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Phys of Domestic Animals 2 > Exam 2 > Flashcards

Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What is half life of a hormone

A

A hormones half life is the time required for its concentration to decrease to half of its initial concentration meaning it doesnt instantly disappear it is just degraded

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2
Q

What is the half life of a hormone dependent on

A

How fast the metablism is

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3
Q

What is afferent

A

Move away from the tissue then towards the nervous system

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4
Q

What is efferent

A

Goes towards something such as the tissue

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5
Q

What are the 5 modes of signaling

A

Endocrine, autocrine, paracrine, juxtacrine, and intracrine

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6
Q

What is autocrine

A

Same cell that releases the hormone has the receptor to the hormone

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7
Q

What is paracrine

A

Signals to the cell next to the cell that secretes it

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8
Q

What is juxtacrine

A

Signaling molecules is bound and binds to a receptor on its neighbor

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9
Q

What is intracrine

A

Signal is released w/in the cell and acts w/in the cell

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10
Q

What are the major pituitary hormones

A

ADH, GnRH, TRH, PRH, CRH, and GHRH

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11
Q

What does ADH produce from the pituitary, its targets, and effects

A

Produces stores AVP, targets kidney sweat glands, and circulatory system, and effects water balance

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12
Q

What does GnRH produce in the pituitary, its targets, and effects

A

Produces LH and FSH, targets the repro system, and LH stimulates production of sex hormones by gonads FSH stimulates production of sperm and eggs

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13
Q

What does TRH produce in the pituitary, its targets, and effects

A

Produces TSH, targets the thyroid gland, and effects stimulates the release of thyroid hormone regulating metabolism

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14
Q

What does PRH produce in the pituitary, its target, and effects

A

Produces PRL, targets mammary glands, and effects milk production

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15
Q

What does GHRH produce in the pituitary, its target, and its effects

A

Produces GH, targets liver, bones, and muscles, and effects IGF stimulating body growth and a higher metabolic rate

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16
Q

What does CRH produce in the pituitary, its target, and its effects

A

Produces ACTH, its target is the adrenal glands, and effects glucocorticoids which regulates metabolism and stress response

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17
Q

What does the nerve center drive

A

Homeostatic and homeostasis states

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18
Q

What does hypothalamus control

A

Homeostasis as the main link of nervous and endocrine systems

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19
Q

What is the infundibulum

A

Its a stalk of portal vessels

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20
Q

What is the anterior pituitary gland comprised of

A

Glandular tissue

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21
Q

What is the posterior pituitary composed of

A

Neural tissue

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22
Q

What are acidophils

A

Protein hormones such as GH and PRL that are pink w/ dark nuclei and stains w/ eosin

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23
Q

What are basophils

A

Glycoprotein hormones such as ACTH, TSH, FSH, and LH that are that a dark purple cytoplasm and stains w/ hematoxylin

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24
Q

What are chromophobes

A

Non secretory support cells and dont take up stain

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25
Q

What are most proteins in the cytoplasm

A

Basic so eosin binds to these proteins and stains them pink

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26
Q

What are basic dyes

A

Cationic containing positive charges staining anionic structures

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27
Q

What is AVP

A

Arginine vasopressin

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28
Q

What are target cells in the mammary glands

A

Myoepithelial cells

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29
Q

What do the small subtle differences lead to in different chemical structures

A

Very different actions due to the different shape of the molecules

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30
Q

What does oxytocin stimulate

A

Contractions of the myometrium

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31
Q

What occurs to release oxytocin during parturition

A

The fetus pushes against the cervix where nerve impulses stimulating travel to the brain releasing oxytocin into the blood binding to receptors in the uterus

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32
Q

What does oxytocin stimulate

A

Contractions, cervical dilation, milk letdown, and maternal bonding

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33
Q

What is a synthetic form of oxytocin

A

Pitocin

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34
Q

What is the sensing apparatus

A

Found in the blood vessels especially the aorta that contains nerves signaling the hypothalamus releasing the ADH

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35
Q

What are pituitary endocrine disorders

A

Galactorrhea, acromegaly, gigantism, dwarfism, cushings, and diabetes insipidus

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36
Q

What is galactorrhea

A

Excessive lactation that wont stop caused by pituitary tumor

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37
Q

What is acromegaly

A

Overgrowth in head and facial features occurs in adults focusing on other bones

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38
Q

How is GH unique

A

It has both a releasing and inhibitory aspect

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39
Q

Where does GH have receptors

A

Liver, bone cells, muscle cells, nervous system cells, immune system cells, and adipose cells

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40
Q

What are the three things in the thyroid gland

A

Follicles, colloid, and iodine

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41
Q

What are follicles

A

Open circular structures that are lined by simple cuboidal epithelium that create the thyroid hormone and is filled w/ colloid

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42
Q

Where is thyroid hormone stored

A

W/in colloid

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43
Q

What is colloid

A

Fluid filled matrix

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44
Q

What is the difference between T3 and T4

A

T3 has 3 iodines while T4 has 4 iodines

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45
Q

What does thyroid hormone act on

A

Mitochondria stimulating oxidative phosphorylation/production of ATP, metabolism rate is increased, and sends negative feedback where there is enough produced causing hypo and pituitary to lower their signals

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46
Q

What is graves disease

A

Hyperthyroidism causing enlargement of the thyroid and other symptoms

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47
Q

Where are osmoreceptors found

A

The hypothalamus decreasing the amount of ADH present in the body

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48
Q

What is gigantism/dwarfism

A

Derangements of GH that occurs in children prior to the growth places closing affecting the long bones

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49
Q

What is cushings

A

Too much cortisol is produced from an overproduction of ACTH by a pituitary tumor

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50
Q

What are most pituitary endocrine disorders caused by

A

Trauma or tumors of the pituitary gland

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51
Q

What is diabetes insipidus

A

Rare form of diabetes that causes excessive urination, light colored urine, constantly feel thirsty, nasty/not sweet, diagnosed by tasting urine, and involves an overproduction of ADH

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52
Q

What is diabetes mellitus

A

A more common form of diabetes that is an over production of glucose resulting in a sweet taste

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53
Q

What are the 4 types of diabetes insipidus

A

Central, nephrogenic, dipsogenic, and gestational

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54
Q

What do the hormones involved in diabetes insipidus work

A

Causes polyuria and polydipsia which also directly cause one another

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55
Q

What is polyuria

A

Produce abnormally high volumes of dilute urine

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56
Q

What is polydipsia

A

Excessive thirst

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57
Q

What is hyponatremia

A

Low blood sugar

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58
Q

What is hypernatremia

A

High blood sugar

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59
Q

What is central diabetes insipidus

A

A lack of ADH caused by injury, disease, autoimmune, and genetics

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60
Q

What is nephrogenic diabetes insipidus

A

ADH production ok but kidneys dont respond caused by some meds, urinary tract blockage, and genetics

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61
Q

What is dipsogenic diabetes insipidus

A

Problem w/ hypothalamus makes u thirsty making u drink to much caused by injury, surgial damage, inflammation, tumor, meds, and mental health problems

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62
Q

What is gestational diabetes insipidus

A

Placenta makes too much enzyme that breaks down ADH that rarely occurs temporarily during pregnancy that is more likely than twins and alters liver function

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63
Q

What does gestational diabetes led to the production of

A

Vasopressinase which is made by the placenta and is metabolizes in the liver

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64
Q

What autoimmune antibody is produced by graves disease

A

TSI thyroid stimulating immunoglobulin

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65
Q

What are common causes of hypothroidism

A

Hashimoto’s disease, iodine deficiency, and postpartum thyroiditis (autoimmune)

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66
Q

What symptoms of hypothyroidism

A

Metabolism slows down, weight gain, tired/lethargic, and cold from not producing adequate body heat

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67
Q

What type of cells does is thyroid hormone synthesis

A

Cuboidal epithelium cells

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68
Q

How does the ER make thyroglobulin

A

Binds a thyroid hormone to a globulin which is secreted thru exocytosis into the follicle

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69
Q

What does the Na/I symporter do

A

Brings in Na and I molecules into the cytoplasm

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70
Q

What happens to Na and I do once in the cytoplasm

A

Transporters transport the iodine in the middle of the follicle, thyroid peroxidase oxidizes the iodine for conjugation, and the the molecules undergo endocytosis the proteolysis occurs to break up T3 and T4 which then gets secreted into the blood stream

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71
Q

What are the three players producing calcitonin

A

Kidney, bone, and GIT

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72
Q

What does the parathryoid maintain

A

Blood calcium homeostasis

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73
Q

What is produced in the adrenal medulla

A

Adrenaline/epinephrine and norepinephrine

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74
Q

What are the three regions of the adrenal glands

A

Outer most region, inner most region, and middle region

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75
Q

What does the outer most region produce

A

Mineralocorticoids regulating minerals

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76
Q

What does the inner most region produce

A

Sex steroids

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77
Q

What does the middle region produce

A

Glucocorticoids regulating glucose

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78
Q

What is a receptor

A

Protein that binds to a ligand w/ high affinity and low capacity and must be saturable

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79
Q

What is high affinity

A

Binding occurs at low drug concentrations

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80
Q

What is low affinity

A

Binding occurs at high drug concentrations

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81
Q

What are hormone binding proteins

A

Water soluble that bind to steroids

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82
Q

What type of hormones can bind to receptors

A

Free hormones

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83
Q

What do bound hormones represent

A

A pool or reserve in circulation slowing clearance

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84
Q

When does a bound hormone become free

A

Once in the ICF then binds to either the metabolizing enzyme or hormone receptor where it can have its affect

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85
Q

What is the major blood protein

A

Albumin which binds to lots of stuff and is found in serum

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86
Q

What type of cells produce calcitonin

A

Parafollicular cells or C cells that responds to high blood Ca

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87
Q

What does the calcitonin do

A

Inhibits osteoclasts (miners), stimulates osteoblasts (depositors), decreases Ca absorption from intestines, increases Ca loss from kidneys, and partial contributor to blood Ca homeostasis

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88
Q

What are the functions of the parathyroid glands

A

Embedded in the posterior of thyroid glands express the Ca sensing receptor and mobilize intracellular Ca in response to CASR activation

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89
Q

What is the function of chief cells

A

Make and secrete pepsinogen (PTH)

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90
Q

What are the functions of PTH

A

Stimulate osteoclasts, inhibit osteoblasts, stimulate reabsorption in kidney, stimulate calcitriol in kidneys, acts on intestines to increase Ca absorption, and more important regulator of Ca

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91
Q

What is the medulla regulated by

A

Nerves that intergrade into it and is where fight or flight occur

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92
Q

What are TBGs

A

Thyroxine binding globulins

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93
Q

What is the function of thyroid hormone

A

Regulation basal metabolic rate, protein synthesis, normal fetal/childhood development, interact w/ repro hormones, and increase sensitivity to catecholamines

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94
Q

What is the pineal gland comprised of and produce

A

Pinealocytes and produces melatonin

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95
Q

What is the function of suprachiasmatic nucleus

A

Senses light and transfers the information to the pineal gland

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96
Q

What does renal enzyme 1-a hydroxylase do

A

Converts vitamin D to its active form

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97
Q

What is DBP

A

Vitamin D binding protein

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98
Q

What is VDR

A

Vitamin D receptor

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99
Q

What is general adaptation syndrom

A

Response to stress that has three stages

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100
Q

What is the stage 1 of GAS

A

Alarm reaction that contains fight or flight and is epinephrine driven

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101
Q

What is stage 2 of GAS

A

Stage of resistance that adapts metabolsim

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102
Q

What is stage 3 of GAS

A

Stage of exhaustion which leads to depression, immune suppression, and weight gain

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103
Q

What is RAAS

A

Renin angiotensin aldosterone system

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104
Q

Where is renin released, what does it act on, and what does it form

A

Released from the kidney, acts on angiotensinogen, and forms angiotensin 1

105
Q

Where is ace released from, what does act on, and what does it form

A

Released from the lungs, acts on angiotensin 1 and forms angiotensin 2

106
Q

What does angiotensin 2 act on and what does it stimulate

A

Acts on the adrenal glands and stimulates the release of aldosterone

107
Q

What does aldosterone act on and what does it stimulate

A

Acts on the kidneys and stimulates reabsorption of salt and water

108
Q

What is the most important function of the liver

A

Controlling the blood glucose levels producing insulin

109
Q

What does insulin trigger

A

The uptake of glucose in muscle

110
Q

What does an increase in glucose trigger

A

An uptake of glucose in adipose cells

111
Q

What does low blood glucose trigger the release of

A

Glucogon

112
Q

What type of islet cells produce glucagon

A

Alpha cells

113
Q

What type of islet cells produce insulin

A

Beta cells

114
Q

What is type 1 diabetes mellitus

A

Autoimmune that attacks beta cells and lose source of insulin requiring injectable insulin and continuously monitor glucose

115
Q

What is type 2 diabetes mellitus

A

Aquired as an adult, has insulin resistance, is associated w/ obesity, and beta cells keep secreting insulin becoming exhausted desensitizing the target cell

116
Q

How does chronic high glucose damage the body

A

Damages the blood vessels and nerves especially small blood vessels and nerves commonly causing blindness and effecting nerves in the feet

117
Q

When does ketosis occur

A

When the body is trying to meet energy requirements but you cant use glucose so you use fat

118
Q

What does hyperglycaemia affect

A

Pancrease, liver, vessels, brain, inflammation, muscle, kidneys, and adipose tissue

119
Q

What produces leptin and what effect does it have

A

Produced by adipose tissue and promotes satiety signals in the brain

120
Q

What produces renin and what is its effect

A

Produced by the renin and stimulates the release of aldosterone

121
Q

What produces calcitriol and what is its effect

A

Produced by kidneys and aids in the absorption of Ca ion

122
Q

What produces erythropoietin (EPO) and what is its effect

A

Produced by the kidneys and triggers the formation of RBCs in the bone marrow

123
Q

What produces cholecalciferol and what is its effect

A

Produced by the skin and is a modified to form vitamin D

124
Q

What produces IGF 1 and what is its effect

A

Produced by liver and stimulates body growth

125
Q

Where is angiotensiongen produced and what is its effect

A

Produced in the liver and raises blood pressure

126
Q

What is somato medin

A

Mediates effects of somatotropin (GH or IGF)

127
Q

What is the somatomedin hypothesis

A

IGH leads to lipolysis in adipose, bone growth via liver, and generates binding proteins

128
Q

What does is myostatin

A

Protein encoded by myostatin gene that is also known as growth and differentiation factor 8 (GDF8)

129
Q

What does differences in myostatin production cause

A

Mighty mice (receptors) and DM cattle (production)

130
Q

What does food in the intestine trigger

A

Glucose dependent insulinotropic hormone and insulin

131
Q

What are the two main targets of insulin

A

Skeletal muscle and adipocytes

132
Q

What does insulin support the movement of

A

Intracellular vesicles containing facilitative glucose transporters to the cell membrane

133
Q

How do the transporters move glucose

A

Facilitated diffusion

134
Q

What insulin inhibit

A

Glycogenolysis and glycogenogensis

135
Q

What does insulin stimulate

A

Glycolysis, glycogenesis, lipogenesis, and protein synthesis

136
Q

What are the 4 layers of the GIT

A

Mucosa, submucosa, muscularis, and serosa

137
Q

Why are most of the epithelial lining of the GIT columnar cells

A

Because they have to have the capacity to transport things across

138
Q

What is the function of mucus

A

To protect the GIT

139
Q

What secretes the mucus in the GIT

A

Goblet cells that are embedded in the epithelial in the LI

140
Q

What is the function of the enteroendocrine cells in the GIT epithelial

A

Make particular hormones and secretes them

141
Q

What are characteristices of the mucosa layer

A

Mainly contains non keratinized stratified squamous epithelium, Loose CT that contains blood, lymph vessels, and mucosa associated lymphoid tissue (MALT)and a thin smooth muscle layer that creates folds

142
Q

What does the submucosa contain

A

Dense irregular CT, blood, lymph, submucosal glands, and nerves such as the submucosal plexus

143
Q

What does the muscularis contain

A

Inner circular smooth muscle and outer longitudinal smooth muscle

144
Q

What are exceptions are there to having smooth muscle in their muscularis layer

A

Mouth, pharynx, proximal esophagus, and anus have skeletal muscle, stomach’s 3rd layer is oblique muscle, and the colon has tenia coli forming pouches

145
Q

Whatis the serosa layer in the abdominal cavity made of

A

Loose CT

146
Q

What is the serosa in the mouth, pharynx, and esophagus have

A

Adventitia and dense collagen attachment

147
Q

What is the intrinsic nervous system in the GIT

A

Enteric independent neurons that run from mouth to anus, has a myenteric plexus in the muscularis controls motility of the gut and peristalsis to propel digestion along, submucosal plexus in the submucosa that regulates digestive secretions and reacts to presence of food/chemicals/nutrients and interneurons

148
Q

What is the extrinisic nervous system in the GIT

A

Autonomic system where the sympathetic controls fight or flight which inhibits intrinsic and parasympathetic allows for rest and digest stimulating intrinsic

149
Q

What allows for obese mice

A

Increase in leptin

150
Q

What allows for bioclip cheep

A

EGF treatmen

151
Q

How to increase the milk production in bovine

A

Supplimenting bovine somatotropin

152
Q

How to increase loin eye area and decrease BF thickness in pigs

A

Supplementing porcine somatotropin

153
Q

What are the main functions of the blood supply in the GIT

A

Transport absorbed protein (AA) and carbs and supplies nutrients such as oxygen and hormones

154
Q

What large vein system is in the GIT

A

The hepatic portal system

155
Q

What are the two layers of the peritoneum

A

The parietal that lines the abdominal wall and the visceral that surrounds the gut organs

156
Q

What are other functions of the visceral

A

Contains folds that anchor the organs, contains blood vessels, lymph, and nerves, and has greater fat deposition

157
Q

What are the 6 activities of GIT

A

Ingestion, propulsion, mechanical digestion, chemical digestion, absorption, and defecation

158
Q

What does ingestion consist of

A

Biting, chewing, and saliva production

159
Q

What does propulsion consist of

A

Swallowing and peristalsis

160
Q

What does mechanical digestion consist of

A

Increase in SA, mastication, and insalivation

161
Q

What does chemical digestion consist of

A

Enzymes, acids, and salts

162
Q

What does absorption consist of

A

Mainly occurs in the SI to take up nutrients from the lumen

163
Q

What does defecation consist of

A

Void whats in the bowels

164
Q

What is chyme

A

Soup of digesta, acid, and enzymes

165
Q

What allows segmentation to occur

A

Peristalsis which can go forward and backwards

166
Q

In what layer of the GIT does peristalsis occur

A

In the muscularis for smooth muscle usage

167
Q

How is the GIT regulated and integrated

A

Neural and endocrine signals

168
Q

What does neural receptors do for regulation and integration

A

Test to see when digestion is done

169
Q

What receptors are involved with neural regulation and integration

A

Mechanoreceptors, chemoreceptors, and osmoreceptors that measure long extrinsic reflexes and short intrinsic reflexes

170
Q

What hormones produced by the endocrine system affect regulation and integration of the GIT

A

Gastrin and secretin

171
Q

How does gastrin affect regulation and integration of the GIT

A

Secreted by some cells in the stomach, is signaled by the presence of food, and stimulates acid secretion

172
Q

How does secretin affect regulation and integration of the GIT

A

Secreted in the duodenum and triggers secretion of biocarb that comes from the pancreas

173
Q

What does cholecystokinin do in the GIT

A

CCK stimulates pancreatic enzymes and bile, responses to sensing presence of protein in the digesta or presence of FA/lipid in digesta, and proteolytic

174
Q

What does gastric inhibitory peptide do in the GIT

A

GIP inhibits gastric secretion slowing motility and emptying

175
Q

What is the solar plexus

A

A large network of nerves, blood, or lymph vessels in the abdomen that freezes everything when impacted

176
Q

Where is the auerbach’s myenteric nerve plexus

A

In the middle of the muscularis externa

177
Q

Where is the meissners nerve plexus

A

In the submucosa layer

178
Q

What is the greater omentum

A

Apron like structure that lies superficial to the SI and transverse colon; a site of fat deposition in people who are overweight

179
Q

What is the lesser omentum

A

Suspends the stomach from the inferior border of the liver; provides a pathway for structures connecting the liver

180
Q

What is GLP-1

A

Glucagon like peptide that is produced by enteroendocrine L cells

181
Q

What does GLP-1 affect

A

Brain, tongue, heart, stomach, adipose tissue, muscles, pancreas, bones, kidneys, liver, and lungs

182
Q

What are characteristics of the tongue

A

Forms the bolus, has papillae (taste buds and touch receptors), lingual lipase, lingual frenulum (tongue tie), and is a strong muscle

183
Q

What are the three salivary glands

A

Submandibular, sublingual, and partoid

184
Q

What are characteristics of saliva

A

Lube and digest, 95% watery, amylase (species dependent), contains bicarb and phosphate (buffer pH), and forms mucus

185
Q

What part of the nervous system controls salivation

A

Autonomic, parasympathetic allows for basal low flow and sympathetic causes dry mouth

186
Q

What are the different types of teeth

A

Incisors, cuspids (canines), bicuspids (premolars), and molars

187
Q

What is the hardest substance in the body

A

Enamel

188
Q

What is the anatomy of the tooth

A

Gingivae (gum), crown, root, pulp cavity (contains blood vessels and nerves), dentin, cementum, enamel, and dental caries

189
Q

What is the tongue’s extrinsic muscles

A

Move tongue sideways and in and out

190
Q

Tongues intrinsic muscles

A

Change tongue shape

191
Q

What are the three parts of the pharynx

A

Nasopharynx, oropharynx, and laryngopharynx

192
Q

What is the nasopharynx

A

Opening to the nasal cavity used for breathing and speaking

193
Q

What is the oropharynx

A

Opening to the oral cavity used for breathing and digesting

194
Q

What is the laryngopharynx

A

The lowest region of the pharynx used for breathing and digestion

195
Q

What type of muscle does the upper esophageal sphincter have

A

Skeletal muscle and smooth muscle

196
Q

What does the lower esophageal sphincter do

A

It is comprised of smooth muscle preventing heartburn and GERD

197
Q

What are the three phases of swallowing

A

Voluntary, pharyngeal, and esophageal

198
Q

Characteristics of pharyngeal phase

A

Involuntary, uses oropharynx receptors, reflex to uvula and soft palate, and where the laryngeal muscles close the trachea

199
Q

Characteristics of esophageal phase

A

Enters esophagus, triggers peristalsis and mucus, and relaxes cardiac sphincter

200
Q

What are the characteristics of the stomach

A

Expandable storage chamber that mixes and chruns contents, digestion involving acid-pepsin, where chyme is located, and minimal absorption due to the protective measures against acid

201
Q

What are the 4 regions of the stomach

A

Cardia (cardiac sphincter), fundus (dome), body, and pylorus (pyloric sphincter and funnel shaped)

202
Q

What is the rugae of the stomach

A

Folds that have projections for expansion

203
Q

What is the omentum

A

Allows the stomach to suspend to the liver and other digestive organs

204
Q

What is the function of the oblique

A

Smooth muscle that mixes the contents

205
Q

What are gastric pits

A

Invaginations located in the wall where parietal, cheif, and enteroendocrine cells are

206
Q

What do parietal cells secrete

A

HCl acid and produce intrinsic factor (VB12)

207
Q

What is the function of gastric glands

A

They secrete mucus and are comprised of parietal, chief, and enteroendocrine cells

208
Q

What hormones are secreted by enteroendocrine cells

A

Gastrin, ghrelin, and somatostatin

209
Q

What is gastrin secreted from, what is its targets, and affect

A

Secrets G cells targeting the stomach for secretion and emptying, muscle contractions in the SI, relaxes ileocecal valve, and mass movements (defecation) in the LI

210
Q

What is ghrelin secreted by, target, and affect

A

Secreted by mucosa, targets hypothalamus, triggers hunger

211
Q

What is somatostatin secreted from, target, and affect

A

Secreted from mucosa and duodenum targets the stomach to decrease secretions, motility, and emptying, decrease secretions in the pancreas, and decreases absorption and blood flow of the SI

212
Q

What are phases of gastric secretion

A

Cephalic is a reflex phase that can be conditioned, gastric is where food enters, stretches, and causes secretions/contractions in the stomach, and intestinal has excitatory (chyme into duodenum, enteric gastrin, and increase gastric juice) and inhibitory (full duodenum, inhibit secretion, and close pyloric sphincter)

213
Q

What is the gastric mucosal barrier

A

Comprised of thick bicarb rich mucus to neutralize acid

214
Q

What is the saying about the barrier

A

1 mucus 2 bicarbonate 3 tight junction

215
Q

What are the mechanical functions of the stomach

A

Mixing waves, pylorus filtering, and gastric emptying

216
Q

What is a zymogen

A

Proenzyme inactive precursor of an enzyme

217
Q

What are the chemical functions of the stomach

A

Stores ingested food and gas, upon mixing acidity inactivates salivary amylase activating lingual lipase (lipid digestion), and intrinsic factor

218
Q

Where are intrinsic factor receptors

A

On the luminal membranes of ileal cells

219
Q

What is transcobalamin 2

A

Transporter for VB12 in the blood

220
Q

Characteristics of the duodenum

A

Starts at the pyloric sphincter, C shape around pancreas, 4 regions superior, descending, horizontal, and ascending, and contains the ampulla of vater

221
Q

What is the ampulla of vater

A

The hepatopancreatic ampulla is where the common bile duct and pancreatic duct join to form the major duodenal papilla also contains the sphincter of oddi

222
Q

What is the sphincter of oddi

A

The muscular valve surrounding the exit of the bile duct and pancreatic duct into the duodenum that only opens in response to a meal

223
Q

What are the 3 unique features of the mucosa and sub mucosa of the small intestine

A

Circular folds, villi, and microvilli

224
Q

Where are the circular folds and what is their purpose

A

They are at the end near the mid ileum in the ridges of the mucosa and submucosa they cause chyme to spiral through

225
Q

Where are villi and what are they

A

They are absorptive enterocytes that are located in the epithelium of arterioles, venules, and lacteal small lymph vessels to transport lipid chylomicrons

226
Q

What are microvilli

A

Microfilaments that are anchored to enzymes and are known as the brush border

227
Q

What are crypts of lieberkuhn

A

Tubular intestinal glands that secrete intestinal juices

228
Q

What are brunner’s glands

A

Submucosal duodenal glands that secrete high bicarb, alkaline mucus, and buffers acidic chyme entering from the stomach

229
Q

What are I cells secreted from and its function

A

Secreted by the intestinal glands of duodenum and it is the secretion of the hormone cholecystokinin stimulating the release of pancreatic juices and bile

230
Q

What are K cells secreted from and its function

A

Secreted by the intestinal glands it is the secretion of GIP which stimulates the release of insulin

231
Q

What are S cells secreted from and its function

A

Secreted by the intestinal glands and is the secretion of secretin

232
Q

What does incretins do

A

Stimulates insulin secretion

233
Q

What are the steps of mechanical digestion in the SI

A

Segmentation, migrating motility complexes, and gastroileal reflex

234
Q

What is migrating motility complex triggered by

A

Motilin

235
Q

Where does migrating motility complex continue to

A

The ileocecal sphincter

236
Q

What stimulates the gastroileal reflex and what does it allow

A

It is stimulated by ileal motility which is stimulated by gastrin and allows for digestion in the stomach triggering segmentation

237
Q

What occurs during chemical digestion

A

FInal digestion of proteins and CHO, most digestion of lipids, absorption of water, digestive enzymes attach to the surface of enterocytes, and coordination of the flow, pH, and osmolarity of chyme

238
Q

What are the functions of the LI

A

Finish nutrient absorption, absorb water, synthesize vitamins, form feces, and defecate

239
Q

Why do ruminants not have a large vitamin requirement

A

Because they are synthesized by microbes

240
Q

What does ATDS mean w/ the colon

A

Ascending, Transverse, Descending, Sigmoid or after this defecate soon

241
Q

Why does the rectum have 3 lateral bends

A

To help separate gas from feces

242
Q

What three things are found in the SA of the SI

A

Plicae, villi, and microvilli

243
Q

What are the three types of movement for mechanical digestion in the LI

A

Haustral contraction, peristalsis, and mass movement

244
Q

WHat occurs during chemical digestion in the LI

A

Saccharolytic fermentation of the remaining carbs breaking down sugars

245
Q

What is the defecate reflex

A

The parasympathetic uses the spinal cord to load the chute for voluntary control of the anal sphincter

246
Q

What is the porta hepatis

A

The gate to the liver also referred to as the hepatic portal this has the blood supply of the liver

247
Q

What are the two parts of the livers blood supply

A

The hepatic artery for oxygen and the portal vein that brings absorbed nutrients from the gut straight to the liver

248
Q

What are the three components of the livers histology

A

The hepatocytes (liver cells), bile canaliculi (canals that carry bile), and hepatic sinusoids (space filled w/ blood)

249
Q

What is the hepatic lobule

A

The core functional unit of the liver that is a radial arrangement roughly in a polygon shape

250
Q

What does the hepatic lobule contain

A

Portal triads, cords of hepatocytes, and bile canaliculi

251
Q

What is the portal triads

A

Located outside of the central vein it contains the hepatic artery, branch of portal vein, and the bile duct

252
Q

What are the cords of hepatocytes

A

Sinusoids that are irregular shaped capillaries that contain a mixture of venule and arteriole blood that are lined by kupffer cells, stellate cells, and liver sinusoidal enothelial cells

253
Q

What is bile canaliculi

A

Found in the cords of hepatocytes it is secreted by hepatocytes and is moved to the outside where it meets the bile duct

254
Q

Where are stellate cells located and what are their function

A

They are located in the space of Disse and they are the primary location for vitamin A storage in characteristic lipid droplets

255
Q

Where are sinusoidal capillaries located and why are they different

A

In the liver and they are discontinuous capillaries that facilitates exchange of larger molecules

256
Q

What stimulates the secretion of bile

A

A gut hormone called secretin

257
Q

Where are chylomicrons transferred

A

Thru lymph fluid

258
Q

What is the common bile duct

A

A two way cystic duct that bile is released into by the gallbladder

Phys of Domestic Animals 2 (3 decks)

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