Exam 3 Flashcards

1
Q

Erythrocytes have what two unique properties:

A
  1. Biconcave shape
  2. Capacity to be reversibly deformed
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2
Q

Biconcave shape increases… on RBCs

A

Surface area

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3
Q

RBCs that have abnormal shapes

A

Poikilocytosis

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4
Q

RBCs that have abnormal sizes

A

Aniscocytosis

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5
Q

What is poikilocytosis

A

RBCs have abnormal shapes

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6
Q

What is anisocytosis

A

RBCs have abnormal sizes

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7
Q

Biconcave shape of RBCs allows for better…

A

Gas exchange

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8
Q

RBCs with their reversible deformity allow for

A

Diffusion of oxygen and squeezing through the capillaries

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9
Q

What type of anemia
RBCs are abnormally large and not fully developed

A

Megaloblastic anemia

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10
Q

What type of anemia RBCs
Bone marrow produces fewer cells and sometimes they die before 120 day lifespan

A

Megaloblastic anemia

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11
Q

Pernicious anemia is an example of what type of anemia

A

Megaloblastic anemia

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12
Q

What is the main disorder in pernicious anemia

A

Absence of intrinsic factor

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13
Q

What vitamin is deficient in pernicious anemia

A

Vitamin B12

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14
Q

A glycoprotein produced in the stomach that binds with vitamin B12 so that it can be absorbed in the intestines

A

Intrinsic factor

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15
Q

If the stomach doesn’t produce enough IF what happens?

A

The intestines can’t properly absorb vitamin B12
Leads to vitamin B12 deficiency

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16
Q

What doesn’t mature properly in RBCs in pernicious anemia?

A

The nucleus

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17
Q

In PA RBCs
Three characteristics
A

A

Wrong shape
Wrong size
Die more quickly

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18
Q

Mechanism by which medications cause pernicious anemia

A

Some medications block IF or stop it from working properly

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19
Q

Older adult presentation of pernicious anemia

A

Neuropsychiatric disorders
Cognitive impairment
Fix with B12 shots

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20
Q

Reduction in total number of erythrocytes in circulating blood or a decrease in the quality or quantity of hemoglobin

A

Anemia

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21
Q

Anemia is either a decrease in

A

Total number of erythrocytes in circulating blood or
Decrease in quality or quantity of hemoglobin

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22
Q

Four causes of anemia

A

1) impaired erythrocyte production
2) blood loss- acute or chronic
3) increased erythrocyte destruction
4) a combination of above three factors

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23
Q

When is DNA synthesis impaired in megaloblastic anemia

A

During RBC production

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24
Q

Impaired DNA synthesis prevents what in megaloblastic anemia

A

Further nuclear division

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25
Q

Impaired DNA synthesis during RBC production prevents what
Also, leads to asynchronous maturation of what organelles

A

Prevents further nuclear division and leads to asynchronous maturation of nucleus and cytoplasm

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26
Q

Large red blood cell precursors are called what in the bone marrow?

A

Megaloblasts

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27
Q

Shape of megaloblasts

A

Oval instead of round or disc shaped

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28
Q

The actual prevalence of vitamin B12 deficiency may be higher than statistics because

A

Use of gastric acid blocking agents and
Aging of US population

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29
Q

What anemia
Characterized by abnormally small erythrocytes that contain unusually reduced amounts of hemoglobin

A

Microcytic hypochromic

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30
Q

Iron deficiency anemia is an example of which anemia

A

Microcytic hypochromic

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31
Q

How much blood loss can cause iron deficiency anemia

A

2-4 ml per day
1-2 mg of iron

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32
Q

Cause of primary IDA in females

A

Menorrhagia

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33
Q

Bleeding sources of IDA

A

Ulcers
Hiatal hernia
Esophageal varices
Cirrhosis
Hemorrhoids
Ulcerative colitis
Cancer

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34
Q

Ulcers
Hiatal hernia
Esophageal varices
Cirrhosis
Hemorrhoids
Ulcerative colitis
Cancer

A

Causes of bleeding in IDA

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35
Q

Occult bleeding source like GI cancer or other lesion can lead to which anemia

A

IDA

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36
Q

Early symptoms of IDA are…

A

Nonspecific

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37
Q

Fatigue
Heart palpitations
Weakness
Shortness of breath
Pale earlobes, palms,conjunctivae

A

Early symptoms of IDA
Nonspecific

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38
Q

Main regulator of systemic iron balance

A

Hepcidin (peptide)

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39
Q

Most common nutritional disorder of Microcytic-hypochromic anemia

A

Iron deficiency anemia

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40
Q

Example of normocytic normochromic anemia

A

Aplastic anemia

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41
Q

Three causes of aplastic anemia

A

1)an autoimmune disease against hematopoiesis
2) exposure to chemical agents
3) unknown idiopathic

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42
Q

Hematopoietic failure in aplastic anemia is characterized by what

A

Pancytopenia

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43
Q

Reduction or absence of all three blood cell types
Term for this

A

Pancytopenia

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44
Q

Failure or suppression of bone marrow to produce adequate amounts of erythrocytes leukocytes and thrombocytes causes

A

Pancytopenia in aplastic anemia

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45
Q

What anemia is characterized by hypo cellular bone marrow that has been replaced with fat

A

Aplastic anemia

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46
Q

Example of normocytic normochromic anemia

A

Aplastic anemia

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47
Q

Aplastic anemia is an example of which type of anemia

A

Normocytic normochromic

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48
Q

A group of inherited red blood cell disorders that affect hemoglobin

A

Sickle cell disease

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49
Q

Protein that carries oxygen through the body

A

Hemoglobin

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50
Q

Most prevalent type of sickle cell disease

A

Sickle cell anemia

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51
Q

Shape of red blood cells in sickle cell anemia?

A

Crescent or sickle shaped

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52
Q

What causes crescent shape of RBCs in sickle cell anemia?

A

Genetic mutation

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53
Q

Two problems caused by sickle shaped cells

A

Do not move or bed easily
Can block blood flow to the rest of the body

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54
Q

Under conditions of decreased oxygen tension and dehydration (decreased plasma volume) and cold temperatures due to vasoconstriction
What happens to hemoglobin S?

A

Stretches and elongates

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55
Q

Consequences of repeated cycles of damaged cells

A

Converted to end stage non-deformable in or stiff and irreversibly sickled cells

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56
Q

Consequence of sickled cells
3

A

Hemolytic anemia
Micro vascular obstruction
Ischemic tissue damage

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57
Q

Hemolytic anemia
Micro vascular obstruction
Ischemic tissue damage

A

These are the three reasons sickle shaped RBCs die prematurely

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58
Q

An acquired clinical syndrome characterized by widespread activation of coagulation

A

DIC

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59
Q

What condition results in the formation of fibrin clots in medium and small vessels throughout the body

A

DIC

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60
Q

Widespread activation of coagulation in DIC results in

A

Formation of fibrin clots in medium and small vessels throughout the body

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61
Q

The most common condition associated with DIC

A

Sepsis

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62
Q

Although thrombosis is generalized and widespread, patients with DIC are paradoxically at risk for

A

Hemorrhage

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63
Q

Why does hemorrhage happen in DIC?

A

Abnormally high consumption of clotting factors and platelets

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64
Q

In DIC platelet consumption exceeds what?

A

Production

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65
Q

In DIC
Platelet consumption exceeds production resulting in what

A

Thrombocytopenia

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66
Q

Platelet consumption exceeds production resulting in a thrombocytopenia in DIC that increases….

A

Bleeding

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67
Q

In DIC extensive clotting consumes clotting factors and platelets leading to

A

Widespread hemorrhage

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68
Q

A malignant lymphoma

A

Hodgkin Lymphoma

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69
Q

What disease is characterized by its progression from one group of lymph nodes to another?

A

Hodgkin lymphoma

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70
Q

Hodgkin lymphoma

A

Characterized by its progression from one group of lymph nodes to another, the development of systemic symptoms, presence of Hodgkin and Reed Sternberg Cells

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71
Q

What cells are the hallmark of HL?

A

Reed sternberg cells

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72
Q

First sign Of Hodgkin lymphoma

A

Enlarged painless lymph nodes in the neck

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73
Q

Most indicative sign of HL

A

Enlarged painless lymph nodes in the neck

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74
Q

Non Hodgkin lymphoma gene changes are usually

A

Acquired and not inherited

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75
Q

What factor is NHL associated with?

A

Occupational exposure to pesticides

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76
Q

What is common in NHL?

A

Extranodal involvement

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77
Q

What heme disease is inherited in an autosomal recessive pattern?

A

Hereditary hemochromatosis

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78
Q

What does autosomal recessive pattern

A

Both copies of the gene in each cell have mutations

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79
Q

What disease
Iron accumulates in tissues and organs (such as the liver) and disrupting function

A

Hereditary hemochromatosis

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80
Q

What is injured in HH

A

Beta islet cells leading to diabetes

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81
Q

Decreased synthesis of what is present in some forms of HH

A

Hepcidin

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82
Q

Iron absorption in the GI tract is increased or decreased in HH

A

increased

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83
Q

Common inherited iron overload disorder characterized by excessive absorption of iron

A

Hereditary hemochromatosis

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84
Q

What condition is due to a deficiency of Hepcidin or to decreased binding of Hepcidin to ferroportin?

A

Hereditary hemochromatosis

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85
Q

Genetic pattern of childhood hemophilia

A

X-linked recessive

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86
Q

Why are x linked recessive conditions more common in males?

A

Males have only one copy of the X chromosome

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87
Q

What results in the clinical manifestations of hemophilia?

A

Mutation

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88
Q

What results in the clinical manifestations of hemophilia?

A

Mutation

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89
Q

How many males are living with hemophilia

A

1,125,000

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90
Q

Hemophilia manifestations range from

A

Mild to severe disease

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91
Q

What may exposure a diagnosis of hemophilia?

A

Positive family history

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92
Q

Two most prevalent types of hemophilia

A

A and B

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93
Q

Classic hemophilia or factor VIII deficiency

A

Hemophilia A

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94
Q

Christmas disease or factor IX deficiency

A

Hemophilia B

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95
Q

Which disease results from mutations in the F8 gene which codes for factor VIII

A

Hemophilia A

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96
Q

F8 gene codes for which clotting factor

A

VIII

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97
Q

What factor is an essentialncofactor for factor IX in the coagulation cascade?

A

Factor VIII

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98
Q

What is factor VIII an essential cofactor for?

A

Cofactor IX

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99
Q

The most common hereditary disease associated with life-threatening bleeding

A

Hemophilia A

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100
Q

Results from a mutation in the F9 gene

A

Hemophilia B

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101
Q

F9 gene codes for which clotting factor?

A

IX

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102
Q

Hemophilia A and B are clinically indistinguishable because why

A

Because both factors VIII and IX function together to activate Factor X

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103
Q

Both factors VIII and IX function together to activate which factor

A

Factor X

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104
Q

The alterations or deficiencies of which coagulation factors decrease the ability to form blood clots in response to injury?

A

Factors VIII and IX

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105
Q

The decreased or ineffective blood clotting leads to
In hemophilia

A

Continuous bleeding

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106
Q

Most characteristic type of bleeding in hemophilia

A

Joint bleeding (hemarthrosis)

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107
Q

Joint bleeding in hemophilia most often affects which joints?

A

Knees
Ankles
Elbows

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108
Q

Most common childhood cancer in children and adolescents (14 years and younger)

A

Leukemias

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109
Q

Cancer of the blood forming tissues like bone marrow

A

Leukemia

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110
Q

Uncontrolled proliferation of malignant leukocytes

A

Leukemia

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111
Q

Abnormal immature white blood cells are called

A

Leukemic cells

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112
Q

Leukemic cells in leukemia do what

A

Fill bone marrow and spill into the blood

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113
Q

What happens to Leukemic cells once in the blood?

A

Spread to other organs

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114
Q

What organs can Leukemic cells spread to?
3

A

Brain
Lymph nodes
Spleen

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115
Q

A chronic relapsing proliferation immune mediated inflammatory disorder that involves the skin, scalp, and nails often accompanied by systemic comorbidities

A

Psoriasis

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116
Q

What is psoriasis mediated by?

A

Immune mediated inflammatory disorder

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117
Q

Onset of psoriasis later in life is

A

Less familial and more secondary to comorbidities

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118
Q

Comorbidities seen in later life onset psoriasis

A

Obesity
Smoking hypertension
Diabetes

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119
Q

Inflammatory cascade of psoriasis involves complex interactions between what cells

A

Macrophages
Fibroblasts
Dendritic cells
NK cells
T helper cells
Regulatory T cells

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120
Q

Inflammatory cascade of psoriasis involves complex interactions between what cells

A

Macrophages
Fibroblasts
Dendritic cells
NK cells
T helper cells
Regulatory T cells

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121
Q

What skin layers are thickened in psoriasis?

A

Dermis and epidermis

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122
Q

Three causes of thickening of dermis and epidermis in psoriasis?

A

Cellular hyperproliferation
Altered keratinocyte differentiation
Expanded dermal vasculature

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123
Q

Cellular hyperproliferation
Altered keratinocyte differentiation
Expanded dermal vasculature

A

Causes of dermis and epidermis thickening in psoriasis

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124
Q

Normal epidermal shedding time

A

14-20 days

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125
Q

Epidermal shedding time in psoriasis?

A

3-4 days

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126
Q

A multisystem inflammatory disease caused by spirochete Borreliella Burgdorferi

A

Lyme disease

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127
Q

What transmits Lyme disease?

A

Ixodes tick

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128
Q

Most frequently reported vector borne illness?

A

Lyme disease

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129
Q

Borreliella is difficult to culture why?

A

Escapes immune defenses through antigenic variation
Blocks complement mediated killing
Impedes release of antimicrobial peptides leukocyte chemotaxis and antimicrobial killing
Hides in tissue

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130
Q

How does Lyme disease spread to other tissues?

A

By entering capillary beds

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131
Q

What is bulls eye rash called?

A

Erythema migrants

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132
Q

Erythema migrans is what kind of rash
Another name for this

A

Bulls eye rash

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133
Q

Is there a vaccination for Lyme disease?

A

No

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134
Q

Is there a vaccination for Lyme disease?

A

No

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135
Q

How does Borriella escape immune defenses?
Genetic process

A

Antigenic variation

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136
Q

What does Lyme block?

A

Complement mediated killing

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137
Q

What is impeded in Lyme?

A

Release of antimicrobial peptides
Leukocytes chemotaxis
Antimicrobial killing Hides

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138
Q

Where does Lyme hide?

A

The tissue

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139
Q

How is HSV1 spread?

A

Oral secretions

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140
Q

How is HSV1 spread?

A

Oral secretions

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141
Q

Which herpes more commonly causes genital infection?

A

HSV 2

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142
Q

How is HSV2 generally spread?

A

Skin to skin mucous membrane contact during viral shedding

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143
Q

What is happening to virus when transmitted in herpes2?

A

Viral shedding

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144
Q

HSV2 risk of infection is high in which populations

A

Immunosuppressed persons or persons who have sexual contact with infected individuals

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145
Q

What is associated with significant neonatal neurological morbidity and mortality?
Which herpes virus and by what process

A

Vertical transmission in HSV2 from mother to neonate

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146
Q

HSV2 vertical transmission from mother to neonate is associated with

A

Significant neonatal neurologicnmorbidity and mortality

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147
Q

What cells does HSV infect?

A

Epithelia cells

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148
Q

Where does HSV embed?

A

Sensory nerve endings

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149
Q

How does HSV have lifelong latency?

A

By inhibiting apoptosis of target cells

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150
Q

Five causes of HSV reactivation

A

Exposure to UV light
Skin irritation
Fever
Fatigue
Stress

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151
Q

Exposure to UV light
Skin irritation
Fever
Fatigue
Stress

A

Causes of HSV reactivation

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152
Q

Herpes zoster is also known as

A

Human herpesvirus 3

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153
Q

What two conditions are caused by the same herpes virus?

A

Varicella
Herpes Zoster

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154
Q

How are varicella viruses spread?

A

Airborne droplets or direct contact with actively shedding lesions

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155
Q

How does varicella zoster virus enter body?

A

Respiratory tract
Highly infectious

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156
Q

Where does VZV virus remain latent?

A

Trigeminal and dorsal (sensory) root ganglia

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157
Q

Initial symptoms of herpes zoster?

A

Pain
Parenthesia to affected dermatome

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158
Q

Cutaneous area innervated by a single spinal nerve

A

Dermatome

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159
Q

Later symptoms of shingles

A

Vesicular eruptions and then crusting

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160
Q

What can prevent chicken pox?

A

Varicella vaccine safe and effective in children and adults

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161
Q

What age can receive shingles vaccine?

A

60 years and older to prevent shingles

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162
Q

Benign pigmented or no pigmented lesions

A

Nevi

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163
Q

Another name for moles

A

Nevi

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164
Q

What cells form melanocytic Nevi?

A

Melanocytes

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165
Q

Melanocytic Nevi causes can be either..

A

Congenital or acquired

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166
Q

Size of melanocytic Nevi can be

A

Small (<1cm)
Or large 20 cm

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167
Q

Where do cells accumulate at the early stages of Nevi development?

A

Junction of the dermis and epidermis (junctional nevi)

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168
Q

Junctional Nevi are formed at the junction of the

A

Dermis and epidermis

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169
Q

What type of lesions are junctional Nevi?

A

Macular lesions

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170
Q

Nevi
Over time cells move deeper into the

A

Dermis

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171
Q

With time, Nevi become

A

Modular and symmetric without irregular borders (compound Nevi)

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172
Q

Nodular and symmetric Nevi without irregular borders are called

A

Compound Nevi

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173
Q

Where can Nevi appear on the skin

A

Any where

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174
Q

Can Nevi vary in size?

A

Yes

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175
Q

Nevi can occur either (pattern)

A

Singly or in groups

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176
Q

What skin lesion may undergo transition to malignant melanoma

A

Nevi

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177
Q

Treatment for Nevi that are irritated by clothing or trauma or large lesions

A

Excision

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178
Q

Moles that require regular evaluation?

A

Multiple and changing

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179
Q

Why is it important for the clinician to understand the various forms of Nevi?

A

Relationship between Nevi and melanoma

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180
Q

Most Nevi never become

A

Suspicious

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181
Q

What type of Nevi need to be removed?

A

Suspicious pigmented Nevi

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182
Q

A of ABCDE rule

A

Asymmetry

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183
Q

B of ABCDE rule

A

Border irregularity

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184
Q

C of ABCDE rule

A

Color variation

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185
Q

D of ABCDE rule

A

Diameter of larger than 6 mm

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186
Q

E of ABCDE rule

A

Elevation or evolving which includes raised appearance or rapid enlargement

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187
Q

Three suspicious characteristics of Nevi

A

Bleeding or oozing
Scab formation
Ulceration

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188
Q

Bleeding or oozing
Scab formation
Ulceration
Are what

A

Suspicious characteristics of Nevi

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189
Q

A malignant tumor of the skin that originates from transformation of melanocytes

A

Cutaneous melanoma

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190
Q

Where does cutaneous melanoma originate from?

A

Transformation of melanocytes

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191
Q

Where do melanocytes arise from?

A

Neural crest tissue

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192
Q

What do melanocytes synthesize?

A

Pigment melanin

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193
Q

Where are melanocytes located?

A

Basal layer of skin

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194
Q

Where do melanocytes arise

A

Mucosal tissue and uveal tract

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195
Q

Surface epithelial tumor originating from undifferentiated basal or stem cells

A

Basal cell carcinoma

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196
Q

Presumed cause of BCC

A

UV radiation exposure

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197
Q

Arsenic in food or water thought to contribute to

A

BCC

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198
Q

Radiation therapy can lead to what skin condition

A

BCC

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199
Q

Long term immunosuppressive therapy can cause what skin condition

A

BCC

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200
Q

What type of tumor is BCC

A

Surface epithelial tumor

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201
Q

Cells in which BCC originates

A

Undifferentiated basal or stem cells

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202
Q

BCC lesion often begins as a

A

Nodule

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203
Q

How big is nodule at beginning of BCC

A

Greater than 5 mm

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204
Q

Color of BCC lesion

A

Pearly or ivory

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205
Q

Lesion is slightly elevated above skin surface and has teleangiectasis

A

BCC

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206
Q

Lesion is slightly elevated above skin surface and has teleangiectasis

A

BCC

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207
Q

Term for small blood vessels on surface

A

Teleangiectasis

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208
Q

What groups of people are significantly less likely to develop BCC?

A

Dark skin
Avoid sunlight

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209
Q

What is the protective factor experienced by dark skinned persons in BCC?

A

Basal cells contain more pigment melanin

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210
Q

A protective factor against the sun in basal cells

A

Melanin pigment

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211
Q

Why is metastatic spread rare in BCC?

A

Tumors don’t invade blood or lymph vessels

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212
Q

Why is metastatic spread rare in BCC?

A

Tumors don’t invade blood or lymph vessels

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213
Q

A benign proliferation of cutaneous basal cells that produces flat or slightly elevated lesions that may be smooth or warty in appearance

A

Seborrheic keratosis

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214
Q

What cells benign proliferate in seborrheic keratosis?

A

Cutaneous basal cells

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215
Q

Appearance of seborrheic keratosis lesions

A

Flat or slightly elevated that may be smooth or warty in appearance

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216
Q

The pathogenesis of seborrheic keratosis is

A

Unknown

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217
Q

Benign tumors of seborrheic keratosis are usually seen in people aged

A

Over 50
Can also appear in young adults

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218
Q

Grouping of seborrheic keratosis lesions

A

Singularly or in multiples

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219
Q

Where do SK lesions occur?

A

Chest
Back
Face

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220
Q

Colors of SK lesions

A

Tan to waxy yellow
Flesh colored
Dark brown to black

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221
Q

Size of SK lesion

A

Few millimeters to several centimeters

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222
Q

Oval and greasy appearing lesions seen in

A

SK

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223
Q

Hyperkeratotic scaly stuck on appearance lesions seen in

A

SK

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224
Q

Three treatment options for SK

A

Cryotherapy with liquid nitrogen
Shave excision
Laser therapy

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225
Q

Liquid nitrogen is treatment option for what seem condition

A

SK

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226
Q

Shave excision is a treatment option for what derm condition

A

SK

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227
Q

Laser therapy can treat what skin condition

A

SK

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228
Q

Pilosebaceous units are also known as

A

Sebaceous follicles

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229
Q

Where does acne develop?

A

Sebaceous follicles

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230
Q

Sebaceous follicles are also called

A

Pilosebaceous units

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231
Q

Two androgens that are secreted increasingly in puberty

A

Dehydroepiandrosterone sulfate
Testosterone

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232
Q

Sebaceous gland size and productivity are increased by what during puberty?

A

Androgens

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233
Q

Androgens promote the formation of what

A

Comedone

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234
Q

Production of what is altered in acne?

A

Sebum

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235
Q

Organism of follicular proliferation in acne

A

cutibacterium acnes

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236
Q

Anaerobic bacterium of acne

A

Cutibacterium acnes

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237
Q

C acnes strains shift from being what to what

A

Symbiotic to pathogenic strain of bacterium

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238
Q

Ruptured comedones trigger what in acne

A

Inflammatory mediators

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239
Q

Another name for atopic eczema

A

Atopic dermatitis

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240
Q

What is the most common cause of eczema in children?

A

Atopic dermatitis

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241
Q

When does AD usually first appear

A

2-6 months

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242
Q

Most cases of AD develop when

A

During the first five years of life
Can affect any ages

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243
Q

Chronic relapsing form of pruritic eczema

A

Atopic dermatitis

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244
Q

AD involves an interplay of

A

Genetic predisposition

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245
Q

Atopic comorbidities
3

A

Asthma
Allergic rhinitis
Food allergies

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246
Q

What allergies are well recognized in patients with AD

A

Food allergies

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247
Q

What immunoglobulin is increased in AD

A

IGE

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248
Q

What WBC type is increased in AD

A

Eosinophils

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249
Q

Positive skin test results to a variety of common food and inhalant allergens are seen in what Dx

A

AD

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250
Q

The most common bacterial skin infection in children 2-5 years of age

A

Impetigo

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251
Q

Highly contagious skin infection (bacterial) in kids

A

Impetigo

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252
Q

What is the most common organism of impetigo

A

S aureus

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253
Q

Less common organism of impetigo

A

Strep pyogenes

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254
Q

Impetigo mode of transmission

A

Direct and indirect contact

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255
Q

What do staph produce in impetigo?

A

Bacterial toxins

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256
Q

Another name for bacterial toxins produced by staph in impetigo

A

Exfoliative toxins

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257
Q

What do exfoliative toxins disrupt in impetigo?

A

Disruption in skin barrier with blister formation

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258
Q

Disruption in skin barrier with blister formation are caused by what produced by staph

A

Exfoliative toxins

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259
Q

A benign self limiting skin disease

A

Molloscum contaigiosum

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260
Q

What type of organism causes molluscum?

A

A pox virus

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261
Q

Three ways MC can spread

A

Person to person direct contact
Autoinoculation
Contaminated fomites

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262
Q

Two primary mechanisms that cause significantly elevated or depressed hormones

A

Inappropriate amounts of hormone delivered to the target cell
Inappropriate responses by target cell

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263
Q

Failure of feedback systems designed to control hormone release leads to

A

Inappropriate amounts of hormone delivered

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264
Q

Disorders of the endocrine glands causing them to synthesize too little or too much hormone is a cause of

A

Inappropriate amounts of hormone delivered

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265
Q

Dysfunctional or ectopically produced hormones can lead to

A

Inappropriate amounts of hormone delivered

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266
Q

Defects in the delivery of the hormone in the blood stream can lead to

A

Inappropriate amounts of hormone delivered

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267
Q

When is ADH released?

A

When not enough fluid in the body

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268
Q

What condition results from insufficient ADH?

A

Diabetes insipidus

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269
Q

In this condition, not enough ADH
Body cannot hold onto water and excretes

A

DI

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270
Q

Polyuria or oliguria in DI

A

Polyuria (massive amounts)

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271
Q

Hypervolemia or hypovolemia in DI

A

Hypovolemia volume depletion

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272
Q

What symptom in DI is caused by hypovolemia?

A

THIRST
POLYDIPSIA

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273
Q

What symptom in DI is caused by hypovolemia?

A

THIRST
POLYDIPSIA

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274
Q

A condition associated with traumatic brain injuries

A

Neurogenic diabetes insipidus

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275
Q

Condition characterized by insufficient ADH activity

A

Polyuria
POLYDIPSIA

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276
Q

Patients with this condition have a partial to total inability to to concentrate urine

A

DI

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277
Q

What causes excretion of large volumes of dilute urine in DI

A

insufficient ADH activity

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278
Q

Hyper or hypo natremia in DI

A

Hyper natremia

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279
Q

Mucotaneous lymph node syndrome AKA

A

Kawasaki disease

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280
Q

Acute systemic vasculitis
What disease

A

Kawasaki disease

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281
Q

Kawasaki disease may result in these two conditions

A

Myocarditis
Coronary artery aneurysms

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282
Q

Leading cause of acquired heart disease among children in the US

A

Kawasaki disease

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283
Q

Cause of KD?

A

Remains unknown

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284
Q

Cause of this may be a normal immunologic response to an infectious, toxic, or antigenic substance

A

KD

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285
Q

What disease may be caused by an abnormal immune response to a common stimulus?

A

KD

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286
Q

What immune responses occur in KD?

A

Innate
Adaptive

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287
Q

What cells of immune system infiltrate vessel walls in KD?
Think LMN

A

Neutrophils
Macrophages
Lymphocytes

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288
Q

What two things are increased in immune response to KD?

A

Inflammatory cytokines
Antibodies

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289
Q

What parts of vasculature are inflamed in KD?

A

Small capillaries
Arterioles
Venules

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290
Q

Acute myocarditis is a complication of what disease?

A

KD

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291
Q

Necrotizing arteritis occurs in what disease?

A

KD

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292
Q

Aneurysm development associated with necrotizing arteritis occurs in what disease?

A

KD

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293
Q

HHNKS stands for

A

Hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome

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294
Q

Another name for HHNKS is

A

HHS
Hyperglycemic hyperosmolar state

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295
Q

Life threatening emergency precipitated by infections
Medications
Nonadherance to diabetes treatment
Coexisting disease

A

HHNKS

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296
Q

HHNKS more commonly seen with which type of diabetes?

A

Type 2

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297
Q

Why isn’t there keyosis in HHNKS?

A

Still producing some insulin

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298
Q

Disease in capillaries with diabetes is called

A

Microvascular disease

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299
Q

Retinopathy with potential lead to blindness caused by what type of diabetes complication?

A

Microvascular

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300
Q

End stage kidney failure in diabetes caused by what diabetes complication?

A

Microvascular

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301
Q

Neuropathies result from what diabetes complication?

A

Microvascular

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302
Q

Thickening of the capillary basement membrane
Endothelial cell hhperplasia
Thrombosis
Seen in what diabetes complication?

A

Microvascular disease

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303
Q

Thickening of the capillary basement membrane in Microvascular disease eventually leads to

A

Decreased tissue perfusion

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304
Q

Decreased tissue perfusion in diabetic Microvascular disease is caused by

A

Thickening of the capillary basement membrane

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305
Q

Lesions in medium and large sized arteries caused by diabetes

A

Macrovascular disease

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306
Q

Macrovascular disease in diabetes increases what two metrics

A

Increased morbidity and mortality

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307
Q

What three things have accelerated risk in diabetic Macrovascular disease?

A

Atherosclerosis
MI
Stroke

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308
Q

Diabetic patients have a higher /lower mortality during acute phase of MIs than non diabetic patients

A

Higher

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309
Q

Why do diabetic patients have higher mortality during acute phase of MI

A

They are often asymptomatic as a result of sensory and autonomic neuropathy

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310
Q

Why do diabetic patients have higher mortality during acute phase of MI

A

They are often asymptomatic as a result of sensory and autonomic neuropathy

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311
Q

What two neuropathies make diabetics asymptomatic during acute phase of MI?

A

Sensory and autonomic neuropathy

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312
Q

What type of complications justify need for diabetes screening and monitoring of A1C

A

Macrovascular

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313
Q

Glycated hemoglobin determines glucose control over how long

A

3-4 months

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314
Q

What synthesis is inadequate in Addison disease
Two things

A

Inadequate corticosteroid and mineralocorticoid synthesis

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315
Q

Elevated ACTH levels are seen in what disease

A

Addison disease

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316
Q

Hypocortisolism and hypoaldosteronism are seen in what disease

A

Addison disease

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317
Q

What organ does aldosterone primarily act on?

A

Kidney

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318
Q

What is aldosterone’s effect on the kidney?

A

Sodium and water reabsorption and potassium excretion

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319
Q

If not enough aldosterone… hyper or hypo kalemia?

A

Hyperkalemia

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320
Q

Why does aldosterone deficiency cause hyperkalemia?

A

Too much potassium because not enough aldosterone to excrete

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321
Q

Hyper or hypo volemia in Addison disease

A

Hypovolemia

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322
Q

What causes hypovolemia in Addison disease?

A

Not enough aldosterone
(Water follows sodium and without enough aldosterone, cannot hang on to sodium so excreting sodium and water)

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323
Q

A general term referring to ALL clinical manifestations related to excessive exposure to cortisol

A

Cushing syndrome

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324
Q

Cushing like syndrome may develop as a side effect of long term pharmacological administration of glucocorticoids

A

Exogenous Cushing like syndrome may develop

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325
Q

Patho of Cushing syndrome is opposite of what disease

A

Addison disease

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326
Q

Hyper or hyponatremia in Cushing syndrome

A

Hypermatremia

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327
Q

Hyper or hypoglycemia in Cushing syndrome

A

Hyperglycemia

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328
Q

Hyper or hypo kalemia in Cushing syndrome

A

Hypokalemia

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329
Q

What three places does weight gain occur in Cushing syndrome

A

Truncal central obesity
Moon face
Buffalo hump

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330
Q

What causes glucose intolerance in Cushing syndrome?

A

Cortisol induced insulin resistance

331
Q

Increased gluconeogenesis in Cushing syndrome causes

A

Glucose intolerance

332
Q

Cortisol induced insulin resistance and increased gluconeogenesis and glycogen storage by the liver causes what in Cushing syndrome

A

Glucose intolerance

333
Q

The catabolic effects of cortisol on peripheral tissues causes what in Cushing syndrome

A

Protein wasting

334
Q

Muscle wasting in Cushing syndrome leads to what symptom

A

Muscle weakness

335
Q

Where is muscle wasting most prominent in Cushing syndrome

A

In the extremities with thinning of the limbs

336
Q

Loss of what leads to thin, weakened integumentary tissues in Cushing syndrome

A

Loss of collagen

337
Q

Purple striae and easy bruising in Cushing disease caused by loss of

A

Collagen

338
Q

Very rare disease that returns to the clinical manifestations resulting from chronic exposure to excess endogenous cortisol

A

Cushing disease

339
Q

Cushing disease is more common in men or women

A

More common in women

340
Q

What disease
Refers to excessive exposure endogenous secretion of ACTH (corticotropin)

A

Cushing disease

341
Q

What is the term for several days of total dietary abstinence or deprivation

A

Short term starvation

342
Q

What is another term for short term starvation

A

Extended fasting

343
Q

In short term starvation the body responds with mechanisms to protect what

A

Protein mass

344
Q

How long after a meal is body in a well fed state

A

4-6 hours

345
Q

When body is in a well fed state what supplies its energy requirements

A

Glucose from recently ingested carbohydrates

346
Q

The splitting of glycogen into glucose is called

A

Glycogenolysis

347
Q

Glycogen in the liver is converted to glucose by what process

A

Glycogenolysis

348
Q

Once all available energy has been absorbed from the intestine, what gets converted to glucose

A

Glycogen

349
Q

What condition begins after several days of dietary abstinence

A

Long term starvation

350
Q

What eventually causes death from proteolysis?

A

Long term starvation

351
Q

Persistent restriction of energy intake leading to significantly low body weight

A

Anorexia nervosa

352
Q

What four considerations determine context of body weight

A

What is minimally expected for
Age
Sex
Developmental trajectory
Physical health

353
Q

Anorexia causes disturbances in the way what two things are experienced

A

Body weight
Body shape

354
Q

In anorexia there is an undue influence of body shape and weight on what

A

Self evaluation

355
Q

In anorexia there is a persistent lack of what regarding the current low body weight

A

Recognition of the seriousness of

356
Q

Recurrent episodes of binge eating occur in what condition

A

Bulimia

357
Q

What is the frequency and duration of binge eating and inappropriate compensatory mechanisms in bulimia

A

At least once a week for 3 months

358
Q

An episode of binge eating is characterized by what two things

A

Recurrent inappropriate compensatory behavior to prevent weight gain
Binge eating and inappropriate compensatory behaviors both occur on average at least once a week for 3 months

359
Q

What are examples of compensatory behaviors to prevent weight gain in bulimia

A

Self induced vomiting
Misuse of medication
Fasting or excessive exercise

360
Q

What medications are misused in bulimia

A

Laxatives
Diuretics

361
Q

What disorder is associated with eating large amounts of food when not physically hungry

A

Binge eating disorder

362
Q

Eating disorder NOT associated with recurrent use of inappropriate compensatory behaviors

A

Binge eating disorder

363
Q

Three or more of these characteristics must occur to diagnose binge eating episodes in binge eating disorder

A

Eating much more rapidly than normal
Eating until feeling uncomfortably full
Eating large amounts of food when not physically hungry
Eating alone because of feeling embarrassed by how much one is eating
Feeling disgusted with oneself, depressed, or very guilty afterward
Marked distress regarding binge eating is present
Binge eating occurs on average at least once a week for three months

364
Q

What condition describes a decrease in appetite or food intake in older adults

A

Anorexia of aging

365
Q

Patients that are illness free and have an adequate food supply may still experience

A

Anorexia of aging

366
Q

Anorexia of aging results from multiple … changes

A

Age related

367
Q

Examples of age related changes in anorexia of aging

A

Reduced energy needs
Waning hunger
Diminished sense of smell and taste
Decreased saliva production
Altered GI satiety control
Presence of comorbidities

368
Q

Aging is associated with increased or decreased orexigenic signals

A

Decreased

369
Q

Signals that increase food intake

A

Orexigenic signals

370
Q

Signals that decrease food intake

A

Anorexigenic signals

371
Q

Aging is associated with increased or decreased anorexigenic signal la

A

INCREASED ANOTEXIGENIC SIGNALS

372
Q

Two consequences of chronic low grade inflammation with elevated cytokines in anorexia of aging

A

Delayed gastric emptying
Decreased motility of the small intestine

373
Q

Decreased motility of what part occurs in anorexia of aging

A

Small intestine

374
Q

What happens to gastric emptying in anorexia if aging?

A

Delayed

375
Q

Functional impairments and deficiencies are risk factors for what nutritional disorder

A

Anorexia of aging

376
Q

Four examples of functional impairment associated with anorexia of aging

A

Loss of vision
Poor dentition
Dysphagia
Inability to prepare foods

377
Q

Medical and psychiatric conditions increase the risk for what nutritional disorder

A

Anorexia of aging

378
Q

Loneliness and grief are involved in what nutritional disorder

A

Anorexia of aging

379
Q

Social isolation and abuse and neglect are associated with what nutritional disorder

A

Anorexia of aging

380
Q

Medications and polypharmacy increase the risk for what nutritional disorder

A

Anorexia of aging

381
Q

Progression of the underlying causes of anorexia leads to decreased WHAT required to eat and digest food

A

Energy reserves

382
Q

Examples of two diseases that are underlying causes of anorexia of aging that increase work of breathing

A

COPD CHF

383
Q

What is a key strategy in treating patients with anorexia of aging

A

Exercise

384
Q

How does exercise help anorexia of aging?

A

Improved oral intake
Elevated mood
Build muscle and strength

385
Q

Malnutrition and physical frailty are consequences of what nutritional disorder

A

Anorexia of aging

386
Q

Malnutrition and physical frailty are consequences of what nutritional disorder

A

Anorexia of aging

387
Q

What organelle is dysfunctional in anorexia of aging

A

Mitochondrial dysfunction

388
Q

Increased oxidative stress is a consequence of what nutritional disorder

A

Anorexia of aging

389
Q

Reduced regenerative capacity is seen in what nutritional disorder

A

Anorexia of aging

390
Q

Reduced regenerative capacity is seen in what nutritional disorder

A

Anorexia of aging

391
Q

Hormonal imbalance is a consequence of what nutritional disorder

A

Anorexia of aging

392
Q

Hormonal imbalance is a consequence of what nutritional disorder

A

Anorexia of aging

393
Q

Exercise and what else are important in treating anorexia of aging

A

Nutrition

394
Q

Supportive interventions to mitigate anorexia of aging
Three

A

Improved access to food and appearance
Dental and eye care
Social stimulation

395
Q

Three nonmodifiable risk factors for CAD

A

Advanced age
Male gender or women after menopause
Family history

396
Q

Advanced age
Male gender or women after menopause
Family history
Are three examples of what

A

Nonmodifiable risks of CAD

397
Q

7 modifiable risks of CAD

A

Dyslipidemia
Hypertension
Cigarette smoking
Diabetes and insulin resistance
Obesity
Sedentary lifestyle
Atherogenic diet

398
Q

Obesity means a BMI of

A

OVER 30

399
Q

A good BMI is less than

A

25

400
Q

High levels of what are BAD (in CAD)

A

LDL

401
Q

Low levels of WHAT are BAD in CAD

A

HDL

402
Q

An increased serum concentration of what is an indicator of coronary risk

A

LDL

403
Q

Relative risk of elevated LDL depends on presence of other risk factors like

A

Age
Diabetes
CKD

404
Q

What is responsible for delivery of cholesterol to the tissues?

A

LDL

405
Q

Low levels of what are also a strong indicator of coronary risk?

A

HDL

406
Q

What is responsible for reverse cholesterol transport?

A

HDL

407
Q

Process of returning excess cholesterol from the tissues to the liver

A

Reverse cholesterol transport

408
Q

Reverse cholesterol transport moves excess cholesterol from where to where

A

From tissues to the liver

409
Q

What type of angina is relieved with the usual interventions the patient utilizes

A

Stable angina

410
Q

Stable angina is predictable or unpredictable

A

Predictable

411
Q

In unstable angina, the pain is…

A

Worse
Different

412
Q

Usual interventions don’t relieve pain in which type of angina

A

Unstable angina

413
Q

Chest pain attributable to transient ischemia of the myocardium that occurs unpredictable and often at rest

A

Vasospastic prinzmetal angina

414
Q

Prinzmetal or vasospastic angina is attributable to

A

Transient ischemia of the myocardium

415
Q

Chest pain caused by vasospasm of one or more major coronary arteries

A

Vasospastic or prinzmetal angina

416
Q

Type of angina that can occur in those with or without CAD

A

Prinzmetal angina

417
Q

Causes of vasospasm in prinzmetal angina

A

Coronary smooth muscle hyper contractions
Decreased cabal activity
Endothelial dysfunction
Magnesium deficiency
Inflammation
Oxidative stress
Hyperactivity of the SNS

418
Q

Decreased vagal activity can cause which angina

A

Vasospastic or prinzmetal angina

419
Q

What electrolyte imabalance worsens Vasospastic angina

A

Hypokalemia

420
Q

Hyper or hypo kalemia worsens symptoms and outcomes of Vasospastic angina

A

Hypokalemia

421
Q

Deficiency of what electrolyte can cause vasospasm in prinzmetal angina

A

Magnesium

422
Q

Triggers of prinzmetal angina

A

Hyperventilation
Mental stress
Smoking
Use of stimulants
Alcohol
REM sleep

423
Q

What angina is diagnosed by matching clinical manifestations with documented transient ischemic changes in ECG

A

Vasospastic angina

424
Q

How is Vasospastic angina diagnosed

A

By matching clinical manifestations with documented transient ischemic changes in ECG

425
Q

Management of Vasospastic angina involves what two things

A

Avoidance of triggers
Use of calcium channel blockers or nitrates

426
Q

What medications treat Vasospastic angina

A

Calcium channel blockers
Nitrates

427
Q

Complications (2) of Vasospastic angina

A

Dysrhythmias
Infarction

428
Q

Dysrhythmias and infarction in patients with Vasospastic angina are especially common in patients with what kind of lesions

A

Atherosclerotic coronary lesions

429
Q

An angina that is usually a benign condition

A

Vasospastic angina

430
Q

What type of angina has been reclassified under NSTEMI

A

Unstable angina

431
Q

Why has unstable angina been reclassified as NSTEMI

A

Studies found some damage to myocardium

432
Q

What type of angina signals that the atherosclerotic plaque has begun to rupture

A

Unstable angina

433
Q

What type of angina leads to transient episodes of vessel occlusions and vasoconstriction at the site of plaque damage

A

Unstable angina

434
Q

How long does thrombus occlude vessel before reperfusion iccurs in unstable angina

A

10-20 minutes

435
Q

After 10-20 minutes of thrombus occluding the vessel what occurs

A

Reperfusion

436
Q

Infarction will only involve the myocardium directly beneath the endocardium which heart attack

A

NSTEMI

437
Q

Which heart attack
Infarction extends through the myocardium all the way from endocardium to epicardium

A

Transmural MI
STEMI

438
Q

What part of the heart muscle is affected in NSTEMI

A

Myocardium directly beneath the endocardium

439
Q

Term for the myocardium directly beneath the endocardium

A

Subendocardial MI

440
Q

Term for the myocardium directly beneath the endocardium

A

Subendocardial MI

441
Q

ST depression
T wave inversion
What is this called

A

NSTEMI

442
Q

If thrombus breaks up before complete distal tissue necrosis has occurred
Leads to which MI

A

NSTEMI

443
Q

Plaque buildup and rupture obstructs flow in a coronary artery resulting in irreversible cell death
Which heart attack Infarction extends

A

STEMI

444
Q

Term for
Infarction will extend through the myocardium from endocardium to epicardium

A

Transmural MI

445
Q

What kind of infarction causes marked elevations in ST segments on ECG

A

Transmural infarction

446
Q

Irreversible cell death caused by which MI

A

STEMI

447
Q

What is secreted after a MI in response to hemodynamic changes and contributes to pathogenesis of MI

A

Angiotensin II

448
Q

MOST IMPORTANTLY angiotensin II results in

A

Peripheral vasoconstriction

449
Q

Potential impact
Homeostatic responses are counterproductive in that they can increase myocardial work on a heart that may be struggling

A

Angiotensin II

450
Q

Acute inflammation of the pericardium

A

Acute pericarditis

451
Q

Etiology of acute pericarditis is usually

A

Idiopathic

452
Q

Viral infection
MI
Are other causes of acute

A

Pericarditis

453
Q

Most common complication of pericarditis

A

Pericardial effusion

454
Q

Accumulation of fluid in the pericardial sac

A

Pericardial effusion

455
Q

Cardiac compression

A

Cardiac tamponade

456
Q

Rapid accumulation of fluid in pericardial sac leads to

A

Cardiac tamponade

457
Q

Patho condition in which heart is unable to generate an adequate cardiac output

A

Heart failure

458
Q

Inadequate perfusion of tissues or increased diastolic filling pressure of left ventricle
Patho of what condition

A

Heart failure

459
Q

Decreased compliance of the left ventricle thus inability of the heart to achieve a normal cardiac output

A

Heart failure with reduced ejection fraction

460
Q

Heart failure with preserved EF is systolic or diastolic failure?

A

Diastolic heart failure

461
Q

Which ventricle has decreased compliance in HF with preserved EF

A

Left ventricle

462
Q

Heart failure with reduced EF is systolic or diastolic HF??

A

Systolic

463
Q

EF less than 40% and an inability of the heart to generate an adequate cardiac output due to decreased contractility

A

HF with reduced EF
systolic heart failure

464
Q

Diagnosis of what cardiac condition relies heavily on clinical signs and symptoms

A

HF

465
Q

Comprehensive history and physical exam are critical parts of what cardiac diagnosis

A

HF

466
Q

Load on the heart caused by volume of blood received into the left ventricle from the left atrium (at the end of ventricular diastole) and that it must eject with each contraction

A

Preload

467
Q

Volume of blood received into left ventricle from left atrium at the end of ventricular diastole

A

Preload

468
Q

If preload is too much the muscle fibers are what

A

Overstretched

469
Q

The resistance the heart encounters when ejecting blood to the rest of the body

A

Afterload

470
Q

Heart stretch think

A

Preload

471
Q

Heart squeeze thinks

A

Afterload

472
Q

Stroke volume is reduced by increasing

A

Afterload

473
Q

Increasing Afterload reduces

A

Stroke volume

474
Q

The strength of the heart’s muscle contraction is called

A

Contractility

475
Q

Decreased perfusion result of failure of which side of heart

A

Left heart failure

476
Q

Contractility

A

The strength of the heart’s muscle contraction

477
Q

EF less than 40% and an inability of the heart to generate an adequate cardiac output to perfuse vital tissues

A

HF with reduced EF systolic heart

478
Q

EF in heart failure with reduced EF is

A

Less than 40%

479
Q

Contractility in HF is increased or decreased

A

Decreased

480
Q

Preload in HF with rEF is
Increased or decreased

A

Increased

481
Q

HFrEF and after load is
Increased or decreased

A

Increased

482
Q

Catecholamines in HFrEF
Sympathetic nervous system initially compensates for a decrease in CO by increasing what two things

A

Heart rate
Peripheral vascular resistance (Afterload)

483
Q

Peripheral vascular resistance reflects what on heart

A

Afterload

484
Q

Increased heart rate caused by catecholamines increases the what on the heart

A

Workload

485
Q

Activation of RAAS in HF increases what measures of heart

A

PRELOAD
AFTERLOAD

486
Q

RAAS activation in HF causes direct toxicity to what type of cells

A

Myocytes

487
Q

Direct toxicity to myocytes is caused by what in Hf

A

RAAS activation

488
Q

What are the three main substances of RAAS system?

A

Renin
Angiotensin II
Aldosterone

489
Q

What type of BP activates the RAAS system

A

Low

490
Q

What type of BP activates the RAAS system

A

Low

491
Q

what two things cause RAAS activation in HF

A

Low BP
Poor renal perfusion

492
Q

RAAS activation causes increased or decreased preload

A

Increased

493
Q

RAAS activation causes increased or decreased Afterload

A

Increased

494
Q

Renin activates what to increase peripheral vascular resistance and BP (Afterload)

A

Angiotensin II

495
Q

Aldosterone causes retention of what two things

A

Sodium
Water

496
Q

Retention of sodium and water caused by what hormone

A

Aldosterone

497
Q

Aldosterone effects what heart measure by causing sodium and water retention

A

Preload

498
Q

Reduced pressure in the carotid sinus and renal afferent arteriole caused by decrease in what

A

Cardiac output

499
Q

Reduced pressure in carotid sinus and renal afferent arteriole leads to body perceiving what

A

Volume depletion

500
Q

Antidiuretic hormone in HF causes what two things

A

Peripheral vasoconstriction (Afterload)
Renal fluid retention (preload)

501
Q

Peripheral vasoconstriction effects what cardiac measure

A

Afterload

502
Q

Renal fluid retention caused by ADH affects what heart metric

A

Preload

503
Q

What hormones counteract neurohormonal processes of heart failure by improving sodium and water excretion

A

Natriuretic peptides

504
Q

Natriuretic peptides improve excretion of what two things

A

Sodium
Water

505
Q

What two type of natriuretic peptides are increased in HF

A

Atrial natriuretic peptides
B type natriuretic peptides

506
Q

What two hormones may have some protective effect in HF by decreasing preload?

A

Atrial and b type natriuretic peptides

507
Q

Compensatory mechanisms of what two hormones are inadequate in HF

A

Atrial and b type natriuretic peptides

508
Q

What hormone is produced and released in response to pressure and volume overload of the cardiac changes?

A

BNP

509
Q

What hormone inhibits myocardial fibrosis and hypertrophy and enhances diastolic function

A

BNP

510
Q

BNP enhances systolic or diastolic heart function?

A

Diastolic

511
Q

Lab value along with other signs and symptoms to determine if patient experiencing an exacerbation of HF and monitoring if other treatments are effective

A

BNP

512
Q

Common complication of many congenital heart defects in children

A

Heart failure

513
Q

Likely etiology of new onset HF in kids is determined by what

A

Age at time of diagnosis

514
Q

HF in kids that results from CHD with pulmonary over circulation causes what type of shunt in heart

A

Left to right

515
Q

Over circulation of what part of the body causes left to right shunt in HF caused by CHD

A

Pulmonary

516
Q

Large left to right shunt is common in what age group of heart failure

A

Newborns and infants

517
Q

HF in older children is most often due to what type of disorders

A

Acquired

518
Q

Viral myocarditis
Rheumatic heart disease
Autoimmune disorders
Anemia
Kawasaki disease
Hypothyroidism
Causes of what

A

Heart failure in children

519
Q

A complex condition with many contributing factors is what cardiac condition

A

HTN

520
Q

What two types of factors play a role in HTN?

A

Genetic
Environmental

521
Q

What is often asymptomatic and a silent killer

A

HTN

522
Q

What is the usual first line treatment for HTN?

A

Lifestyle changes

523
Q

Renal pressure natriuresis is impaired in what condition

A

HTN

524
Q

What type of system regulates BP by increasing the amount of sodium and water the kidneys excrete?

A

Feedback system

525
Q

Feedback system regulating blood pressure can be impaired by what two things

A

Impaired kidney function
Inappropriate activation of hormones that regulate sodium and water excretion

526
Q

Excessive activation of the SNS causes what heart condition

A

HTN

527
Q

Excessive activation of what system leads to HTN

A

SNS

528
Q

Increased systemic vascular resistance seen in what heart condition

A

HTN

529
Q

Systemic vascular resistance is increased or decreased in HTN

A

Increased

530
Q

Obesity and increased dietary salt intake contribute to what heart condition

A

HTN

531
Q

Vessel resistance abnormalities contribute to what cardiac condition

A

HTN

532
Q

Endothelial dysfunction contributes to what cardiac condition

A

HTN

533
Q

Sodium retention leads to increased retention of what

A

Water retention

534
Q

Increased sodium and water retention leads to increased

A

Blood volume

535
Q

Increased blood volume in HTN caused by what

A

Increased water and sodium retention

536
Q

Increased blood volume in HTN leads to increased what
Vicious cycle

A

Blood pressure

537
Q

Inflammation of kidney in HTN is caused by what

A

Tissue ischemia

538
Q

Tissue ischemia causes inflammation of the kidney and contributes to the dysfunction of what two anatomical renal parts

A

Glomeruli
Tubules

539
Q

Microalbuminuria is caused by what cardiac condition

A

HTN

540
Q

Protein escaping in the urine is called

A

Microalbuminuria

541
Q

Increased retinal arterial pressure and damage to the microvasculature are caused by what condition

A

HTN

542
Q

Retinopathy is seen in what cardiac condition

A

HTN

543
Q

Accelerating atherosclerosis is seen in what cardiac condition

A

HTN

544
Q

Damage to the blood vessel walls in HTN leads to what complication

A

Accelerating atherosclerosis

545
Q

Cholesterol and fats build up to form what at damaged areas

A

Plaques

546
Q

Most common form of rheumatic heart disease

A

Mitral stenosis

547
Q

What condition impairs the flow of blood from the left atrium to the left ventricle

A

Mitral stenosis

548
Q

Mitral stenosis results in incomplete emptying of what heart chamber

A

Left atrium

549
Q

Mitral stenosis leads to elevated pressure in what heart chamber?

A

Atrial pressure

550
Q

What ventricle fails with untreated mitral stenosis?

A

Right ventricular failure

551
Q

Three outcomes of untreated mitral stenosis

A

Pulmonary hypertension
Edema
Right ventricular failure

552
Q

What condition
Permits back flow of blood from left ventricle into left atrium during ventricular systole

A

Mitral regurgitation

553
Q

What phase of heart cycle impacted in mitral regurgitation?

A

Ventricular systole

554
Q

Back flow of blood is from left ventricle to what chamber in mitral regurgitation?

A

Left atrium

555
Q

Mitral valve regurgitation progression leads to failure of what heart chamber?

A

Left ventricular function may be impaired to the point of failure

556
Q

Increased atrial pressure also causes pulmonary hypertension and failure of the right ventricle
Which valve dysfunction?

A

Mitral regurgitation

557
Q

Valve dysfunction associated with connective tissue disorders such as Marian syndrome

A

Mitral regurgitation

558
Q

Resistance to blood flow from left ventricle into aorta seen in which valve dysfunction

A

Aortic stenosis

559
Q

Outflow obstruction increases pressure within the left ventricle as it tries to eject blood through the narrowed opening in which valve dysfunction

A

Aortic stenosis

560
Q

Aortic stenosis
Outflow obstruction increases pressure within which ventricle

A

Left ventricle

561
Q

Left ventricular hypertrophy is complication of which valve dysfunction

A

Aortic stenosis

562
Q

Why does left ventricular hypertrophy develop in aortic stenosis?

A

Compensate for increased workload

563
Q

Remodeling of the LV myocardium with fibrosis leads to a gradual decline in what function

A

Left ventricular function with decreased cardiac output

564
Q

Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is a complication of what valve disorder

A

Aortic stenosis

565
Q

Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
MI
Oliguria
Stroke
Heart failure
Pulmonary edema
Are complications of what cardiac condition

A

Aortic stenosis

566
Q

Atherosclerotic disease of arteries that perfuse the limbs, especially lower extremities
What disease

A

Peripheral artery disease

567
Q

Pain with ambulation is called

A

Intermittent claudication

568
Q

Pain with ambulation that subsides with rest is called

A

Intermittent claudication

569
Q

Gradually increasing obstruction to arterial blood flow causes what physical assessment finding in PAD

A

Prolonged capillary refill in toes

570
Q

Superficial veins in which blood has pooled are called

A

Varicose veins

571
Q

Trauma to which veins cause varicose veins

A

Saphenous veins

572
Q

One or more saphenous valve damages causes what

A

Varicose veins

573
Q

Sustained inadequate venous return is called what

A

Chronic venous insufficiency

574
Q

Varicose veins can progress to

A

Chronic venous insufficiency

575
Q

Hyperpigmentation of the skin of the feet and ankles is seen in

A

Cvi

576
Q

Edema of the lower extremities
Ankles and feet
Seen with what vascular condition

A

Chronic venous insufficiency

577
Q

If part of the aorta is narrowed it is hard for blood to pass through the artery
Which condition

A

Coarctation of the aorta

578
Q

A type of birth defect where part of the aorta is narrowed

A

Coarctation of aorta

579
Q

What condition causes an increase in the upper extremity blood pressure
Poor perfusion of tissues and organs

A

Coarctation of aorta
Neonate

580
Q

Upper extremity hypertension is the most important physical finding in what condition

A

Coarctation of aorta in neonate

581
Q

History of poor feeding in neonates linked with what cardiac condition

A

Coarctation of aorta

582
Q

Evidence of shock with poor perfusion seen in what condition

A

COA

583
Q

Evidence of shock with poor perfusion seen in what condition

A

COA

584
Q

What is heard when ausculatating COA in neonates linked?

A

Gallop

585
Q

What type of murmur is heard in COA?

A

Mitral regurgitation murmur

586
Q

Acidosis or alkalosis seen in COA?

A

Acidosis may be present

587
Q

COA leads to what hypertrophy?

A

Left ventricle

588
Q

Neonatal myocardium’s intolerance of the sudden increase in Afterload that occurs with the closure of the ductus arteriosus? This presentation is associated with what two things

A

Left ventricular dysfunction
Shock

589
Q

The closure of what causes a sudden increase in Afterload in COA

A

Ductus arteriosus

590
Q

High levels of ADH in the absence of normal physiologic stimuli for its release
What condition

A

SIADH

591
Q

High levels of ADH in the absence of normal physiologic stimuli for its release
What condition

A

SIADH

592
Q

SIADH is associated with ectopic secretion of ADH of several types of tumor cells
What two systems see these tumor cells

A

Pulmonary disorders
Central nervous system disorders

593
Q

SIADH is associated with ectopic secretion of ADH of several types of tumor cells
What two systems see these tumor cells

A

Pulmonary disorders
Central nervous system disorders

594
Q

Secretion of what is altered in SIADH

A

ADH

595
Q

Is ADH high or low in SIADH?

A

High

596
Q

What type of sodium imbalance is seen in SIADH?

A

Dilutional hyponatremia

597
Q

Hyper or hypovolemia in SIADH?

A

Hypervolemia

598
Q

Is urinary sodium concentration high or low in SIADH?

A

High urinary sodium concentration in SIADH

599
Q

Dilutional hyponatremia associated with Hypervolemia
High urinary sodium concentration
Weight gain
Manifestations of what condition

A

SIADH

600
Q

What three things is the thyroid responsible for?

A

Metabolism
Growth
Development

601
Q

What type of loop does thyroid hormone use?

A

Negative feedback loop

602
Q

What hormone is released when T3 and T4 decrease below normal?

A

TRH

603
Q

What hormone is released when T3 and T4 decrease below normal?

A

TRH

604
Q

TRH stands for

A

Thyrotropin releasing hormone

605
Q

TRH stimulates the pituitary gland to produce what hormone

A

Thyroid stimulating hormone

606
Q

What hormone acts on the thyroid to produce more hormones and raise the blood levels

A

TSH

607
Q

Once levels rise, the hypothalamus shuts off and stops secreting TRH which in turn inhibits the pituitary gland release of what hormone

A

TSH

608
Q

Low TSH levels usually indicate what condition

A

Hyperthyroidism

609
Q

Is TSH low or high in hyperthyroidism

A

Low

610
Q

High TSH levels usually indicate what condition

A

Hypothyroidism

611
Q

Are TSH levels low or high in hypothyroidism?

A

High

612
Q

Manifestations of lower levels of thyroid hormone are what (4)

A

Constipation
Brady cardia
Dyspnea
Lethargy

613
Q

Decreased energy metabolism in hypothyroidism results in what four manifestations

A

Constipation
Bradycardia
Dyspnea
Lethargy

614
Q

Constipation
Bradycardia
Dyspnea
Lethargy
Caused by high or low levels of thyroid hormone?

A

Low levels

615
Q

Lower levels of thyroid hormone results in increased or decreased energy metabolism?

A

Decreased energy metabolism

616
Q

Graves’ disease is what type of hypersensitivity

A

Type II

617
Q

Graves’ disease is an example of what thyroid condition

A

Hyperthyroidism

618
Q

Stimulation of the thyroid by autoantibodies directed against the TSH receptor
What condition

A

Graves Disease

619
Q

Type II hypersensitivity
Thyroid condition

A

Graves’ disease

620
Q

A disorder of pancreatic dysfunction and beta cell destruction

A

DM 1

621
Q

Beta cell destruction leads to absolute insulin deficiency
What condition

A

Type 1 DM

622
Q

Most of the time these patients aren’t obese
Which diabetes

A

Type 1

623
Q

Immune mediated diabetes is most common form of which diabetes

A

Type 1
Approximately 90%

624
Q

What is destroyed in type 1 diabetes?

A

Beta cells

625
Q

Chronic and metabolic disease characterized by defects in pancreatic insulin secretion and insulin resistance in target tissues generating a persistent state of hyperglycemia
What disease

A

Diabetes type 2

626
Q

Three risk factors for diabetes type 2

A

Obesity
Poor diet
Lack of regular exercise

627
Q

Defects in pancreatic insulin secretion seen in which diabetes

A

Type 2

628
Q

What diabetes causes a persistent state of hyperglycemia

A

Type 2

629
Q

A suboptimal response of insulin sensitive tissues to insulin
What is the term for this

A

Insulin resistance

630
Q

What are the three most insulin sensitive tissues

A

Liver
Muscle
Adipose tissue

631
Q

The most studied incretin is what

A

Glucagon like peptide 1

632
Q

Beta cell responsiveness to what hormone is reduced in both pre diabetes and type 2 diabetes

A

GLP1

633
Q

What condition is one of the most important contributors to insulin resistance and diabetes

A

Obesity

634
Q

Cytokines produced by adipose tissue

A

Adipokines

635
Q

Obesity results in increased or decreased adipokines

A

Increased

636
Q

Term for increased serum levels of leptin

A

Leptin resistance

637
Q

What does obesity do to levels of leptin?

A

Increased leptin

638
Q

Adiponectin is increased or decreased in obesity?

A

Decreased

639
Q

Free fatty acids are increased or decreased in obesity?

A

Increased

640
Q

Increased FFAs and intracellular deposits of triglycerides and cholesterol lead to what type of tissue response to insulin

A

Decreased tissue responses to insulin

641
Q

What two things do adipocytes release in obesity?

A

Adipocyte associated pro inflammatory macrophages
Inflammatory cytokines

642
Q

What two things are cytotoxic to beta cells in context of inflammation

A

Adipocyte associated pro inflammatory macrophages
Inflammatory cytokines

643
Q

Decreased insulin induced mitochondrial activity leads to what in obesity

A

Insulin resistance

644
Q

What organelle is dysfunctional in obesity relative to insulin resistance?

A

Mitochondria

645
Q

A serious complication related to a deficiency of insulin and an increase in the levels of insulin counterregulatory hormones
What condition

A

DKA

646
Q

What are the four counterregulatory hormones involved in DKA?

A

Catecholamines
Glucagon
Growth hormone
Cortisol

647
Q

DKA is much more common in which diabetes?

A

Type 1

648
Q

Why is DKA more common in type 1 diabetes?

A

Insulin is more deficient in type 1

649
Q

Why is DKA more common in type 1 diabetes?

A

Insulin is more deficient in type 1

650
Q

What three features characterize DKA?

A

Hyperglycemia
Acidosis
Ketonuria

651
Q

Insulin normally stimulates what process?

A

Lipogenesis

652
Q

Insulin normally inhibits what process?

A

Lipolysis

653
Q

How does insulin prevent fat catabolism?

A

Insulin normally stimulates lipogenesis and inhibits lipolysis

654
Q

With insulin deficiency, what process is enhanced?

A

Lipolysis

655
Q

With insulin deficiency, Lipolysis is enhanced and there is an increase in the amount of what delivered to the liver?

A

Fatty acids

656
Q

Consequence of insulin deficiency and associated Lipolysis is what process

A

Glyconeogenesis

657
Q

Glyconeogenesis contributes to what two things in DKA

A

Hyperglycemia
Production of ketone bodies

658
Q

What are the three ketone bodies in DKA?
AHA!

A

Acetoacetate
Hydroxybutyrate
Acetone

659
Q

Accumulation of ketone bodies does what to pH?

A

Drops PH

660
Q

Accumulation of ketone bodies causes a drop in ph in DKA leading to what condition?

A

Metabolic acidosis

661
Q

Hyperventilation in DKA in an attempt to compensate for the acidosis leads to what type of respirations

A

kussmaul respirations

662
Q

Postural dizziness is a symptom of what endocrine issue

A

DKA

663
Q

CNS depression is a symptom of what endocrine disorder

A

DKA

664
Q

Ketonuria is a symptom of what endocrine disorder

A

DKA

665
Q

Thirst and Polyuria are symptoms of what diabetic complication

A

DKA

666
Q

Nausea vomiting and abdominal pain are symptoms of what endocrine issue

A

DKA

667
Q

What three things are used to manage DKA?

A

Fluids
Insulin
Electrolyte replacement

668
Q

Why is hyperglycemia an issue in DKA?

A

No insulin

669
Q

Catecholamines
Cortisol
Glucagon
GH
Are counterregulatory hormones involved what condition

A

DKA

670
Q

How does skin look in DKA?

A

Flushed and dry

671
Q

Polyuria and dehydration result from what in DKA?

A

Diuretics associated with hyperglycemia

672
Q

Acidosis in DKA is caused by production of what?

A

Ketones

673
Q

Why does vomiting happen in DKA?

A

Another attempt to get rid of acid due to production of ketones

674
Q

Hormones that increase blood glucose concentration

A

Glucocorticoids

675
Q

Glucocorticoids are released under what type of conditions?

A

Stress

676
Q

Most potent naturally occurring glucocorticoid?

A

Cortisol

677
Q

Cortisol secretion is regulated primarily by the

A

Hypothalamus
Anterior pituitary gland

678
Q

Adrenicorticotropic hormone is the main regulator of what secretion

A

Cortisol

679
Q

Aldosterone is what kind of hormone

A

Mineralocorticoid

680
Q

Aldosterone conserves what electrolyte

A

Sodium

681
Q

What hormone has antagonistic effects of insulin?

A

Glucagon

682
Q

What hormone acts to increase blood glucose during fasting exercise and hypoglycemia

A

Glucagon

683
Q

Low levels of glucose and sympathetic stimulation stimulate release of what hormone

A

Glucagon

684
Q

What organ does glucagon act on?

A

Liver

685
Q

Hormones secreted from endocrine cells in the GIT in the presence of carbs proteins and fats

A

Incretin hormones

686
Q

What hormone
Control postprandial glucose levels by promoting hepatic glucose secretion and delaying gastric emptying

A

Incretin

687
Q

Synthesis of glucose from non carbohydrate sources like lactic acid and amino acids
What is this called

A

Gluconeogenesis

688
Q

Where does gluconeogenesis occur?

A

Liver and kidneys

689
Q

Breakdown of glycogen occurring in the liver when blood glucose levels drop

A

Glycogenolysis

690
Q

Peptide hormone cosecreted with insulin by beta cells in response to nutrient stimuli
What is it called

A

Amylin

691
Q

What hormone works with insulin to prevent hyperglycemia?

A

Amylin

692
Q

What hormone has antagonistic effects to insulin?

A

Glucagon

693
Q

Volume inside the ventricle at the end of diastole is called

A

Preload

694
Q

Resistance to ejection of blood from the left ventricle

A

Left ventricular Afterload

695
Q

The volume of blood ejected per beat during systole
Called what

A

Stroke volume

696
Q

Degree of myocardial fiber shortening is called what

A

Myocardial contractility

697
Q

Cardiac output is calculated by

A

Heart rate x stroke volume

698
Q

Blood pressure
Resistance to flow in vessels
Blood consistency
Anatomic features that cause turbulent flow
Compliance
These are factors that affect what

A

Blood flow

699
Q

Varicosities are most common in which anatomical veins

A

Saphenous veins

700
Q

Condition that causes pathological ischemic changes in the vascular, skin, and supporting tissues?

A

CVI

701
Q

Sustained elevation of the systemic arterial blood pressure resulting from increases in cardiac output, total peripheral resistance, or both ?

A

Hypertension

702
Q

What type of hypertension is the most significant factor in target organ damage?

A

Systolic hypertension

703
Q

Clinical manifestations of hypertension result from damage of organs and tissues located where?

A

Outside the vascular system

704
Q

An inflammatory disease that begins with the endothelial layer and progresses through several stages to become a fibrotic plaque

A

Atherosclerosis

705
Q

Spasm or occlusion of the coronary arteries that is most often the result of atherosclerotic lesions that limit flow of blood to the heart

A

CAD

706
Q

Two types of angina with reversible myocardial ischemia

A

Stable angina
Prinzmetal angina

707
Q

Chronic coronary obstruction results in recurrent oredictable chest pain called what

A

Stable angina

708
Q

Abnormal vasospasm of coronary vessels results in what type of unpredictable chest pain

A

Prinzmetal angina

709
Q

What results when there is a sudden coronary obstruction caused by thrombus formation over a ruptured organs ulcerated atherosclerotic plaque?
Name of condition

A

Acute coronary syndrome

710
Q

What type of angina is the result of reversible myocardial ischemia and is a harbinger of impending infarction?

A

Unstable angina

711
Q

What condition results when prolonged ischemia causes irreversible damage to the heart muscle?

A

Myocardial infarction

712
Q

What angina signals that the atherosclerotic plaque has ruptured and infarction may soon follow?

A

Unstable angina

713
Q

When coronary blood flow is interrupted for an extended period, necrosis of what cells occurs?

A

Myocyte

714
Q

Two major types of MI

A

Subendocardial infarction and
Transmural infarction

715
Q

Thickening of the myocardium is called

A

Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

716
Q

What condition of valves has the most common cause of
Congenital bicuspid valve, degenerative changes with aging, rheumatic fever

A

Aortic stenosis

717
Q

Left ventricular hypertrophy followed by left heart failure
Caused by which valve condition if untreated

A

Aortic stenosis

718
Q

Most common cause of mitral stenosis

A

Rheumatic heart disease

719
Q

Left atrial hypertrophy and dilation followed by left heart failure seen in which valve disorder

A

Mitral regurgitation

720
Q

An inability of the heart to supply the metabolism with adequate circulatory volume and pressure
What condition

A

Heart failure

721
Q

Left heart failure can be categorized as what two things

A

Systolic or diastolic heart failure

722
Q

What three things influence stroke volume

A

Contractility
Preload
Afterload

723
Q

What is the most common cause of decreased contractility

A

MI

724
Q

Myocardial ischemia results in what that causes progressive myocyte contractile dysfunction over time

A

Ventricular remodeling

725
Q

Left ventricular end diastolic volume is another term for what

A

Preload

726
Q

Another term for preload is

A

Left ventricular end diastolic volume

727
Q

Increased Afterload is most commonly the result of what

A

Increased peripheral vascular resistance

728
Q

Increase in peripheral vascular resistance decreases ventricular emptying and makes more workload for which part of the heart?

A

Left ventricle

729
Q

Three features of the vicious cycle in HF

A

Decreasing contractility
Increasing preload
Increasing Afterload

730
Q

Management of left heart failure involves two main things

A

Contractility
Reducing preload and Afterload

731
Q

Diseases of which gland usually cause abnormal secretion of ADH?

A

Posterior pituitary

732
Q

An excess amount of which hormone result in water retention and a hypoosmolar state

A

ADH

733
Q

Deficiency in the amount or response to ADH results in serum

A

Hyperosmolarity

734
Q

High levels of ADH in the absence of normal physiologic stimuli for its release

A

SIADH

735
Q

The patho features of SIADH are the result of what

A

Enhanced renal water retention

736
Q

Insufficiency of ADH characterizes what condition

A

DI

737
Q

DI caused insufficient secretion of ADH

A

Neurogenic or central DI

738
Q

DI caused by inadequate response of renal tubules to ADH

A

Nephrogenic DI

739
Q

Most common disorder of thyroid function

A

Hypothyroidism

740
Q

Primary hypocortisolism is also called

A

Addison disease

741
Q

A primary inability of the adrenals to produce and secrete the adrenocortical hormones
What disease

A

Addison disease

742
Q

Disease characterized by inadequate corticosteroid and mineralocorticoid synthesis and elevated ACTH (loss of negative feedback)

A

Addison

743
Q

Hormone that regulates the release of cortisol from the adrenal cortex

A

ACTH

744
Q

Major homeostatic function of what gland is to control plasma similarity through ADH

A

Posterior pituitary

745
Q

ADH leads to increased reabsorption of what

A

Water

746
Q

What hormone acts to conserve sodium

A

Aldosterone

747
Q

What hormone is produced primarily by visceral adipose tissue

A

Adiponectin

748
Q

Hereditary hemachromatosis what genetic inheritance pattern

A

Autosomal recessive

749
Q

Hereditary hemochromatosis
What genetic inheritance pattern

A

Autosomal recessive

750
Q

Reed Sternberg cells in lymph nodes are associated with what disease

A

HL

751
Q

What cardiac measure depends on the amount of blood in the ventricle

A

Preload

752
Q

Most common valvular abnormality

A

Aortic stenosis

753
Q

Condition where a valve orifice is constricted and narrowed impeding the forward flow of blood and increasing the workload of the cardiac chamber proximal to the diseased valve

A

Valvular stenosis

754
Q

Valve leaflets fail to shut completely, permitting blood flow to continue even when the valve is supposed to be closed

A

Valve regurgitation

755
Q

Condition that increases the volume of blood the heart must pump and increases the workload of the affected heart chamber

A

Valve regurgitation

756
Q

What valve dysfunction causes atrial fibrillation

A

Mitral regurgitation

757
Q

Inability of the right ventricle to provide adequate blood flow into the pulmonary circulation at a normal central venous pressure
What condition

A

Right heart failure

758
Q

Heart disease
Renal disease
CNS problems
Retinal changes

A

Clinical manifestations of hypertension

759
Q

What cells secrete intrinsic factor

A

Gastric parietal cells

760
Q

Where does vitamin B12 form complexes with intrinsic factor

A

Small intestine

761
Q

Cellular hyperproliferation seen in what derm condition

A

Psoriasis

762
Q

Altered keratinocyte differentiation seen in what skin condition

A

Psoriasis

763
Q

Need what in order to make hemoglobin?

A

IRON

764
Q

Most common nutritional disorder?

A

Iron deficiency anemia

765
Q

What is the main dietary source of B12?

A

MEAT

766
Q

Benzene exposure can lead to which anemia

A

Aplastic anemia
Normocytic normochromic

767
Q

Activation of what leads to clotting in DIC

A

Tissue factor

768
Q

Which lymphoma moves faster and further?

A

Non Hodgkin

769
Q

Hepcidin increases or decreases when iron levels are high

A

Increases

770
Q

Tissue factor is involved in extrinsic or intrinsic pathway

A

Extrinsic

771
Q

Extrinsic or intrinsic pathway impacted in hemophilia

A

Intrinsic

772
Q

Extrinsic or intrinsic pathway involved in DIC

A

Extrinsic

773
Q

What are overactivated in psoriasis

A

Interleukins

774
Q

Impetigo blisters are very

A

Fragile

775
Q

DI ACRONYM

A

Dry inside

776
Q

SIADH acronym mneumonic

A

Soaked inside

777
Q

Posterior pituitary stores hormones from what gland

A

Hypothalamus

778
Q

Insufficient ADH characterizes which endocrine disorder

A

Diabetes insipidus

779
Q

Too much ADH
Which endocrine disorder

A

SIADH

780
Q

Pulmonary disorders cause with endocrine disorder?

A

SIADH

781
Q

Dilutional hyponatremia seen in which endocrine disorder

A

SIADH

782
Q

Hypervolemia and weight gain seen in which endocrine disorder?

A

SIADH

783
Q

Anterior pituitary involved in

A

Thyroid disorders

784
Q

Hypothyroidism memory aid

A

Low and slow

785
Q

Hyperthyroidism memory aid

A

Hot and high

786
Q

Autoimmune thyroiditis causes hypo or hyperthyroid

A

Hypothyroidism

787
Q

TSH levels are low or high in hyperthyroidism

A

TSH levels are low because sensing lots of T3 T4

788
Q

High TSH levels indicate what condition because TSH keeps trying to turn on thyroid

A

Hypothyroidism

789
Q

Graves’ disease is what type of hypersensitivity

A

Type II

790
Q

Graves’ disease is hypo or hyperthyroidism

A

Hyperthyroidism

791
Q

Adipokines are increased or decreased in obesity

A

Increased

792
Q

Free fatty acids are increased or decreased in obesity

A

Increased

793
Q

Adipocytes are pro- what

A

Inflammatory

794
Q

Adipocytes are cytotoxic to what cells

A

Beta cell

795
Q

Insulin induced mitochondrial activity is increased or decreased in obesity

A

Decreased

796
Q

GLP1 is an

A

Incretin

797
Q

What activate gut brain connection

A

Incretins

798
Q

Newly diagnosed type 1 diabetic is at risk for

A

DKA

799
Q

Four hormones that increase glucose

A

Catecholamines
Cortisol
Glucagon
Growth hormone

800
Q

Diuretics is associated with hyper or hypoglycemia

A

Hyperglycemia

801
Q

Ketones are a very strong what

A

Acid

802
Q

Body produces too little cortisol and aldosterone

A

Addison disease

803
Q

Body produces too much cortisol

A

Cushing syndrome

804
Q

A’s for Addison

A

A decreased cortisol level
Adrenal gland damage (main cause)
Appearance bronzed
Appetite decreased with weight loss

805
Q

What gland secretes ADH

A

Hypothalamus

806
Q

ADH reabsorbs only what

A

Water

807
Q

What is the target organ for ADH

A

Kidney

808
Q

What effect does ADH have on vascular smooth muscle?

A

Vasoconstriction

809
Q

Does ADH raise or lower BP?

A

Raise blood pressure

810
Q

What is ADH’s one purpose in life?

A

Raise blood pressure

811
Q

ADH does what to blood volume?

A

Increase

812
Q

Lack of ADH leads to what endocrine condition?

A

Diabetes insipidus

813
Q

Neurogenic DI example

A

Traumatic brain injury

814
Q

What hormone is released when not enough fluid in body?

A

ADH

815
Q

Dry inside

A

Diabetes insipidus

816
Q

Soaked inside

A

SIADH

817
Q

Pulmonary disorders
CNS disorders
Cause which endocrine disorder

A

SIADH

818
Q

Dilutional hyponatremia seen in which endocrine disorder

A

SIADH

819
Q

What kind of system regulates thyroid hormones?

A

Negative feedback system

820
Q

Glucocorticoids raise what in the blood

A

Glucose

821
Q

Attaches to the lining of the arteries forming atherosclerotic plaque

A

LDL

822
Q

Brings cholesterol to the liver to be excreted as a constituent of bile

A

HDL

823
Q

What hormone
Causes widespread arteriolar vasoconstriction in the body and stimulates adrenal gland to release aldosterone

A

Angiotensin II