Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

The six levels of organization of the body

A

chemical, cells, tissues, organs, organ systems, organism

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2
Q

Anabolism

A

To build

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3
Q

Catabolism

A

To break down

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4
Q

What three things does development include

A

Differentiation/specialization of cells, growth, and reproduction

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5
Q

Hyperplasia

A

Proliferation, increase in number of cells

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6
Q

Hypertrophy

A

Increase in cell size

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7
Q

What are the three basic nutrients required for life

A

Water, energy, and micronutrients (V&M)

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8
Q

Hormeorhesis

A

The orchestrated or coordinated control in metabolism of body tissues necessary to support a psychological state

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9
Q

What are the four requirements for life

A

Oxygen, nutrients, Narrow range of temp, Narrow range of atmospheric pressure

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10
Q

Sagittal plane

A

Divides left vs right sides; midsagittal, parasagittal, or longitudinal

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11
Q

Forntal plane

A

Divides anterior (front) vs posterior (rear); also called coronal

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12
Q

Transverse plan

A

Divides upper vs lower; also called cross section

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13
Q

What allows for specilization and is seen in every level of A&P

A

Compartmentalization

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14
Q

Pleural cavity surrounds

A

The lungs

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15
Q

Peritoneum surrounds

A

The organs in the abdominal cavity

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16
Q

What is the role of serous (serosa) membranes

A

Thin membranes that cover organs/walls; similar to saran wrap, acts to separate; helps avoid friction

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17
Q

Isotope

A

Contains an equal number of protons, but a different number of neutrons in the nuclei

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18
Q

What causes an isotope to be radioactive

A

They decay from a less stable form to a more stable form

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19
Q

How are radioactive isotopes detected

A

Decay causes emissions of alpha, beta, or gamma particles that are detectable

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20
Q

How are stable (non radioactive) isotopes detected

A

By mass spectrometry

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21
Q

What are the three types of chemical reactions

A

Synthesis, decomposition, exchange

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22
Q

What are the three key inorganic compounds

A

Water, salts, acids/bases

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23
Q

Acids

A

Donate H+ in solution, have a lower pH

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24
Q

Bases

A

Donate OH- or accept H+ in solution; have a higher pH

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25
Q

Buffer

A

Solution of a weak acid and its conjugate base, act to soften blow and equalize things

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26
Q

Two types of acidosis and how they occur

A

Metabolic occurs when reactions generate CO2 or acidic compounds or loss of base while respiratory is when low respiration fails to exhale CO2

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27
Q

Two types of alkalosis and how they occur

A

Respiratory is when hypervenilation blows off too much CO2 raising blood pH and metabolic often is due to diarrhea and loss of HCl

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28
Q

What are the 5 important monosaccharides

A

Hexoses (6C): glucose, fructose, galactose, pentoses (5C): ribose, and deoxyribose

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29
Q

What are the three important disaccharides and what bonds do they have

A

Sucrose: glucose and fructose bind together
Lactose: galactose and glucose bind together
Maltose: two glucose monosaccharides bind

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30
Q

What are the three important polysaccharides

A

Starch, glycogen, and cellulose

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31
Q

Hydroxyl

A

Polar; components of all four types of organic compounds; involved in dehydration synthesis and hydolysis reactions

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32
Q

Carboxyl

A

Found in FA, AA, and other acids

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33
Q

Methly

A

Found w/in AA

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34
Q

Phosphate

A

Found w/in phospholipids and nucleotides

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35
Q

Glycosaminoglycans (GAGs) examples

A

Hyaluronic acid, heparan sulfate, dermatan sulfate, chondroitin sulfate

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36
Q

Saturated FA

A

Linear, have a higher melting point than unsaturated; straight

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37
Q

Unsaturated FA

A

Kinked chain, more fluid; double bonds bend the chain so they dont stack as tightly, therefore have a lower melting point

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38
Q

What is the precursor for steroid hormones and prostaglandins

A

Cholesterol

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39
Q

What are the big four of the phospholipids

A

Phosphatidylserine, phosphatidylcholine, phosphatidylethanolamine, and phosphatidylinositol

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40
Q

How does the delta system nomenclature for lipids work

A

Carbons are counted from the methyl (omega) end

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41
Q

What are the four different shapes of proteins

A

Primary, secondary, tertiary, quaternary

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42
Q

What type of reaction forms a peptide bond

A

A dehydration condensation reaction

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43
Q

What is a peptide bond

A

Bond between AA

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44
Q

What are enzymes classified as

A

Proteins

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45
Q

What are the function of proteins

A

Structural, hormonal, buffers, electrolyte transport, bind water, bind CHO, energy source (de-amination)

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46
Q

What three things do nucleotides need

A

A phsophate head, a sugar, a nitrogen containing base

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47
Q

What bond is present between bases

A

Hydrogen

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48
Q

Three components of a cell membrane

A

Phospholipid bilayer, cholesterol, embedded proteins

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49
Q

The cell membrane allows for compartmentalization of of what three fluids

A

Intracellular fluid (ICF), intercellular fluid (ECF), interstitial fluid (IF)

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50
Q

What model describes the structure of the plasma membrane as a mosaic of components that give the membrane a fluid character

A

Fluid mosaic model

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51
Q

What is in the fluid mosaic model

A

Phospholipids, cholesterol, proteins, and CHO

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52
Q

What are the three integral membrane proteins

A

Channel proteins, receptors, and glycoproteins

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53
Q

What are glycoproteins

A

Proteins covalently bonded to CHO

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54
Q

What are glycoproteins responsible for

A

Cell identity/recognition

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55
Q

What is the glycocalyx

A

A dense, gel like meshwork that surrounds the cell constituting a physical barrier for any object to enter the cell

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56
Q

What cell structure has an important role in immune function cell-cell recognition, communication, and intercellular adhesion

A

Glycocalyx

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57
Q

The cell membrane is _____ permeable

A

Selectivelt

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58
Q

What are the two types of passive transport

A

Diffusion/osmosis (permeable, concentration gradient) and facilitated transport/diffusion (not normally permeable, concentration gradient, specialized transport)

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59
Q

What are the two different types of transporters

A

Channel proteins and carrier proteins

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60
Q

How do channel proteins work

A

They are less selective and usually let more than one thing through

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61
Q

How do carrier proteins work

A

They are more selective only allowing a particular molecule or group of molecules to pass

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62
Q

Where in the body is there a higher affinity for GLUTs (glucose transporters)

A

In the brain needs it to compete w/ the rest of the body’s need for glucose

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63
Q

What is hydrostatic pressure

A

The force exerted on the capillary walls by the volume of fluid w/in the intravascular space, this forces fluid out of cavities and large particles can’t make it out

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64
Q

What is the flow of hydorstatic pressure

A

Higher to lower

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65
Q

Does the arterial or the venous side of a capillary have higher pressure due to capillary fluid exchange and hydrostatic pressure

A

Arterial side is high pressure venous side is low pressure

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66
Q

What is edema

A

A buildup of swelling because of a blockade or an increase in permeability

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67
Q

What is active transport

A

Movement of particles up a concentration gradient that requires energy

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68
Q

What is endocytosis and what type of transport is it

A

Engulfs and brings in as an intracellular vesicle and requires ATP this is active transport

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69
Q

What is pinocytosis

A

Type of endocytosis that involves “cell drinking” or internalizing of fluid + contents

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70
Q

What is phagocytosis

A

Type of endocytosis that involves cell eating or ingesting of large particles

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71
Q

What is exocytosis

A

A type of active transport that involves vesicles in a cell, membranes of vesicle and cell wall fuse contents are released into extracellular space

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72
Q

What is the endoplasmic reticulum

A

A series of membrane bound nuclear membrane w/ lots of SA for embedded proteins and reactions

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73
Q

What is the RER responsible for

A

Protein synthesis

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74
Q

How do proteins get to the golgi apparatus

A

From the RER proteins are exported through vesicles

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75
Q

What is the SER responsible for

A

Lipid synthesis

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76
Q

In steroid producing cells like in the testes and ovaries, what organelle is abundant

A

SER for lipid synthesis

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77
Q

What are the two sides of the golgi apparatus

A

Cis which recieves vesicles from the ER and trans which releases new vesicles

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78
Q

What is the puprose of the golgi apparatus

A

A stack of membranes to sort, modify, and send proteins to target site also performs post transciptional modifications

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79
Q

What is a lysosme

A

“Membrane bound bag of TNT”/large vesicle containing hydrolyic enzymes

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80
Q

What is autophagy

A

“Self eating”/The lysosomal digestion of the cells own components

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81
Q

What are phagolysosomes

A

Phagocytized material (bacteria) vesicle fuses w/ lysosome vesicles that get internalized, fused, and killed/ killing chamber

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82
Q

What is autolysis

A

Cell self destruction that is digested from the inside

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83
Q

What is apoptosis

A

Programmed cell death avoids inflammation since contained

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84
Q

What is the purpose of the mitochondria being highly folded

A

Higher SA for more cellular respiration and making ATP

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85
Q

What does mitochondria contain that other organelles do not

A

Its own DNA

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86
Q

What is the endosymbiosis theory

A

Proposes that mitochondria originated when a bacterial cell took up residence inside another cell

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87
Q

What is the evidence for the endosymbiosis theory in mitochondria

A

It has an outer membrane lipid bilayer and an inner membrane lipid bilayer

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88
Q

What are peroxisomes

A

Membrane bound vesicles that play a role in detoxification

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89
Q

What does catalase do in peroxisomes

A

Catalase catalyzes reactive oxygen species (ROS) which can cause damage to organelles and molecules

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90
Q

What is oxidative stress in basic terms

A

When reactive oxygen molecules build up and cause damage and is a theory for aging

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91
Q

What is the purpose of the cytoskeleton

A

Structural framework needed for shape, motility, transport, polarization, reproduction, and attachment

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92
Q

What are the three fibrous proteins of the cytoskeleton

A

Microtubules, microfilaments, and intermediate filaments

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93
Q

What gives polarity to a cell

A

Cytoskeleton

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94
Q

What three important components do microtubules make up

A

Cillia, flagella for the locomotion in sperm cells, and centrioles for cell division

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95
Q

What are the functions of microtubules

A

Cell motility, mitosis, intracellular transport, cell shape, and resist cell compression

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96
Q

What are the two microfilament components of muscle cells

A

Actin ratchet w/ myosin

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97
Q

What is the purpose of microfilaments

A

Cell contraction, movement, transport, and division

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98
Q

What are intermediate filaments composed of

A

Fibrous subunits of keratin wound into a rope

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99
Q

What is the purpose of intermediate filaments

A

Cell shape and structure, resist tension, anchor organelles w/in cells and anchor cells to each other and extracellular membrane

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100
Q

What is the organization of DNA w/in the nucleus

A

DNA wraps around a histone becoming a nucleosome, nucleosomes are wound together becoming a chromatin, chromatin gets wound together and becomes a chromosome

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101
Q

What are the two steps in protein synthesis

A

Transcription and translation

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102
Q

What speciality might focus on studying all of the structures of the ankle and foot

A

Regional anatomy

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103
Q

What is the smallest independently functioning unit of an organism

A

Cell

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104
Q

A collection of similar tissues that performs a specific function is an

A

Organ system

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105
Q

ATP is an important molecule because it does what

A

A process whereby new cells are formed to replace worn out cells

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106
Q

Humans have the most urgent need for a continuous supply of

A

oxygen

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107
Q

CJ is stuck in her car during a bitterly cold blizzard. Her body responds to the cold by

A

Breaking down stored energy

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108
Q

Stimulation of the heat loss center causes

A

Sweat glands to increase their output

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109
Q

What is the position of the body when it is in the normal anatomical position

A

The body standing upright w/ the feet at shoulder width and parallel, toes forward, upper limbs held out to each side, and palms of the hands facing out

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110
Q

Where is the lumbar region

A

Superior to the popliteal region

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111
Q

What are the four elements that make up more than 95% of the body’s mass

A

Oxygen, carbon, hydrogen, and nitrogen

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112
Q

What characteristics that gives an element its distinctive properties

A

Protons

113
Q

Nitrogen has an atomic number of seven so how many electron shells does it likely have

A

Two

114
Q

A molecule of ammonia contains one atom of nitrogen and three atoms of hydrogen are linked w/

A

Polar covalent bonds

115
Q

A substance formed of crystals of equal numbers of cations and anions held together by ionic bonds is called

A

Salt

116
Q

What kind of energy is stored in a foot of snow on a steep roof

A

Potential energy

117
Q

What does a typical decomposition reaction look like

A

AB turns into A+B

118
Q

What combination of atoms is most likely to result in a chemical reaction

A

Hydrogen and hydrogen

119
Q

What is the process that is occuring when chocolate chips sink to the bottom of pancake mix

A

Suspension

120
Q

What does a higher blood pH mean

A

The blood is alkaline

121
Q

What organic compound do brain cells primarily rely on for fuel

A

Glucose

122
Q

A pentose sugar is a part of the monomer used to build which type of macromolecule

A

Nucleic acids

123
Q

The abiligy of an enzymes active sites to bind only substrates of compatible shape and charge is known as

A

Specificity

124
Q

Because ion channels are embedded w/in the membrane they are examples of what

A

Integral proteins

125
Q

What are ion pumps and phagocytosis both examples of

A

Active transport

126
Q

Cytoplasm is to cytosol as a swimming pool containing chlorine and flotation toys is to

A

The water

127
Q

What is a function of the rough ER

A

Production of proteins

128
Q

What structure could be found w/in the nucleolus

A

Ribosomes

129
Q

Place the following structures in order from least to most complex organization chromatin, nucleosome, DNA and chromosome

A

DNA, nucleosome, chromatin, chromosome

130
Q

How many letters of an RNA molecule in sequence does it take to provide the code for a single AA

A

3

131
Q

What phase is characterized by preparation for DNA synthesis

A

G1

132
Q

What is a primary function of tumor suppressor genes

A

Stop certian cells from dividing

133
Q

What type of stem cell gives rise to red and white blood cells

A

Hematopoietic

134
Q

What do differentiated cells in a developing embryo derive from

A

Ectoderm, mesoderm, and endoderm

135
Q

What type of cells are arranged in a single layer and look tall and narrow and the nucleus is located close to the basal side of the cell

A

Stratified

136
Q

Which type of epithelial tissue specializes in moving particles across its surface and is found in airways and lining of the oviduct

A

Stratified columnar

137
Q

Connective tissue is made of which three essential components

A

Cells, ground substance, and protein fibers

138
Q

What kind of connective tissue specializes in storage of fat

A

Adipose tissue

139
Q

In adults new connective tissue cells originate from the

A

Mesenchyme

140
Q

Myocytes develop from what

A

Myoblasts

141
Q

Striations, cylindrical cells, and multiple nuclei are found in

A

Skeletal muscle only

142
Q

What is found in abundance in skeletal muscle cells

A

Mitochondria

143
Q

What is not a cardinal sign of inflammation

A

Fever

144
Q

Atrophy refers to what

A

Loss in mass

145
Q

Endocrine glands do what

A

Secrete chemical messengers that travel in the bloodstrem

146
Q

A newly developed pesticide has been observed to bind to an intracellular hormone receptor if ingested residue from this pesticide could disrupt levels of

A

Thyroid hormone

147
Q

After a car accident w/ no injuries an individual experiences pupil dilation, increased heart rate, and rapid breathing what type of endocrine system stimulus did this individual receive

A

Neural

148
Q

What hormone contributes to the regulation of the body’s fluid and electrolye balance

A

Antidiuretic hormone

149
Q

Iodide ions cross from the bloodstream into follicle cells via what

A

Active transport

150
Q

What can result in hyperparathyroidism

A

Fractures

151
Q

What secretory cell type is found in the adrenal medulla

A

Chromaffin cells

152
Q

What responses are a part of fight or flight response

A

Pupil dilation, increased oxygen supply to the lungs, and suppressed digestion

153
Q

What is the production of melatonin inhibited by

A

Exposure of bright light

154
Q

The production of FSH by the anterior pituitary is reduced by which hormone

A

Inhibin

155
Q

If an autoimmune disorder targets the alpha cells production of which hormone would be directly affected

A

Glucagon

156
Q

The walls of the atria produce which hormone

A

Atrial natriuretic peptide

157
Q

Athletes may take synthetic EPO to boost their what

A

Blood oxygen levels

158
Q

What embryonic germ layer does the anterior pituitary develop from

A

oral ectoderm

159
Q

What types of cancer come at an increase risk when BRCA1 and BRCA2 are present

A

Breast, pancreas, ovarian, and prostate

160
Q

What are totipotent stem cells

A

Found in early embryos and can become any cell or whole organism

161
Q

What is pluripotent stem cells

A

Can become any tissue

162
Q

What are multipotent stem cells

A

Can be differentiate into any cell w/in a lineage

163
Q

What are oligopotent stem cells

A

Can form a few cell types w/in a lineage

164
Q

What are unipotent stem cells

A

Specialized cells that can only make more of its own cell type

165
Q

What type of stem cells does bone marrow have

A

Hematopoietic, endothelial, and mesenchymal

166
Q

What are transcription factors

A

Proteins that bind to specific genes and promote or inhibit expression of that gene

167
Q

What is the response element in transcription factors

A

Short sequences of DNA w/in a gene promoter or enhancer region that bind specific transcription factors and regulate expression of that gene

168
Q

How do steroid hormones exert their functions

A

Their receptors

169
Q

What is epithelial tissue

A

Cells specialized for exchange or barrier including sheets and glands

170
Q

What is connective tissue

A

Relatively few cells embedded in ECM that connects, supports, and anchors things in the body

171
Q

What does cardiac muscle have

A

Intercalated dics and gap junctions

172
Q

Specifications of smooth muscle tissue

A

Non striated, singular nucli, inner circular, and outer longitudinal

173
Q

What are the four tissue membranes

A

Mucous, serous, cutaneous, and synovial

174
Q

What is the purpose of intercalated disks

A

They join them w/ adjacent cells as well as allowing passage of electrical activity throughout creating a conduit from one cell to the next

175
Q

What does the functional syncytium have

A

Intracellular attachments

176
Q

What is the function of CT

A

Encapsulates organs and lines joints

177
Q

What is the function of epithelial membranes

A

Anchored to underly CT

178
Q

What does the basement membrane of epithelial tissue consist of

A

Basal lamina and reticular lamina

179
Q

What are the functions of epithelial cells

A

Contains a barrier as the 1st line of defense, protection, transport, secretion, holds cell junctions, and contains polarization, different organelles, cilia, microvilli, and cell volume

180
Q

What are the three types of cell cell junctions

A

Tight, anchoring, and gap

181
Q

What are tight junctions

A

Barrier, fence, or belt ex: blood brain barrier

182
Q

What are anchoring junctions

A

Plaques or patches

183
Q

What are the three types of anchoring junctions

A

Desmosomes, hemi desmosomes, and zonula adherens

184
Q

What are desmosomes primarily made of

A

Cadherin cell:cell

185
Q

What are hemi desmosomes consist of

A

Integrins and cadherins cell:ECM

186
Q

What are zonula adherens attached to

A

Actin

187
Q

What type of passage do gap junctions have

A

Open passage

188
Q

Where is simple squamous epithelia found and what is its function

A

Endothelium, lining of alveoli in lungs, part of the kidney, and mesothelium, its function is allowing diffusion

189
Q

What is the function of the goblet cell

A

Secrete mucus and is made of mucin that holds water

190
Q

What type of cell is the goblet cell

A

Columnar

191
Q

What is stratified epithelia used for

A

Protection and to fluff

192
Q

What do melanocytes make

A

Melanin and pass it on to granules

193
Q

What is albinism

A

An organism that has no or defective tyrosinase
or melanin

194
Q

Which glands have ducts

A

Exocrine

195
Q

What are the different gland structures

A

Simple, compound, tubular, coiled, or branched

196
Q

What are the three methods of secretion

A

Merocrine, apocrine, and holocrine

197
Q

What is mercrine secretion

A

Exocytosis the cell remains intact

198
Q

What is apocrine secretion

A

Decapitation secreation the apical portion of the cell is released

199
Q

What is holocrine secretion

A

The cell is destroyed and either sluffs or bursts

200
Q

What does sebaceous glands make and secrete

A

They secrete oil that is made out of lipids

201
Q

What is CT primarily made of

A

Ground substance

202
Q

What are the three main categories of CT

A

Connective tissue proper, supportive CT, and fluid CT

203
Q

What are the two types of CT proper

A

Loose and dense

204
Q

What fixed cells are in CT

A

Fibroblasts, adipocytes, and mesenchymal

205
Q

What wandering cells are in CT

A

Macrophages, mast cells, lymphocytes, plasma cells, and neutrophils

206
Q

What is unilocular

A

There is only one chamber in the adipocyte

207
Q

What is multilocular

A

There are multiple chambers in the adipocyte

208
Q

What are mast cells

A

Degranulate, histamine, and heparin

209
Q

What are the three main types of fibers found in CT

A

Collagen, elastic fiber, and reticular fiber

210
Q

What is parenchyma

A

Functional part of an organ, blood vessels, and nerves

211
Q

What is stroma

A

Supporting CT

212
Q

What is the function of loose CT

A

Protect, insulate, shock absorption, and allows diffusion

213
Q

What is found in loose CT

A

Adipose, areolar, and reticular tissue

214
Q

What does dense CT have more of

A

Collagen

215
Q

What are the two types of dense CT

A

Regular which has parallel fibers and irregular which has a random direction of fibers

216
Q

Where is cartilage found

A

Where bones meet together

217
Q

What is a unique aspect of cartilage

A

It is avascular (no blood supply)

218
Q

What type of cells is embedded in cartilage

A

Chondrocytes

219
Q

What is perichondrium

A

Dense irregular CT that encapsulates cartilage

220
Q

What are the three types of cartilage

A

Hyaline, fibrocartilage, and elastic cartilage

221
Q

What is the function of hyaline cartilage

A

Provides support w/ some flexibility

222
Q

What is the function of fibrocartilage

A

Provides some compressibility and can absorb pressure

223
Q

What is the function of elastic cartilage

A

Provides firm but elastic support

224
Q

What is hydroxyapatite

A

Natural mineral form of calcium apatite

225
Q

What are the two parts of bone

A

Spongy which is found at the top and compact which is found in the middle

226
Q

What does periosteum surround

A

The outside of the bone

227
Q

What does endosteum surround

A

The inside of the bone

228
Q

What type of ossification does flat bones have

A

Intramembranous

229
Q

What type of ossification do long bones have

A

Endochondral

230
Q

What three cell types make up the hematopoietic stem cells in bone marrow

A

Platelets, RBCs, and Leukocytes in that order of quantity

231
Q

What does lymph ECF lack

A

RBCs

232
Q

What are the components of the lymphatic system

A

Lymphatic fluid, lymphatic vessels, lymphocytes, and lymphoid tissues/organs

233
Q

What happens when you eat a very fatty meal

A

There is a large amount of lympth material presence on your digestional organs due to the amount of lipids presence

234
Q

What is the epimysium

A

A dense irregular CT that surrounds the entire muscle

235
Q

What is perimysium

A

A thinner CT layer that bundles muscle fibers into a fascicle

236
Q

What is endomysium

A

A fine CT layer that surrounds each muscle fiber

237
Q

What are schwann cells

A

Neuron associated cells that secrete myelin that wraps around the axon to form sheaths

238
Q

What do myelin sheaths do the axon

A

Provides an insulted axon to support and propagate actions potentials

239
Q

What do glial cells do in the nervous system

A

Support the nervous system

240
Q

What are astrocytes

A

Supports the structure of the nervous system, regulates ion concentration, and maintains neurotransmitter uptake

241
Q

What are oligodendrocytes

A

Myelin secreting cells in the central nervous system

242
Q

What is microglia

A

Macrophages of the nervous system

243
Q

What are the 5 cardinal signs of inflammation

A

Redness, heat, pain, swelling, and loss of function

244
Q

What is necrosis

A

Random cell death that causes inflammation

245
Q

What do hormones produced by the endocrine gland bind to

A

Receptors on target cells

246
Q

What are the the organs and glands associated w/ the endocrine system

A

Pituitary gland, thyroid, adrenal gland, pancreas, uterus, ovaries, nd testes

247
Q

What are amine hormones

A

AA w/ modified groups

248
Q

What are peptide hormones

A

Short chains of linked AA

249
Q

What are protein hormones

A

Long chains of linked AA

250
Q

What are steriod hormones

A

Derived from lipid cholesterol

251
Q

What is the function of the pituitary gland

A

Produces and secretes hormones that maintain body function

252
Q

What is the function of the thyroid

A

Produces and secretes hormones that maintains the metabolic rate, growth, and development of the body

253
Q

What is the function and location of the adrenal glands

A

Located on the top of both kidneys it produces and secretes hormones that maintain metabolism, the immune system, BP, and stress responses

254
Q

What is the function of the pancreas

A

Produces and secretes insulin to maintain blood sugar

255
Q

What two hormones are produced by the posterior pituitary

A

Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) and oxytocin

256
Q

What hormones are produced by the anterior pituitary

A

Growth hormone (GH), prolactin (PRL), thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH), adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH), follicle stimulating hormone (FSH), and luteinizing hormone (LH)

257
Q

What is the function, target, and releasing hormone of GH

A

Promotes growth of body tissues, targets the liver, bone, and muscles, and is triggered by the release of GHRH

258
Q

What is the function, target, and releasing hormone of prolactin

A

Promotes milk production, targets the mammary glands, and is triggered by the release of PRH

259
Q

What is the function, target, and releasing hormone of TSH

A

Stimulates thyroid hormones release, targets the thyroid gland, and is triggered by the release of TRH

260
Q

What is the function, target, and releasing hormone of ACTH

A

Stimulates hormone release by adrenal cortex, targets adrenal glands, and is triggered by the release of CRH

261
Q

What is the function, target, and releasing hormone of LH

A

Stimulates androgen production by gonads, targets the repro system, and is triggered by the release of GnRH

262
Q

What is the function, target, and releasing hormone of ADH

A

Stimulates water reabsorption by kidneys, targets the renal tubules and is triggered by the release of ADH from the hypothalamus

263
Q

How do lipid soluble hormones come in and affect the cell

A

The steroid hormone diffuses through the plasma membrane and binds to its receptor in the cytoplasm the hormone then enters the nucleus and triggers gene transcription

264
Q

How do water soluble hormones come in and affect the cell

A

The hormone binds to a membrane receptor that activates a G protein that in turn activates adenylyl cyclase which then catalyzes a conversion of ATP to cAMP this goes and activates protein kinases which activates proteins

265
Q

What are other 2nd messengers

A

Ca ions, DAG, and IP3

266
Q

What does DAG do

A

Activates protein kinases

267
Q

What does IP3 do

A

Triggers Ca release from SER

268
Q

What is downregulation

A

Reduction the number of receptors available

269
Q

What is upregulation

A

Increase the number of receptors available

270
Q

What is a permissive interactions

A

Presence of a hormone permits a response to another hormone

271
Q

What is a synergistic interactions

A

More than one hormone causes a greater response then either hormone individually

272
Q

What is an antagonistic interaction

A

One blocks the effects of the other

273
Q

What is HHP

A

Hypothesal Hypothalmo Portal system is a portal system between the anterior and posterior pituitary

274
Q

What hormone causes the secretion of GH and where does it come from

A

GHRH that is stimulated by the hypothalamus

275
Q

What does GH do in the body

A

Glucose sparing effect, growth effects, and diabetogenic effect

276
Q

What is the glucose sparing effect

A

Breaks down adipose cells to store as fat fueling growth effects

277
Q

What are the targets of growth effects

A

Bone cells, muscle cells, nervous system cells, immune systems cell

278
Q

What is the diabetogenic effect

A

GH stimulates liver to break down glycogen into glucose fueling growth effects IGF-1 is released from the liver during this process

279
Q

What is the function of IGF-1

A

It further stimulates growth effects and triggers the hypothalamus to secrete GHIH