Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

what is the difference between poor mental health and mental illness

A

poor mental health = loss of psychological well being
mental illness = clincially recognized disorder

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2
Q

what are the 5 categories of adult mental illnesses

A

mood disorders
delusional disorders
anxiety disorders
personality disorders
substance related disorders

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3
Q

when should promotion and prevention strategies be implemented in order to be maximally effective

A

early, before the onset of mental disorder

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4
Q

what are the 3 categories of primary prevention

A

universal - general public
Selective - individuals or groups with increased risk
Indicated - people at high risk

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5
Q

what is secondary prevention

A

interventions to reduce prevelance

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6
Q

what is tertiary prevention

A

interventions to reduce disability, all forms of rehad, prevention of relapse

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7
Q

mental health promotion should enhance what 3 factors

A

social inclusion
freedom from discrimination and violence
access to economic resources

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8
Q

what is sense of coherence

A

the extent which one has a feeling of confidence that they will be able to deal with stress, that their environment is manageable, and that stress is a challenge to overcome

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9
Q

what is a health assest

A

any factor or resource that enhances ability to maintain health and well being

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10
Q

what level of risk (normal, mild-moderate, or high) would the following be:
1. history of assault
2. physical chronic disease
3.poor coping skills
4. risk taking or antisocial behavior
5.poverty
6.poor coping skills

A

1 - mild/moderate
2 - mild/moderate
3 - high
4 - high
5. mild/moderate
6. high

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11
Q

What are the 3 levels of contributing factors to mental health

A

individual
social circumstances
environmental factors

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12
Q

what is the single most important predictor for cognitive decline and dementia

A

older age

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13
Q

what is the recovery model

A

focuses on lived experiences, choices, self management and shared decision making

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14
Q

what mental illness’s increase risk for DM

A

depression and schizophrenia

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15
Q

what mental health condition increases risk for heart disease and stroke

A

depression

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15
Q

what mental illness is associated with increased rates of cancer

A

schizophrenia

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16
Q

true or false: people with arthritis have higher rates of serious mental illness

A

false, there are lower states of people with arthritis and serious mental illness although it is unclear if this is true or just lack of reporting

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17
Q

true or false: people with mental illness are less likely to be regularly screened for manageable chronic conditions

A

true

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18
Q

you can identify risk factors for mental illness but are unlikely to see any signs or symptoms before the age of ____

A

3-4 years old

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19
Q

what are the 2 categories of behavioral problems

A

ADHD
Conduct disorder

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20
Q

at what age do symptoms typically start to occur in ADHD

A

5-6 years old

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21
Q

true of false: over half of children with ADHD will continue to have the disorder in adulthood

A

true

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22
Q

preschoolers with high levels of noncomplience and aggression at age 4 are at increased risk for what condition

A

conduct disorder

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23
Q

why must prevention and intervention for conduct disorder occur very early in life

A

because intervention must occur before the disorder fully emerges and it is very difficult to treat

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24
Q

what childhood mental illness is defined by repetitive and persistent patterns of behavior in which the basic rights of others or the major age apporpriate society norms or rules are violated

A

conduct disorder

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25
Q

what are internalizing disorders

A

depression and anxiety

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26
Q

most mental disorders have their peak occurence at what age

A

adolescence and young adults

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27
Q

what is the most common mental illness in adolescence

A

anxiety

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28
Q

what chronic illness has one of the strongest connects with childhood mental illness

A

heart disease

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29
Q

what specific types of traumatic events in childhood increase risk for early onset psychosis

A

traumatic events related to an intent to harm like bullying or abuse

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30
Q

true or false: early psychotic symptoms in children does not increase risk for schizophrenia as adult

A

false

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31
Q

children showing signs of psychosis should also be screened for what

A

maltreatment

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32
Q

child abuse is associated with obesity in: childhood, adulthood, or both

A

adulthood

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33
Q

Should all clients be screened for history of childhood abuse or trauma?

A

no, there is no evidence for this

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34
Q

what mental illness’s begin in adolescence and early adulthood

A

anxiety and depressive disorders, personality disorders, bipolar disorders

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35
Q

what effect does cannabis have on risk for schizophrenia?

A

if already at risk for schizophrenia, heavy cannabis use double the risk

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36
Q

what disorders tend to peak in adulthood

A

bipolar and personality disorders

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37
Q

what is the most common addiction in adulthood

A

nicotine

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38
Q

what are the key risk factors for poor mental health in the elderly

A

lonliness and isolation

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39
Q

if an elderly person presents with new depression, what should you also screen for

A

dementia as depression may be an early indication of dementia

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40
Q

what are the dimensions of trauma

A

magnitude, complexity, frequency duration, internal or external source

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41
Q

what is developmental trauma

A

early exposure to repetitive trauma

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42
Q

what is dysregulation and what is it associated with

A

associated with trauma
difficulty controlling emotional behaviours, hyperarousal and hypervigilance or listenessness and numbness in stressful situations

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43
Q

what are the 3 symptom clusters in PTSD

A

intrusive recollections
avoidant/numbing symptoms
hyperarousal symptoms

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44
Q

why might someone be misdiagnosed if providers are not using trauma informed care

A

seeing what is actually trauma coping may be diagnosed and treated as a seperate condition

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45
Q

what is the difference between trauma informed services and trauma specific services

A

trauma informed is creating safe spaces where people feel in control
trauma specific is treatment and interventions specific for trauma

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46
Q

what are the 4 principles of trauma informed care

A

trauma awareness
emphasis and safety and trustoworthiness
opportunity for choice
strength based and skill building

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47
Q

what are the two aspects important for trauma informed practice at a personal level

A

self awareness and vicarious trauma

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48
Q

what are the ABCs of addressing vicarious trauma

A

Awareness of our needs
Balance between work and rest
Connection to ourselves and something greater

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49
Q

what are the 2 key areas of trauma informed practice at the practice level

A

trauma awareness
language - shift from what is wrong with you to what has happened to you

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50
Q

a mental health diagnosis should only be considered and made if _____

A

only if treatment is being considered

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51
Q

what are validated screening tools for depression

A

PHQ2 and PHQ9

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52
Q

what part of the brain is responsible for switching off anxiety

A

prefrontal cortex

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53
Q

what part of the brain is the emotional core that triggers fear and has an immediate response to anxiety

A

amygdela

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54
Q

what part of the brain perpetuates the fear response causing longer term anxiety

A

BNST

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55
Q

what part of the brain is responsible for memory

A

hippocampus

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56
Q

what is the DSM5 criteria for GAD

A

excess anxiety more than 6 months
difficult to control
3 or more symptoms (tense/on edge, easily fatigued, difficulty concentrating, irritability, muscle tension, sleep disturbances)
significant distress
no other cause

57
Q

what is the DSM5 criteria for panic attacks

A

recurrent unexpected panic attacks
at least 4 symptoms (palptiations, SOB, chills/heat, unreal/detached, fear of dying, sweating, choking, n/v/d, numbness, shaking, CP, dizzy, losing control)
for at least 1 episode in the following period of 1 month there is continued worry about another attack and/or maladtive changes to prevent another attack

58
Q

true or false: having panic attacks means you have panic disorder

A

false, other diagnoses can cause panic attack

59
Q

what is the many cause of dysfunction in panic disorder

A

fear of another panic attack

60
Q

what questionnaire can be used for panic disorder

A

Panic Attack Questionnaire

61
Q

what is the imaginary audience and what mental illness is it associated with

A

imaginary brain seen in adolescence where they believe everyone is obsessed with them as they are
connect to social anxiety disorder

62
Q

most adults with SAD have an anxious-ambivilant attatment style. How does this manifest

A

discomfort in close relationships
difficulty trusting others
greater anxiety about rejection or abandonment

63
Q

what screening tools can be used for social anxiety disorder

A

the Liebowitcs Social Anxiety Scale
Social Interaction Anxiety Scale

64
Q

what is the DSM5 criteria for social anxiety disorder

A

fear or anxiety about social situations
fear of acting in a way or showing that will embarras
social situations almost always provoke fear
social situations avoided or endure with extreme discomfort
fear out of proportion to threat
persistent, lasts at least 6 months
clinically significant distress

65
Q

what is acute stress disorder

A

occuring after significant traumatic events lasting less than 1 month

66
Q

what is the difference between acute stress disorder and PTSD

A

PTSD lasts beyond 1 months

67
Q

what is DSM5 criteria for acute stress disorder

A

exposure to extreme threat
9 symptoms
lasts 3 days - 1 month

68
Q

what are the 3 different responses in PTSD

A

fight or flight
freeze
dorsal vagal nerve (shutting down)

69
Q

what is DSM5 criteria for TPSD

A

exposure to actual or threatened event
presence of at least 1: (recurrent intrusive memories, dreams with basis in trauma, dissociation flashbacks, intense prolonged psychogical distress)
persistant avoidance of triggers
negative changes in cognition
alteration in arousal and reactivity
more than 1 month

70
Q

what is PTSD with delayed espression

A

PTSD occuring up to 6 months after the event

71
Q

what is the difference between obsessions and compulsions

A

obsessions = unwanted intrusive thoughts
compulsions = behaviours, often ritualistic, to try to reduce anxiety

72
Q

true of false: OCD does not have high rates of suicide attmepts

73
Q

how are addictions different from compulsions

A

addictions are feelings of pleasure from the behavior
compulsions are behaviors that are trying to reduce fear and anxiety

74
Q

do OCD symptoms constitute need for a brain scan?

A

not on their own. although symptoms may be associated with brain tumors, there would be more than just OCD symptoms present

75
Q

what is the DSM5 criteria for OCD

A

presence of obsessions, compulsions or both
obsessions/compulsions are time consuming
no other cause
level of insight will determine treatment method

76
Q

what screening tool can be used for OCD

A

obsessive compulsive inventory screening tool

77
Q

what are some types of OCD

A

checking
contaminational/mental contamination
symmetry/ordering
ruminations/intrusive thoughts
hoarding (can be its own diagnosis or OCD if hoarding is down because of an obsessive worry or fear)

78
Q

how might you differentiate a tic from a focal seizure

A

tic - people continue to go about their business
focal seizure - behavior arrest
tic - does not happen during sleep
focal seizure - can happen while awake or asleep

79
Q

in terms of seasonal affective disorder, what is photoperiod and what is phase shift theory

A

photoperiod - seasonal changes in the length of daylight
phase shift theory - sleep wake cycle out of sync, similar to jet lag

80
Q

what is the difference between the following seasonal affective disorders:
winter
summer
reverse
subsyndromal

A

winter - peak in winter and remits by spring
summer - onset in spring and remits in fall
reverse - in spring and summer but more hypomanic and hyperactivity
Subsyndromal - winter blues, not as severe and not as long

81
Q

seasonal affective disorder is affected more by: temperature or latitude

A

latitude, the farther you are from the equator the more at risk you are

82
Q

what are treatment options for seasonal affective disorder

A

light therapy
exercise
vitamin D
sometimes anti-depressants

83
Q

what is adjustment disorder

A

anxiety/sadness/hopelessness occurring after significant life stress that is self limiting and resolves within 6 months

84
Q

what is used for treatment of adjustment disorder

A

usually support, encouragement and reassurance is all that is needed. Sometimes counselling and psychotherapy. Monitor for SI

85
Q

what is DSM5 criteria for adjustment disorder

A

symptoms due to identifiable stressor in last 3 months
clinically significant and includes at least one:
distress out of proportion or impairment in daily life
not another condition
not normal bereavement
once stressor gone, resolves within 6 months

86
Q

what should you have a high suspicion for when people come in with vague complaints and no organic cause can be found

87
Q

true of false: somatic complaints or not part of MDD

A

false, somatic complaints are valid indicators of depression

88
Q

other than MDD, what other diagnosis should you consider for someone presenting with depressive symptoms and why

A

bipolar, often initially presents with depressive episode

89
Q

what are the brain pathways for the following and indicated in MDD:
Serotonin
Norepi
dopamine

A

Serotonin - Rathe
Norepi - Locus coerules
dopamine - VTA

90
Q

what screening tools can be used for MDD

A

Hamilton depression scale
PHQ9
Geriatric depression scale

91
Q

what is the acronym SIGECAPS used for and what does it stand for

A

for the DSM5 criteria for MDD - at least 5 of the following symptoms during the same 2 week period and must include depressed mood and anhedonia

Sleep disturbances
Interest reduce
Guilt or worthlessness
Energy loss and fatigue
Concentration problems
Appetite changes or weight changes
Psychomotor agitation or retardation
Suicidal thought with or without intent

92
Q

what is complicated grief

A

worsening, unrelenting state of mourning

93
Q

is complicated grief seen more often with the loss of a parent or the loss of a child

A

loss of a parent

94
Q

what is dysthymia

A

chronic low grade depressive like symptoms lasting more than 2 years

95
Q

early onset dysthymia (before age 21) increases risk for what other mental illness

A

personality disorder
substance use disorder

96
Q

what are the 2 subtypes of dysthymia and which medications may work better for each

A

anxious - SSRI
anergic - norepi and dompamine increasing medication

97
Q

what is the DSM5 criteria for dysthymia

A

depressed mood most days for at least 2 years
at least 2 of the following:
disordered eating, disordered sleep, low energy, low self esteem, poor concentration, hoplessness
never without symptoms for more than 2 months
never had manic or hypomanic episode

98
Q

how is a depressive episode in MDD differentiated from BPD

A

they present exactly the same but BPD must have history of manic or hypomanic episode at least once

99
Q

true or false: the suicide risk is extremly elevated in people with BPD

100
Q

migraine is highly associated with what mental illness

101
Q

what are some physical causes of mood cycling that is not BPD

A

thyroid disease, STI, accidents

102
Q

how is hypomania different from mania

A

hypomania is elevated mood for shorter time (4-7 days) and criteria for mania but no significant impairment

103
Q

what are the categories for BPD

A

BPD1 - most severe, major depression and manic episodes
BPD2 - less severe and more common, depression with hypomania

104
Q

what is the DSM5 criteria for mania

A

persistently elevated, expansive, or irritable mood with increased activity for more than 1 week
at least 3 of the following:
grandiosity, decreased need for sleep, pressured speech, racing thoughts, distractibility, high risk activities

105
Q

why must you closely follow someone who has newly been prescribed antidepressants for MDD

A

because if it is BPD and they just havent had a manic episode yet, antidepressants can cause a manic episode

106
Q

what is used to treat bipolar

A

combo antidepressants, mood stabalizers and sometimes neuroleptics

107
Q

what screening tool can be used for BPD

A

Mood disorder questionnaire
CDI scale

108
Q

true or false: patients suspected of having BPD should be referred to psychiatry

109
Q

should you treat mild bipolar depression?

A

yet but treat with caution and closely monitor for medication side effects

110
Q

what is the pneumonic DIGFAST used for and what does it stand for

A

symptoms of mania

Distractibility
Impulsivity, irresponsibility
Grandiose thoughts
Family history
Appetite changes and increased activity
Sleep disturbances
Talkative

111
Q

can hypomania present with psychotic symptoms?

A

no, if psychotic symptoms are present in a mania presentation, it is mania

112
Q

what is the DSM5 criteria for mania

A

distinct period of abnormally persistent elevated or irritable mood lasting at least 1 week
at least 3 symptoms (grandiosoty, decreased need for sleep, pressured speech, racing thoughts, distractibility, increased goal directed activity, risk taking behavior)
significant impairment and not due to medicaiton or substance

113
Q

when might you consider CT, MRI or labs in a person presenting with mania

A

neuro symptoms, onset later in life, dramatic change in symptoms or episodes

114
Q

what is the DSM5 criteria for hypomania

A

same as mania except:
lasts at least 4 days
causes less dysfunction but still different from baseline
no psychotic features or need to hospitalize

115
Q

what is cyclothymia

A

episodes of both hypomania and low mood but not severe enough to fit criteria for MDD or mania

116
Q

what is the DSM5 criteria for cyclothymia

A

recurrent episodes of low level hypomania and mild depression that do not meet criteria for hypomania or MDD and over a 2 year period
present at least half the time and no longer than 2 months at a time without symptoms
MDD, mania or hypomania criteria have never been met
significant distress or impair function

117
Q

are depressive episodes required for a BPD diagnosis?

A

no, some people will only cycle between mania and hypomania

118
Q

what is the acronym FESTIVAL and what is it used for

A

symptoms for depression and mania for BPD

Feeling low/high
Energy low/hig
Sleep more/less
Thinking slow/rapid
Interest low/rapidly changing
Value in self low/grandiose
Aches present/disappear
Live - suicidal/feel like they will live forever

119
Q

is BPD1 or BPD2 more common?

120
Q

how does the diagnosis for BP1 and BP2 differ?

A

BP1 requires DSM5 mania and hypomania or depression
BP2 only requires hypomania with MDD

121
Q

are people with BP1 or BP2 more likely to complete suicide

122
Q

when is the usual onset of shizophrenia in men? in women?

A

men - late adolescence to mid thirties
women - mid twenties to early thirties

123
Q

what are the features of psychosis

A

delusions
hallucinations
disorganized speech
behavior

124
Q

what are each of the following delusions:
persecutory
Grandiose
erotomania
nihilistic
somatic

A

persecuroty - being watched, in danger
grandiod - super powers, wealth, notoriety
erotomania - others in love with them
nihilistic - something catastrophic will happen
somatic - something wrong with their body

125
Q

what hallucinations are most common in delirium and dementia? which are most common in schizophrenia

A

delerium and dementia - visual
schizophrenia - auditory

126
Q

disorganized speech in schizophrenia will present with one or more of the following: incoherence, derailment, tangential thoughts. What do each of these mean

A

incoherence - random words in sentences have the “song” of the language but no cognitive sense
Derailment - topic or train of thought changes without logical connection
Tangential - rambling from one topic to another, losing original topic altogether, often seen with answering questions

127
Q

what is meant by positive and negative behaviors when discussing schizophrenia

A

Positive behaviors involve some kind of action (agitation, restlessness, calling out, violence)
Negative behaviors are little or no action (catatonia, avolition, mutism, anhedonia)

128
Q

what needs to be done for patients that are catatonic?

A

hospitalize, this is severe mental distress

129
Q

what other differentials might you consider for schizophrenic type symptoms

A

brain tumors
dementia
delirium

130
Q

which two street drugs increase risk for schizophrenia the most?

A

methamphetamines
cannabis

131
Q

what is cannabis induce acute persistent psychosis

A

psychotic symptoms that persist past the initial intoxication but usually resolve fairly quickly and do not recur without re use of cannabis

132
Q

true or false: age of initial exposure to cannabis does not change the risk for psychosis

A

false, earlier exposure (before 14-17 years old) is assocaited with higher risk for psychosis

133
Q

true or false: exposure to cannabis in adolescence increases risk for psychotic disorders in adulthood

134
Q

what screening tool may be used to help differentiate delirium from dementia

A

The Confusion Assessment Method

135
Q

when differentiating schizophrenia from MDD with psychotic features, what are some things that are seen in each to help differentiate

A

MDD is not likely to have disorganized speech or bizarre behavior and schizophrenia is not likely to be preceeded by depression

136
Q

what age group do psychotic disorders typically emerge?

A

adolescence to 30’s

137
Q

what is brief psychotic disorder

A

more than a day but less than a month
at least one of the following plus grossly disorganized or catatonic behavior:
delusions
hallucinations
disorganized speech

138
Q

what is schizophreniform disorder

A

less than 6 months
at least one of the following:
delusions
hallucinations
disorganized speech

May also have:
grossly disorganized or catatonic
negative symptoms

no history of manic depressive episodes

139
Q

what is the difference between schizophrenia and schizophreniform

A

schizophrenia must persist past 6 months and have significant loss of function

140
Q

what is schizotypal personality disorder

A

chronic low level symptoms with personality disturbance, better global functioning than schizophrenia but aggresiveness is common