Exam 3 Flashcards

1
Q

what is considered an emergency?

A

any condition, physical or psychiatric that threatens the life of the patient or the life of others

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2
Q

when is self mutilation, like cutting, considered an emergency?

A

with infection or deep laceration

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3
Q

when MUST you disclose information regarding mental health clients

A

risk of harm or neglect to someone vulnerable or under 18
you believe you are in immediate danger
disclosure of intent to harm self or others

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4
Q

true or false: risk assessment tools are an effective way to predict future suicide or repetition of self harm

A

false

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5
Q

if caring for a person who has self harmed in an outpatient setting, what things should you do as the primary care provider

A

have regular appointments
do a medication review
inform the client about social supports
care for coexisiting mental health and refer as needed

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6
Q

when should you consider admitting a person to hospital

A

concerns about their safety
safeguard planning needs to be completed
person is unable to engage in psychosocial assessment (too distressed, intoxicated, etc)

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7
Q

when should you administer syrup of ipecac and what is it?

A

an emetic
can be used to induce emesis after poisoning if ingested within the last hour

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8
Q

what are the two steps for suicide screening

A

assess for risk factors
ask about suicidal ideation

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9
Q

when asking about suicidal ideation and there are children in the home, what other question must you ask

A

any thoughts of harming the children

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10
Q

when is attempted suicide typically treated in an outpatient community setting

A

does not result in serious injury

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11
Q

what is the strongest predictor of completing suicide

A

previous attempts

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12
Q

what is the role of lithium in suicidal patients

A

decreases suicide attempts in patients with mood disorders

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13
Q

what is the role of olanzepine in suicidal patients

A

may be helpful in patients with psychotic disorders

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14
Q

what is the first priority for a patient presenting after an attempted suicide

A

medical stabalization

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15
Q

which medication has restricted use due to the risk of agranular cytosis

A

clozapine

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16
Q

true or false: if suicidal gestures become chronic, you do not need to do a full assessment each time

A

false, even if chronic, every suicidal gesture should be taken seriously as they may become lethal

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17
Q

suicide prevention contracts are not effective. What is a better alternative?

A

crisis plan

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18
Q

what should be included in a crisis plan?

A

coping strategies, reasons to live, people to contact as the support system, emergency after hours contacts

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19
Q

if someone is depressed but does not need hospitalization, what must you do in addition to starting medication if needed

A

you must offer resources for if things come to a crisis like after hours on call, same day appointments, and crisis lines

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20
Q

what is the timeline to consider depression being related to pregnancy

A

any time during pregnancy and up to 1 year after delivery

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21
Q

what are risk factors for developing peripartum depression

A

mood disorder or history of depression
depression symptoms during pregnancy
poor social support
family history of psychiatric disorders

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22
Q

what is the DSM5 criteria for peripartum depression

A

at least 5 symptoms, with either depressed mood or anhedonia being one, for at least two weeks:
significant change in weight or appetite
insomnia/hypersomnia
psychomotor agitation/retardation
fatigue
feeling worthless/excessive guilt
impaired concentration
SI

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23
Q

what physical cause should be ruled out for peripartum depression?

A

thyroid disease

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24
Q

which SSRI is preferred for pregnant and breastfeeding women? Which SSRI carries a slightly higher risk?

A

Sertraline is preferred
Fluoxetine carries a slightly higher risk when taken in 3rd trimester

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25
Q

what is a way mothers can reduce exposure in breast milk when taking antidepressants

A

pump and dump 8-9 hours after taking the medications

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26
Q

true or false: St. Jons wort may be an effective treatment for peripartum depression

A

false, there is little evidence so it should be avoided during pregnancy and lactation

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27
Q

what are the 3 categories of postpartum psychiatric disorders

A

postpartum blues
postpartum psychosis
postpartum depression

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28
Q

what is postpartum blues

A

common condition with symptoms during the first week postpartum and usually resolved by day 10

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29
Q

true or false: postpartum blues may progress to postpartum depression if it lasts beyond 2 weeks

A

true

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30
Q

to be diagnosed with postpartum psychosis, symptoms must begin within ____ months postpartum

A

within 3 months postpartum

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31
Q

what are the symptoms of postpartum psychosis

A

Symptoms of psychosis which may or may not include hallucinations and delusions

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32
Q

what are risk factors for postpartum psychosis

A

family history of mood disorder or schizophrenia, bipolar disorder, perinatal death, C-section, lack of social support, previous postpartum psychosis

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33
Q

does post partum depression increase the risk for future depression?

A

yes

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34
Q

true or false: health promotion does not change the risk for peripartum depression

A

false, health promotion can reduce the risk of peripartum depression

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35
Q

what is poor neonatal adaptation syndrome and when should you look for it

A

may happen for babies exposed to SSRI/SNRI
includes poor muscle tone, tremors, jitteriness, irritability, seizures, feeding difficulties, sleep disturbances, hypoglycemia, resp distress

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36
Q

what education should you provide for mothers with babies who has PNAS

A

it is usually mild and self limiting and usually resolves within days - 2 weeks
keep infant in a quiet environment, swaddled, skin to skin, breast feed, frequent small meals

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37
Q

what is persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn and what medication may it be rarely associated with

A

persistent hypoxia
rare complication of SSRI use by mothers

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38
Q

what should you be aware of in regards to prescribing women valproate

A

should not be prescribed to women of childbearing age unless there is no other option and a pregnancy prevention plan is in place

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39
Q

are benzos safe for use in pregnancy

A

no, should only be used for emergency

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40
Q

what is the risk with taking antipsychotic medications during pregnancy

A

excessive weight gain and GDM

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41
Q

why might a woman taking antipsychotic medication have trouble getting pregnant

A

if the medication is elevating her prolactin level this can hinder getting pregnant

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42
Q

should you continue antipsychotic medication in pregnancy if a woman is stable but likely to relpase without the medication

A

yes

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43
Q

if a woman is stable on valproate and becomes pregnant, should you continue the drug

A

no, risk of fetal malformation

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44
Q

is carbamazepine safe in pregnancy

A

no, do not use as it has risk of fetal malformation

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45
Q

what should you be aware of if a woman is on lamotrigine and pregnant

A

check levels more frequently as the levels may fluctuate substantially while pregnant and postnatally

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46
Q

what is the risk of using lithium while pregnant? while breastfeeding?

A

may cause fetal heart malformations if taken in the first trimester
may be high levels in breast milk causing toxicity for babies

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47
Q

when would you consider weaning off lithium if pregnant? when would you not?

A

consider weaning off if already well and low risk of relapse
otherwise, keep on with frequent monitoring Q4 weeks or consider taking off during first trimester only

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48
Q

if a woman presents with only mild perinatal depression but has a history of severe depression should you offer pharmacotherapy?

A

yes

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49
Q

what medication class should be offered for a pregnancy woman who develops mania

A

antipsychotics

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50
Q

which pregnant women should be offered antipsychotis as a prophylaxis

A

bipolar and plans to stop lithium or plans to breast feed

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51
Q

if sleep is a problem during pregnancy and sleep hygeine is not helping, what medication can be used

A

promethazine

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52
Q

true or false: breast feeding may decrease risk for PPD

A

true

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53
Q

what is the biggest risk factor for postpartum psychosis

A

bipolar

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54
Q

what is the triphasic pattern of postpartum psychosis

A

manic phase
delirium
psychotic depression

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55
Q

what is treatment for postpartum psychosis

A

usually hospitalization
medications same as for bipolar (lithium, valproic acid, carbamazepine)

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56
Q

what phase of the menstrual cycle does premenstrual dysphoric disorder occur

A

luteal

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57
Q

what is the DSM5 criteria for premenstrual dysphoric disorder

A

symptoms occur in relation to most menstrual cycles within the week before onset and improve within a few days of menses starting
symptoms mostly absent the week after menses
5 symptoms with at least one from A and one from B
A - lability, irritability, anger, depressed, anxiety
B - anhedonia, cant concentrate, fatigue, change in appetite, hypersomnia/insomnia, overwhelmed, physical symptoms
Causes significant distress and no other explanation
minimum of 2 symptomatic cycles in 1 year

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58
Q

what lab work should be done if suspecting PMDD

A

TSH
CBC
FSH

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59
Q

true or false: suicide is less likely during the premenstrual period

A

false, suicide often occurs during this time

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60
Q

what are some herbal treatments for PMDD and what are the possible side effects

A

Vitamine B6 (too much can cause peripheral neuropathy)
Calcium
Chasteberry
St Jons wort (proserotonergic, dont use with SSRI)

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61
Q

what condition responds to intermittent cyclical SSRI therapy

A

PMDD

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62
Q

if a patient with PMDD has regular periods and is going to take cyclical SSRIs, when should they start the medication

A

a day or 2 before symptom onsent

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63
Q

why should serotonin antidepressants only be used for PMDD

A

because the condition is caused by an abrupt decrease in availability of serotonin

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64
Q

true or false: buproprion is not effective for PMDD

A

true, it is not a serotonergic medication and so not effective for this condition

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65
Q

what age group has the highest rate of IPV

A

24-34 closely followed by 15-24

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66
Q

true or false: there is no need for routine screening of domestic violence

A

false, you should routinely screen everyone for domestic violence

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67
Q

what should you do if someone discolses domestic violence

A

create a safety plan
connect them to a victim service professional
provide with crisis line and other resources

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68
Q

When someone discloses IPV, when are you legally obligated to report it

A

if there are children in the house
if it involved vulnerable adults (seniors or those with disabilities)

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69
Q

what is the main objective of the abuser in domestic violence

A

power and control over the victim

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70
Q

what is the most common kind of abuse in elders

A

financial and emotional

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71
Q

what is the most common disorder for canadian armed forces members

A

depression

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72
Q

what is the main barrier to military personell seeking mental health support

A

stigma

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73
Q

what is the biggest predictor of PTSD and other mental illness post deployment

A

the presence of PTSD symptoms pre deployment with a history of concerning life stressors and previous traumatic experiences

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74
Q

what is the biggest factor that correlates to the development of PTSD in military personel

A

ADHD

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75
Q

men or women in the military are more likely to have PTSD

A

women

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76
Q

men or women in the military are more likely to commit suicide

A

men

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77
Q

what is perceived burdensomeness in military personel

A

believing that their death will be more beneficial to the group than their life leading to suicide

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78
Q

what is crimanilization of mental illness

A

over representation of people with mental illness in the justice system

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79
Q

what could help stem the over representation of mentally ill people in the justice system

A

more access to treatment and housing

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80
Q

what is the biggest thing associated with the crimaniliztion of the mentally ill

A

lack of access to appropriate treatment and support

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81
Q

what mental illness has the highest risk of commiting homicide

A

schizophrenia

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82
Q

an approach to mental health in the justice system may include an opportunity for people with a mental illness who commit a crime to be diverted where?

A

into the mental health system instead of the justice system

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83
Q

men or women in prisons are more likely to have a mental health diagnosis?

A

women

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84
Q

what are some aspects of people with FASD

A

memory impairment, poor judgement and abstract reasoning, low adaptive functioning, ADD or ADHD, poor frustration tolerance, substance abuse, difficulty understanding consequences

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85
Q

what may help people with FASD to avoid the justice system

A

a favorable environment and early interventions

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86
Q

what are the most common mental illness seen in adolescents in the prison sysem

A

depression
anxiety
PTSD
ADHD
substance abuse

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87
Q

is solitary confinement still used? why or why not

A

not in federal prisons, sometimes in provincial
it is considered a form of torture and may hinder reintigration into society

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88
Q

what are some psychological effects of solitary confinement

A

anxiety
depression
anger
confused thought process
perception distortion
paranoia and psychosis

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89
Q

what are some physical effects of solitary confinement

A

lethargy
insomnia
palpitations
anorexia

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90
Q

does solitary confinement increase or decrease risk of self harm and suicide

A

increase

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91
Q

true or false: symptoms from solitary confinement may be lifelone

A

true

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92
Q

who is most likely to be put in solitary confinement

A

violent offenders
young offender
mental disorder or substance abuse
aboriginal

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93
Q

what is isolation syndrome

A

delirium characterized by decreased alertness, EEG abnormalities, perceptual and cognitive disturbances, fearfulness, paranoia and agitation and self destructive behavior

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94
Q

which groups of people are most vulerable to the negative effects of solitary confinement

A

pre existing medical condition
children and young people
detainees on remand

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95
Q

why does childhood trauma often lead to addiction

A

trauma causes the internal endorphin connections to not develop properly so people look for these endorphins externally

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96
Q

a common dual diagnosis with ADHD is

A

smoking

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97
Q

a common dual diagnosis with depression, anxiety or PTSD is

A

alcohol or susbtance use

98
Q

what is the number one priority when considering screening a patient for mental health or substance use

A

safety of yourself and your client

99
Q

what is the ABC method of screening for dual diagnosis

A

appearance
behavior
cognition

100
Q

when should screening for concurrent disorders occur? when should it be postponed?

A

should occur at initial point of access to health system
not appropriate to screen if:
immediate risk of harm to self or others or harm from others
acute and severe mental symptoms
intoxication
will negatively impact the pt engagement
in need of emergency care, pain or urgent medical issue

101
Q

do youth or adults have higher rates of concurrent disorders

102
Q

what is the difference between level 1 and level 2 screening for concurrent disorders

A

level 1 is informal, takes little time and usually not research based but still can be useful
level 2 is formal and research based

103
Q

what is the CAGE questionnaire used for and what are the questions

A

screen for alcohol abuse
have you ever felt you ought to cut down
have people annoyed you by criticizing your usage
have you felt bad or guilty about your use
have you ever used first think in the morning

104
Q

what is the role for ALP in screening for alcohol use

A

non specific but used as a comparision to GGT for screening

105
Q

what is the role of AST and ALT in alcohol screening

A

to screen for hepatocellular injury

106
Q

if AST is greater than ALT by 2:1, what does this indicate? what if the ALT is greater than the AST?

A

if AST>ALT 2:1 = alcoholic hepatitis
ALT>AST = viral or chronic hepatitis

107
Q

what are some other reasons besides hepatitis an alcoholic pt may have increased AST

A

DTs or a seizure from skeletal muscle damage

108
Q

what LFT is most sensitive for screening for alochol use

109
Q

what is the GGT/ALT ratio that would be suggestive of alcohol use

110
Q

what is a GGT >3.5X the upper limit indicative of?

A

alcoholic hepatitis

111
Q

when is a serum ethanol done

A

only if requested by police or suspected alcohol poisoning with neuro deterioration

112
Q

if depression is present with alcohol abuse, what should you treat first and why?

A

depression because treating the depression will also lower the usage

113
Q

what antidepressants work best for concurrent alcohol use

A

TCAs, SNRIs, and buproprion may work better than SSRIs

114
Q

why must you start low and go slow with antidepressant pharmacotherapy when there is concurrent alcohol misuse

A

transient symptoms at the start of treatment may mimic withdrawal and cause distress to the patient

115
Q

what are the symptoms of alcohol withdrawal

A

tremors, agitation, nausea, sweating, vomiting, hallucinations, insomnia, tachycardia, HTN, delirium, seizures

116
Q

why are benzos still used instead of antipsychotics for treating alcohol withdrawal if antipsychotics have less risk of misuse

A

they do not prevent seizures or DTs

117
Q

when might you consider alcohol dependence in women? in men?

A

more than 1 drink a day in women (or average of 7 a week) and more than 2 drinks a day in men (or average of 14 a week)

118
Q

what is delirium tremens

A

severe hyperadrenergic state from alcohol withdrawal causing hyperthermia, diaphoresis, tachypnea, tachycardia, disorientation, impaired consciousness, hallucinations

119
Q

what screening tools can be used for alcohol withdrawal

A

CIWA or SAWA

120
Q

true or false: DTs does not increase risk of death

121
Q

what are risk factors for developing DTs

A

sustained heavy drinking
older than 30
increased days since last intake
prior DTs

122
Q

why is thiamine given to patients in alcohol withdrawal

A

nutritionally deplete and to prevent wernicke encephalopathy

123
Q

what vitamins should be given to people in alcohol withdrawal

A

thiamine
folic acid
B12

124
Q

can dilantin be used to prevent seizures in patients with alcohol withdrawal

125
Q

what is acamprosate and why is it used

A

reduces symptoms that persist from alcohol use after detox including sweating, anxiety, and sleep disorders

126
Q

when should yous tart acamprosate

A

as soon as possible after alcohol detox and continue using even if relapse, although no effect on acute withdrawal symptoms

127
Q

what are the main possible side effects to watch for with acamprosate

A

depression and SI

128
Q

what is disulfiram and what education should you give patients about it

A

creates an intense physical response when alcohol is ingested used as a deterrant for alcohol abuse
beware of any food or other subtances that might have alcohol in it

129
Q

what is naltrexone

A

opioid agonist to reduce cravings for alcohol and opioids

130
Q

how long do symptoms of alochol withdrawal typically last

131
Q

how soon after last drink do symptoms occur

A

6-24 hours

132
Q

what is the difference between mild, moderate, and severe alcohol withdrawal

A

mild symptoms with no abnormal vitals
moderate sypmtoms with abnormal vitals
severe with DTs

133
Q

why systems in the body are affected by alochol withdrawal

A

central nervous system
autonomic nervous system
cognitive function

134
Q

what are contraindications for outpatient treatment of alcohol withdrawal

A

abnormal lab results
absence of support network
acute illness
high risk of DT
history of withdrawal seizures
long term intake of large amounts of alcohol
poorly controlled chronic medical condition
serious psychiatric condition
severe alcohol withdrawal symptoms
urine screen positive for other substances

135
Q

what medication reduces cravings for alcohol

A

acamprosate

136
Q

For an ADHD diagnosis, symptoms must have been present no later than age ____

137
Q

what is one of the biggest risk factors for developing ADHD

A

first degree relative with ADHD

138
Q

what are the 3 types of ADHD

A

inattentive
hyperactive-impulsive
combined

139
Q

what are characteristics of ADHD

A

motor hyperactivity
restlessness
inattentinon
poor planning
impulsivity

140
Q

what neurotransmitters are involved in ADHD

A

dopamine and norepi

141
Q

what is the relationship between anxiety and ADHD

A

anxiety may just be undiagnosed ADHD related to anxiety of their symptoms impairing their daily function

142
Q

is universale screening for ADHD recommended in childhood?

143
Q

what other differentials should you screen for when suspecting ADHD

A

adrenal tumors
substance abuse or addiciton
autism
hyperthyroid
PTSD
sleep disturbances
sleep deprivation

144
Q

is counselling a good choice for monotherapy for ADHD

A

no, it is best used in conjunction with medcations

145
Q

what neurotransmitter do stimulants act on

146
Q

what baseline assessments should be done before starting ADHD medication

A

full physical, social and medical history
height and weight for BMI
any cardiovascular risk
LFTs

147
Q

what are the first line options for adults for treating ADHD

A

lisdexamfetamine
methylphenidate

148
Q

what is second line for treating ADHD

A

the SNRI atomoxetine

149
Q

what should you be watching for in people on stimulants for ADHD

A

weight loss as it reduces appetite

150
Q

a patient being treated for ADHD reports a sustained erection for the past 5 hours? what is this and what should you recommened?

A

pripaism - a possible rare side effect of ADHD meds
go to emergency if lasts longer than 4 hours as can cause permanent damage to penis

151
Q

which antidepressants may be used in treating ADHD

A

atomoxetine
viloxazine
buproprion
venlafaxine
imipramine

152
Q

true or false: people with untreated ADHD are more likely to be in car accidents

153
Q

how can the insomnia caused by ADHD medication be managed

A

taking medication in the morning

154
Q

what are the common adverse effects of ADHD medication

A

appetite suppression and weight loss
headaches
mood effects
worsening of any present tics

155
Q

which stimulant may slightly increase risk for acute psychosis

A

amphetamine

156
Q

true or false: stimulants used to treat ADHD may increase risk for substance abuse in the future

157
Q

when might you consider suggesting to the psychiatrist that ADHD medication be switched or stopped

A

sustained tachycardia
orthostatic HoTN
sexual dysfunction
seizures
possible medication diversion

158
Q

are there any natural supplements currently recommended for the treatment of ADHD

A

possibly free fatty acid supplementation but generally no

159
Q

what is the most commonly diagnosed disorder in children

160
Q

true or false: of mood/mental comorbidities are common in children with ADHD

161
Q

true or false: a nurse practitioner can independently diagnose a child with ADHD

A

false, refer all suspected ADHD in children to peds

162
Q

how many symptoms have to be present and for how long for a pediatric diagnosis of ADHD

A

at least 6 symptoms present for at least 6 months and present before the age of 12

163
Q

what are some negative outcomes that untreated ADHD is associated with

A

lower educational outcomes
difficulties in personal relationships
increased car accidents
increased incidence of substance use

164
Q

are any labs or DI indicated in assessing children for ADHD? If so, which ones?

165
Q

what is the most common comorbidities associated with ADHD

A

oppositional defiant disorder and conduct disorder

166
Q

true or false: child with epilepsy are less likely to have ADHD

A

false, ADHD is higher in children with epilepsy

167
Q

What is first line for a child with ADHD who is 4 years old

A

parent behavior training

168
Q

at what age is medication recommended as first line for children with ADHD

A

age 6 and older

169
Q

why should psychoeducation and other non-pharmacological methods be included in all care plans for children with ADHD

A

because there are often comorbidities so non-pharmacological treatment will help for overall wellness

170
Q

what are the two most common stimulants used to treat ADHD in children

A

methylphenidate or dextroamphetamine

171
Q

when assessing response to treatment of ADHD in children using standardized questionnaires, what must you keep in mind

A

must be obtained from two or more settings and include direct input from school

172
Q

when starting children on ADHD medication, you should be able to determine if the medication is well tolerated with ____ weeks

173
Q

what are the nonstimulant medications used for ADHD in children aged 6-17 and when might they be used

A

atomoxetine and guanfacine
second line for ADHD or if substance use is a concern as lower risk for abuse and diversion

174
Q

what important teaching needs to be given to parents if children with ADHD are part on guanfacine?

A

do not stop abruptly, must be tapered, as it can cause rebound HTN and tachycardia

175
Q

when treating ADHD in children with medication, what symptoms are targeted? what will not be targeted?

A

medications will treat inattention, impulsivity, and hyperactivity
but will not help if the child does not want these things improved or is intentionally disruptive like in conduct disorder

176
Q

which ADHD medication used in children is the only one that is not possibly addictive

A

atomoxetine

177
Q

as a primary care provider for a child being treated for ADHD, what aspect of the childs life should you be monitoring

A

growth
sleep
family and social function

178
Q

what age does conduct disorder start?

A

can begin as early as preschool years but does not typically start after early adolescence

179
Q

what are the characteristics of ODD in children

A

losing temper
arguing with adults
defying rules
purposely annoying people
blaming others for mistakes
being angry, resentful and spiteful

180
Q

what kind of parenting style increases the risk for a child to have ODD

A

harsh, inconsistent, neglectful, authoritarian

181
Q

what is the relationship between conduct disorder and ODD in children

A

untreated ODD often evolves into conduct disorder

182
Q

for children with untreated ODD and/or conduct disorder, what disorder may evolve in adulthood

A

antisocial behavior

183
Q

what is a common comorbidity of ODD in children

184
Q

true or false: ODD increases the risk of suicide in children

185
Q

what is the difference between conduct disorder and ODD in children

A

conduct disorder is more severe and include aggression towards others, destruction of property, theft, or deceit

186
Q

what major red flag should you screen for if a child presents with symptoms of ODD

A

abuse, neglect or sexual abuse

187
Q

for most children, temper tantrums peak around age ___

A

3 years old

188
Q

what screening should you do for children presenting with symptoms of ODD

A

hearing and vision impairement

189
Q

what assessment tool is typically used to monitor the health and development of children under 5

A

Rourke Baby Record

190
Q

what is first line treatment for ODD in children

A

parent behavior training

191
Q

when is medication considered for ODD

A

ONLY if parent behavior training has been tried without effect and condition is severe

192
Q

what are some reasons that parent behavior training may be ineffective as a treatment for ODD in children?

A

paticularly severe disorder
complicating comorbidity
mistaken diagnosis
complicated psychosocial environment

193
Q

what defines “mild, moderate, and severe” ODD in children

A

mild - at 1 setting
moderate - at 2 or more settings
severe - 3 or more settings

194
Q

up to 50% of children with MDD may experience this symptom specific to the pediatric population

A

hallucinations

195
Q

all adolescence with MDD are considered severe if they have a minimum of 5 symptoms AND ____

A

clear suicidaltiy, plan or recent attempt
psychotic
first degree relative with bipolar
significant impairment

196
Q

how might you differentiate ADHD from MDD in children

A

children with MDD are not usually impulsive and have normal attention spans before the symptoms begin

197
Q

what medications are contraindicated in treating MDD in children

A

paroxetine and TCAs

198
Q

what is the most common anxiety disorder in children

A

separation anxiety disorder

199
Q

when is separation anxiety normal in children? when is it abnormal

A

normal from 7 months - end of preschool but abnormal from age 5 onwards

200
Q

what is the mean age of presentation for children with separation anxiety disorder

201
Q

what is treatment for separation anxiety disorder in children

A

family based treatment, medication not usually used

202
Q

in children, what is the normal “age of the worrier” where children are most likely to have increased worrying that is normal for their age

203
Q

what is the typical age range for presentation of pediatric generalized anxiety disorder

204
Q

what is the preferred treatment for generalized anxiety disorder in children?

A

family based interventions or CBT

205
Q

when is pharmacotherapy considered for pediatric GAD? what medications are used?

A

for older children or adolescence
duloxetine or venlafaxine

206
Q

are benzodiazepines used for treatment of GAD in children

207
Q

which childhood anxiety disorder has a strong familial/genetic component

208
Q

what is best treatment for OCD in children

209
Q

when is pharmacotherapy used to treat OCD in children and what medication is used?

A

if severe
SSRI preferred

210
Q

what rare condition should be screened for in children presenting with OCD symptoms

A

do a throat culture to screen for PANDAS caused by group B strep

211
Q

children under age ___ are usually not treated with pharmacotherapy for mood disorder

A

under age 6-8

212
Q

true or false: eating disorders increase risk of suicide

213
Q

true or false: if the weight is normal, there is no eating disorder

214
Q

what are the 2 main types of eating disorders

A

anorexia nervosa
bulimia nervosa

215
Q

for a patient with anorexia, does lose weight improve or worsen their fear of weight gain

216
Q

what are the two types of anorexia

A

restriction type where purging is not used
binge purge type where they may or may not binge but have purging behavior

217
Q

what is the criteria for the severeties of Anorexia

A

based on BMI but can be adjusted based on symptoms and disability
Mild BMI <17
Moderate BMI 16-16.99
Severe BMI 15-15.99
Extreme BMU <15

218
Q

how do you differentiate OCD from anorexia

A

considered anorexia if the compulsions and obsessions entirely resolve around food.
Otherwise, if they revolve around anything else, OCD is a comorbidity

219
Q

what other mental health conditions are common with eating disorders

A

mood disorders
anxiety disorders
bipolar disorder
borderline personality disorder

220
Q

what are physical symptoms of anorexia nervosa

A

amenorrhea, constipation, abdo pain, cold intolerance, lethary, loss of muscle mass, low BP, low HR, low temp, lanugo, hypercarotenemia

221
Q

when might you see hypertrophy of parotid glands in eating disorders

A

from induced vomiting

222
Q

what is russel sign

A

abrasions or scars to dorsum of hand from induced vomiting

223
Q

why are eating disorder patients at increased risk of fracture

A

more likely to have osteopenia and osteoporosis

224
Q

when do anorexia patients need to be hospitalized

A

HR below 45-50 or grossly abnormal electrolytes

225
Q

what is the severity of bulimia based on and what are the different severities

A

the frequency of inappropriate compensatory behaviors (ICP)
Mild: 1-2 ICB/week
Moderate: 4-6 ICB/week
Severe: 8-13 ICB/week
Extreme: 14 or more ICB/week

226
Q

true or false: bulemia is common in obese people

A

false, although people with bulemia may be overweight, obese people do not often engage in binging

227
Q

what eating disorder often involves eating in secret

228
Q

what is binge eating disorder

A

meets criteria for bulimia but with no purging

229
Q

what is diabulimia and what are the possible consequences

A

T1DM not taking their insulin to lose weight
hyperglycemia, DKA, coma, death

230
Q

what is EDNOS

A

eating disorder not otherwise specified
does not fit within another diagnosis but disordered eating present

231
Q

true or false: EDNOS is less severe than other eating disorders

A

false, it is still very serious with a high mortality rate

232
Q

what is one of the strongest predictors of a future suicide attempt in children

A

previous suicide attempt

233
Q

what are the danger periods for suicide in children

A

recent suicide in community or group
within first 4 weeks of depressive episode
within first 4 weeks of starting antidepressant
coming out as LGBTQ

234
Q

what is activation from SSRI and why does it increase risk of suicide

A

increased energy before feelings of hopelessness recover.
Feelings are still there and now have the energy to complete a plan

235
Q

what type of psychosocial intervention is very effective at preventing suicide

236
Q

what is the difference between men and women in terms of suicide

A

attempts higher in women but completions higher in men

237
Q

what group of people have the highest rate of self harm requiring hospitalization

A

young and teen girls

238
Q

true or false: occasional thoughts of suicide without plans or means is normal at sad times for all ages

A

false, it is normal for adults and teens but not children

239
Q

what are the 3 aspects of suicidal ideation that need to be assessed

A

ideation
intent
plan and access to means

240
Q

what is one aspect of someones mood/outlook that is a red flag for suicidality

A

hopelessness