Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

what is biological psychiatry

A

psychiatry that aims to understand mental illness in terms of the biological function of the nervous system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what is transcultural psychiatry

A

psychiatry concerned with cultural and ethnic context of mental illness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

true or false: if a diagnosis is made, pharmacotherapy should be offered

A

false, pharmacotherapy may not always be needed, other things like counselling, nutrition, exercise ect may be all that is needed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

how might family history affect the prescribing of medication

A

a strong family history may encourage earlier use of medication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

should level of distress be used as an indicator for starting medication

A

no, not by itself. Patients often only present when they are in most distress but this alone is not an indication for medication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

is level of dysfunction and indication to start medication

A

yes. Level of dysfunction is a strong indicator for when to start medicaiton

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what is the therapeutic objective for pharmacotherapy

A

improve function and minimize symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what should you consider if there is no drug to target the primary symptoms?

A

then drug therapy is probably not indicated and you should consider non pharmacological options

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what are the 4 classes of psychotropic medications

A

anti-anxiety
antidepressants
mood stabalizers
anti-psychotics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what is a multimodal approach to pharmacotherapy

A

using more than one class to target more than one pathway to improve symptom profile and function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

true or false: for most people, monotherapy is enough

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what are the excitatory neurotransmitters (5)

A

Acetylcholine
Dopamine
Epinephrine
Norephinephrine
Glutamate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what are the inhibitory neurotransmitters

A

GABA
Serotonin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what neurotransmitter is related to anxiety, depression, and ADHD

A

GABA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what neurotransmitter is related to alzheimers and myasthenia gravis

A

Acetylcholine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what neurotransmitter is related to depression, anger control, OCD, and suicide

A

serotonin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what neurotransmitter is related to parkinsons, schizophrenia, and addiction

A

dopamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what neurotransmitter is related to brain trauma, autoimmune diseases, encephalopathies, epilepsy, and alzheimers

A

Glutamate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

low levels of dopamine are associated with what

A

parkinsons, addiction, anhedonia, fatigue, cognitive impairment, problems with executive function, ADHD, impulsivity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

excess levels of dopamine are associated with what

A

schizophrenia, anxiety, hypervigilance, paranoia, hallucinations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

low levels of serotonin are associated with what

A

depression, anger control, OCD, suicide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what neurotransmitter counteracts epi and norepi

A

serotonin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what neurotransmitter is implicated in migraines

A

serotonin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what is the relationship between serotonin and GABA

A

serotonin enhances GABA, so inhibiting reuptake of serotonin can prolong the calming effects of GABA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what is a deficiency in serotonin related to

A

depressed mood, anxiety, panic, phobias, OCD, irritability, changes in eating, memory and learning problems, cardiovascular function, temperature regulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what is a way to naturally increase serotonin

A

vigorous exercise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what is the primary role of serotonin

A

mood, emotions, appetite, sleep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what is the primary role of dopamine

A

pleasure center of the brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what is the primary role of acetylcholin

A

somatic nervous system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what is associated with a loss of acetylcholine

A

alzheimers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

which neurotransmitter is associated with movement, skeletal muscles and muscle tone

A

acetylcholine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what is the main role of epinephrine

A

energy and emergency system in SNS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what neurotransmitted is connected to the formation of memories associated with stress

A

epinephrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what neurotransmitter is synthesized by tyrosine (amino acid found in meats, dairy, nuts, and eggs)

A

norepi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what neurotransmitter helps with concentration and motivation, increases BP and HR and releases glucose stores

A

norepi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

what is a deficiency in norepi associated with

A

depressed mood, fatigue, psychomotor retardation, impaired attention, slow memory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

what is an excess of norepi associated with

A

hypomania, mania, anxiety, irritability, nightmares, muscle cramping

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

what neurotransmitter generated calm and relaxation

A

GABA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

GABA deficiency is associated with what

A

anxiety disorders, poor impulse control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

what is the most widespread neurotransmitter in the brain

A

L-glutamate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

what two neurotransmitters, working in tandem, are called the speed control mechanisms of the brain

A

GABA and norepi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

what is the role of L-glutamate

A

involved in memory and learning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

what are the 3 phases of treatment

A

acute phase = 0-3 months
continuation phase = 4-9 months
maintenance phase = years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

why is aggressive treatment upon onset best for treating mental health disorders

A

the longer a disorder is not treated or undertreated, the more difficult it is to go into remission

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

what are the main side effects of benzos

A

drowsiness, dizziness, decreased alertness and concentration, impairment of motor coordination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

how do benzos work

A

potentiate GABA which produces emotional relaxation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

what is the half life of benzos

A

14-80 hours, longer in the elderlu

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

how do barbiturates work

A

enhance effects of GABA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

what are side effects of barbiturates

A

profound CNS depression, dizziness, light headedness, memory and attention impairement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

why are barbiturates rarely prescribed anymore

A

they have a narrow therapuetic index so even small overdoses can cause death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

how do TCAs work

A

inhibit reuptake of norepi and serotonin, block histamine receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

what things are improved with TCA use

A

improved sleep, concentration, attention, and memory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

why are TCAs more dangerous than some other options

A

narrow therapeutic index and can be toxic in certain people causing fatality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

why are SSRIs and SNRIs better than benzos for long term anxiety treatment

A

not sedating, not addictiong and less dangerous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

what are some down sides to using SSRI and SNRI for anxiety instead of using benzo

A

less effect for decreasing somatic effects and more side effects than benso

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

when would alpha adrenergic blockers (usually used for HTN and urinary retention) be used in mental health

A

can reduce sleep disturbances caused by excess norepi
used for nightmares in PTSD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Why are MAOIs infrequently prescribed and when might you use them

A

high reactivity with food and other medications but may be prescribed for refractory depression. Should be prescribed by psychiatrists

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

what neurotransmitters of TCAs effect

A

norepi and serotonin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

what class is prazosin and what is it used for

A

alpha adrenergic blocker
for nightmares from PTSD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

what are the side effects of prazosin

A

drowsiness, fatigue, headache, nausea, palpitations, nasal congestion, edema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

what is the first dose phenomenon with prazosin

A

may cause a sudden drop in BP after first dose or increase dose which can cause fainting so best to take at night

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

what are first line options for GAD

A

any SSRI, SNRIs (venlafaxine)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

what are first line treatment for panic attacks

A

any SSRI, long acting benzo, imipramine, lorazepam, alpazolam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

what are first line options for treating social anxiety disorder

A

fluoxetine, paroxetine, venlafaxine, inderal, despiramine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

what are first line options for treating acute stress disorder

A

lorazepam, zopiclone (for sleep), amitriptyline (for sleep) atarax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

what are first line options for treating PTSD

A

sertaline, paroxetine, fluoxetine, prazosin (for nightmares)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

when treating PTSD why would mirtazepine be prescribed? why would trazedone?

A

mirtazepine for rumination, trazedone for sleep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

any SSRI except ___ would be first line treatment for OCS

A

citalopram and escitalopram

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

true or false: TCAs have the same efficacy as SSRIs for treating GAD

A

true and TCAs also improve sleep and promote deep sleep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

what are the most effective SSRIs for social anxiety disorder

A

fluoexetine, fluvoxamine, parocetine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

if a patient with social anxiety disorder also has somatic symptoms such as blushing and sweating, what medication can be tried

A

Inderal (beta blocker) - used as a PRN dose

72
Q

what are the two main approaches to treated acute stress disorder

A

improving sleep or help during the day

73
Q

what medication can be used to help with sleep in acute stress disorder

A

zopiclone, TCA like amitriptyline, hydroxyzine

74
Q

what medications can be used to help patients during the day with acute stress disorder

A

short acting benzos for crisis or longer acting benzo like clonazepam or diazepam

75
Q

when is melatonin especially helpful

A

in the elderly and for time zone changes as there is no tolerance development

76
Q

what neurotransmitters are implicated with PTSD

A

excess norepi, reduced serotonin, reduced GABA, reduced dopamine

77
Q

why should PTSD be treated as early as possible

A

long standing PTSD may not respond to medication as well as those who are treated early on

78
Q

what is first and second line treatment for PTSD

A

first line is SSRI or SNRI
second line is TCA

79
Q

what neurotransmitter is implicated in nightmares from PTSD

A

thought to occur from elevated norepu

80
Q

how does prazosin work for PTSD nightmares

A

crosses blood brain barrier and dampens the effects of norepi

81
Q

how long does it take for prazosin to start working

A

can take several weeks but usually effective within a few days

82
Q

what other conditions might be improved if a patient is put on prazosin

A

HTN and urinary retention

83
Q

what are the most common SE of prazosin

A

headache and dizziness

84
Q

why might mirtazepine be used for PTSD

A

less sexual side effects than SSRI and SNRI and especially useful for enhancing sleep in PTSD

85
Q

true or false: trazadone can be used as an adjunct in PTSD treatment but should not be used as monotherapy

86
Q

what is first line treatment for OCD

A

SSRI and the TCA clomipramine

87
Q

when treating OCD with an SSRI, how long should you wait before switching to another medication or add another drug

A

at least 12 weeks

88
Q

if after 12 weeks of treatment for OCD with an SSRI, there is still incomplete response, what is the next step

A

do not withdraw the SSRI but add another agent like atypical anti-psychotic (risperidone) or anti-convulsant (topiramate)

89
Q

what are the most common side effects of most anxiety medications and what education should you provide

A

most will include dizziness, dry mouth, and nausea
educate that usually will resolve after a couple of weeks

90
Q

why is the question “how are you feeling” not an effective way to measure response to medication

A

not specific and does not assess symptom improvement

91
Q

why do you not want to abruptly stop Inderal (beta blocker) and how long should you wean it for

A

can cause sympathetic overactivity causing HTN and rebound symptoms
wean slowly over 6-10 days

92
Q

current typical antidepressants act on what neurotransmitters and about how many people are resistant to the treatment

A

act on serotonin and/or norepi
about 1/3 of people are resistant to treatment

93
Q

how might ketamine be used in the treatment of depression

A

at low doses, it gives a rapid response to treatment resitant depression without sedative side effects but can produce euphoric side effects

94
Q

how does stress affect neurons

A

causes neuronal atrophy in everyone, even if mild, which could have wide spread consequences

95
Q

what are some ways to help prevent neuronal atrophy from stress

A

good coping, social supports, exercise

96
Q

what non pharmacological method has been shown to have the biggest effect on enhancing synaptic connections and neuronal function

97
Q

depression is thought to be from a decrease in one of the main monoamines which include:

A

serotonin, norepi, dopamine

98
Q

what amino acid makes serotonin? norepi?

A

serotonin - tryptophan
norepi - tyrosine

99
Q

what are side effects of abrupt withdrawal of an SSRI

A

headache, n/v, agitation, sleep disturbancs

100
Q

which antidepressant class may also reduce pain from fibromyalgia

101
Q

what are common SE of TCAs

A

orthostatic HoTN, dizziness, sedation, anticholinergic effects

102
Q

what antidepressant may also be used to prevent migraines and neuropathic pain

A

amitriptyline

103
Q

why are MAOIs a last choice for treatment of depression

A

high incidence of interaction with other drugs and any foods containing tyramine which can cause HTN crisis and stroke

104
Q

what is the best class of medication to use if the primary concern in MDD is hopelessness

105
Q

what is the best medication to use if the primary concern in MDD is lack of energy and fatigue

A

fluoxetine, bupropion, venlafaxine because they are all activator

106
Q

what is the best medication to use if the primary concern in MDD is insomnia

A

fluvoxamine, mirtazapine, TCAs

107
Q

what medication is the best studied and safest to use for MDD in younger people

A

fluoxetine (prozac)

108
Q

what is the best medication for MDD in older adults? which one should be avoided?

A

citalopram is best for older adults
avoid paroxetine

109
Q

for people with migraines, what MDD drugs should be avoided

A

buproprion and SSRIs as they may interact with triptans and cause serotonin syndrome

110
Q

are SSRIs safe to use in pregnant and breastfeeding mothers

111
Q

when should bupropion be avoided

A

hyperactivity disorder, eating disorders, alcoholism, bipolar, seizures, psychotic disorders, personality disorders

112
Q

when should TCAs be avoided

A

cardiac arrhythmias
elderly with fall risk
obsesity
BPH
urinary retention
bipolar

113
Q

a patient treated for MDD has resolution of all other symptoms but still has fatigue. What does this mean?

A

incomplete response

114
Q

what is refractory MDD and what should you do

A

when a client cannot achieve remission even after several trials of medication combos
refer to psychiatrist

115
Q

what is relapse

A

remission lasting less than 6 months

116
Q

what are some risk factors for relapse and recurrence

A

incomplete treatment
nonadherence
stopping before at least 2 years of treatment
situational barriers
unrecognized comorbidities
treated during crisis but only brought back to baseline
substance use

117
Q

what is tachyphylaxis

A

tolerance to SSRIs, inital response with symptoms returning around 6 months

118
Q

what should you do for a patient wth tachyphylaxis

A

rule out nonadherence
then increase dose or decrease dose
then add another drug
then consult psychiatry

119
Q

what class of medication is most likely to have tachyphylaxis

120
Q

what is SSRI discontinuance syndrome

A

abrupt withdrawal from SSRI, more common with short to medium half life SSRIs

121
Q

when would you expect symptoms of SSRI discontinuance symptoms to start and how long would they last

A

within 2-5 days and lasts 1-2 weeks but can occur over a prolonged time

122
Q

what are the main symptoms of SSRI discontinuance symptoms

A

main are n/v/d, fatigue and headaches
can also include light headedness, poor appetite, diaphoresis, chills, treamors, altered sensations, muscle and joint aches, sleep disturbances

123
Q

which SSRI is most likely to cause SSRI discontinuance syndrome

A

paroxetine

124
Q

true or false: gradual tapering prevents SSRI discontinuance syndrom

125
Q

what SNRI is most likely to cause withdrawal if stopped abruptly

A

velafaxine

126
Q

what are the symptoms of SNRI withdrawal? or they more or less severe than SSRI withdrawal

A

dizziness, flu like symptoms, anxiety
usually more severe than SSRI withdrawal

127
Q

how might you differentiate withdrawal symptoms from relapse symptoms for SSRIs

A

withdrawal symptoms usually have an early onset while relapse is usually gradual

128
Q

what is rebound phenomena

A

a rapid return and worsening of patients original symptoms

129
Q

what is treatment for discontinuance syndrom

A

reassruance and support, reinstating the same or another drug may only postpone or aggrevate the problem

130
Q

what is serotonin syndrom

A

a potentially fatal condition caused by excess serotonin

131
Q

what is the triad of symptoms for serotonin syndrome

A

symptoms seen where serotonin concentrations are the highest: neuromuscular, autonomic, and GI

132
Q

what characterizes serotonin syndrome

A

mental status changes, neuromuscular hyperactivity and autonomic instability

133
Q

what are some proserotonergic drugs that may interact with SSRIs

A

MAOIs
TACs
Trazadone
Mirtazapine
Bupropion
SNRIs
Norepi-dopamine reuptake inhibitors
Lithium
Opioids
Linezolid
Amphetamines and stimulinats
St. Johns Wort
Ginseng

134
Q

how long should the wash out period be between stopping an SSRI and starting another serotonergic medication

A

usually 2-3 weeks, longer for elderly
5 weeks for fluoexetine

135
Q

what is the diagnostic criteria for serotonin syndrome

A

symptoms coincide with addition of serotoniergic agent or increased dose
at least 3 symptoms: agitation, ataxia, diaphoresis, diarrhea, hyperreflexia, mental status change, myoclonus, shivering, tremor, hyperthermia

136
Q

what are some complications of serotonin syndrome

A

seizures
arrythmia
rhabdo
DIC
renal failure
resp failure
death

137
Q

what MDD medication is contraindicated in patients with congenital long QT sydrome

A

citalopram

138
Q

when does serotonin syndrome start, how long does it last, and when do most fatalities occur

A

starts within 2-8 hours of ingestion, if asymptomptomatic for 6-8 hours unlikely to require further treatment, most fatalities occur within first 24 hours

139
Q

what is the role of St. Johns Wort in MDD and what should you be aware of

A

helpful for mild to moderate depression
do not use with SSRIs for risk of serotonin syndrome

140
Q

why should you follow up with young adults and adolescents within the first week of starting SSRI therapy

A

highest risk of suicide during this time

141
Q

why are mood stabilizers a priority for treating bipolar

A

high risk of suicide

142
Q

true or false: bipolar should be managed by or in partnership with a psychiatrist

143
Q

how long should treatment last after a first presentation of bipolar?

A

at least 6 months but ideally 1 year

144
Q

what is the annual monitoring recommended for people with bipolar

A

weight, BMI, nutritional status
BP, pusle, CV risk
fasting glucose or A1C
liver and renal
Thryoid and calcium if on lithium

145
Q

what is first line therapy for acute depressive phase of bipolar and acute mania

146
Q

what class of drug is lithium

A

mood stabilizer

147
Q

what is the therapeutic trough levels for lithium

148
Q

can lithium be taken during pregnancy or breastfeeding

149
Q

what are the SE of lithium

A

n/v, fine tremor, dry mouth, headaches and drowsinesss

150
Q

what monitoring is recommended for lithium

A

levels weekly X3 then at 12 weeks another lithium level and renal levels

151
Q

what are toxicity symptoms of lithium

A

n/v/d, confusion, stupor, ataxia, muscle weakness, polyuria, polydipsia, arrythmias, seizures

152
Q

what are the anticonvulsants used for bipolar

A

valproate and lamotragine

153
Q

what should patients on valproate be made aware of

A

requires stable nutritional intake, must avoid alcohol, take with food but not milk

154
Q

can valproate be stopped abruptly

A

no, taper slowly to prevent seizures

155
Q

what anticonvulsant may be used as monotherapy for bipolar during the maintenance phase

A

lamotragine

156
Q

what bipolar medication carries a risk of serius rash including steven johnson? what should a patient do if they develop a rash?

A

lamotragine
should discontinue immediatley and seek medical care

157
Q

what are the side effects of lamotragine

A

n/v, dizziness, ataxia, tremor (common)

158
Q

why are atypical antipsychotics used in bipolar

A

to abort psychosis and help stabalize mood

159
Q

what are the atypical antipsychotics used in bipolar

A

risperidone
olanzapine
quetiapine

160
Q

what is the main disadvantage of using atypical antipsychotics

A

weight gain is common and may precipitate DM and hyperlipidemia

161
Q

what are extrapyramidal symptoms and what class of medications may cause them

A

dystonia, akathisia, parkinsonism, tardive dyskinesia
may be caused by atypical antipsychotics

162
Q

what should you do if a bipolar patient is experiencing EPS from their medicatioin

A

consult with psychiatry as changes to dose or meds should be done by them

163
Q

the first episode of psychosis often appears between the age of ______ and there is a high risk of _____ after the first episode

A

15-25
suicide

164
Q

what neurotransmitter plays a key role in psychotic disorders

165
Q

which atypical antipsychotic may cause angranular cytosis and so requires periodic blood cell monitoring

166
Q

atypical or typical antipsychotics are preferred for dysphoria and suicidal behavior

167
Q

atypical or typical antipsychotics are preferred for substance abuse and cognitive problems

168
Q

atpyical or typical antipsychotics are preferred for aggressive behavior and agitation

169
Q

atypical or typical antipsychotics are preferred for excitability and insomnia

170
Q

what are the main side effects of antipsychotics

A

weight gain
hyperglycemia
EPS
anticholinergic effects
sexual side effects
CVS risk
prolactin elevation

171
Q

all antipsychotics are rated ____ for pregnancy

A

category C

172
Q

true or false: patients who do not have symptoms but are at high risk of having psychosis should have antipsychotics started

A

false, do not start medication in an attempt to prevent or due to elevated risk

173
Q

what two treatments are recommended for psychosis

A

oral antipsychotics and psychological treatments like CBT or family intervention

174
Q

true or false: counselling is a valid alternative to CBT for treating pyschosis

A

false, CBT is much more effective and counselling should not routinely be recommended

175
Q

what investigations should be done at 12 weeks, 1 year, and then annually for people on antipsychotics

A

weight, BP, A1C or fasting glucose, lipids, and prolactin

176
Q

true or false: adherence therapy and skills training should be routinely offered to those with psychotic disorders

177
Q

true or false: art therapy may be a helpful adjunct for people with psychotic disorders