greater resistance pressure has to ______.

A

Drop

255
Q

_______ control blood flow to different areas

A

Sphincters

256
Q

During excercise, you need to increase the delivery of _____ and _____ to skeletal muscle.

A

Oxygen ; glucose

257
Q

During exercise, in order to increase the delivery of oxygen, you need to increase ______.

A

Cardiac input

258
Q

One solution of increasing oxygen and glucose to skeletal muscle during exercise is to ______ the blood to target heart and skeletal muscle.

A

Reroute

259
Q

Increasing blood flow to heart and skeletal muscle is done by ________

A

Vasodilation

260
Q

Decreasing blood flow to some organs is done by ________.

A

Vasoconstriction

261
Q

In order to increase cardiac input, you need to increase _____ and _____.

A

Heart rate ; stroke volume

262
Q

During exercise, there is a decreased parasympathetic and increased sympathetic outflow to the _____ and _____.

A

Heart ; Arterioles

263
Q

During exercise, epinephrine is released from the adrenal medulla and goes to the _____ and _____.

A

Heart ; Arterioles

264
Q

During exorcise, metabolizes released from muscle leads to ______.

A

Vasodilation

265
Q

During exercise, there is increased breathing and muscle movements which increases _____.

A

Venous return

266
Q

Exercise increases cardiac input and causes _______ of blood flow.

A

Redistribution

267
Q

Rapid neural responses consist of what two things?

A

Baroreflex ; Osmoreceptors

268
Q

Endocrine responses consist of what 3 things?

A

ADH
ANP
Renin-Angiosin II-aldosterone

269
Q

Arterial blood pressure is the product of what?

A

Cardiac input x total peripheral resistance

V = I x R

270
Q

Beta blockers lower ______

A

Blood pressure

271
Q

Elevated _____ in blood above 0.15 M causes drinking in pigs.

A

NaCl

272
Q

Diuretics block ____ to cause more _____ production

A

ADH ; urine production

273
Q

Cells that respond to changes in plasma osmolality

A

Osmoreceptors

274
Q

ACE inhibitors lower ______.

A

Blood pressure

275
Q

ACE stands for?

A

Angiotensin Converting Enzyme

276
Q

In the volemic challenge, you lose ____ and ____ drops

A

Blood ; pressure

277
Q

The response to the Volemic Challenge is to ______ to raise BP

A

Vasocontrict

Vertebrae Physiology (3 decks)

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