Exam 3 Flashcards
Chemicals secreted by cells that aren’t neurons
Hormones
The study of secretion of hormones from glands
Endocrinology
Tissues that secrete a chemical
Glands
Secretion OUTSIDE the body
Exocrine glands
Secretion INTO the blood, acting on distant tissues
Endocrine glands
Secretion acting on NEARBY cells
Paracrine glands
Secretion acting on SAME cell
Autocrine glands
Sweat glands are an example of what kind of glands?
Exocrine glands
Exocrine and endocrine cells that secrete chemicals are called?
Glands
Secreted chemicals act via _____ on the _____ ___
Receptors
Target cells
When stimulated, endocrine cell secretes ____ into the blood
Hormone
In a normal cell, no hormones lead to?
Disease
In a normal cell, bad receptors lead to?
Disease
What was the demonstration of the endocrine system?
Leptin
If an animal has no hormone, what happens when there is shared circulation with a normal animal?
Cures the disease
If an animal has no receptors or target cells, what happens when there is shared circulation with a normal animal?
Excess hormone
No effect on disease
Leptin serves as a what?
Feedback signal
Ob/Ob mutation’s extra stop codon terminates what?
Leptin transcript
Hypoleptinemia is related to what mouse mutation?
Ob/Ob mutation
db/db’s extra stop codon terminates what?
Leptin receptor
Functional hypoleptinemia is related to what mutation?
db/db mutation
ob/ob is missing?
Leptin hormone
db/db is missing?
Leptin receptor
When an ob/ob mouse shares blood with a Wildtype mouse, what happens?
The Wildtype blood normalizes ob/ob
Therefore, Wildtype has hormone that ob/ob is missing
When a db/db mouse shares blood with a Wildtype mouse, what happens?
db/db blood makes Wildtype anorexic
Therefore, db/db has excess hormone that Wildtype can detect
When a db/db mouse shares blood with an ob/ob mouse, what happens?
db/db blood makes ob/ob anorexic
Therefore db/db has excess hormone that ob/ob is missing
Since ob/ob has no Leptin hormone, it can’t produce what?
Negative feedback signal
db/db has no Leptin receptors, so it can’t detect what?
Negative feedback signal
What happens if you add or subtract Leptin in normal people?
Nothing
Pre-hormones circulate where?
In the blood
Which of the following is NOT a symptom of Cushing’s Syndrome?
A. Wasting of muscles and most fat depots
B. Tumor of the adrenal medulla
C. Suppressed immune system
D. Excess cortisol secretion by the adrenal cortex
E. Changes in mood and sleep
Tumor of the adrenal medulla
\_\_\_\_\_, excreted by adipocytes, serve as negative feedback to the \_\_\_\_\_ in order to reduce feeding behavior. A. Ghrelin; anterior pituitary B. Thyroxine; posterior pituitary C. POMC; adrenal medulla D. Leptin; hypothalamus E. Terraiodothyronine; thyroid gland
D. Leptin; hypothalamus
Steroid hormones must dissociate from ______ in order to pass through the cell membrane. Inside the cytoplasm, steroid hormones bind to the _____ of receptor proteins in order to influence gene expression.
A. transport proteins; DNA binding domain
B. Transit proteins; steroid binding domain
C. Transmission proteins; response element
D. Extracellular transient proteins; transcription factor
E. Carrier proteins; ligand binding domain
Carrier proteins; ligand binding domain
After the circulatory systems of two mice are surgically connects, one mouse remains obese while the second mouse becomes anorexic. One mouse is \_\_\_ and the anorexic mouse is \_\_\_. A. db/db; Wildtype B. db/db; ob/ob C. ob/ob; db/db D. A or B E. B or C D. A or B
D. A or B
Addison’s Disease is caused by:
A. Excess ACTH secretion
B. Excess cortisol secretion by the adrenal cortex
C. Loss of the adrenal cortex
D. Transection of the infundibulum
E. Secretion of ACTH by a lung cancer tumor
Loss of the adrenal cortex
Negative feedback in a hypothalamic-pituitary axis involves:
A. An elevation in hypothalamic releasing hormones
B. Peripheral target hormones acting on receptors in the hypothalamus and pituitary
C. A drop in blood glucose
D. Comparison in hypothalamic releasing hormones
E. Unpleasant systems of hormone release
B. Peripheral target hormones acting on receptors in the hypothalamus and pituitary
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a db/db mouse?
A. No Leptin receptors
B. No Leptin hormone
C. Can’t detect negative feedback signal from fat
D. Overproduction of Leptin hormone
E. Functional hypoleptinemia
B. No Leptin hormone
The long-term response to stress includes:
A. The release of epinephrine from the adrenal medulla
B. an increase in heart rate
C. Parasympathetic nerve activation
D. Fear
E. An increase in corticosteroids in the blood
E. An increase in corticosteroids in the blood
After transection of the infundibulum, the secretion of most pituitary hormones goes down, but secretion of \_\_\_\_\_ increases. A. Thyroid stimulating hormone B. ADH C. Prolactin D. ACTH E. ACTH
C. Prolactin
This second messenger molecule releases Ca++ from the endoplasmic reticulum after it is converted from phospholipids by phospholipase C. A. Tyrosine B. IP3 C. cAMP D. DAG E. Calmodulin
B. IP3
What are the three types of lipophilic hormones?
Steroids
Thyroid hormone
Retinoic acid
Steroids, thyroid hormone, and Retinoic acid are all what types of hormones?
Lipophilic hormones
Lipophilic molecules are usually bound in the blood to what kind of proteins?
Carrier proteins
Nuclear receptor hormones coordinate what two responses?
Peripheral physiological response
Central neural response
Nuclear receptor hormones bind to specific sequences called _____ _____ in gene promoters.
Response elements
Nuclear receptor hormones are synthesized from lipid-soluble store by ______.
Enzymes
Steroid hormones are derived from ______.
Cholesterol
The adrenal gland converts ______ into _______.
Cholesterol into cortisol
Steroids are produced by what kind of glands?
Endocrine glands
Estrogen receptor in presence of estrogen binds to __________?
Estrogen response element (ERE)
_______ blocks estrogen receptors and is used se treatment for breast cancer
Tamoxifen
Polypeptide and glycoprotein hormones are examples of what kind of hormones?
Second-messenger coupled hormones
Polypeptide and glycoprotein hormones are coded for by _____.
Genes
Polypeptide and glycoprotein hormones are packaged in _______.
Vesicles
Polypeptide and glycoprotein hormones are hydrophilic/hydrophobic molecules?
Hydrophilic
Polypeptide and glycoprotein hormones circulate and act on what kind of receptors?
Plasma membrane receptors
What are the 3 common hormone receptor signaling pathways?
GPCR linked to cAMP
GPCR linked to phospholipase C and Ca++
Tyrosine Kinase Receptors
When cAMP acts as a second messenger it gets the message across the _______ to?
Membrane to inside the cell
When cAMP acts as a second messenger it amplifies the message by production of many of what kind of molecules?
cAMP molecules
When cAMP acts as a second messenger it spreads the message by _______ of ______ throughout the cell
Diffusion ; cAMP
Insulin, Leptin, and cytokines are examples of what?
Tyrosine receptor kinases
Tyrosine receptor kinases are located where?
Outside of the cell
When intracellular Ca++ acts as a second messenger it is located where?
Endoplasmic reticulum
When cAMP acts as a second messenger it is located where?
Plasma membrane
Brain region between brainstem and cerebellum that integrates sensory information and generates physiological responses to maintain homeostasis
Hypothalamus
The ______ is attached to the underside of the hypothalamus by the ______?
Pituitary gland ; infundibulum
The hypothalamus is connected to the anterior pituitary by what kind of veins
Hypothalamo-hypophyseal portal veins
The hypothalamus is connected to the posterior pituitary by what kind of tract?
Hypothalamo-hypophyseal tract
Which lobe contains endocrine cells that secrete trophic hormones into the circulation that stimulate target organs in the body
Anterior lobe
The anterior lobe contains endocrine cells that secrete what into circulation?
Trophic hormones
What lobe contains axon terminals of ADH and oxytocin neurons that originate in the hypothalamus?
Posterior lobe
The posterior lobe contains axon terminals of what two types of neurons?
ADH and oxytocin
Which type of pituitary (anterior or posterior) has an extra step of regulation?
Anterior pituitary
The _______ regulates the pituitary function with releasing and release-inhibitory hormones.
Hypothalamus
Releasing hormones cause the pituitary to release what?
Stimulatory hormones
Stimulatory hormones increase/decrease target glands activity
Increase
Inhibitory hormones cause the pituitary to suppress/release Stimulatory hormones.
Suppress
Inhibitory hormones increase/decrease target gland activity
Decrease
The transection of infundibulum causes a decrease of all pituitary hormones except ______ increases
Prolactin
Target hormones: _____ feedback to hypothalamus and pituitary
Negative
Target hormones: _____ levels of releasing hormones and Stimulatory hormones
Decreased
If you’re producing a lot of milk then it might be a ______ problem.
Dopamine
In a feed forward loop the releasing hormone goes from the _____ to the _____
Hypothalamus —–> pituitary
In a feed forward loop the trophic hormone goes from the ______ to the ______
Pituitary ——-> target glans
Tumors, lack of negative feedback, and inappropriate synthesis/degradation can lead to what?
Hypersecretion
Lack of releasing/trophic hormone, lack of synthetic enzymes, and lack of receptors can lead to what?
Real or functional hyposecretion
Long-term, transcriptional stress response are mediated by?
Glucocorticoids
What hormone is associated with long term stress?
ACTH
The hypersecretion of _______ is a symptom of PTSD and depression
Cortisol
_______ levels are highest in highest the morning which is why you are supposed to draw blood in the morning.
Cortisol
What are the 3 zones of the adrenal cortex?
Zona glomerulosa
Zona fasciculata
Zona reticularis
The adrenal medulla releases ____ and _____ into the blood
Norepinephrine and epinephrine
Zona glomerulosa produces what steroid?
Aldosterone
Zona fasciculata produces what steroid?
Cortisol
Zona reticularis produces what steroid?
Androgens
Glucocorticoids contain the _____ response
Stress
Glucocorticoids suppress ____ and suppress the _____
Swelling ; the immune system
Glucocorticoids reduce ________.
Tissue damage
Glucocorticoids mobilize energy from ____ and ______.
Muscle ; fat
Glucocorticoids induce ________ for detoxification
Liver enzymes
In negative feedback of cortisol: if cortisol synthesis is blocked them ACTH levels stay ____
Elevated
If excess glucocorticoids are administered, HPA detects __________, so then ACTH and cortisol levels should ____.
High negative feedback ; fall
The _________ test administers an artificial glucocorticoid to confirm that HPA responds to negative feedback.
Dexamethasone suppression test
In the HPA axis, negative feedback: cortisol feeds back to the ______ and the _____
Pituitary ; hypothalamus
In HPA axis, negative feedback: the pituitary inhibits _____ release
ACTH
In HPA axis, negative feedback: the hypothalamus inhibits ____ release
CRH
In the HPA axis, if you remove negative feedback then the ____ and ____ levels will increase
ACTH and CRH
In HPA axis, enhanced negative feedback: a Dex pretreatment will cause blunted ______ response to ____.
ACTH ; CRH
Tumors can ______ hormones
Oversecrete
Tumors of the adrenal gland can produce too much ________.
Cortisol
Tumors of the pituitary gland or lung can produce too much _______.
ACTH
Tumors of the adrenal medulla produce too much _____.
Epinephrine
Hyper-epinephrine ——-> increase/decrease heart rate
Hyper-norepinephrine —–> increase/decrease heart rate
Increase ; decrease
What disease is caused by autoimmune or infectious destruction of adrenal cortex?
Addison’s disease
In Addison’s disease there are no _______.
Glucocorticoids
In Addison’s disease there are low ____ and high ____.
Corticosteroids ; ACTH
The hypersecretion of cortisol describes what syndrome?
Cushing’s syndrome
TRH stands for?
Thyrotropin-Releasing Hormone
The hypothalamus secretes _____ into short portal vessels
TRH
TRH stimulates thyrotroph cells in the pituitary to secrete _____ into the blood
TSH
What does TSH stand for?
Thyroid-stimulating hormone
TSH stimulates _____ to synthesize and release ______.
Thyroid gland ; thyroxine
Thyroxine binds to nuclear thyroid hormone recoveries to upregulate ______.
Metabolism
Lack of TSH will cause the thyroid gland to become _____
Small
Increase of TSH will cause the thyroid gland to become _____.
Large
______ are follicular cells surrounding colloid
Spherical follicles
Iodide is concentrated in follicular cells by _____
Na+/I- cotransporter
I- is concentrated in the colloid by transporter _____.
Pendrin
The synthesis of thyroxin occurs in the ____
Colloid
Hypertrophy of the thyroid gland describes what disease?
Goiter
Endemic goiter is caused by a lack of _____ in the diet
Iodine
Mental retardation due to hypothyroidism during pregnancy and after birth is what disease?
Cretinism (an example of hypothyroidism)
Graves’ disease is another symptom of _____
Hyperthyroidism
Hypothyroid treatment includes what 2 things?
Iodized salt, T4 injections
Hyperthyroid treatment includes what?
Radioactive iodine to kill thyroid gland cells
The auditory sound referred to as a heart beat is produced by pressure differences between the _____ that closes the AV valve. Likewise, the pressure difference between _____ closes the semilunar valves.
A. Diastole and systole; systole and diastole
B. Atria and ventricle; the ventricles and aorta/pulmonary artery
C. Bicuspid valve and tricuspid valve; pulmonary valve; aortic valve
D. Vena cava/pulmonary vein and the aorta/pulmonary artery; atria and ventricles
E. Vena cava/pulmonary vein and the atria; atria and ventricles
B. Atria and ventricle; the ventricles and aorta/pulmonary artery
The opening of _________ channels result in the rapid depolarization of myocardial cells in the ventricles; whereas the opening of ______ channels results in the slow plateau of the AP. ________ efflux then hyperpolarizes the cell.
A. Fast Ca2+ channels; slow K+; Na+
B. Fast Ca2+ channels; slow Na+ channels; K+
C. Fast Na+ channels; slow K+; Ca2+
D. Fast K+ channels; slow Ca2+ channels; Na+
E. Fast Na+ channels; slow Ca2+ channels; K+
E. Fast Na+ channels; slow Ca2+ channels; K+
Blood pressure, measured by mm Hg, is lowest in the ______; however, blood is prevented from back flow by ______.
A. Capillaries; fenestra
B. Ventricles; valves
C. Veins; valves
D. Lungs; systole
E. Arteries; skeletal muscle contractions
C. Veins; valves
According to an electrocardiogram, the ___ wave is created by atrial depolarization, the ___ wave is due to the spread of depolarization to the ventricles, and the S-T interval is due to the _____.
A. P; QRS; plateau phase of the cardiac action potential
B. T; QRS; repolarization of myocardial cells
C. PQR; S; plateau phase of the cardiac action potential
D. P; QRS; repolarization of myocardial cells
E. PQR; S; hyperpolerization of the myocardial cell
A. P; QRS; plateau phase of the cardiac action potential
Damage to the Purkinje fibers due to ischemia can result in:
A. Circus rhythms
B. Out of synch heart contractions
C. Death
D. Lack of proper coordination of refractory periods
E. All of the above
E. All of the above
In response to ACh, HCN channels open ____; which _____ heart rate due to the opening of more ___ channels.
A. Slower; increases; Ca2+
B. Quicker; slows; Na+
C. Slower; slows; K+
D. Slower and then quicker; ultimately increases; NE
E. Quicker; increases; Ca2+
C. Slower; slows; K+
The pacemaker cells are different than neurons because:
A. Pacemaker cells both depolarize and hyperpolarize; whereas neurons do not
B. In pacemaker cells, depolarization results due to the opening of voltage-gated ion channels in response to a slight depolarization, as opposed to hyperpolarization in neurons
C. In pacemaker cells, depolarization results from voltage-gated ion channels that open in response to hyperpolarization, as opposed to depolarization in neurons
D. Neurons both hyperpolarize and depolarize; whereas pacemaker cells do not
E. Pacemaker cells are in the heart and neurons are in the brain
C. In pacemaker cells, depolarization results from voltage-gated ion channels that open in response to hyperpolarization, as opposed to depolarization in neurons
A fenestrated capillary is \_\_\_\_\_ to compounds found in Horne blood; however, the majority of capillaries in the brain have \_\_\_\_\_\_\_. A. Permeable; high oxygen levels B. Impermeable; mitochondria C. Permeable; mitochondria D. Impermeable; tight junctions E. Permeable; tight junctions
E. Permeable; tight junction
Lidocaine and Verapamil are different from Propranolol in which of the following ways?
A. Lidocaine binds to an Adrenergic receptor; whereas Propranolol and Verapamil bind to voltage-gated channels
B. Lidocaine and Verapamil directly influence ion channel permeability; whereas Propranolol indirectly influences ion channel permeability
C. Lidocaine and Verapamil are released by the sympathetic nervous system, Propranolol from the parasympathetic vagus
D. Lidocaine and Verapamil are ion channel antagonists; whereas Propranolol is an ion channel agonist
E. Lidocaine and Verapamil are ion channel agonists; whereas Propranolol is an ion channel antagonist
B. Lidocaine and Verapamil directly influence ion channel permeability; whereas Propranolol indirectly influences ion channel permeability
The ______ is the origin of the action potential that spreads from the pacemaker cells located at the top of the right atria. Due to fibrous skeleton of the heart, this action potential must then pass through the _____ in order to depolarize the ventricles of the heart.
A. Sinoatrial node; atrioventricular node
B. Atrioventricular bundle; AV node
C. Purkinje fibers; SA node
D. His node; HCN channel
E. AV node; atrioventricular bundle
A. Sinoatrial node; atrioventricular node
What receives incoming blood and then passes it to the ventricle?
Atrium
What is the muscular pump that sends blood to a separate circulation?
Ventricle
What are the vessels that carry blood from the heart towards the capillaries?
Arteries
Arteries are high in ________.
Oxygen
What carries blood from capillaries back to the heart?
Veins
Veins are low in _______.
Oxygen
What are very small vesicles that perfuse all the tissues?
Capillaries
When you hear “lub-dub” the “lub” is the sound of what?
Closing of AV valves
When you hear “lub-dub” the “dub” is he sound of what?
The closing of the semilunar valves
The Cardiac Cycle: Where are the chambers relaxed, where blood can flow in?
Diastole
The Cardiac Cycle: where is the atria contracting, pushing blood into ventricles?
Atrial systole
The Cardiac Cycle: where do ventricles contract with high pressure, pushing blood into the lungs and systemic circulation?
Ventricular systole
The Cardiac Cycle: Arterial pressure when ventricle is relaxed is called?
Diastolic pressure (bottom number)
The Cardiac Cycle: Arterial pressure when ventricle contracts and pumps is called?
Systolic pressure (top number)
AP starts from pacemaker cells in ______.
Sinoatrial node
Myocardium forms a functional ______, via _____
Syncitium ; gap junctions
Myocardial AP has slow _____ channels
Ca2+
Tissue damage due to lack of oxygen is called?
Myocardial infarction
Which wave is this describing: AP spreads rapidly across atria to cause depolarization and atrial systole contraction
P wave
AP cannot cross directly to ventricles. It must pass through ________.
Atrioventricular node
What wave is this?: ventricles depolarize and contract
QRS wave
What wave is this?: ventricles repolarize
T wave
What segment/internal is this? Time for AP to spread from atrial to ventricles
P-Q segment
What interval/segment is this?: time for ventricles to depolarize and repolarize
S-T interval
Slow heart beat
Bradycardia
Rapid heart beat
Tachycardia
Loss of rhythm
Arrhythmia
Loss of oxygen due to reduced blood flow, leads to cell damage and death
Ischemia
“Quivering” of myocardium; uncoordinated contraction
Fibrillation
During an AV node block,you can observe __ waves without ___ wave
P waves
QRS wave
Electrical shock depolarized all of he myocardial cells at the same time, and synchronize in refractory state so SA node can restart contract - what is this?
Defribillator
Continuous recycling of AP around ventricles when refractory periods of myocardial cells become desynchronized - what is this?
Circus rhythms
When you see depression of ST interval (swoops down low on the graph) that means there is damage to the ________
Myocardium
Loss of oxygen due to reduced blood flow
Ischemia
Which nervous system decreases heart rate?
Parasympathetic nervous system
Which nervous system increases heart rate?
Sympathetic nervous system
Which drug blocks voltage-gated Na+ channels?
Lidocaine
Which drug is a “beta blocker” which blocks norepinephrine from binding beta-Adrenergic receptors?
Propranolol
Which drug blocks the voltage-gated Ca2+ channels?
Verapamil
NE increases/decreases cAMP?
Increases
ACh increases/decreases cAMP?
Decreases
When NE effects pacemaker cells, HCN/Ca2+ channels open ______.
Faster
The effect of NE on pacemaker cells means that there is a ________ heart beat
Faster
When ACh effects pacemaker cells, HCN channels open _______.
Slower
When ACh effects pacemaker cells, more ____ channels open.
K+
When ACh effects pacemaker cells, there is a ____ heart beat
Slower
Arteries are high in ______
Oxygen
________ can regulate blood flow to capillaries or bypass through shunt.
Pre-capillary sphincters
Most capillaries are _____ which means they have channels.
Fenestrated
Because veins have low blood pressure, they have two adaptions, which are?
- Contraction of skeletal muscle surrounding the veins
2. Valves that prevent the flood from flowing backwards
When you’re arm is swelling after cutting off the circulation, what exactly is the swelling?
Blood backing up against the one-way valves
The greater the SA of blood vessels, the greater the ______.
Resistance (blood flow slows down!)
Increased blood in the ventricles of the heart results in greater strength during contraction (Frank Starling Law) because:
A. The actin and myosin in the sarcomeres have less overlap due to the stretch
B. The heart has more O2 available to it
C. The AV valves are more tightly shut
D. More blood in the ventricle means higher blood pressure in the ventricle
E. More K+ channels are open
A. The actin and myosin in the sarcomere have less overlap due to stretch
An increase in the following will decrease the resistance of a blood vessel: A. Oxygen B. Viscosity C. Radius D. Length E. Carbon dioxide
C. Radius
Exercise \_\_\_\_\_\_blood flow to skeletal muscles, \_\_\_\_ blood flow to the gastrointestinal tract and liver, and \_\_\_\_\_\_ blood flow to the brain. A. Increases; decreases; increases B. Increases; decreases; does not change C. Increases; does not change; decreases D. Does not change; decreases; increases E. Increases; increases; increases
B. Increases; decreases; does not change
A healthy heart has an ejection volume that is maintained at \_\_\_\_\_ of end-diastolic volume (EDV): A. 60% B. 70% C. 80% D. 90% E. 100%
A. 60%
When blood flow and pressure is reduced in the renal artery, the juxtaglomerular apparatus secretes ______ into the blood. This enzyme cleaves _____ into ______.
A. Alsosterone; angiotensin I; angiotensin II
B. Thrombin; fibrinogen; fibrin
C. Renin; angiotensin I; angiotensin II
D. Renin; angiotensinogen; angiotensin I
E. Aldosterone; angiotensinogen; angiotensin I
D. Renin; angiotensinogen; angiotensin I
After lying down, you sit up and notice your vision starts turning black. You come to the conclusion that your blood pressure was too low to adequately supply your brain with oxygenated blood. Which of the following is NOT a part of orthostatic regulation of blood pressure?
A. Sympathetic innervation
B. Osmoreceptors in the hypothalamus
C. Increased cardiac output
D. Baroreceptors in the aorta and carotid sinus
E. The medulla oblongata
B. Osmoreceptors in the hypothalamus
Baroreceptors detect changes in ______; whereas osomoseceptors detect changes in _____.
A. Oxygen concentration; carbon dioxide concentration
B. Sympathetic input; parasympathetic input
C. Oncotic pressure; resistance of blood flow
D. Blood osmolality; vasoconstriction
E. Blood pressure; blood concentration
E. Blood pressure; blood concentration
Which of the following is TRUE about the lymphatic system?
A. The lymphatic system prevents the formation and spread of cancer in the human body
B. The lymphatic system has no connections with the intestines
C. Lymph is dumped into subclavian veins via the thoracic duct and right lymphatic duct
D. Lymphatic capillaries make up a closed circulatory system
E. Because the lymph ducts lack a heart-like organ, lymph can only passively move in the lymphatic system
C. Lymph is dumped into subclavian veins via the thoracic duct and right lymphatic duct
Which of the following does NOT contribute to an increase in end-diastolic volume? A. Skeletal muscle lumps B. Breathing C. Sympathetic nerve stimulation D. Tissue-fluid volume E. Negative intrathoracic pressure
D. Tissue-fluid volume
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is secreted from the left atrium; \_\_\_\_\_\_ is secreted from the posterior pituitary. A. Renin; aldosterone B. Norepi; Epi C. ANP; ADH D. Water; NaCl E. AngII; ACTH
C. ANP; ADH
What is the correct terminology for blood clotting?
Hemostasis
In a damaged blood vessel, platelets bind to collagen and __________.
von Willbrand’s factor
In a damaged blood vessel, platelets activate plasma clotting factors, converting soluble _____ to insoluble ______
Fibrinogen ; fibrin
In an intact blood vessel, prostaglandin and NO keep vessel ______
Dilated
In an intact blood vessel, ADP levels are ____.
Low
In intact blood vessels, platelets are _______.
Inactive
In a damaged blood vessel, ADP levels are ____.
High
In damaged blood vessels, platelets are ______
Active
In damaged blood vessels, activated platelets bind to _____ and ______
Collagen ; Von Willbrand’s factor
A clot formation causes ____ formation to reinforce platelet plug
Fibrin
When blood clots on its own, what kind of pathway is that?
Intrinsic pathway
When damaged tissue releases tissue factor that accelerates clotting, what pathway is that?
Extrinsic pathway
In clotting, prothrombin is converted into ____.
Thrombin
Thrombin converts fibrinogen to ________.
Fibrin
__________ converts glutamate residues of clotting factors into gamma-carboglutamate
Vitamin K
Gamma-carboyglutamate increases binding of _____ to clotting factors
Ca++
Vitamin K deficiency or blockage by drugs lead to _______ clotting ability
Decreased
In clot dissolution, factor XII activated ________
Kallikrein
In clot dissolution, Kallikrein converts _______ into _______.
Plasminogen into plasmin
There is NO clotting in ________.
Hemophilia
Vitamin K helps ______
Blood clots
Hemophilia is genetic how?
X-linked recessive
If you mix hemophilia blood with normal blood you will get?
Blood clots
If you mix hemophilia A with hemophilia B what do you get?
Blood clots
Volume of blood pumped each minute by each ventricle
Cardiac output
Cardiac output is the product of _____ and ____
Cardiac rate x Stroke volume
Cardiac output that is too low to maintain blood supply to the body leads to?
Cardiac failure
SA node and AV node are _______
Chronotropic
Atrial muscle and ventricular muscle are ______
Inotropic
Amount of blood in vesicles right before they contract
End-diastolic volume (EDV)
Strength of ventricle contraction
Contractibility
Frictional resistance of arteries to increased blood flow
Total peripheral resistance
The frank-starling law is what kind of control?
Intrinsic
Stroke volume is the product of what divided by what?
(EDV x Contractibility)/total peripheral resistance
Ejection fraction in healthy heart is maintained at ___%
60%
The more blood in a ventricle, the more the ventricle _____.
Contracts
The return of blood to the heart via the veins
Venous return
Veins have higher compliance
Capacitance vessels
_________ capillaries are closed end but very porous vessels in interstitial space
Lymphatic
In the Lymphatic system, capillaries merge to form _________, similar to veins with valves.
Lymph ducts
Lymph is moved by _____ contractions of smooth muscle of lymph ducts.
Peristaltic
Lymph is dumped into subclavian veins via _______ and _______
Thoracic duct and right lymphatic duct
Excessive interstitial fluid
Edema
Pressure at which blood can first get past cuff gives ______ pressure
Systolic
Pressure at which all blood can get past cuff gives _______ pressure
Diastolic
Smaller, longer vessels have _______ resistance
Greater
Wider vessels have ______ resistance
Lower
When there is a greater resistance pressure has to ______.
Drop
_______ control blood flow to different areas
Sphincters
During excercise, you need to increase the delivery of _____ and _____ to skeletal muscle.
Oxygen ; glucose
During exercise, in order to increase the delivery of oxygen, you need to increase ______.
Cardiac input
One solution of increasing oxygen and glucose to skeletal muscle during exercise is to ______ the blood to target heart and skeletal muscle.
Reroute
Increasing blood flow to heart and skeletal muscle is done by ________
Vasodilation
Decreasing blood flow to some organs is done by ________.
Vasoconstriction
In order to increase cardiac input, you need to increase _____ and _____.
Heart rate ; stroke volume
During exercise, there is a decreased parasympathetic and increased sympathetic outflow to the _____ and _____.
Heart ; Arterioles
During exercise, epinephrine is released from the adrenal medulla and goes to the _____ and _____.
Heart ; Arterioles
During exorcise, metabolizes released from muscle leads to ______.
Vasodilation
During exercise, there is increased breathing and muscle movements which increases _____.
Venous return
Exercise increases cardiac input and causes _______ of blood flow.
Redistribution
Rapid neural responses consist of what two things?
Baroreflex ; Osmoreceptors
Endocrine responses consist of what 3 things?
ADH
ANP
Renin-Angiosin II-aldosterone
Arterial blood pressure is the product of what?
Cardiac input x total peripheral resistance
V = I x R
Beta blockers lower ______
Blood pressure
Elevated _____ in blood above 0.15 M causes drinking in pigs.
NaCl
Diuretics block ____ to cause more _____ production
ADH ; urine production
Cells that respond to changes in plasma osmolality
Osmoreceptors
ACE inhibitors lower ______.
Blood pressure
ACE stands for?
Angiotensin Converting Enzyme
In the volemic challenge, you lose ____ and ____ drops
Blood ; pressure
The response to the Volemic Challenge is to ______ to raise BP
Vasocontrict
