Exam 3 Flashcards
What is superior to the lateral aspect of each eye?
lacrimal glands
What does lacrimal glands make?
salt solution (TEARS)
Where do tears come out?
through small ducts on the anterior surface of the eyeball
What is the other antibacterial enzyme that the lacrimal secretion also contains?
lysosome
What happens when we cry?
the excess tears flows onto the nasolacrimal duct causing our noses to run
What is the name of our sweat glands?
ciliary glands
Where do the ciliary glands lie?
between eyelash hair follicles
What helps lubricate the eyeball?
ciliary glands
Where are the tarsal glands located?
posterior to the eyelashes
What do the tarsal glands secrete?
an oily substance
What muscles are working when you are looking at your nose?
EXTRA CREDIT
inferior rectus muscle and medial rectus muscle
What is an inflammation of one of the ciliary glands or a small oil gland called?
Sty
What are eyelids called?
palpebrae
What lines the internal surface of the eyelids and continues over the anterior surface of the eyeball?
conjunctiva
What aids in lubricating the eyeball?
The conjunctiva secreting mucus
What is conjunctivitis?
Inflammation of the conjunctiva, often
accompanied by redness of the eye
What is the outermost fibrous layer?
a protective layer
What does the outermost fibrous layer contain?
sclera and cornea
What is the sclera?
opaque white and forms the bulk of the fibrous layer
What is the sclera nickname?
the white of the eye
What is the cornea?
the anterior most transparent area where light enters
What type of layer is the middle layer?
vascular
Is the choroid posterior or anterior?
posterior
What is choroid?
a blood-rich nutritive region containing
a dark pigment that prevents light scattering within the eye
What is the ciliary body composed of?
the ciliary muscles
What does the ciliary body control?
the eyes lens shape
What is the most anterior part of the uvea?
The pigmented iris.
The only special sense NOT fully functional at birth is the sense of ________
Vision
What is the sensory layer of the eye?
Retina
What is the structure most responsible for focusing light rays that enter the eye?
Lens
What helps maintain the intraocular pressure; located in the anterior part of the eye?
Aqueous Humor
What is the area of greatest visual acuity?
Fovea centralis
Seventy percent of all sensory receptors are located in the ________
eye
Ordinarily, it is NOT possible to transplant tissues from one person to another, yet corneas can be transplanted without tissue rejection. This is because the cornea ________
has no blood supply
The blind spot of the eye is caused by _______
an absence of photoreceptors where the optic nerve leaves the eye
Precision of eye movement is due to the fact that extrinsic eye muscle motor units typically innervate 8 to 12 muscle cells and in some cases as few as 2 or 3 muscle cells.
(TRUE OR FALSE)
TRUE
Motion sickness seems to ________
result from mismatch between visual and vestibular inputs
Identify the muscle that is controlled by the abducens nerve (CN VI)
B
Name the muscle at D
Inferior Rectus
Identify the layer that contains both a single-celled pigmented layer and a neural layer.
C
What is #1?
Levator palpeerde superioris muscle
What is #2?
Palpebral conjunctive
What is #3?
Bulbar conjunctiva
What is #4?
Orbicularis oculi muscle
What is #5?
tarsal glands
What is #6?
palpebral fissure
What is #7?
eyelashes
What is #8?
conjutival sac
What is #1?
Superior oblique muscle
What is #2?
Superior rectus muscle
What is #3?
Lateral rectus muscle
What is #4?
Superior oblique tendon
What is #5?
Inferior rectus muscle
What is #6?
Inferior oblique muscle
The elasticity of the lens decreases with age. This leads to which of the following?
A) a clouding of the lenses known as a cataract
B) lowered accommodation of the pupillary reflex and blurry vision
C) less light getting to the retina and diminished visual acuity
D) less accommodation of the lenses and difficulty focusing on nearby objects
D
Vitamin A deficiency leads to rod degeneration
(TRUE OR FALSE)
TRUE
How are the olfactory receptors activated?
Odorants dissolve in the mucus and bind to receptors.
What is #1?
Olfactory tract
What is #2?
Olfactory gland
What is #3?
Olfactory epithelium
What is #4?
Mitral cell
What is #5?
Olfactory bulb
What is #6?
Olfactory stem cell
What is #7?
Olfactory sensory neuron
What is #8?
Supporting cell
What is #9?
Olfactory cilia
Most taste buds are located __________
on the tongue surface in fungiform papillae
What is #1?
Auricle
What is #2?
Stapes
What is #3?
Tympanic membrane
What is #4?
semicircular canals/balance organs
What is #5?
Cochlea/House organ of Corti
Name the sensory structure located in the enlarged swellings at the end of the tubes labeled as A
(PICTURE)
ampulla
What is #1?
Semicircular canals
What is #2?
Vestibule
What is #3?
Vestibular Nerve
What is #4?
Cochlear Nerve
What is #5?
Cochlea
What is #6?
auditory tube
What is #1?
Semicircular ducts
What is #2?
Cristae ampullares
What is #3?
Utricle in vestibule
What is #4?
Stapes in oval window
What is #5?
Round Window
What is #6?
Saccule in Vestibule
What is #1?
Tectorial membrane
What is #2?
Cochlear Duct
What is #3?
Spiral Organ
What is #4?
Basilar membrane
What is #5?
Vestibular membrane
What is #6?
Scala Vestibuli
What is #7?
Scala tympani
A patient has noticed that his ability to hear has recently decreased. Which item is NOT likely to have caused his problem?
A) Occlusion of the external auditory meatus by cerumen
B) Damage to the semicircular canals
C) Perforation of the tympanic membrane
D) Pharyngotympanic (auditory) tube dysfunction
B
Which portion of the ear is responsible for sound transduction?
the cochlea
A patient has a loss of hearing in only one ear. Which of the following is likely to be a result?
A) The patient will not be able to localize the origin of sounds.
B) The patient will have increased sensitivity to sound in the unaffected ear.
C) The patient will have a loss of balance with dizziness and vertigo.
D) The patient will not be able to track objects with the eye on the same side as the hearing
A
The semicircular canals are adapted to detect static equilibrium
(TRUE OR FALSE)
FALSE
Tinnitus, vertigo, and gradual hearing loss typify the disorder called ________
Ménière’s syndrome
The ability of muscle to shorten forcibly when adequately stimulated is known as ________, and sets muscle apart from other tissue types
contractility
Which of the following statements is true?
A) Cardiac muscle cells are found in the heart and large blood vessels.
B) Cardiac muscle cells have many nuclei.
C) Skeletal muscle cells are long and cylindrical with many nuclei.
D) Smooth muscle cells have T tubules.
C
What is the most distinguishing characteristic of muscle tissue?
the ability to transform chemical energy into mechanical energy to move the body
Which of the following is NOT a normal function of muscle tissue?
A) stabilizing joints
B) maintaining posture
C) secreting hormones
D) producing movement
E) generating heat
C
What is #1?
Connective tissue covering the exterior of a muscle organ
What is #2?
Connective tissue sheath surrounding individual muscle fibers
What is #3?
Connective tissue surrounding muscle fiber bundles
What is #4?
Bundles of muscle cells surrounded by a perimysium
What is #5?
Individual muscle fiber
The connective tissue that covers structure A is continuous with which of the following?
A) endomysium
B) tendon
C) synovial membrane
D) ligament
B
What is #1?
Z disc
What is #2?
H Zone
What is #3?
I Band
What is #4?
A Band
What is #5?
M Line
What structure in skeletal muscle cells functions in calcium storage?
sarcoplasmic reticulum
The sliding filament model of contraction states that __________
during contraction, the thin myofilaments slide past the thick myofilaments so that the actin and myosin myofilaments overlap to a greater degree
The region between which two points corresponds to the entire A (dark) band?
2 and 6
What is #1?
T Tubule
What is #2?
A Band
What is #3?
I Band
What is #4?
Sarcolemma
What is #5?
Triad
What is #6?
Terminal cisterns
What is #7?
Myofibrils
Which of the following statements best illustrates the fact that skeletal muscle is voluntary muscle?
A) Skeletal muscle appears striated due to the structure of the sarcomeres.
B) The shivering reflex aids in maintaining body temperature.
C) Skeletal muscle fibers are innervated by somatic motor neurons.
D) Skeletal muscle is wrapped in several layers of connective tissue. The deepest layer being the endomysium.
C
An enzyme known as acetylcholinesterase is present in the synaptic cleft. What is its role?
to break down acetylcholine
Which of the following interactions must occur first so that the others can take place?
B binds to troponin
Which muscle fiber type is best suited for endurance activities, such as long-distance jogging?
slow oxidative fibers
Reduction in blood flow to a muscle fiber would have the greatest effect on ________
slow oxidative fibers
A muscle that is lengthening while it produces tension is performing a(n) __________ contraction
eccentric
Isometric contractions are important contractions that allow humans to hold their posture over time
(TRUE OR FALSE)
TRUE
If both motor neurons shown in this figure were to develop action potentials and stimulate muscle fibers, would all the muscle cells shown here contract?
No, because neurons in this figure do not innervate every muscle cell shown.
Which of the following is true?
A) Smooth muscle lacks the thin and thick filaments characteristic of skeletal muscle.
B) Skeletal muscle fibers contain sarcomeres; smooth muscle fibers do not.
C) Skeletal muscle fibers tend to be shorter than smooth muscle fibers.
D) Skeletal muscle lacks the coarse connective tissue sheaths that are found in smooth muscle
B
If troponin is a component of both cardiac and skeletal muscle, why is an elevated plasma troponin level useful in diagnosing myocardial damage?
The subunits of the troponin in cardiac muscle are unique to heart muscle.
Immediately following the arrival of the stimulus at a skeletal muscle cell there is a short period called the ________ period during which the neurotransmitter is released by exocytosis, diffuses across the synaptic cleft, and binds to its receptors.
latent
What is the primary function of wave summation?
produce smooth, continuous muscle contraction
In an isotonic contraction, the muscle ________
changes in length and moves the “load”
Muscle tone is ________
a state of sustained partial contraction
Which of the following is the correct order for the phases of a muscle twitch?
A) relaxation, contraction, latent
B) latent, contraction, relaxation
C) contraction, relaxation, latent
D) latent, relaxation, contraction
B
Once a motor neuron has fired, all the muscle fibers in a muscle contract.
(TRUE OR FALSE)
False
A skeletal muscle contracts with varying force and length of time in response to the body’s needs at the time.
(TRUE OR FALSE)
True
A motor neuron and all the muscle cells that it stimulates are referred to as a motor end plate.
(TRUE OR FALSE)
False
Muscle that opposes and reverses the action of another muscle.
Antagonist
Muscle that stabilizes the origin of another muscle
Fixator
Muscle that is primarily responsible for bring about a particular movement
Agonist
Muscle that aids another by promoting the same movement
Synergist
What is a muscle that provides the major force for producing a specific movement called?
an agonist (prime mover)
Muscles that help maintain upright posture are fixators.
(TRUE OR FALSE)
True
When the term biceps, triceps, or quadriceps forms part of a muscle’s name, what does it tell you about the muscle?
The muscle has two, three, or four origins, respectively.
The sternocleidomastoid muscle inserts on the ________
mastoid process of the temporal bone
A muscle that crosses the posterior side of a joint will always cause extension.
(TRUE OR FALSE)
False
What is #1?
Elevates and adducts scapula
What is #2?
Rotates scapula
What is #3?
Trapezius muscle
What is #4?
Rhomboid minor and major
What is #5?
Teres major muscle
What is #6?
Latissimus dorsi muscle
Powerful flexor and adductor of hand.
Flexor Carpi Ulnaris
Flexes distal interphalangeal joints.
Flexor digitorum profundus
Stabilizes the wrist during finger extension
Flexor Carpi Ulnaris
Extends and abducts the hand
Extensor Carpi Radialis Brevis
Tenses skin and fascia of palm during hand movements.
Palmer’s Longus
What muscle is primarily responsible for preventing foot drop?
tibialis anterior
Which of the following is NOT a muscle primarily involved in the breathing process?
A )internal intercostal
B) diaphragm
C) external intercostal
D) latissimus dorsi
D
The most powerful muscle in the body is the _______
quadriceps femoris
Which of the following describes the suprahyoid muscles?
A) They are a group of muscles that lie superior to the hyoid bone and help form the floor of the oral cavity.
B) They are often called strap muscles.
C) They depress the larynx and hyoid bone if the mandible is fixed.
D) They move the pharynx superiorly during swallowing.
A
The supraspinatus is named for its location on the posterior aspect of the scapula above the spine. What is its action?
to initiate abduction of the arm, to stabilize the shoulder joint and to help prevent downward dislocation of the humerus
Which of the following muscles is NOT a rotator cuff muscle?
A) levator scapulae
B) supraspinatus
C) subscapularis
D) teres minor
A
Which of the following muscles is involved in producing horizontal wrinkles in the forehead?
A) the medial pterygoid
B) the temporalis
C) the zygomaticus major
D) the frontal belly of the epicranius
D
At the grocery store a cute, little curly-haired child is standing behind you in line. You turn around for a moment and she sticks her tongue out at you. Which tongue muscle did she use?
genioglossus
Which of these is the function of the external oblique muscles?
A) flex vertebral column and compress abdominal wall
B) extend vertebral column and head and rotates them to opposite sides
C) pull ribs toward one another to elevate the rib cage
D) elevate and adduct scapula in synergy with superior fibers of trapezius
A
Which of the following muscles is involved in crossing one leg over the other to produce the cross-legged position?
A) the quadriceps femoris
B) the sartorius
C) the gastrocnemius
D) all of the hamstrings
B
Which of the following muscles inserts to the posterior calcaneus via the calcaneal tendon?
A) the sartorius
B) the gastrocnemius
C) the semitendinosus
D) the tibialis anterior
B
Which of the following muscles fixes and stabilizes the pelvis during walking?
A) external oblique
B) internal oblique
C) transversus abdominis
D) rectus abdominis
D
Which of the following is NOT a member of the hamstrings?
A) semitendinosus
B) gracilis
C) biceps femoris
D) semimembranosus
B
A nursing infant develops a powerful sucking muscle that inserts to the muscle which adults also use for whistling (orbicularis oris). What is this muscle called?
buccinator
Which of the following muscles is used to form a smile?
A) orbicularis oris
B) mentalis
C) zygomaticus major
D) corrugator supercilli
C
Which of the following best describes the orbicularis oris?
A) It pulls the lower lip down and back.
B) It closes the eye.
C) It closes, purses, and protrudes the lips.
D) It draws the eyebrows together.
C
Which muscle group is involved when a “pulled groin” occurs?
thigh adductors
Tennis players often complain about pain in the arm (forearm) that swings the racquet. What muscle is usually strained under these conditions?
the brachioradialis
Which muscle(s) is (are) contracted to exhale forcibly?
internal intercostals and rectus abdominus
Paralysis of which of the following would make an individual unable to flex the thigh?
A) biceps femoris
B) vastus medialis
C) iliopsoas and rectus femoris
D) soleus
C
What do the genioglossus, hyoglossus, and styloglossus muscles have in common?
All act on the tongue
Which of the following muscles is a flexor of the thigh at the hip?
A) adductor magnus
B) vastus lateralis
C) gluteus maximus
D) tibialis posterior
A
Which of the following muscles is involved in inversion at the ankle joint?
A) tibialis anterior
B) fibularis (peroneus) longus
C) extensor digitorum longus
D) fibularis (peroneus) tertius
A
Which of the following muscles serves as a common intramuscular injection site, particularly in infants as the buttocks and arm muscles are poorly developed?
A) the vastus intermedius
B) the vastus medialis
C) rectus femoris
D) the vastus lateralis
D
Paralysis of which of the following muscles would make an individual unable to flex the knee?
A) gluteal muscles
B) brachioradialis
C) soleus
D) hamstring muscles
D
Which of the following muscles does NOT act in plantar flexion?
A) popliteus
B) tibialis posterior
C) flexor digitorum longus
D) gastrocnemius and soleus
A
________ is a powerful forearm extensor at the elbow joint
Triceps brachii
The ________ is known as the “boxer’s muscle.”
serratus anterior
The ________ runs deep to the internal oblique.
transversus abdominis
The ________ helps keep food between the grinding surfaces of the teeth during chewing
buccinator
All of the muscles that originate from the medial epicondyle of the humerus have one of two functions. Which of the following pairs is correct?
A) wrist flexion and supination
B) wrist flexion and forearm pronation
C) forearm flexion and wrist flexion
D) wrist extension and forearm supination
B
Which of the following statements is FALSE?
A) The medial hamstrings promote medial knee (leg) rotation.
B) The hamstrings are fleshy muscles of the posterior thigh.
C) The hamstrings cross the hip and knee joints.
D) The hamstrings are prime movers of hip (thigh) flexion and knee (leg) flexion.
D
The anterior compartment of the thigh is involved in lower leg extension.
(TRUE OR FALSE)
True
Which rotator cuff muscle is correctly paired with its action?
A) teres minor; adduction
B) supraspinatus; lateral rotation
C) infraspinatus; abduction
D) subscapularis; medial rotation
C
Which of the following is incorrectly paired?
A) deltoid; arm abduction
B) pectoralis major; arm abduction
C) trapezius; stabilizes, elevates, retracts, and rotates scapula
D) latissimus dorsi; arm extension, arm adduction, and medial arm rotation
B
Which of the following is a hamstring muscle?
A) vastus medialis
B) vastus lateralis
C) rectus femoris
D) biceps femoris
D
Where are the origins for most of the muscles that control movement of the fingers?
the forearm
Which of the following is not a rotator cuff muscle?
A) supraspinatus
B) infraspinatus
C) teres major
D) subscapularis
C
Which of the following muscles does the phrenic nerve innervate?
A) the diaphragm
B) the external intercostals
C) the sternocleidomastoid muscles
D) the internal intercostals
A
Which muscle is known as the “boxer’s muscle” for its ability to move the arm horizontally, as in throwing a punch?
D
Which muscle provides a guide to the position of the radial artery at the wrist for taking the pulse?
D
Which of the following letters represents the sartorius muscle?
A
B
C
D
B
Identify the extensor digitorum longus muscle.
C
What is #1?
Trapezius
What is #2?
Deltoid
What is #3?
Triceps Brachii
What is #4?
Biceps Brachii
What is #5?
Pronator Teres
What is #6?
Brachioradialis
What is #1?
Sternohyoid
What is #2?
Platysma
What is #3?
Pectoralis major
What is #4?
Sternocleidomastoid
What is #5?
Pectoralis minor
What is #6?
Intercostals
What is #7?
Serratus Anterior
What is #1?
External Oblique
What is #2?
Rectus abdominis
What is #3?
Transverse abdominis
What is #4?
Internal oblique
What is #5?
Tensor fasciae latae
What is #6?
Sartorius
What is #7?
Adductor Longus
What is #8?
Gracilis
What is #1?
Rectus Femoris
What is #2?
Vastus Lateralis
What is #3?
Vastus medialis
What is #4?
Fibularis longus
What is #5?
Gastrocnemius
What is #6?
Tibialis anterior
What is #7?
Soleus
What is #1?
Triceps brachii
What is #2?
Brachialis
What is #3?
Brachioradialis
What is #4?
Extensor carpiradialis longus
What is #5?
Extensor digitorum
What is #6?
Flexor carpi ulnaris
What is #7?
Extensor carpi ulnaris
What is #1?
Gastrocnemius
What is #2?
Soleus
What is #3?
Fibularis longus
What is #4?
Calcaneal tendon
What is #5?
Adductor magnus
What is #6?
Biceps femoris
What is #7?
Semitendinosus
What is #8?
Semimembranosus
What is #1?
Levator scapulae
What is #2?
Rhomboid minor
What is #3?
Rhomboid major
What is #4?
Epicranius occipital belly
What is #5?
Sternocleidodmastoid
What is #6?
Trapezius
What is #7?
Deltoid
What is #8?
Infraspinatus
What is #9?
Latissimus dorsi
What is #10?
Gluteus medius
What is #11?
Gluteus maximus
What is #1?
Corrugator supercili
What is #2?
Obricularis oculi
What is #3?
Zygomaticus
What is #4?
Buccinators
What is #5?
Orbicularis oris
What is #6?
Mentalis
What is #7?
Levator labii superioris
What is #8?
Risorius
What is #1?
Gluteus maximus
What is #2?
Gracilis
What is #3?
Semitendinosus
What is #4?
Gluteus Medius
What is #5?
Adductor Magnus
What is #6?
Biceps femoris
What is #7?
Semimembranosus
What is #1?
Gastrocnemius
What is #2?
Fibularis longus
What is #3?
Fibularis brevis
What is #4?
Flexor hallucis longus
What is #5?
Soleus
What is #6?
Extensor digitorum longus
What is #7?
Tibalis anterior
What is #8?
Fibularis tertius
To allow for flexion, the __________ unlocks the knee joint
popliteus
To keep the humeral head centered within the glenoidal cavity the rotator cuff muscles must be __________
located in the same plane
The location of the rotator cuff muscles in relation to the glenohumoral joint minimizes the upward pressure against the __________
acromion of the scapula
The action that moves the scapula towards the head is called __________
elevation
Which movement results after the contraction of the serratus anterior muscle?
scapular protraction and rotation
Which movement is not associated with the scapula?
opposition
The muscles that extend the forearm are located __________
posteriorly
Which of the following statements about muscles of the elbow joint is true?
A) The brachioradialis originates and inserts on the ulna.
B) The biceps brachii has two heads that share the same origin site.
C) The biceps brachii is a posterior extensor.
D) None of these statements is correct.
D
The two heads of the biceps brachii muscle come together distally to insert on the __________
radial tuberosity
The smallest of the posterior extensors of the elbow joint is the __________
anconeus
The origin of the long head of the triceps brachii is on the __________
infraglenoid tubercle of the scapula
Which of the following statements about muscles of the forearm is true?
A) The pronator teres originates on the medial epicondyle and inserts on the radius.
B) The pronator quadratus originates on the radius and inserts on the ulna.
C) Contraction of the pronator quadratus and the supinator results in forearm pronation.
D) The pronator quadratus is a two-headed muscle.
A
Forearm supination is assisted by the __________
biceps brachii
An origin of the supinator is the _________
lateral epicondyl of the humerus
The pectoral girdle consists of the __________
clavicle and scapula
The primary function of the pectoral girdle is to __________
act as an attachment site for muscles that move the arm
The rhomboideus minor muscle originates on which process on the vertebrae?
Spinous process
The four muscles that comprise the posterior group of the pectoral girdle are the __________
levator scapulae, rhomboideus minor, rhomboideus major, and trapezius
Which of the following is not true of the deep fascia of the leg?
A) prevents excess swelling of the muscles
B) separates anterior and posterior muscles
C) an insertion for the majority of lower leg muscles
D) aids in venous return
an insertion for the majority of lower leg muscles
The ball and socket joint in the hip is similar to the ball and socket joint of the shoulder but is designed more for __________ than __________
power; precision
The hamstring muscles originate on the _________
ischial tuberosity
The extensor muscle that branches to form four tendons on the back of the hand is the _________
extensor digitorum
The deep posterior extensor of the wrist and fingers _________
controls the thumb and index finger
Which deep posterior extensor of the wrist originates on the radius and ulna and interosseous membrane?
the abductor pollicis longus
The flexor hallucis longus muscle originates on the _________
interosseous membrane
The soleus and the gastrocnemius share an insertion on the __________
calcaneus
The lateral rotators act on the _________
femur
The piriformis originates on the __________ and inserts on the ____
sacrum; greater trochanter of the femur
The insertions of the semispinatus capitus are on the __________
occipital bone
The semitendinosus muscle lies ______________ to the semimembranosus muscle
posterior
The semitendinosus muscle is innervated by the __________ nerve
tibial
The teres major adducts the arm but does not __________ the arm
abduct
The insertion of the teres minor is on the _________
greater tubercle of the humerus
The tibialis anterior muscle dorsiflexes the foot at the ankle and also assists in __________ of the foot
inversion
The tibialis posterior muscle originates at which three locations?
tibia, fibula, and interosseous membrane
The transversus abdominus muscle is innervated by the __________
intercostals nerves
The trapezius muscle may be separated into all of the following groups, except ________
lateral
All fibers of the trapezius muscle are innervated by the _________
spinal accessory nerve
All fibers of the triceps brachii are innervated by the ________
radial nerve
The vastus intermedius __________ the leg at the knee
extends
The vastus lateralis is innervated by the _________
femoral nerve
The origin that the vastus medialis muscle shares with the vastus lateralis is the _________
linea aspera of the femor
What is #1?
lateral ventricle
What is #2?
Third ventricle
What is #3?
Interventricular foramen
What is #4?
Fourth Ventricle
What is #5?
Cerebral Aqueduct
What is #6?
Median aperture
What is #7?
Lateral Aperture
What is #1?
Lateral ventricle
What is #2?
Septum pellucidum
What is #3?
Interventricular foramen
What is #4?
Third ventricle
What is #5?
Cerebral aqueduct
What is #6?
Cerebral aqueduct
What is #7?
Central Canal
What is #8?
Fourth ventricle
What is #1?
Corpus Callosum
What is #2?
Thalamus
What is #3?
Hypothalamus
What is #4?
Pons
What is #5?
Medulla oblongata
Region A represents which of the following?
Prefrontal cortex
Broca’s area
Primary motor cortex
Primary somatosensory cortex
Prefrontal cortex
Which of the following is the best description of the function of region B?
Region B contains neurons receiving somatosensory input from the thalamus
Region B includes neurons whose axons carry motor commands from the cerebrum
Region B coordinates the movement of several muscle groups into complex tasks
Region B is responsible for learning, working memory, judgement, reasoning, persistence, and planning
Region B includes neurons whose axons carry motor commands from the cerebrum
the letter A in the figure indicates which of the following structures?
Cerebral nuclei
Thalamus
Lateral ventricles
Hypothalamus
Thalamus
What is #1?
Precentral gryus
What is #2?
Central sulcus
What is #3?
Frontal lobe
What is #4?
Temporal Lobe
What is #5?
Postcentral gyrus
What is #6?
Parietal lobe
What is #7?
lateral sulcus
What is #8?
occipital lobe
What is #9?
cerebellum
What is #1?
Longitudinal fissure
What is #2?
Lateral ventricle
What is #3?
Basal nuclei
What is #4?
Third ventricle
What is #5?
Thalamus
What is #6?
Pons
What is #7?
Medulla oblongata
What is #1?
Commissural fibers (corpus callous)
What is #2?
Association Fibers
What is #3?
Projection fibers (corona radiata)
What is #4?
Projection Fibers (internal capsule)
What is #5?
Gray matter
What is #6?
decussation (crossover) of pyramids
What is #7?
white matter
What is #1?
Thalamus
What is #2?
Pineal gland
What is #3?
Midbrain
What is #4?
Cerebellum
What is #5?
medulla obllongata
What is #6?
hypothalamus
What is #7?
pons
What is #8?
Spinal cord
What is #1?
Corpus callosum
What is #2?
choroid plexus
What is #3?
anterior commissure
What is #4?
posterior commissure
What is #5?
pituitary gland
What is #6?
corpora quadrigemina
What is #7?
arbor vitae
What is #8?
cerebral aqueduct
Are the cranial nerves part of the central nervous system?
No (Peripheral nervous system)
