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Vertebrae Physiology > Exam 2 > Flashcards

Exam 2 Flashcards

0
Q

What are the parts of the central nervous system?

A

Spinal cord & brain stem
Cerebellum
Cerebrum

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1
Q

What is the goal of the central nervous system?

A

To receive sensory inputs, and process those imputs, and then coordinate a response in terms of voluntary action in emotions and thoughts

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2
Q

What are the afferents and efferents of the CNS?

A

Spinal nerves & cranial nerves

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3
Q

What two places is the cerebral spinal fluid located?

A

In the ventricles and central canal

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4
Q

Where are cerebral neurons located?

A

Cerebral cortex

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5
Q

Cell bodies of neurons are called?

A

Gray matter

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6
Q

Axon fibers of neurons are called?

A

White matter

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7
Q

The giant fiber bridge that connects the two hemispheres of the cerebrum is called?

A

Corpus callosum

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8
Q

The bulging part of a wrinkle on the cortex is called?

A

Gyrus

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9
Q

The valley of the fold (in between the wrinkles) is called?

A

Sulcus

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10
Q

Describe the significance of the wrinkles in a brain

A

The more connections between parts the cortex, the greater the SA but also the more wrinkly the brain: the axons try to minimize distance between connected neurons

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11
Q

What are some output nerves/ganglion/neurons?

A 
Cranial motor nerves
Motor neurons
Motor nerve
Autonomic ganglion
Autonomic nerve
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12
Q

What are some input nerves/ganglion/neurons?

A

Cranial sensory nerve

Sensory ganglion

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13
Q

How many pairs of cranial nerves are there?

A

12

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14
Q

Sensory and motor nerves that come straight to and from the brain are called?

A

Cranial nerves

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15
Q

If there’s a stroke in one of the cranial nerve regions, what will happen?

A

There will be a function deficit

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16
Q

Cranial nerve number 2 is called?

A

Optic nerve

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17
Q

The brain’s own circulatory system is called?

A

Cerebral spinal fluid

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18
Q

Where does the cerebral spinal fluid drain out through?

A

The spinal cord

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19
Q

What does the cerebral spinal fluid do?

A

Provides physical and chemical buffering

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20
Q

What do the cells lining the cerebral ventricle do?

A

They convert water from the blood into cerebral spinal fluid

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21
Q

A fluid filled chamber is called?

A

Ventricle

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22
Q

In an MRI the black shows?

A

Water

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23
Q

In an MRI the gray shows?

A

Cell bodies

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24
Q

In an MRI the white shows?

A

Fat, bone

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25
Q

How does an MRI work?

A

Characterizes the local environment of hydrogen atoms

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26
Q

The more folds a species’ brain has the more ________ a species is.

A

Smarter

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27
Q

Everyone has the same number of _______?

A

Gyruses

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28
Q

The brain is wrinkly because it is needed to increase what?

A

Surface area

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29
Q

The frontal lobe is located where?

A

The front of the brain

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30
Q

The parietal lobe is located where?

A

The sides of the brain

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31
Q

The temporal lobe is located where?

A

Near the temples

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32
Q

The occipital lobe is located what?

A

Back of the head

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33
Q

What are the functions of the frontal lobe?

A

Voluntary motor control
Personality
Concentration/planning/decision making
Communication

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34
Q

What are the functions of the parietal lobe?

A

Somatesthetic interpretation (muscular sensations)
Understanding speech
Formulating words to express thoughts/emotions
Interpretation of textures and shapes

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35
Q

What are the functions of the temporal lobe?

A

Auditory sensations

Memory of auditory and visual experiences

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36
Q

What is the function of the occipital lobe?

A

Focusing the eye
Correlation of visual images with previous visual experiences
Conscious perception of vision

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37
Q

What is the function of the insula lobe?

A

Memory
Pain
Visceral integration

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38
Q

What are the two deepest/obvious folds?

A

Central sulcus

Lateral sulcus

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39
Q

Where was the iron bar driven through in Phineas Gage’s head?

A

Prefrontal cortex

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40
Q

Where is the somatosensory cortex located?

A

Right behind the central sulcus

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41
Q

What is the function of the somatosensory cortex?

A

Termination of sensory information coming from the skin

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42
Q

Where is the motor cortex located?

A

Right in front of the central sulcus

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43
Q

What is the function of the motor cortex?

A

Cerebral neurons that initiate movement, sending axons directly and indirectly to spinal moto neurons.

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44
Q

Parts of the body with the highest density of sensory receptors get what?

A

A bigger share of the somatosensory cortex dedicated to processing

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45
Q

Parts of the body with the finest motor control (most muscles) get what?

A

A bigger share of the motor cortex

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46
Q

Both somatosensory relays and motor relays __________?

A

Cross-over

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47
Q

Motor neurons descend/ascend down/up the body?

A

Descend down

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48
Q

Sensory neurons descend/ascend down/up the body?

A

Ascend up

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49
Q

If you damage the left cortex above crossing over then what will happen?

A

You will be paralyzed on the right side of your body

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50
Q

What does the brain stem monitor?

A

Internal chemical signals

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51
Q

What does the brainstem control?

A

Autonomic functions (breathing, heart rate, digestion)

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52
Q

The brainstem carries out reflexive functions to respond to what?

A

Acute (immediate) changes to the bodily function

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53
Q

The hypothalamus uses neural and endocrine signals for what?

A

To monitor peripheral variables

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54
Q

What does the hypothalamus control?

A

Long-term homeostasis

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55
Q

If you only had your brainstem and hypothalamus, what would happen?

A

Your body would function well, but you would be brain dead

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56
Q

The hypothalamus has two major outlets, where do they go?

A

One goes back to the brainstem

One goes to the pituitary gland

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57
Q

Aspirin and ibuprofen reduce fever by?

A

Blocking COX2 enzyme production of prostaglandins

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58
Q

If the set point for body temperature is elevated above normal, then a person will?

A

Feel cold, start shivering, put on a sweater

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59
Q

Parasympathetic neurons cause _______ of the pupil, and this effect can be blocked by applying _________ to the eye.

A

Constriction

Atropine

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60
Q

Postganglionic neurons of the Parasympathetic nervous system release _________, while most postganglionic neurons of the Sympathetic nervous system release _________.

A

ACh

norepinephrine

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61
Q

“Sickness syndrome” (fever, loss of appetite, sleepiness) is caused by?

A

Chemical signals from bacteria and the immune system

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62
Q

Sweat glands are innervates by sympathetic neurons, but are different from most sympathetic target tissues, because sweat glands are stimulated by ___________.

A

ACh

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63
Q

Sympathetic neurons cause ________ of the pupil, and this effect can be stimulated by applying _______ to the eye.

A

Dilation

Cocaine

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64
Q

The cell bodies of the parasympathetic preganglionic neurons are located in the?

A

Brainstem and spinal cord

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65
Q

The cell bodies of the sympathetic preganglionic neurons are located in the?

A

Spinal cord

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66
Q

The neurotransmitter released from preganglionic neurons of both parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous system is?

A

ACh

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67
Q

The preoptic area of the hypothalamus helps cool the body if body temperature gets too high. So if the preoptic area is damaged, then?

A

Body temperature will rise (hyperthermia)

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68
Q

The receptors on postganglionic neurons are __________, but the receptors on the target tissue of parasympathetic neurons (e.g. Smooth muscle or the heart) are __________.

A

Nicotinic

Muscarinic

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69
Q

What are the effector organs of the Somatic Motor System?

A

Skeletal muscles

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70
Q

What are the effector organs of the Autonomic Motor System?

A

Cardiac muscle
Smooth muscle
Glands

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71
Q

What is the number of neurons from CNS to effector in the Somatic Motor System?

A

One

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72
Q

What is the number of neurons from CNS to effector in the Autonomic Motor System?

A

Two

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73
Q

Is the Autonomic nervous system voluntary or involuntary?

A

Involuntary

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74
Q

“Fight or flight” represents what nervous system?

A

Sympathetic nervous system

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75
Q

Where does the Sympathetic Nervous System have it’s ganglia?

A

Right outside the spinal cord

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76
Q

Where do the nerves from the spinal cord run to in the Sympathetic Nervous System?

A

Run to chain ganglia or collateral ganglia, and then to glands and smooth muscles

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77
Q

What are the functions of the Sympathetic Nervous System?

A

Mobilize energy
Divert blood to muscle
Prepare to fight/flee

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78
Q

Where are the ganglia located in the Parasympathetic Nervous System?

A

Far from the spinal cord

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79
Q

Where do the nerves from the brainstem and spinal cord run to in the Parasympathetic Nervous System?

A

Run to glands and smooth muscle

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80
Q

What is the function of the Parasympathetic Nervous System?

A

Prepare for digestion
Energy storage
Divert blood flow to gut

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81
Q

“Rest and Digest” refers to what nervous system?

A

Parasympathetic nervous system

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82
Q

Where is the parasympathetic nervous system found?

A

In between the tissues and organs

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83
Q

Is the Somatic Motor System voluntary or involuntary?

A

Voluntary

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84
Q

The Motor Division of the Peripheral Nervous System is divided into what two systems?

A

Autonomic Nervous System

Somatic Nervous System

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85
Q

In the Somatic nervous system the spinal motor neuron synapses onto what?

A

Target skeletal muscle

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86
Q

What is the two-step projection of the Autonomic nervous system?

A
  1. Spinal/brainstem pre-ganglionic neuron synapses onto post-ganglionic neuron
  2. Post-ganglionic neuron synapses onto target smooth muscle
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87
Q

What type of muscle has a repetitive pattern (sarcomeres)?

A

Skeletal muscle

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88
Q

Target organs often consist of what type of muscle?

A

Smooth muscle

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89
Q

Smooth muscle is wrapped around what?

A

Blood vessels

Glands

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90
Q

Smooth muscle, like skeleton muscle, depends on an influx of ________ for contraction.

A

Calcium

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91
Q

For contraction of smooth muscle, the calcium comes from where?

A

Interstitial fluid

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92
Q

T/F: you need neurotransmitter input for smooth muscle

A

F

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93
Q

Describe the path of cell bodies in the spinal cord

A

Cell bodies in the spinal cord SYNAPSE to…..
Preganglionic neurons, which SYNAPSE to….
Ganglionic neurons —–> ganglia! which send axons to……..target organ!

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94
Q

Where are collateral ganglia?

A

Outside of the chain

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95
Q

Sympathetic nervous system: fibers coming from the spinal cord to the ganglia are called?

A

White ramus

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96
Q

Sympathetic chain of paravertebral ganglia are connected to spinal roots by what?

A

White ramus

Gray ramus

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97
Q

“Preganglionic going into ganglion” describes white ramus or gray ramus?

A

White ramus

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98
Q

“Postganglionic leaving out of ganglion” describes white ramus or gray ramus?

A

Gray ramus

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99
Q

In the Sympathetic Chain of Paravertebral Ganglia: Convergence of inputs leaves to ___________ of postganglionic neurons

A

Mass activation

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100
Q

In the Sympathetic Chain of Paravertebral Ganglia: Postganglionic fibers join ______.

A

Spinal nerves

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101
Q

In Splanchnic Nerves: Sympathetic preganglionic fibers below the diaphragm project to?

A

Collateral ganglia

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102
Q

In the Medulla of the Adrenal Glans: Preganglionic fibers stimulate medullary cells to secrete ________ and ________ into the blood.

A

Epinephrine

Norepinephrine

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103
Q

Modified sympathetic ganglion is called?

A

Medulla of adrenal gland

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104
Q

In the sympathetic nervous system: Preganglionic nerves release ______ to stimulate _______ receptors on post ganglionic cells

A

ACh

Nicotinic

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105
Q

In the sympathetic nervous system: the postganglionic cells release _____ to stimulate or inhibit target tissues via _______ receptors.

A

NE

Adrenergic

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106
Q

Where is the adrenal gland located?

A

On top of the kidney!

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107
Q

Where is the medulla located?

A

Inside adrenal gland

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108
Q

______ causes the adrenal gland to release epinephrine directly into the blood stream

A

Medulla

109
Q

In the Parasympathetic Nervous System: preganglionic cells are located in what level of the spinal cord?

A

Sacral level

110
Q

In the PNS: the preganglionic fibers travel in what kind of nerves?

A

Parasympathetic nerves

111
Q

In terminal ganglia in the PNS: preganglionic fibers project to ganglia where?

A

Near or in the target organ

112
Q

In the terminal ganglia of the PNS: postganglionic cells send short fibers from ____ to target cells

A

Ganglia

113
Q

In the PNS: preganglionic nerves release ____ to stimulate _____ receptors on postganglionic cells

A

ACh

Nicotinic

114
Q

In the PNS: postganglionic cells release _____ to stimulate or inhibit target tissues via _______ receptors

A

ACh

Muscarinic

115
Q

The “wandering” nerve is the?

A

Vagus nerve

116
Q

What is the path of the vagus nerve?

A

Goes from brain to lungs to stomach

117
Q

Nicotinic receptors are blocked by?

A

Curare

118
Q

Muscarinic receptors are blocked by?

A

Atropine

119
Q

Adrenergic receptors are blocked by?

A

Alpha blockers OR beta blockers

120
Q

Most target organs have ____ ________ by sympathetic and parasympathetic fibers

A

Dual innervation

121
Q

The effects of dual innervation are usually _____.

A

Antagonistic

122
Q

The following organs only receive ________ innervation: adrenal medulla, skin, and most blood vessels.

A

Sympathetic

123
Q

Muscarinic receptors and Adrenergic receptors are _________ receptors

A

G-protein-coupled

124
Q

Both sympathetic and parasympathetic preganglionic neurons release _____ to stimulate _________ receptors on postganglionic cells.

A

ACh

Nicotinic

125
Q

What are the specific receptor subtypes of Muscarinic receptors?

A

M1-5

126
Q

What are the specific receptor subtypes of Adrenergic receptors?

A

Alpha or beta

127
Q

Synapses in passing

A

Synapses en passant

128
Q

Parasympathetic and sympathetic neurons don’t have well defined synapses. Their axons wander through the target tissue. They have what kind of synapses?

A

En passant synapses

129
Q

A chemical is an ______ if it blocks the action of the transmitter on the receptor

A

Antagonist

130
Q

How do you know if nicotinic receptors are involved?

A

If you dropped nicotine on it, you’d get the same effect as ACh

131
Q

Which is ligand gated? Nicotinic ACh receptors or Muscarinic ACh receptors?

A

Nicotinic ACh receptors

132
Q

Two blood vessels: one receptor makes if dilate, the other makes it constrict. Which is the alpha receptor and which is the beta receptor?

A

Beta receptor dilates

Alpha receptor constricts

133
Q

What does injection of cocaine do to the eye?

A

Increase NE

Dilation

134
Q

What does injection of atropine do to the eye?

A

Blocks Muscarinic ACh receptors

Dilation

135
Q

In lightness, circular muscle ______ and radial muscle _____.

A

Constricts

Relaxes

136
Q

In darkness, circular muscle _______ and radial muscle ________

A

Relaxes

Constricts

137
Q

PNS or SNS: which constricts the pupil and which dilates the pupil?

A

PNS constricts

SNS dilates

138
Q

Sweat glands are controlled by what system?

A

SNS

139
Q

Sweat glands are activated by what?

A

ACh

140
Q

What is the name of the condition when disregulation of the Sympathetic nervous system is turned up too much?

A

Hyperhydrosis

141
Q

How can you cure Hyperhydrosis?

A

Block ACh

142
Q

What is the name of the condition?: loss of sympathetic innervation of the eye and face on one side

A

Horner’s syndrome

143
Q

The “bad side” of a Horner’s syndrome patient has no SNS so the pupil on that side is constricted or dilated?

A

Constricted

144
Q

Organo phosphates block what?

A

Degradation of ACh

145
Q

How do you treat organophosphate poisoning?

A

Use Muscarinic antagonist atropine

146
Q

What two things control the autonomic nervous system?

A

Hypothalamus

Brain stem

147
Q

To maintain homeostasis, hypothalamus uses what two control mechanisms?

A
  1. Set point

2. Feedback loops

148
Q

What is the core body temp?

A

37 C

149
Q

During a fever what changes?

A

The set point (it goes up)

150
Q

What’s an example of peripheral temperature sensors?

A

Skin

151
Q

Heat dissipation represents what thermoregulatory site of integration?

A

Preoptic area(COLD)

152
Q

Heat conservation represents what thermoregulatory site of integration?

A

Posterior area(HOT)

153
Q

The preoptic area stimulates what?

A

Panting, sweating

154
Q

The posterior area stimulates what?

A

Shivering

155
Q

Hot flashes: lack of estrogen causes occasional what?

A

Lowering of set point

156
Q

Secretion of thyroid releasing hormone (TRH) to increase thyroid hormone (TH) to increase ____?

A

Metabolism

157
Q

LPS induces synthesis and release of pro inflammatory _______ from activated immune system cells.

A

Cytokines

158
Q

If you block _____ you don’t get a fever!

A

COX2

159
Q

Thermoregulation uses both ______ and ______ sensors

A

Peripheral & central

160
Q

Infection causes “sickness” by INDIRECTLY affecting the hypothalamus through what two types of signaling?

A

Humoral

Nervous

161
Q

Cytokines and prostaglandins signal the presence of ______?

A

Infection

162
Q

_______ stimulate the apex of the basilar membrane; while _______ stimulates it’s base. _________ is encoded by the frequency of action potential firing of the auditory nerve.

A

Low pitch sound waves
High pitch sound waves
Volume

163
Q

The bending of tufts of _______ that project out of a hair cell and into endolymph changes the probability that ion channels will open and close. The direction that these tufts bend will result in action potential frequency __________.

A

Stereocilia

Increases or decreases

164
Q

_______ generates speech via projections to the motor cortex and ______ extracts meaning from words and integrates words with vision.

A

Broca’s area

Wernicke’s area

165
Q

The ________ is where there is a lack of photoreceptors in the eye because all of the blood vessels and axons of the eye have to exit somewhere. This causes you to have a _______ in your vision.

A

Optic disc

Blind spot

166
Q

In the light, a rod cell will ________ of neurotransmitters on a _________; which will them release transmitters on the next cell in the series of cells in the retina.

A

Decrease release

Bipolar cell

167
Q

A bar of light is shining on both the center area and the surround area of an off-center ganglion cell. What would you expect to happen to this cells action potential firing rate?

A

The cell’s action potential should fire at a steady rate

168
Q

_______ are slowly adapting mechanoreceptors with small receptive fields and _________ are rapidly adapting mechanoreceptors with large receptive fields.

A

Merkel’s disk

Pacinian corpuscle

169
Q

Endolymph has a high concentration of _____; which _______ a hair cell when it rushes in.

A

K+

Depolarizes

170
Q

Collectively, the receptive fields of one dorsal root ganglia are called:

A

Dermatome

171
Q

A photon is passing through a stack of membranous disks in a rod’s outer segment and makes contact with a rhodopsin molecule. Photo dissociation occurs and retinal is converted to ________. This ultimately leads to ____ of the Na+ channels of the rod.

A

All-trans-retinal

Closing

172
Q

When an outbreak of the _______ virus occurs! you can identify and map specific Dermatomes in the human body. This occurs because such a virus ______.

A

Herpes zoster

Remains dormant in nerves of the DRG until an outbreak

173
Q

After sound waves move through the external auditory meatus and vibrate the tympanic membrane, three auditory ossicles transmits this sound to the cochlea. What is the last auditory ossicle in this series and what is the part of the cochlea that it DIRECTLY interacts with?

A

Stapes

Oval window

174
Q

A stimulus is applied to a receptor of a neuron. There is a rapid increase in the frequency of action potentials in this neuron, followed by a quick reduction of the frequency of these action potentials while the stimulus is still present at the receptor. This is also known as fast-adaption. What kind of receptor am I referring to?

A

Phasic receptor

175
Q

_______ in the fovea converge onto each bipolar cells (and ultimately ganglion cells); which is why we see ______ in the center of our field of vision.

A

Single cones

Much detail

176
Q

What is the term for the rate of firing proportional to stimulus strength?

A

Neural response

177
Q

The range of the stimulus or the area covered by the stimulus that causes a sensory neuron to respond?

A

Receptive field

178
Q

Receptors that respond to mechanical pressure or touch on the surface of the body

A

Mechanoreceptors

179
Q

What are the two forms of firing in somatosensation?

A 
Phasic receptor (fast-adapting)
Tonic receptor (slow-adapting)
180
Q

What are the 4 types of mechanoreceptors?

A

Messner corpuscle
Merkel discs
Pacinian corpuscle
Ruffini endings

181
Q

Which mechanoreceptors are near the surface of the skin?

A

Meissner corpuscle & merkel discs

182
Q

Which mechanoreceptors are deep in the skin?

A

Pacinian corpuscle

Ruffini endings

183
Q

Which mechanoreceptors are rapidly adapting (Phasic response) and which are slowly adapting (tonic response)?

A

Rapidly adapting - Meissner & Pacinian

Slowly adapting - merkel & Ruffini

184
Q

_______ map to specific area on the body

A

Receptive fields

185
Q

_______ of receptive fields varies across the body

A

Density

186
Q

_________ maps out receptive field density

A

Two-touch discrimination

187
Q

______ determines density of receptive fields.

A

Two-point touch

188
Q

Each somatosensory neuron has a single small ___________.

A

Receptive field

189
Q

Multiple somatosensory neurons are gathered into a single ________.

A

Spinal nerve

190
Q

Cell bodies of the sensory neurons are gathered in _________.

A

Dorsal root ganglia

191
Q

Sensory afferents enter the _______ of the sonal cord

A

Dorsal horn

192
Q

Somatosensory nerves send projects to _______ side of the cerebral cortex

A

Contralateral

193
Q

Ability of identify the 3D shape of an object

A

Stereopsis

194
Q

What is important for speech?

A

Tactile sensations

195
Q

What is the last line of defense?

A

Lips and tongue

196
Q

Being able to respond really well to a playing cars edge down horizontally describes what?

A

Feature extraction

197
Q

What are the receptor cells for audition and vestibular system?

A

Hair cells

198
Q

In the vestibular apparatus, what two things detect linear acceleration?

A

Utricle & saccule

199
Q

In vestibular apparatus: what detects rotational acceleration?

A

Semicircular canals

200
Q

What detects sound waves?

A

Cochlea

201
Q

The inner ear is connected by ducts filled with what?

A

Endolymph

202
Q

Endolymph is high in what element?

A

Potassium

203
Q

Tufted projections that stick into endolymph, and gelatinous tectoral membranes and bend with vibration?

A

Stereocilia

204
Q

Bending of Stereocilia opens what kind of channels?

A

K+ channels

205
Q

The tallest cilia is called what?

A

Kinocilium

206
Q

When the Stereocilia are bent _______ the Kinocilium then the hair cells release more transmitter/get more depolarized

A

Towards

207
Q

If the hair cells release less neurotransmitter then what way are they bent?

A

Away from the Kinocilium

208
Q

To maintain balance and maintenance of gaze and posture describes what system?

A

Vestibular system

209
Q

Utricle detects linear acceleration using _____ as inertial mass to detect gravity and stopping/starting during linear motion

A

Otoliths

210
Q

____________ detect rotational acceleration in each of 3 planes.

A

Semicircular canals

211
Q

You need 2 out of 3 of these inputs to maintain your balance, what are the 3?

A

Inner ear, vision, propioception

212
Q

What detects linear acceleration?

A

Utricle

213
Q

What detects rotational acceleration?

A

Semicircular canals

214
Q

Each semicircular canal has it’s own _____, which stretches across the diameter of the canal.

A

Cupula

215
Q

Low frequency sound vibrates the ____ of cochlea.

A

Apex

216
Q

High frequency sound vibrates _____ of cochlea.

A

Base

217
Q

What are the three small bones in the cochlea starting with the first one and ending with the one that goes to the oval window?

A

Malleus
Incus
Stapes

218
Q

Describe the vibrations of the basilar membrane?

A

Vibrations of oval window —-> vibrations in endolymph —> vibration of basilar membrane

219
Q

The basilar membrane stretches across the length of what?

A

Cochlea

220
Q

Hair cells are tuned by their position in _______

A

Cochlea

221
Q

Hair cells at the _____ tend to die off sooner as you age.

A

Base

222
Q

What is the term for the example of sound integration with visual information to change perception of syllable?

A

McGurk Effect

223
Q

If you damage wernicke’s area what will happen?

A

You won’t be able to understand speech, but you can talk

224
Q

If you damage Broca’s area what will happen?

A

You will be able to understand what’s being said but you won’t be able to talk

225
Q

Which area of the eye has the highest density of photoreceptors?

A

Fovea

226
Q

Photoreceptor cells synapse onto _____ cells.

A

Bipolar

227
Q

_____ cells synapse onto ganglian cells in the retina

A

Bipolar

228
Q

_____ cells project to brain via optic nerve

A

Ganglion

229
Q

In fovea, ____ photoreceptor(s) transmits to ___ ganglion cell(s)

A

One ; one

230
Q

In periphery, _____ photoreceptor(s) transmit to ____ ganglion cell(s)

A

Multiple ; one

231
Q

The fovea has the highest density of _____.

A

Cones

232
Q

Rods contain light-sensitive photopigment protein _______

A

Rhodopsin

233
Q

Cones contain the photopigment _______

A

Photopsin

234
Q

Photopsins are either ____, _____, or ______.

A

S (short blue)
M (medium green)
L (long red)

235
Q

___ & ___ pigment genes are next to each other on X chromosomes.

A

L & M

236
Q

Loss of ___ or ___ gene leads to X-linked red-green color blindness

A

L, M

237
Q

_____ detects general luminance for pupillary reflex & entrain circadian rhythms

A

Melanopsin

238
Q

Rod Photoreceptors have what kind of channels on their plasma membrane?

A

cGMP-gated Na+ channels

239
Q

In the dark, cGMP levels are ____

A

High

240
Q

Retinal is what vitamin?

A

Vitamin A

241
Q

Light activates ______ in the disk membranes by alternating configuration of retinal

A

Rhodopsin

242
Q

Rhodopsin is what kind of receptor?

A

G-protein coupled receptor

243
Q

In the dark, cGMP-gated Na+ channels are ___

A

OPEN

244
Q

Photoreceptor cells are activated in dark or light?

A

Dark

245
Q

11-cis-retinal occurs in the dark or light?

A

Dark

246
Q

All-trans retinal occurs in the light or dark?

A

Light

247
Q

Photoreceptors cells are couples to ganglion cells via _____ cells

A

Bipolar

248
Q

Input from bipolar cells is modulated by _____ cells

A

Horizontal cells

249
Q

Receptive field of ganglion cell is based on what two things?

A
  1. Special location

2. Contrast

250
Q

What is the specific spot in the visual field as it is projected onto the retina at the back of the eye?

A

Spatial location

251
Q

Contrast allows ganglion cells to respond well to ________ in the visual field.

A

High contract edges

252
Q

What are the two types of ganglion cell receptive fields?

A

On-center field

Off-center fields

253
Q

Optic nerves meet, enter the brain, and cross at the ____.

A

Optic chasm

254
Q

After optic chasm, the nerve fibers are called the _______

A

Optic tract

255
Q

If you have a small lesion (dot) in your left eye retina, what does your visual field look like?

A

A spot appears in the shared right visual field

256
Q

If you have a transection of the left optic nerve, what will your visual field look like?

A

Everything unique to the left eye is black

257
Q

If you have a transection of the left optic tract, what will your visual field look like?

A

Complete blackness of both the shared right visual field and the unique visual field

258
Q

What would happen to the visual field if you had a transection of the optic chasm?

A

Everything unique to the left eye is black, everything unique to the right eye is black. The shared visual field is okay

259
Q

Simple or complex cells? Respond to orientation of stimulus at a specific spot in visual field; built up from input of ganglion cells

A

Simple cells

260
Q

Simple or complex cells? Respond to orientation and direction of movement anywhere in the field; built up from input of simple cells

A

Complex cells

261
Q

What is the dorsal pathway?

A

Visual cortex —–> parietal cortex

262
Q

“Where” info describes which pathway?

A

Dorsal

263
Q

What would happen if you got a lesion in the dorsal pathway?

A

You couldn’t pick up objects

264
Q

Describe the ventral pathway

A

Visual cortex —-> temporal lobe

265
Q

What pathway asks “what” info

A

Ventral pathway

266
Q

What would happen if there was a lesion in the ventral pathway?

A

You couldn’t recognize or describe objects and orientations, but visually guided motor responses okay

267
Q

For the circles: a person with ventral lesion would see what?

A

Same size circles

268
Q

For the circles: a normal dorsal pathway sees what?

A

Same sizes

269
Q

For the circles: a person with normal ventral pathway would see what?

A

Two different sizes

Vertebrae Physiology (3 decks)

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