Exam 3 Flashcards by Melanie Magoon

What is superior to the lateral aspect of each eye?

lacrimal glands

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What does lacrimal glands make?

salt solution (TEARS)

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Where do tears come out?

through small ducts on the anterior surface of the eyeball

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What is the other antibacterial enzyme that the lacrimal secretion also contains?

lysosome

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What happens when we cry?

the excess tears flows onto the nasolacrimal duct causing our noses to run

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What is the name of our sweat glands?

ciliary glands

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Where do the ciliary glands lie?

between eyelash hair follicles

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What helps lubricate the eyeball?

ciliary glands

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Where are the tarsal glands located?

posterior to the eyelashes

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What do the tarsal glands secrete?

an oily substance

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What muscles are working when you are looking at your nose?
EXTRA CREDIT

inferior rectus muscle and medial rectus muscle

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What is an inflammation of one of the ciliary glands or a small oil gland called?

Sty

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What are eyelids called?

palpebrae

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What lines the internal surface of the eyelids and continues over the anterior surface of the eyeball?

conjunctiva

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What aids in lubricating the eyeball?

The conjunctiva secreting mucus

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What is conjunctivitis?

Inflammation of the conjunctiva, often
accompanied by redness of the eye

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What is the outermost fibrous layer?

a protective layer

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What does the outermost fibrous layer contain?

sclera and cornea

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What is the sclera?

opaque white and forms the bulk of the fibrous layer

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What is the sclera nickname?

the white of the eye

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What is the cornea?

the anterior most transparent area where light enters

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What type of layer is the middle layer?

vascular

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Is the choroid posterior or anterior?

posterior

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What is choroid?

a blood-rich nutritive region containing
a dark pigment that prevents light scattering within the eye

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What is the ciliary body composed of?

the ciliary muscles

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What does the ciliary body control?

the eyes lens shape

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What is the most anterior part of the uvea?

The pigmented iris.

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The only special sense NOT fully functional at birth is the sense of ________

Vision

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What is the sensory layer of the eye?

Retina

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What is the structure most responsible for focusing light rays that enter the eye?

Lens

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What helps maintain the intraocular pressure; located in the anterior part of the eye?

Aqueous Humor

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What is the area of greatest visual acuity?

Fovea centralis

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Seventy percent of all sensory receptors are located in the ________

eye

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Ordinarily, it is NOT possible to transplant tissues from one person to another, yet corneas can be transplanted without tissue rejection. This is because the cornea ________

has no blood supply

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The blind spot of the eye is caused by _______

an absence of photoreceptors where the optic nerve leaves the eye

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Precision of eye movement is due to the fact that extrinsic eye muscle motor units typically innervate 8 to 12 muscle cells and in some cases as few as 2 or 3 muscle cells.
(TRUE OR FALSE)

TRUE

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Motion sickness seems to ________

result from mismatch between visual and vestibular inputs

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Identify the muscle that is controlled by the abducens nerve (CN VI)

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Name the muscle at D

Inferior Rectus

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Identify the layer that contains both a single-celled pigmented layer and a neural layer.

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What is #1?

Levator palpeerde superioris muscle

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What is #2?

Palpebral conjunctive

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What is #3?

Bulbar conjunctiva

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What is #4?

Orbicularis oculi muscle

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What is #5?

tarsal glands

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What is #6?

palpebral fissure

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What is #7?

eyelashes

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What is #8?

conjutival sac

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What is #1?

Superior oblique muscle

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What is #2?

Superior rectus muscle

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What is #3?

Lateral rectus muscle

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What is #4?

Superior oblique tendon

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What is #5?

Inferior rectus muscle

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What is #6?

Inferior oblique muscle

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The elasticity of the lens decreases with age. This leads to which of the following?
A) a clouding of the lenses known as a cataract
B) lowered accommodation of the pupillary reflex and blurry vision
C) less light getting to the retina and diminished visual acuity
D) less accommodation of the lenses and difficulty focusing on nearby objects

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Vitamin A deficiency leads to rod degeneration
(TRUE OR FALSE)

TRUE

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How are the olfactory receptors activated?

Odorants dissolve in the mucus and bind to receptors.

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What is #1?

Olfactory tract

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What is #2?

Olfactory gland

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What is #3?

Olfactory epithelium

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What is #4?

Mitral cell

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What is #5?

Olfactory bulb

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What is #6?

Olfactory stem cell

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What is #7?

Olfactory sensory neuron

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What is #8?

Supporting cell

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What is #9?

Olfactory cilia

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Most taste buds are located __________

on the tongue surface in fungiform papillae

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What is #1?

Auricle

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What is #2?

Stapes

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What is #3?

Tympanic membrane

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What is #4?

semicircular canals/balance organs

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What is #5?

Cochlea/House organ of Corti

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Name the sensory structure located in the enlarged swellings at the end of the tubes labeled as A
(PICTURE)

ampulla

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What is #1?

Semicircular canals

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What is #2?

Vestibule

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What is #3?

Vestibular Nerve

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What is #4?

Cochlear Nerve

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What is #5?

Cochlea

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What is #6?

auditory tube

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What is #1?

Semicircular ducts

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What is #2?

Cristae ampullares

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What is #3?

Utricle in vestibule

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What is #4?

Stapes in oval window

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What is #5?

Round Window

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What is #6?

Saccule in Vestibule

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What is #1?

Tectorial membrane

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What is #2?

Cochlear Duct

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What is #3?

Spiral Organ

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What is #4?

Basilar membrane

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What is #5?

Vestibular membrane

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What is #6?

Scala Vestibuli

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What is #7?

Scala tympani

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A patient has noticed that his ability to hear has recently decreased. Which item is NOT likely to have caused his problem?
A) Occlusion of the external auditory meatus by cerumen
B) Damage to the semicircular canals
C) Perforation of the tympanic membrane
D) Pharyngotympanic (auditory) tube dysfunction

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Which portion of the ear is responsible for sound transduction?

the cochlea

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A patient has a loss of hearing in only one ear. Which of the following is likely to be a result?
A) The patient will not be able to localize the origin of sounds.
B) The patient will have increased sensitivity to sound in the unaffected ear.
C) The patient will have a loss of balance with dizziness and vertigo.
D) The patient will not be able to track objects with the eye on the same side as the hearing

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The semicircular canals are adapted to detect static equilibrium
(TRUE OR FALSE)

FALSE

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Tinnitus, vertigo, and gradual hearing loss typify the disorder called ________

Ménière’s syndrome

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The ability of muscle to shorten forcibly when adequately stimulated is known as ________, and sets muscle apart from other tissue types

contractility

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Which of the following statements is true?
A) Cardiac muscle cells are found in the heart and large blood vessels.
B) Cardiac muscle cells have many nuclei.
C) Skeletal muscle cells are long and cylindrical with many nuclei.
D) Smooth muscle cells have T tubules.

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What is the most distinguishing characteristic of muscle tissue?

the ability to transform chemical energy into mechanical energy to move the body

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Which of the following is NOT a normal function of muscle tissue?
A) stabilizing joints
B) maintaining posture
C) secreting hormones
D) producing movement
E) generating heat

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What is #1?

Connective tissue covering the exterior of a muscle organ

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What is #2?

Connective tissue sheath surrounding individual muscle fibers

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What is #3?

Connective tissue surrounding muscle fiber bundles

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What is #4?

Bundles of muscle cells surrounded by a perimysium

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What is #5?

Individual muscle fiber

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The connective tissue that covers structure A is continuous with which of the following?
A) endomysium
B) tendon
C) synovial membrane
D) ligament

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What is #1?

Z disc

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What is #2?

H Zone

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What is #3?

I Band

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What is #4?

A Band

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What is #5?

M Line

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What structure in skeletal muscle cells functions in calcium storage?

sarcoplasmic reticulum

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The sliding filament model of contraction states that __________

during contraction, the thin myofilaments slide past the thick myofilaments so that the actin and myosin myofilaments overlap to a greater degree

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The region between which two points corresponds to the entire A (dark) band?

2 and 6

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What is #1?

T Tubule

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What is #2?

A Band

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What is #3?

I Band

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What is #4?

Sarcolemma

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What is #5?

Triad

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What is #6?

Terminal cisterns

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What is #7?

Myofibrils

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Which of the following statements best illustrates the fact that skeletal muscle is voluntary muscle?
A) Skeletal muscle appears striated due to the structure of the sarcomeres.
B) The shivering reflex aids in maintaining body temperature.
C) Skeletal muscle fibers are innervated by somatic motor neurons.
D) Skeletal muscle is wrapped in several layers of connective tissue. The deepest layer being the endomysium.

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An enzyme known as acetylcholinesterase is present in the synaptic cleft. What is its role?

to break down acetylcholine

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Which of the following interactions must occur first so that the others can take place?

B binds to troponin

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Which muscle fiber type is best suited for endurance activities, such as long-distance jogging?

slow oxidative fibers

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Reduction in blood flow to a muscle fiber would have the greatest effect on ________

slow oxidative fibers

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A muscle that is lengthening while it produces tension is performing a(n) __________ contraction

eccentric

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Isometric contractions are important contractions that allow humans to hold their posture over time
(TRUE OR FALSE)

TRUE

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If both motor neurons shown in this figure were to develop action potentials and stimulate muscle fibers, would all the muscle cells shown here contract?

No, because neurons in this figure do not innervate every muscle cell shown.

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Which of the following is true?
A) Smooth muscle lacks the thin and thick filaments characteristic of skeletal muscle.
B) Skeletal muscle fibers contain sarcomeres; smooth muscle fibers do not.
C) Skeletal muscle fibers tend to be shorter than smooth muscle fibers.
D) Skeletal muscle lacks the coarse connective tissue sheaths that are found in smooth muscle

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If troponin is a component of both cardiac and skeletal muscle, why is an elevated plasma troponin level useful in diagnosing myocardial damage?

The subunits of the troponin in cardiac muscle are unique to heart muscle.

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Immediately following the arrival of the stimulus at a skeletal muscle cell there is a short period called the ________ period during which the neurotransmitter is released by exocytosis, diffuses across the synaptic cleft, and binds to its receptors.

latent

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What is the primary function of wave summation?

produce smooth, continuous muscle contraction

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In an isotonic contraction, the muscle ________

changes in length and moves the “load”

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Muscle tone is ________

a state of sustained partial contraction

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Which of the following is the correct order for the phases of a muscle twitch?
A) relaxation, contraction, latent
B) latent, contraction, relaxation
C) contraction, relaxation, latent
D) latent, relaxation, contraction

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Once a motor neuron has fired, all the muscle fibers in a muscle contract.
(TRUE OR FALSE)

False

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A skeletal muscle contracts with varying force and length of time in response to the body’s needs at the time.
(TRUE OR FALSE)

True

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A motor neuron and all the muscle cells that it stimulates are referred to as a motor end plate.
(TRUE OR FALSE)

False

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Muscle that opposes and reverses the action of another muscle.

Antagonist

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Muscle that stabilizes the origin of another muscle

Fixator

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Muscle that is primarily responsible for bring about a particular movement

Agonist

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Muscle that aids another by promoting the same movement

Synergist

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What is a muscle that provides the major force for producing a specific movement called?

an agonist (prime mover)

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Muscles that help maintain upright posture are fixators.
(TRUE OR FALSE)

True

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When the term biceps, triceps, or quadriceps forms part of a muscle’s name, what does it tell you about the muscle?

The muscle has two, three, or four origins, respectively.

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The sternocleidomastoid muscle inserts on the ________

mastoid process of the temporal bone

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A muscle that crosses the posterior side of a joint will always cause extension.
(TRUE OR FALSE)

False

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What is #1?

Elevates and adducts scapula

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What is #2?

Rotates scapula

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What is #3?

Trapezius muscle

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What is #4?

Rhomboid minor and major

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What is #5?

Teres major muscle

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What is #6?

Latissimus dorsi muscle

Powerful flexor and adductor of hand.

Flexor Carpi Ulnaris

Flexes distal interphalangeal joints.

Flexor digitorum profundus

Stabilizes the wrist during finger extension

Flexor Carpi Ulnaris

Extends and abducts the hand

Extensor Carpi Radialis Brevis

Tenses skin and fascia of palm during hand movements.

Palmer’s Longus

What muscle is primarily responsible for preventing foot drop?

tibialis anterior

Which of the following is NOT a muscle primarily involved in the breathing process?
A )internal intercostal
B) diaphragm
C) external intercostal
D) latissimus dorsi

The most powerful muscle in the body is the _______

quadriceps femoris

Which of the following describes the suprahyoid muscles?
A) They are a group of muscles that lie superior to the hyoid bone and help form the floor of the oral cavity.
B) They are often called strap muscles.
C) They depress the larynx and hyoid bone if the mandible is fixed.
D) They move the pharynx superiorly during swallowing.

The supraspinatus is named for its location on the posterior aspect of the scapula above the spine. What is its action?

to initiate abduction of the arm, to stabilize the shoulder joint and to help prevent downward dislocation of the humerus

Which of the following muscles is NOT a rotator cuff muscle?
A) levator scapulae
B) supraspinatus
C) subscapularis
D) teres minor

Which of the following muscles is involved in producing horizontal wrinkles in the forehead?
A) the medial pterygoid
B) the temporalis
C) the zygomaticus major
D) the frontal belly of the epicranius

At the grocery store a cute, little curly-haired child is standing behind you in line. You turn around for a moment and she sticks her tongue out at you. Which tongue muscle did she use?

genioglossus

Which of these is the function of the external oblique muscles?
A) flex vertebral column and compress abdominal wall
B) extend vertebral column and head and rotates them to opposite sides
C) pull ribs toward one another to elevate the rib cage
D) elevate and adduct scapula in synergy with superior fibers of trapezius

Which of the following muscles is involved in crossing one leg over the other to produce the cross-legged position?
A) the quadriceps femoris
B) the sartorius
C) the gastrocnemius
D) all of the hamstrings

Which of the following muscles inserts to the posterior calcaneus via the calcaneal tendon?
A) the sartorius
B) the gastrocnemius
C) the semitendinosus
D) the tibialis anterior

Which of the following muscles fixes and stabilizes the pelvis during walking?
A) external oblique
B) internal oblique
C) transversus abdominis
D) rectus abdominis

Which of the following is NOT a member of the hamstrings?
A) semitendinosus
B) gracilis
C) biceps femoris
D) semimembranosus

A nursing infant develops a powerful sucking muscle that inserts to the muscle which adults also use for whistling (orbicularis oris). What is this muscle called?

buccinator

Which of the following muscles is used to form a smile?
A) orbicularis oris
B) mentalis
C) zygomaticus major
D) corrugator supercilli

Which of the following best describes the orbicularis oris?
A) It pulls the lower lip down and back.
B) It closes the eye.
C) It closes, purses, and protrudes the lips.
D) It draws the eyebrows together.

Which muscle group is involved when a “pulled groin” occurs?

thigh adductors

Tennis players often complain about pain in the arm (forearm) that swings the racquet. What muscle is usually strained under these conditions?

the brachioradialis

Which muscle(s) is (are) contracted to exhale forcibly?

internal intercostals and rectus abdominus

Paralysis of which of the following would make an individual unable to flex the thigh?
A) biceps femoris
B) vastus medialis
C) iliopsoas and rectus femoris
D) soleus

What do the genioglossus, hyoglossus, and styloglossus muscles have in common?

All act on the tongue

Which of the following muscles is a flexor of the thigh at the hip?
A) adductor magnus
B) vastus lateralis
C) gluteus maximus
D) tibialis posterior

Which of the following muscles is involved in inversion at the ankle joint?
A) tibialis anterior
B) fibularis (peroneus) longus
C) extensor digitorum longus
D) fibularis (peroneus) tertius

Which of the following muscles serves as a common intramuscular injection site, particularly in infants as the buttocks and arm muscles are poorly developed?
A) the vastus intermedius
B) the vastus medialis
C) rectus femoris
D) the vastus lateralis

Paralysis of which of the following muscles would make an individual unable to flex the knee?
A) gluteal muscles
B) brachioradialis
C) soleus
D) hamstring muscles

Which of the following muscles does NOT act in plantar flexion?
A) popliteus
B) tibialis posterior
C) flexor digitorum longus
D) gastrocnemius and soleus

________ is a powerful forearm extensor at the elbow joint

Triceps brachii

The ________ is known as the “boxer’s muscle.”

serratus anterior

The ________ runs deep to the internal oblique.

transversus abdominis

The ________ helps keep food between the grinding surfaces of the teeth during chewing

buccinator

All of the muscles that originate from the medial epicondyle of the humerus have one of two functions. Which of the following pairs is correct?
A) wrist flexion and supination
B) wrist flexion and forearm pronation
C) forearm flexion and wrist flexion
D) wrist extension and forearm supination

Which of the following statements is FALSE?
A) The medial hamstrings promote medial knee (leg) rotation.
B) The hamstrings are fleshy muscles of the posterior thigh.
C) The hamstrings cross the hip and knee joints.
D) The hamstrings are prime movers of hip (thigh) flexion and knee (leg) flexion.

The anterior compartment of the thigh is involved in lower leg extension.
(TRUE OR FALSE)

True

Which rotator cuff muscle is correctly paired with its action?
A) teres minor; adduction
B) supraspinatus; lateral rotation
C) infraspinatus; abduction
D) subscapularis; medial rotation

Which of the following is incorrectly paired?
A) deltoid; arm abduction
B) pectoralis major; arm abduction
C) trapezius; stabilizes, elevates, retracts, and rotates scapula
D) latissimus dorsi; arm extension, arm adduction, and medial arm rotation

Which of the following is a hamstring muscle?
A) vastus medialis
B) vastus lateralis
C) rectus femoris
D) biceps femoris

Where are the origins for most of the muscles that control movement of the fingers?

the forearm

Which of the following is not a rotator cuff muscle?
A) supraspinatus
B) infraspinatus
C) teres major
D) subscapularis

Which of the following muscles does the phrenic nerve innervate?
A) the diaphragm
B) the external intercostals
C) the sternocleidomastoid muscles
D) the internal intercostals

Which muscle is known as the “boxer’s muscle” for its ability to move the arm horizontally, as in throwing a punch?

Which muscle provides a guide to the position of the radial artery at the wrist for taking the pulse?

Which of the following letters represents the sartorius muscle?
A
B
C
D

Identify the extensor digitorum longus muscle.

What is #1?

Trapezius

What is #2?

Deltoid

What is #3?

Triceps Brachii

What is #4?

Biceps Brachii

What is #5?

Pronator Teres

What is #6?

Brachioradialis

What is #1?

Sternohyoid

What is #2?

Platysma

What is #3?

Pectoralis major

What is #4?

Sternocleidomastoid

What is #5?

Pectoralis minor

What is #6?

Intercostals

What is #7?

Serratus Anterior

What is #1?

External Oblique

What is #2?

Rectus abdominis

What is #3?

Transverse abdominis

What is #4?

Internal oblique

What is #5?

Tensor fasciae latae

What is #6?

Sartorius

What is #7?

Adductor Longus

What is #8?

Gracilis

What is #1?

Rectus Femoris

What is #2?

Vastus Lateralis

What is #3?

Vastus medialis

What is #4?

Fibularis longus

What is #5?

Gastrocnemius

What is #6?

Tibialis anterior

What is #7?

Soleus

What is #1?

Triceps brachii

What is #2?

Brachialis

What is #3?

Brachioradialis

What is #4?

Extensor carpiradialis longus

What is #5?

Extensor digitorum

What is #6?

Flexor carpi ulnaris

What is #7?

Extensor carpi ulnaris

What is #1?

Gastrocnemius

What is #2?

Soleus

What is #3?

Fibularis longus

What is #4?

Calcaneal tendon

What is #5?

Adductor magnus

What is #6?

Biceps femoris

What is #7?

Semitendinosus

What is #8?

Semimembranosus

What is #1?

Levator scapulae

What is #2?

Rhomboid minor

What is #3?

Rhomboid major

What is #4?

Epicranius occipital belly

What is #5?

Sternocleidodmastoid

What is #6?

Trapezius

What is #7?

Deltoid

What is #8?

Infraspinatus

What is #9?

Latissimus dorsi

What is #10?

Gluteus medius

What is #11?

Gluteus maximus

What is #1?

Corrugator supercili

What is #2?

Obricularis oculi

What is #3?

Zygomaticus

What is #4?

Buccinators

What is #5?

Orbicularis oris

What is #6?

Mentalis

What is #7?

Levator labii superioris

What is #8?

Risorius

What is #1?

Gluteus maximus

What is #2?

Gracilis

What is #3?

Semitendinosus

What is #4?

Gluteus Medius

What is #5?

Adductor Magnus

What is #6?

Biceps femoris

What is #7?

Semimembranosus

What is #1?

Gastrocnemius

What is #2?

Fibularis longus

What is #3?

Fibularis brevis

What is #4?

Flexor hallucis longus

What is #5?

Soleus

What is #6?

Extensor digitorum longus

What is #7?

Tibalis anterior

What is #8?

Fibularis tertius

To allow for flexion, the __________ unlocks the knee joint

popliteus

To keep the humeral head centered within the glenoidal cavity the rotator cuff muscles must be __________

located in the same plane

The location of the rotator cuff muscles in relation to the glenohumoral joint minimizes the upward pressure against the __________

acromion of the scapula

The action that moves the scapula towards the head is called __________

elevation

Which movement results after the contraction of the serratus anterior muscle?

scapular protraction and rotation

Which movement is not associated with the scapula?

opposition

The muscles that extend the forearm are located __________

posteriorly

Which of the following statements about muscles of the elbow joint is true?
A) The brachioradialis originates and inserts on the ulna.
B) The biceps brachii has two heads that share the same origin site.
C) The biceps brachii is a posterior extensor.
D) None of these statements is correct.

The two heads of the biceps brachii muscle come together distally to insert on the __________

radial tuberosity

The smallest of the posterior extensors of the elbow joint is the __________

anconeus

The origin of the long head of the triceps brachii is on the __________

infraglenoid tubercle of the scapula

Which of the following statements about muscles of the forearm is true?
A) The pronator teres originates on the medial epicondyle and inserts on the radius.
B) The pronator quadratus originates on the radius and inserts on the ulna.
C) Contraction of the pronator quadratus and the supinator results in forearm pronation.
D) The pronator quadratus is a two-headed muscle.

Forearm supination is assisted by the __________

biceps brachii

An origin of the supinator is the _________

lateral epicondyl of the humerus

The pectoral girdle consists of the __________

clavicle and scapula

The primary function of the pectoral girdle is to __________

act as an attachment site for muscles that move the arm

The rhomboideus minor muscle originates on which process on the vertebrae?

Spinous process

The four muscles that comprise the posterior group of the pectoral girdle are the __________

levator scapulae, rhomboideus minor, rhomboideus major, and trapezius

Which of the following is not true of the deep fascia of the leg?
A) prevents excess swelling of the muscles
B) separates anterior and posterior muscles
C) an insertion for the majority of lower leg muscles
D) aids in venous return

an insertion for the majority of lower leg muscles

The ball and socket joint in the hip is similar to the ball and socket joint of the shoulder but is designed more for __________ than __________

power; precision

The hamstring muscles originate on the _________

ischial tuberosity

The extensor muscle that branches to form four tendons on the back of the hand is the _________

extensor digitorum

The deep posterior extensor of the wrist and fingers _________

controls the thumb and index finger

Which deep posterior extensor of the wrist originates on the radius and ulna and interosseous membrane?

the abductor pollicis longus

The flexor hallucis longus muscle originates on the _________

interosseous membrane

The soleus and the gastrocnemius share an insertion on the __________

calcaneus

The lateral rotators act on the _________

femur

The piriformis originates on the __________ and inserts on the ____

sacrum; greater trochanter of the femur

The insertions of the semispinatus capitus are on the __________

occipital bone

The semitendinosus muscle lies ______________ to the semimembranosus muscle

posterior

The semitendinosus muscle is innervated by the __________ nerve

tibial

The teres major adducts the arm but does not __________ the arm

abduct

The insertion of the teres minor is on the _________

greater tubercle of the humerus

The tibialis anterior muscle dorsiflexes the foot at the ankle and also assists in __________ of the foot

inversion

The tibialis posterior muscle originates at which three locations?

tibia, fibula, and interosseous membrane

The transversus abdominus muscle is innervated by the __________

intercostals nerves

The trapezius muscle may be separated into all of the following groups, except ________

lateral

All fibers of the trapezius muscle are innervated by the _________

spinal accessory nerve

All fibers of the triceps brachii are innervated by the ________

radial nerve

The vastus intermedius __________ the leg at the knee

extends

The vastus lateralis is innervated by the _________

femoral nerve

The origin that the vastus medialis muscle shares with the vastus lateralis is the _________

linea aspera of the femor

What is #1?

lateral ventricle

What is #2?

Third ventricle

What is #3?

Interventricular foramen

What is #4?

Fourth Ventricle

What is #5?

Cerebral Aqueduct

What is #6?

Median aperture

What is #7?

Lateral Aperture

What is #1?

Lateral ventricle

What is #2?

Septum pellucidum

What is #3?

Interventricular foramen

What is #4?

Third ventricle

What is #5?

Cerebral aqueduct

What is #6?

Cerebral aqueduct

What is #7?

Central Canal

What is #8?

Fourth ventricle

What is #1?

Corpus Callosum

What is #2?

Thalamus

What is #3?

Hypothalamus

What is #4?

Pons

What is #5?

Medulla oblongata

Region A represents which of the following?

Prefrontal cortex
Broca’s area
Primary motor cortex
Primary somatosensory cortex

Prefrontal cortex

Which of the following is the best description of the function of region B?

Region B contains neurons receiving somatosensory input from the thalamus
Region B includes neurons whose axons carry motor commands from the cerebrum
Region B coordinates the movement of several muscle groups into complex tasks
Region B is responsible for learning, working memory, judgement, reasoning, persistence, and planning