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Phys of Domestic Animals 2 > Exam 3 > Flashcards

Exam 3 Flashcards

1
Q

What does the sigmoidal curve represent

A

It shows cumulative weight is expressed as total weight at any given time

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2
Q

What does the sigmoidal curve look like

A

Shaped like the letter S and has a stair stepped appearance due to sporadic growth spurts

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3
Q

What is the self accelerating phase of growth

A

Characterized by exponential growth due to each cell dividing into two daughter cells at a constant rate resulting in rapid growth w/ little complexity

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4
Q

Why does velocity of growth continue to increase during the self accelerating phase

A

Because there are more and more cells available to divide

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5
Q

Why does the growth rate of the self accelerating phase begin to slow down

A

Because it becomes difficult to supply each cell w/ nutrients and efficiently remove harmful wastes

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6
Q

What happens when there is a decrease in efficiency during the self accelerating phase

A

There is an increase in complexity of the cells

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7
Q

How does the embryo respond during the self accelerating phase

A

By developing increasingly complex transport mechanisms to supply nutrients and removes waste

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8
Q

When does growth become linear

A

When the acceleration force is in balance w/ the counteracting effects of increased complexity and limited nutrients

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9
Q

What is the point of inflection

A

The point of maximum growth velocity after which the animal will continue growing but at a decreasing rate

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10
Q

What is another way to look at the maximum growth velocity

A

It is the period of greatest average daily gain

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11
Q

When does point of inflection occur in many species

A

Puberty

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12
Q

What is the self decelerating phase

A

When the animal approaches mature weight at a decreasing rate of growth gradually diminishing the amount of feed intake until energy consumed approaches maintenance requirements

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13
Q

What is one thing that controls the growth rate

A

Secretion of somatostatin by the hypothalamus

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14
Q

What is asymptote phase

A

Point at which food intake matches maintenance requirement

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15
Q

What does excess in cells being produced result in during the asymptote phase

A

Adipose tissue

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16
Q

What fluctuates maintenance requirements once in the asymptote phase

A

Available food, reproductive cycle, and season

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17
Q

What is the the senescence and death phase

A

The eventual failure of vital systems results in the loss of body condition and death

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18
Q

When and why does the senescence and death phase typically occur

A

After the reproductive phase of life and to ensure space for the next generation

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19
Q

What is growth a function of

A

Chronological and physiological age

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20
Q

What type of growth curves describe growth over time

A

Cumulative growth, absolute growth, relative growth

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21
Q

What factors can influence the growth curve of chronological age

A

Nutrition, disease, stress, and activity level

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22
Q

What is important to keep in mind when looking at chronological age

A

That age is in absolute time units and that animals w/in a species, breed, or gender do not grow, develop, or fatten at the same rate or mature at the same chronological age

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23
Q

What is physiological age used for

A

Comparing different animals in various species

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24
Q

What does physiological age refer to

A

Specific physical or chemical stages of maturity including height, weight, composition, and puberty

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25
Q

What is the absolute growth rate curve

A

Plots gain per unit of time against time

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26
Q

What is the formula for ADG

A

(Y2-Y1)/(t2-t1)

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27
Q

When is ADG accurate

A

If the time interval between measurements is short

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28
Q

What is the relative growth rate curve

A

Growth in relation to total weight that can be used to describe whole body or individual tissues growth

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29
Q

What is the relation to the relative growth curve and the animals age

A

Relative growth is greatest during the initial stages of development because the animal is so small but as the animal continues to grow relative growth rate decreases

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30
Q

What is the formula for RGR

A

(lnY2-lnY1)/(t2-t1)

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31
Q

What does the whole body growth curve represent

A

A sum of growth of many different tissues that develop at dramatically different rates

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32
Q

How do body components develop

A

In order of physiological importance so nerve, bone, muscle, then fat

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33
Q

What are the first things to develop

A

Extremities as development occurs from the outside in

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33
Q

What is allometric growth

A

Proportions of the animal are determined by overall body size

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34
Q

What is the formula for allometric growth

A

Y=ax^b

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35
Q

What are the basic principles of allometric growth

A

A constant relationship exists between each tissue/organ and the whole body and the b dictates the slope of the line

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36
Q

What does b>1 indicate

A

Tissue or component is growing at a faster rate than the whole and has a high growth impetus and are considered late developing tissues

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37
Q

What does b<1 indicate

A

Tissue or component is growing at a slower rate than the whole and has a low growth impetus and are considered early developing

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38
Q

What does b=1 indicate

A

Tissue or component is growing at a similar rate than the whole and has an average growth impetus aka isometric growth

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39
Q

What is the relationship between nutrition and allometric growth

A

When nutrition is limited the tissues have a different priority for nutrients based on their development and functional priority

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40
Q

What does allometric growth curves identify

A

When muscles develop

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41
Q

What are early developing muscles (b<1)

A

Distal and proximal thoracic and hind limbs

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42
Q

What are late developing muscles

A

Abdominal muscles associated with the demand of the rumen and neck to thoracic limbs associated w/ increased weight bearing duties and potential increase from secondary sex characteristics

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43
Q

What are muscles that develop at a similar rate to the rest of the body (b=1)

A

Muscles surrounding the spinal cord

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44
Q

What changes during growth

A

Tissue and chemical composition of the body

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45
Q

What are the two ways we can measure changes in tissue or chemical composition

A

Absolute basis and percent basis

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46
Q

What is absolute basis

A

Cumulative weight gain over time

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47
Q

What is percent basis

A

Proportion of the total body weight over time

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48
Q

What is absolute growth

A

Description of cumulative weight of muscle, bone, and fat over time resembling cumulative sigmoidal growth curves and the timing of each tissues maximum growth differes

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49
Q

What chemicals are bone, muscle, and fat composed of

A

Water, protein, lipid, and ash

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50
Q

What is percentage growth

A

Describes muscle, bone, and fat percentage of the whole body typically fat becomes a larger proportion of the body w/ age while muscle and bone make up a smaller proportion

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51
Q

What is the relationship of water content present in muscle w/ age

A

Water content is greatest early in life and decreases w/ age

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52
Q

What increases w/ age

A

Absolute and percentage of protein

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53
Q

What is the relationship between the water/protein content in fat cells and age

A

Water and protein content of fat cells is high early in development and decreases w/ age

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54
Q

What is the relationship between the water and protein content in bone and age

A

Water and protein content are at their highest early in development and decrease w/ age

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55
Q

how does absolute mineral and fat content change in bone w/ age

A

They increases w/ age

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56
Q

How does the absolute amount of CT change w/ age

A

It increases w/ age when associated w/ muscles and tendons

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57
Q

What are the changes seen in collagen and elastin w/ age

A

They increase significantly w/ muscle development but as a percentage it decreases w/ age

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58
Q

What happens as muscle atrophies w/ age

A

Percentage of CT increases

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59
Q

What do animals grow in accordance w/

A

The interactions between the genes they inherit and the environmental factors

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60
Q

What are environmental factors that affect growth

A

Stress, nutrition, diseases, and activity

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61
Q

What is genetics the science of

A

Heredity which is the process of passing along genes from one generation to the next

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62
Q

How do genetic differences develop

A

Through evolution which results from selection of mutations that arise in genes

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63
Q

What is heritability values reflect

A

The ability of an animal to pass a particular trait to the next generation

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64
Q

What does H> 0.5 indicate

A

A highly heritable trait

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65
Q

What does 0.2<H<0.5 indicate

A

A moderately heritable trait

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66
Q

What is H<0.2 indicate

A

A low heritable trait

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67
Q

How does growth between species vary

A

W/ the deposition of different tissues and the proportion of each body part

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68
Q

How have species been developed over time

A

Either natural selection or by man made selection for desirable trait

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69
Q

How has muscle distribution been affected by selection/domestication

A

Wild species have a greater percentage of muscle on their upper hind legs to enhance speed and agility while domesticated ruminants have greater proportion of muscles in their abdominal cavity

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70
Q

Where is there the most muscle in a pig

A

Around the spinal column extending the backbone for rooting action

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71
Q

Where is there increased muscle in ruminants

A

In the front legs to bear weight associated w/ grazing for long periods of time

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72
Q

What is species a major determinant in

A

The deposition of fat and how it accumulates w/ age

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73
Q

How have breeds devleoped

A

Animal breeders placed selection pressure on different traits w/in a species

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74
Q

How are cattle breeds selected

A

By meat and milk or frame size

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75
Q

How is the frame size of an individual animal determined

A

W/ a frame score

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76
Q

When are larger framed cattle heavier than small framed cattle

A

At any given compositional and physiological maturity

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77
Q

Why are larger framed cattle considered later maturing

A

Because it takes them longer to reach their mature weight

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78
Q

Why are small framed cattle considered early maturing

A

Because they grow relatively quickly reaching their mature weight sooner

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79
Q

What is the relationship between the chronological age of large framed and small framed animals

A

Larger framed animals are physiologically younger

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80
Q

How are large framed and small framed animals compared using the same chronological age and weight

A

Large framed animals are leaner while small framed animals are fatter and more physiologically mature

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81
Q

What is the relationship between the selection of muscle versus milk production

A

They are inversely

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82
Q

How did selection change the muscle that develops prenatally

A

It doesnt change the muscle distribution it reduces the number of muscle fibers present

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83
Q

What is the relationship between the selection of wool versus meat

A

They are inversely related

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84
Q

What breeds of sheep have superior conformation

A

Meat breeds have a higher muscle:bone ratio

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85
Q

What are physical differences between wool and meat breeds of sheep

A

Wool breeds are larger framed and fattened at heavier weights than meat breeds

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86
Q

What it the relationship between the selection for maternal versus meat in pigs

A

Muscle is inversely related to the ability to conceive and produce milk

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87
Q

What are the differences in growth and composition across sexes

A

Intact males are capable of larger body weights, attain compositional maturity at later chronological ages, and are generally heavier at any given chronological age than castrates and females

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88
Q

What are the two exceptions to intact females maturing earliest of sex classes

A

Gilts mature later and reach heavier weights than barrows and gilts are leaner than barrows at the same chronological age

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89
Q

Where do intact male cattle have a greater proportion of muscle

A

Their forequarter specifically in the neck and thorax these are associated w/ secondary sex characteristics due to increase androgen binding receptors in these tissues

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90
Q

Where do cows have a greater proportion of muscle

A

In the pelvic limb and abdominal wall to support fetus and udder

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91
Q

What is the order of muscle diameter

A

Males have the largest then castrates then females

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92
Q

What does estrogen stimulates in cattle skeletons

A

Epiphyseal plate closure resulting w/ intact males being taller than females

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93
Q

What do estrogens and androgens increase

A

Periosteal bone growth (androgens more)

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94
Q

What sex class of cattle has thicker bones

A

intact males

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95
Q

How are lipogenesis and lipolysis regulated

A

Hormonally through sex steroids dramatically

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96
Q

How does gender affect fat development

A

Nutrient drive partition is affected, there is a decrease in long bone growth in females due to an increase in estrogen, and muscle growth starts to decrease leaving more nutrients available for fat

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97
Q

How does nutrition affect growth

A

Growth and development depends on the level of essential nutrients in the diet such as FA, AA, CHO, vitamins, and minerals

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98
Q

What does consuming nutrients in excess of maintenance requirements allow for

A

Growth, production, and reproduction

99
Q

What does the balance of nutrients consumed determine

A

The composition of growth

100
Q

What do nutrient maintenance requirements maintain

A

Vital organs and bodily functions w/ little or no physical activity

101
Q

What do growth requirements maintain

A

Body tissues such as muscle, bone, fat, and nerves that are also based on where the animal is in its growth curve including growth of a fetus in pregnant females

102
Q

What do production requirements maintain

A

Lactation, wool, eggs, physical activity, reproductive behaviors, and work

103
Q

What is nutrient partitioning

A

Utilization of nutrients is partitioned amoung various tissues and organs according to their physiological importance

104
Q

What are conditions of altered nutrient partitioning

A

Pregnancy or during the transition from non lactating to lactatin

105
Q

How does pregnancy alter the nutrient partitioning

A

The fetus holds priority similar to vital organs of dam however, some wild animals will abort a pregnancy to survive

106
Q

How does transitioning from non lactating to lactating alter nutrient partitioning

A

It changes the priority of nutrients from tissue gain to supporting lactation

107
Q

What is positive energy balance

A

Nutrients are plentiful for body maintenance, growth, and fattening

108
Q

What are negative energy balance

A

Nutrient intake is not sufficient to meet these needs resulting in mobilizing body energy reserves as an energy source

109
Q

What is compensatory growth

A

An animal’s growth after a period of nutritional stress where the rate of growth is often greater than exhibited by a genetically identical animal during normal growth also referred to as catch up growth since the increased growth rate allows animals to reach body weights similar to uncompromised animals

110
Q

What are two ways abnormally high growth rates are achieved

A

Low basal metabolism during nutrient restriction due to decreased visceral weight and increased feed intake during realimentation

111
Q

What can affect how much compensatory growth occurs

A

Severity of nutrient restriction and stage of growth curve where restriction takes place

112
Q

What does severe starvation cause

A

Permanent stunt of growth and enhancing the onset of fattening

113
Q

What can nutrient restriction early in growth result in

A

Long lasting effects particularly in early maturing tissues such as bone

114
Q

What two things must be considered w/ dietary protein

A

Quantity and quality

115
Q

What does protein quality refer to

A

The balance and bioavailability of essential AA in a foodstuff

116
Q

What does biological value measure in dietary protein

A

The quality and refers to how much protein/AA is absorbed and incorporated into the body

117
Q

What type of animals are AA more important for

A

Monogastric animals

118
Q

What do ruminants utilize for some AA

A

Rumen microbial protein

119
Q

What do diets that are sufficient in energy but insufficient in protein result in

A

Increased fat deposition

120
Q

How do muscle protein accretion rates vary amongst animals

A

Breeds, sexes, physical activity, and growth enhancers

121
Q

What animals have an increased muscle protein accretion rate requiring more protein

A

Breeds genetically selected for meat production, working animals, males, and hormonally treated animals for growth enhancement

122
Q

What is dietary energy required for

A

Maintenance and growth of new tissues

123
Q

What are energy requirements based on for growth

A

Genetics, sex class, location on growth curve, and use of hormone treatments

124
Q

Do animals contain more animal cells or microbial cells

A

They contain more than 10x microbial cells

125
Q

What does better sanitation w/ domestic animals lead to

A

Improved growth rates and feed efficiency

126
Q

Why does the presence of microoganisms reduce performance

A

Because it costs more nutrition and energy to build an immune response

127
Q

What are strategies to limit the effect of microorganisms on growth and performance

A

High level biosecurity for farms, feeding diets that contain sufficient nutrients to maintain a healthy immune system, vaccinations against the most harmful pathogens, and antibiotic treatments to reduce bacterial load

128
Q

What does physical and social stress affect

A

Hypothalmo-pituitary-adrenal axis

129
Q

What do chronically stressed animals suffer from

A

Elevated circulating concentrations of glucocorticoids inhibiting growth

130
Q

What things go into causing transportation stress

A

Temperature/wind change, novel social group, absence of feed and water, and motions

131
Q

What causes housing stress

A

Introducing new animals into a new social order forcing a new social hierarchy to establish

132
Q

What is specific stress free housing

A

Rearing animals in a group from weaning to slaughter resulting in less injuries and improved growth

133
Q

What is considered physical activity

A

Any body movement that works your muscles and requires more energy than resting

134
Q

What are available energy reserves in the body

A

Body fat, muscle fat, muscle CHO, and liver CHO

135
Q

Where does energy come from for the phosphagen system (short term energy)

A

ATP in the muscle

136
Q

Where does energy come from for the glycogen lactic acid system (medium energy)

A

Muscle + liver glycogen converted to glucose and then lactic acid for anaerobic respiration

137
Q

Where does energy for the aerobic respiration system come from (long term energy)

A

Complete oxidation of glucose and FA from muscle, liver, and adipose

138
Q

What does resistance exercise increase

A

Muscle protein synthesis

139
Q

What does endurance exercise do

A

May decrease protein synthesis if insufficient dietary energy and protein is available

140
Q

What does increased activity during development increase

A

Bone mass, density, and size

141
Q

What type of exercise does fat positively impact

A

Aerobic

142
Q

What does exercise induce the release of

A

IGF-1 and GH in a pulsatile fashion

143
Q

What type of exercise induces GH release

A

Resistance and endurance the amount just depends on the intensity

144
Q

What does GH do to the body when released during exercise

A

GH is the greatest adolescence greatly impacting mature body size and composition

145
Q

What is the benefit of immune cells arranging themselves into organs and tissues

A

So the cells can interact w/ each other through direct contact via chemical messengers and their receptors

146
Q

What are the two basic components of the immune system

A

Innate and adaptive/acquired

147
Q

What is the innate aspect of the immune system

A

An ancient system present in most eukaryotic life forms, exists in pre-infection/challenge, exhibits broad specificities, and early response to infection

148
Q

What is the adaptive/acquired aspect of the immune system

A

Exists only in vertebrates and matures on exposure to antigen

149
Q

What type of cells are in the Innate system

A

Granulocytes, natural killer cell, macrophage cell, dendritic cell, and mast cells

150
Q

What cells are found in the adaptive immune cells

A

B cells and T cells

151
Q

What are Granulocytes

A

Neutrophil, eosinophil, and basophils are designed to destroy infected cells or pathogens

152
Q

What are natural killer cells

A

Kills cells that are infected or have things wrong w/ them

153
Q

What are macrophage cells

A

Garbage disposal cell eating infected or dead cells

154
Q

What are dendritic cells

A

Primarily used to identify parts of microbes and present them to cells in the adaptive immune system

155
Q

What are mast cells

A

Packed w/ histamines which are good at fighting off extra cellular pathogens and are responsible for seasonal allergies

156
Q

What are B cells

A

Producers of antibodies

157
Q

What are CD8+ T cells do

A

Expresses cytotoxic cells that kill infected cells

158
Q

What are CD4 T cells do

A

Release messengers that express other cells

159
Q

What happens in bone marrow

A

Hematopoiesis of myeloid and lymphoid

160
Q

What occurs in the central lymphoid organs

A

Maturation of lymphocytes such as bone marrow for B cells and thymus for T cells

161
Q

Where do all immune cells stem from

A

A blood stem cell where division into either myeloid or lymphoid stem cells occur

162
Q

How do autoimmune diseases occur

A

When T cells recognize the indivuidual’s own cells too strongly

163
Q

What is the process of thymocyte development

A

BM derived T cell precursors arrive in the outer cortex of the thymus where they go thru selection, proliferation, and apoptotic death as they move thru the cortex, few cells mature and moving out of the medulla, and during this process they acquire their diverse specificity including surface receptors and markers

164
Q

What are the different classes of lymphocytes

A

B lymphocytes, helper T lymphocytes (CD4+), Cytotoxic T lymphocytes (CD8+), Natural killer cells (NK), Natural killer T cells (NKT), and Gamma delta T cells

165
Q

What is the function of Helper T lymphocytes

A

Activation of macrophages, inflammation, and activation of T and B lympocytes

166
Q

What is the function of cytotoxic T lymphocyte (CTL)

A

Killing of infected cells

167
Q

What is the function of regulatory T lymphocytes

A

Suppression of immune response

168
Q

What is the function of Natural Killer (NK) cells

A

Killing of infected cells

169
Q

Where do immune responses occur

A

Lymph nodes, spleen, cutaneous immune system, and mucosal immune system

170
Q

What is the center of the lymph node called

A

Medullary sinus

171
Q

What is located at the bottom of each section of a lymph node

A

Medullary cords made of macrophages and plasma cells

172
Q

What is the middle of each lymph node section called

A

Paracortical area which is mostly T cells

173
Q

What is the top of the outer lymph node sections called

A

Primary lymphoid follicle which is mostly B cells

174
Q

What is the top of the inner lymph node sections called

A

Seondary lymphoid follicle w/ germinal center

175
Q

What is the function of the outer afferent lymphatic vessels

A

Brings material in the lymph node

176
Q

What is the function of the inner efferent lymphatic vessle

A

Takes material out of the lymph node

177
Q

What are the functions of the spleen

A

Major site of immune responses to “blood boren” antigens/infections, is hematopoietic, and is a lympoid

178
Q

What is the red pulp of the spleen

A

Destruction of old RBCs

179
Q

What is the white pulp in the spleen

A

Used as a lymphoid for immune responses, contains periarteriolar lymphoid sheaths (T cells) and lymphoid follicles (B cells)

180
Q

What cells does the cutaneous immune system contain

A

Keratinocytes, epidermal langerhans cells, intraepithelial lymphocyte (CD8+), basal keratinocytes, plasma cells, mast cells, macrophage, t lymphocytes (CD4+), and dermal dendritic cell

181
Q

What is different about the mucosal immune system in the intestine

A

Their are specialized dendric cells that have tentacles that take microbes thru the epithelial layer to the draining lymph node, IgA is specialized, and Peyers patches are present pushing up against the gut producing M cells that lets gut fluid leak into the patch bringing in B and T cells

182
Q

What are non lyphoid players

A

Antigen presenting cells such as dendritic, circulating monocytes, and macrophages

183
Q

What is the function of circulating monocytes

A

Cells found in the blood that can turn into dendritic and marcophages

184
Q

What is the function of humoral immunity

A

Block infections and eliminate EC microbes

185
Q

What are the functions of cell mediated immunity

A

Activate macrophages to kill phagocytosed microbes and to kill infected cells and eliminate reservoirs of infection

186
Q

What can be transferred w/ passive immunity

A

Antibodies or lymphocytes

187
Q

What is the difference between active vs passive immunity

A

W/ active immunity a microbial antigen challenges the immune system which recovers producing immunity while passive immunity involves serum from an immune individual being administred to an uninfected individual

188
Q

What is the relationship between adaptive immunity and innate immunity interact

A

Innate immunity often begins the process of adaptive immunity, adaptive immunity can augment the abilities of innate immunity, and innate immunity can extend the functions of adaptive immunity

189
Q

How does the innate immunity enhances effector functions of the adaptive immunity

A

Stimulation of an effective immune response usually requires more than just a signal provided by the antigen and can be a soluble product or a surface ligand on an accessory cell

190
Q

What is the clonal selection process initiated

A

By recognition of foreign antigens by antigen specific lymphocytes

191
Q

What does the adaptive immunity lead to

A

Activation, proliferation differentiation, effector functions, and homeostasis

192
Q

What is an antigen

A

A molecule that binds specifically w/ an antibody or T cell receptor

193
Q

What is an epitope

A

The actual part of an antigen that binds to an Ab or T cell receptor binding site

194
Q

What are multiple epitopes called

A

Multivalent antigens

195
Q

What are the types of epitope determinants that are recognized by antibodies

A

Conformational determinant, linear determinant, and neoantigenic determinant

196
Q

What is an adjuvant

A

A compound that is given with an antigen when immunizing a host, to augment the immune response achieved

197
Q

What are the functions of antibodies

A

Revome the antigen via precipiatation or iducing phagocytosis, neutralize the antigen , kill the organism expressing the antigen, or triggers hypersensitivty reaction

198
Q

What are the three main components of the immunoglobulin structure

A

Light chain, disulfide bonds, and heavy chains

199
Q

What is the difference between a heavy chain and a light chain

A

A light chain has a fab fragment while a heavy chain has an fc fragment

200
Q

How many light chains are on the immunoglobulin structure

A

2

201
Q

What is the basic structure of the antibody

A

Two symmetrical branches each made up of 2 identical light chains and two identical heavy chains

202
Q

Where are the chains attached and how are they attached in an antibody

A

One light chain is covalently attached to one heavy chain by S-S bonds and the two H chains are attached to by S-S bonds

203
Q

What are the functions of the variable regions between the light and heavy chains of an antibody

A

They recognize epitopes, make the antibody combining site, and are the specificity

204
Q

What does the N terminal Ig domain of each light and heavy chain contain

A

3 hypervariable regions called Complementarity determining regions (CDRs)

205
Q

What do CDRs demonstrate in the 10 AAs

A

Extremely high variability

206
Q

How many CRDs are in each chain

A

3

207
Q

What is the antibody combining site

A

Where the hypervariable loops formed by the CDR extends from the surface of the Ab

208
Q

What is the Ig constant region

A

At the C terminal of the heavy and light chains comprised of Ig domains has little variability, does not interact w/ antigens or epitopes, where most of the biological functions of antibodies are mediated, and where the isotype of the Ig is located

209
Q

What is the hinge region on heavy chains

A

Located between CH1 and CH2 allowing for flexible molecular motion and has different lengths for different isotypes

210
Q

What are the two names for light chain c regions on an Ig

A

Keppa and lambda

211
Q

What cells of antibodies does a membrane form

A

B cells that make the antibody

212
Q

What are the secreted forms of IgG and IgE

A

Monomeric

213
Q

What are the secreted forms of IgA and IgM

A

Covalently bound multimers

214
Q

How are IgA and IgM bound together

A

Through the tail pieces at the carboxy end of the M and A heavy chains along with a J piece w S-S bond to the tail piece

215
Q

What are the important characterisitics of antibodies

A

Bi valent, flexible, membrane form is B cell receptor, acts thru out body, V regions combine w/ antigens in a highly specific manner, and c regions of their heavy chains interact w/ multiple cell types/soluble inflammatory molecules mediating the effector function

216
Q

What is the synthesis, assembly, and expression of immunoglobulins

A

Synthesized on membrane bound ribosomes and glycosylated in the RER, once assembled they move to the golgi complex for modifications of their CHO molecules, then are transported to the plasma membrane in vesicles and either anchored or secreted

217
Q

What are the changes that occur in the antibody structure

A

Affinity maturation, changed to secreted form, and switching the isotype

218
Q

What is monoclonal

A

Each B cell makes antibodies of one specificity essentially they are all clones

219
Q

What is polyclonal

A

One thing containing lots of groups of antibodies varying in specificity such as serum

220
Q

What is affinity maturation

A

A process that yields antibodies that bind tightly to their antigen, involves subtle changes through somatic mutations in antigen stimulated B cells that produce new V regions, B cells w/ higher affinity receptors are selected by dominant antigens, and raises the avg binding affinity of the antibodies that make antigens

221
Q

What is antibody specificity

A

Distinguishes between linear protein determinants that differ by a single conserved AA in their sequence potentially the epitope might be part of multiple antigens, and cross reactions occur when an antibody combines w/ multiple epitopes when specificity is low

222
Q

When does a cross reactivity of antibodies occur

A

When some parts of an antigen are shared by another antigen

223
Q

What is antibody affinity

A

The pure measure or the on/off rate between the antigen and the antibody combining site

224
Q

What is antibodiy avidity

A

True overall strength of the attachment of the antibody and antigen

225
Q

What is ELISA set up for

A

To quantify the concentration of antigens

226
Q

What are the parts of the MHC complex

A

T cell receptor, peptide, and MHC

227
Q

How was the MHC discovered

A

Through transplantation studie

228
Q

What are genes produced in the MHC region responsible for

A

Rapid rejection of tissue grafts

229
Q

What is MHC

A

Polymorphic

230
Q

What is syngeneic in terms of inbred mice

A

If you inbreed sibling mice for about 20 generations all the offspring are essentially genetically identical and will accept each others tissue graphs

231
Q

What is allogeneic in terms of inbred mice

A

Different inbred strains that will not accept tissue grafts from another inbred strain

232
Q

What is congenic in terms of inbred mice

A

Identical at all loci except the trait that you select so you bred them. Developed by a cross between 2 inbred strains

233
Q

What is MHC’s real job

A

Extended genetic locus that contains several highly polymorphic genes that encode highly polymorphic cell surface proteins and present antigen epitopes to TCRs that are recognized together w/ the epitopes by the TCR

234
Q

What is the difference between MHC class 1 and MHC class 2

A

They sample different pools of epitopes and present them to different subsets of T cells but they are structurally distinct and both are polymorphic

235
Q

What is a haplotype

A

Genes w/in the entire MHC region of the genome are sufficiently close together so they are mostly inherited together

236
Q

What are class one MHC molecules present in

A

Epitopes to CD8+ T cells expressed on all nucleated cells on the body

237
Q

What are class 2 MHC molecules present in

A

Epitopes to CD4+ T cells and are expressed on APCs: macs, dendritic cells, and B cells often differentially regulated

238
Q

What are general features of MHC molecules

A

Consists of an EC peptide binding groove, is anchored thru a transmembrane and cytoplasmic domain, polymorphism is due to AA residues in and adjacent to the peptide binding groove, and their non polymorphic EC Ig domains contain binding sites for the T cell surface markers CD4 and CD8

239
Q

What is the peptide binding cleft like for MHC class 1 molecules

A

They are closed at the ends forming a pocket for the Ag peptide

240
Q

What is the peptide binding cleft lie for MHC class 2 molecules

A

The are open at the ends so that peptides can hang outside of the cleft

241
Q

What controls the specificity of the MHC peptide binding

A

T cell receptor (TCR)

242
Q

What kind of peptides bind in the pockets of the MHC cleft

A

Ones that have anchor AA residues

243
Q

What else are class 2 MHC molecules expressed in

A

The up regulation by cytokines during both innate and adaptive immune responses

244
Q

What does IFN gamma increase

A

MHC expression and antigen presentatoin

Phys of Domestic Animals 2 (3 decks)

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