exam 3 Flashcards

1
Q

Oocytes (2n) begin meiosis I during ____________ and are arrested in __________ and remain dormant until after puberty.

Meoisis I then resumes when an _______________

A

Oocytes (2n) begin meiosis I during fetal development and are arrested in Prophase I and remain dormant until after puberty.

Meoisis I then resumes when an individual follicle is recruited (in adult life)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What stage of meiosis if the oocyte arrested in from fetal development until puberty

A

Prophase I

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

When does Meiosis I resume again in the oocyte

A

when the individual follicle is recruited (in adult life)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What stage is the oocyte of the dog in when they ovulate

A

Prophase I of meiosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is polar body

A

a small haploid cell that is formed at the same time as an egg cell during oogenesis, but generally does not have the ability to be fertilized

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Meiosis II of the oocyte begins when the follicle is recruited for further development but it is arrested in

A

Metaphase II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What stage of meiosis is the oocyte in at ovulation

A

Metaphase II
*meiosis resume so only if the oocyte if fertilized by a sperm

In the dog, the oocyte is only in prophase I at ovulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

In most species, the the oocyte is in ______ at ovulation but in the dog they are in _______ at ovulation

A

Metaphase II

Prophase I

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is released at ovulation

A

cumulus-oocyte complex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What picks up the cumulus oocyte complex after ovulation

A

the infundibulum of the oviduct
it is then transported distally to the ampulla region

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are sperm reservoirs

A

sperm attach to the epithelium of the female reproductive tract (cervix, uterotubular junction or distal isthmus where they are eventually released and travel proximally by the oviduct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Where are sperm reservoirs

A

sperm attach to the epithelium of the female reproductive tract (cervix, uterotubular junction or distal isthmus where they are eventually released and travel proximally by the oviduct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Sperm Capacitation

A

changes in the glycoproteins on the surface of the sperm plasma membrane

alteration of the lipid structure of the sperm plasma membrane leading to hyper-activated motility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the result of sperm capacitation

A

alteration of the lipid structure of the sperm plasma membrane leading to hyper-activated motility to now be able to penetrate the cumulus oocyte complex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

sperm penetrate through the __________ surrounding the oocyte

A

cumulus cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Where does the sperm bind to on the oocyte

A

Zona pellucida (ZP3 molecule)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What triggers the acrosome reaction

A

influx of calcium

the outer acrosomal membrane then fuses with the sperm plasma membrane leading to acrosomal enzymes being release to digest a pathway through the zona pellucida

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the acrosome reaction

A

influx of calcium triggers the outer acrosomal membrane then fuses with the sperm plasma membrane leading to acrosomal enzymes being release to digest a pathway through the zona pellucida

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Once the sperm is hyperactivated and acrosomally reacted it is able to pass through the ___________ into the _________

A

zona pellucida into the perivitelline space (between the zona pellucida and the oocyte plasma membrane)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Where is the perivitelline space

A

(between the zona pellucida and the oocyte plasma membrane)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What happens once the sperm is in the perivitelline space

A

it is able to bind to and subsequently fuse with the oocyte plasma membrane (binding site on sperm is only exposed after acrosome reaction)

the sperm is then internalized into the cytoplasm of the oocyte

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What allows exposure of the sperm binding site to the oocyte plasma membrane

A

after the acrosome reaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What occurs once the sperm enters the cytoplasm of the oocyte *

A

Cortical reaction: sperm releases phospholipase zeta into the oocyte cytoplasm and triggers a release of calcium from internal stores
this causes release of cortical granules into the perivitelline space
alters the zona pellucida and prevents penetration by additional sperm (zona hardening)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Cortical reaction *

A

sperm releases phospholipase zeta into the oocyte cytoplasm and triggers a release of calcium from internal stores
this causes release of cortical granules into the perivitelline space
alters the zona pellucida and prevents penetration by additional sperm (zona hardening)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What happens so the oocyte does not get fertilized by multiple sperm *

A

cortical reaction
sperm releases phospholipase zeta which releases calcium and this releases cortical granules into perivitelline space to harden the zona pellucida

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is zona hardening * know this

A

Cortical reaction: sperm releases phospholipase zeta into the oocyte cytoplasm and triggers a release of calcium from internal stores
this causes release of cortical granules into the perivitelline space
alters the zona pellucida and prevents penetration by additional sperm (zona hardening)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

blocks to polysperm

A

-Limitation of number of sperm entery oviduct
-limitation of number of sperm in sperm reservoir
-limitation of sperm arriving at site of fertilization (ampulla)
-limitation of sperm penetrating cumulus
-plasma membrane block - prevents binding/fusion of additional spermatozoa
-zona pellucida block (zona hardening)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Where does fertilization take place

A

ampulla- isthmus junction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What allows meiosis II to resume with fertilization

A

Ca++

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What occurs during zygote formation

A

Meiosis II resumes (stimulated by Ca2+)
Second polar body is extruded
Male and female pronuclei form and fuse
Chromosomes are duplicated (mitosis) and the cell cleaves into two blastomeres

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

zygote

A

where there is two sets of DNA- male and female

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What happens once male and female pronuclei form and fuse

A

chromosomes are duplicated (mitosis) and the cell cleaves into two blastomeres

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

How long does it take blastomere cells to divide

A

every 12-24 hours
*each division results in smaller individual cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

developing embryo that is 16 to 32 cells (maybe 64? too)?

A

Morula

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what is the second membrane, that only horses have that surround the embryo

A

capsule (also zona pellucida)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

forms when blastomeres secrete fluid within the center of the embryo

A

blastocoele

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is the outer layer of the embryo called once the blastocele forms

A

trophoblast- forms the placenta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What part of the developing embryo forms the placenta

A

trophoblast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

the inner cell mass develops into the

A

fetus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What occurs at the ampulla- isthmus junction

A

fertilization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What occurs once fertilization occurs at the ampulla- isthmus junction

A

the developing embryo is transported distally through the isthmus and into the uterus by oviductal smooth muscle contractions and ciliary movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

When does the embryo enter the uterus in the cow

A

4 to 7 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

When does the embryo enter the uterus in the pig

A

3.5 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

When does the embryo enter the uterus in the mare

A

5.5 to 6.5 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

When does the embryo enter the uterus

A

3.5 days (pigs)
4 to 7 days (cow)
5.5 to 6.5 days (mare)

*at morula or early blastocyst stage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

At what stage is the embryo when it enters the uterus

A

at morula or early blastocyst stage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

T/F: only viable equine embryos are transported distally through the isthmus and pass through the UTJ into the uterus

A

True

this is different from the cow because when you flush the cow’s uterus, you will get UFOs and fertilized oocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What allows embryo passage through the oviduct in the horse

A

Must product prostaglandin E2 which relaxes the inner circular smooth muscle of the oviduct and allows embryo passage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What relaxes the inner circular smooth muscle of the oviduct and allows viable embryo passage in the isthmus of the horse

A

PGE2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

In the horse, only __________ are transported distally through the _________ and pass through the _______ into the uterus

A

viable embryos are transported distally through the isthmus and pass through the UTJ into the uterus

*done via PGE2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

zona hatching

A

embryonic development creates pressure
a small crack eventually occurs in the zona pellucida
the blastocyst stage embryo squeezes out through the crack “hatching” in ruminant embryos

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What do equines do instead of zona hatching

A

they do zona thinning
equine embryos expand and the zona thins and is subsequently shed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Zonna thinning

A

equine embryos expand and the zona thins and is subsequently shed

only in horse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

glycoprotein capsule between the trophoblast cells and zona pellucida in vivo

A

Equine Embryonic Capsule
*keeps embryo in the spherical shape

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What is the function of the Equine Embryonic Capsule

A

keeps embryo in the spherical shape after zona thinning and shedding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

what is the hormone required by all females to maintain pregnancy, especially early on **know this

A

Progesterone
-inital source of progesterone is corpus luteum of the ovary
-in some species, progesterone and other progestins are eventually produced by the placenta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

T/F: goats are entirely reliant on their corpus luteum throughout pregnancy

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

When does maternal recognition of pregnancy occur in the mare

A

about 14 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

T/F: it is helpful to supplement progesterone to maintain pregnancy

A

there is little clinical evidence to support the routine use of supplemental exogenous progesterone in order to maintain pregnancy

however the use of exogenous progesterine os common in mares (Regumate)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

large animal embryos must signal the uterus to prevent the secretion of prostaglandins and subsequent luteolysis
a decrease in progesterone production would result in pregnancy failure

A

Maternal recognition of pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

How is maternal recognition of pregnancy achieved in bovines and ovines? *

A

embryos secrete interferon tau which inhibits the production of oxytocin receptors in the endometrium so that oxytocin cannot stimulate prostaglandin F2a synthesis

embryo elongate in their ipsilateral uterine horn to the CL
this elongation allows IFN-t produces by trophoblast cells to contact the entire ipsilateral endometrium to signal MRP
this is important relative to counter current transport system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Interferon tau

A

secreted by bovine and ovine embryos and inhibit the production of oxytocin receptors in the endometrium so that oyxtocin cannot stimulate prostaglandin F2a synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

How is maternal recognition of pregnancy achieved in pigs *

A

pigs embryos produce estradiol which re-routes PGF secretion into the uterine lumen

Pig embroys will migrate throughout the uterus on day 8-9 and spread apart.
Migration stops at day 12
A total of 4 embryos are required for MRP
At least 1 embryo has to be in each horn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

How is maternal recognition of pregnancy achieved in equine

A

the signal is not known

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What produces IFN-t

A

trophoblast cells of bovine and ovine embryo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What does the elongation of the bovine and ovine embryos do? **

A

embryo elongate in their ipsilateral uterine horn to the CL
this elongation allows IFN-t produces by trophoblast cells to contact the entire ipsilateral endometrium to signal MRP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What is required for MRP in pigs *

A

1) Embryo migration from days 8-12
2) Total of 4 embryos or more
3) At least 1 embryo has to be in each horn
4) Estrogens from embryos

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

How many embryos are needed in pigs for MRP

A

4 embryos
at least one in each horn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What is needed for MRP in equine

A

Equine embryos spherical and migrate throughout entire uterine lumen (both horns and body) multiple times each day

migration facilitates embryo signaling in the entire endometrium for MRP

important relative to the mechanism by which prostaglandins travel to the ovary in the mare (systemic circulation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

When do equine embryos stop migrating

A

day 16 (MRP happens 12-14 days)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

twins that arise from the fertilization of two oocytes

A

Dizygotic twins (non-identical)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

twins that arise from fertilization of one oocyte from one ovulation and the developing embryo splits

A

Monozygotic twins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

In what species are twins or triplets common

A

sheep and goats
survival offspring are of economic benefit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

T/F: twins survive in horses and this is economically beneficial

A

False- twins often do not survive in horse to term or early neonatal loss occurs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What does embryo splitting do

A

it creates identical twins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What is the incidence rate of embryonic loss

A

2-20%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Conception (fertilization) rates are

A

often very high
determined by the presence of cleavage stage or early developing embryos in the oviduct 2-3 days after ovulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

uterine pregnancy rates are

A

usually much lower that conception rates
embryos visible on ultrasound exam 14-18 days after ovulation
suggests that early embroyonic loss rates are significant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What happens when there is embryonic loss prior to maternal recognition of pregnancy

A

CL regresses at normal time

no delay in return to estrus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What happens when there is embryonic loss after maternal recognition of pregnancy

A

CL persist
Delay in return to estrus
Need to administer prostaglandins to lyse CL and allow for a return to estrus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What are causes of early pregnancy loss

A

1) maternal age (older oocytes, DNA damage over time)
2) Endometrial/uterine disease
3) Progesterone abnormalities
4) Chromosomal abnormalities
5) Inadequate nutrition
6) Maternal stress
7) Early postpartum pregnancies (some species)
8) Abnormalities of embryonic development

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

describe only the fetal component of the placenta

A

fetal membranes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

placenta consists of

A

both maternal and embryonic/fetal components

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

How is the fetus nutritionally supported in early pregnancy

A

secretions from endometrial glands provide micronutrients which are taken up by the trophoblast cells and eventually by the vascularized yolk sac
-Histotrophic support

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

How is the fetus nutritionally supported in later pregnancy

A

development of close association between vascular tissue of maternal endometrium and fetal membranes allows for hemotrophic support

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

When does implantation/ attachment (interdigitation of placental tissue with endometrium occur)

A

Pigs: 14-18 days
Sheep: 15-18days
Cows: 18-22 days
Horses: 35-38 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

When does implantation/ attachment (interdigitation of placental tissue with endometrium occur) in pigs

A

Pigs: 14-18 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

When does implantation/ attachment (interdigitation of placental tissue with endometrium occur) in sheep

A

Sheep: 15-18days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

When does implantation/ attachment (interdigitation of placental tissue with endometrium occur) in cows

A

Cows: 18-22 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

When does implantation/ attachment (interdigitation of placental tissue with endometrium occur) in horses

A

Horses: 35-38 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

What is the membrane that surrounds the developing fetus

A

amnion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

what is the outpouching of the fetal hindgut

A

chorioallantoic membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

What fluid is ruptured

A

allantoic fluid as the chorioallantois ruptures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

placenta type where microcotyledons evenly spread out across entire placenta

A

Diffuse

horse and pig*

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

What kind of placenta type do horses have

A

Diffuse

placenta type where microcotyledons evenly spread out across entire placenta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

What kind of placenta type to pigs have

A

Diffuse

placenta type where microcotyledons evenly spread out across entire placenta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

placenta type where discrete attachment sites between cotyledons (placenta) and caruncles (uterus) forming placentomes

A

Cotyledonary

ruminants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

What kind of placenta type do ruminants have

A

Cotyledonary
placenta type where discrete attachment sites between cotyledons (placenta) and caruncles (uterus) forming placentomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

What is the maternal component of the placentome

A

caruncles (uterus)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

What is the fetal component of the placenetome

A

cotyledons (placenta)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

placenta type where contact between placenta and endometrium is in a band around the fetus

A

Zonary
-carnivores

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

What type of placenta type do dogs have

A

Zonary

placenta type where contact between placenta and endometrium is in a band around the fetus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

What type of placenta type do cats have

A

Zonary

placenta type where contact between placenta and endometrium is in a band around the fetus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

What kind of placenta type do primates and rats have

A

discoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

How many placenta layers are there in ruminants

A

Epitheliochorial
-chorionic villi grows into the aperatures of uterine glands
6 degrees of separation
1) Fetal endothelial cells
2) Fetal connective tissue
3) Chorionic epithelial cells

4) Endometrial epithelial cells
5) maternal connective tissue
6) maternal endothelial cells

*present in all large animals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

What does it mean when animals have an epitheliochorial placenta type

A

Epitheliochorial
-chorionic villi grows into the aperatures of uterine glands
6 degrees of separation
1) Fetal endothelial cells
2) Fetal connective tissue
3) Chorionic epithelial cells

4) Endometrial epithelial cells
5) maternal connective tissue
6) maternal endothelial cells

*present in all large animals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

What does it mean when animals have an endotheliochorial placenta type

A

Endotheliochorial
-Chorionic villi are in contact with the endothelium of maternal blood vessels
-4 layers of separation
1) Fetal endothelial cells
2) Fetal connective tissue
3) Chorionic epithelial cells
4) Maternal endothelial cells

*loss of endometrial epithelial cells and maternal connective tissue

*Dog and cat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

How many placenta layers do dogs and cats have

A

Endotheliochorial
-Chorionic villi are in contact with the endothelium of maternal blood vessels
-4 layers of separation
1) Fetal endothelial cells
2) Fetal connective tissue
3) Chorionic epithelial cells
4) Maternal endothelial cells

*loss of endometrial epithelial cells and maternal connective tissue

*Dog and cat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

What does it mean when an animal has hemochorial placenta

A

Hemochorial
-fetal chorion comes into direct contact with maternal blood
*3 layers of separation
1) Fetal endothelial cells
2) Fetal connective tissue
3) Chorionic epithelial cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

What kind of placenta do primates and rodents have

A

Hemochorial
-fetal chorion comes into direct contact with maternal blood
*3 layers of separation
1) Fetal endothelial cells
2) Fetal connective tissue
3) Chorionic epithelial cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

All foals, calves, lambs, kids are born with a functional immune system but not any antibodies, why is this?

A

Because they have an epitheliochorial placenta (all 6 layers are intact and large IgG cannot pass)

Need to have colostrum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

Why is it even more important that foals, calves, lambs, and kids get colostrum

A

Because they have an epitheliochorial placenta (all 6 layers are intact and large IgG cannot pass)

Need to have colostrum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

What are the layers in the epitheliochorial placenta

A

6 degrees of separation
1) Fetal endothelial cells
2) Fetal connective tissue
3) Chorionic epithelial cells

4) Endometrial epithelial cells
5) maternal connective tissue
6) maternal endothelial cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

What are the layers of the endotheliochorial placenta

A

-4 layers of separation
1) Fetal endothelial cells
2) Fetal connective tissue
3) Chorionic epithelial cells
4) Maternal endothelial cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

What are the layers of the hemochorial placenta

A

-fetal chorion comes into direct contact with maternal blood
*3 layers of separation
1) Fetal endothelial cells
2) Fetal connective tissue
3) Chorionic epithelial cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

Rank the different placenta types by their level of transplacental transfer of immunoglobulins during pregnancy

A

Hemochorial > Endotheliochorial > Hemochorial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

T/F: colostrum is not very important in cats and dogs because they still get some transplacental transfer of immunoglobulins

A

False- they have 4 layers of separation between vascualar supply of dam and vascular supply of fetus allows some transfer of immunoglobulins but colostrum is still important

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

What are the species that depend on the CL for progesterone throughout gestation

A

Dogos
Cats
Goats
Pigs
Llamas/ Alpacas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

T/F: dogs are CL dependent species for their progesterone source throughout gestation

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

T/F: cats are CL dependent species for their progesterone source throughout gestation

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

T/F: goats are CL dependent species for their progesterone source throughout gestation

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

T/F: pigs are CL dependent species for their progesterone source throughout gestation

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

T/F: llamas/ alpacas are CL dependent species for their progesterone source throughout gestation

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

T/F: horses are CL dependent species for their progesterone source throughout gestation

A

False- they rely on their CL for 70 days out of 11 month gestation and then it switches to placenta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

T/F: sheep are CL dependent species for their progesterone source throughout gestation

A

False- they rely on their CL for 50 days out of a 5 month gestation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

T/F: cows are CL dependent species for their progesterone source throughout gestation

A

False- they rely on their CL for 6-8 months out of the 9month gestation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

In horses, when does progesterone source switch from CL to placenta *

A

they rely on their CL for 70 days out of 11 month gestation and then it switches to placenta
(full switch over at 120 days)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

In sheep, when does progesterone source switch from CL to placenta

A

they rely on their CL for 50 days out of a 5 month gestation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

In cows, when does progesterone source switch from CL to placenta

A

they rely on their CL for 6-8 months out of the 9month gestation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

What do horses form at 35 days of gestation ***

A

endometrial cups- cells from trophoblast invade into tissue to produce eCG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

What signals the mare’s ovary to make the secondary CL *

A

endometrial cups (d35)- cells from trophoblast invade into tissue to produce eCG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

specialized trophoblast cells - origin is chorionic girdle (visible at day 25 of gestation), invade into endometrium (days 35) to form distinct cup shaped aggregation of fetal tissue within the maternal endometrium. What is this called

A

Equine Endometrial Cups (know this)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

Equine Endometrial Cups **

A

specialized trophoblast cells - origin is chorionic girdle (visible at day 25 of gestation), invade into endometrium (days 35) to form distinct cup shaped aggregation of fetal tissue within the maternal endometrium. What is this called

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

What do Equine Endometrial Cups produce

A

ecG is produced by bi-nucleated cells
may provide protection from maternal immune system
ecG has noth FSH and LH activity

but tells horse ovary to form secodnary or accessory corpora lutea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

What is the result of ecG produced by the endometrial cups of the pregnant mare *

A

ecG has both FSH and LH activity
1) Endogenous FSH stimulates follicle development in pregnant mare
2) Causes ovulation and/or luteinization of the large follicles
3) Secondary or accessory corpora lutea form- to produce additional progesterone and helps support early pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

When do endometrial cups in mare typically disappear

A

after 120-150 days of gestation via immune rejection (formed at day 35 of gestation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

What is the result if there is pregnancy loss after day 35 in the mare

A

the mare forms endometrial cups at day 35
cups will remain present; eCG production is continued and the mare is lost for the season and will not cycle back

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

What happens with persistent endometrial cups

A

continued presence beyond 150 days after pregnancy loss or after delivery of normal healthy full term foal
eCG prodiction continued

results in abnormal ovarian function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

What happens to the equine fetal gonads during gestation

A

gonads of male and female fetus undergo dramatic enlargement and regression between 3-8 months of gestation

*enlarged gonads produce androgen precursors and those androgens can be converted to estrogens by placental aromatase

Androgen and estrogen levels increase in maternal blood- may cause behavioral changes in mare (aggressive or stallion live behavior)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

What is the result of the enlarged equine fetal gonads between months 3-8 of gestation

A

*enlarged gonads produce androgen precursors and those androgens can be converted to estrogens by placental aromatase

Androgen and estrogen levels increase in maternal blood- may cause behavioral changes in mare (aggressive or stallion live behavior)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

Trouble with equine twins

A

abortion rate is high
most mares cannot carry twins to term (abortion after 7months)
cause of abortion is placental insufficency
complications:
retained placenta
dystocia
ruptured prepubic tendon
rebreeding problems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

What are the complications of equine twins

A

retained placenta
dystocia
ruptured prepubic tendon
rebreeding problems

Most have abortions after 7 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

T/F: it is okay to advise clients that they can let the mare carry both embryos to term

A

False- terrible idea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

What should you do if you have a mare pregnant with twins*

A

abort embryos and rebreed
-not popular with the client

so you can eliminate one embryo- pregnancy reduction (most common procedure)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

When is the best time for pregnancy reduction in a mare with twins

A

Day 14-16
Embryos migrate throughout uterus from day 6 to day 16, at which time they fix in position

Reduction is when one embryonic vesicle is disrupted and the other is allowed to continue to develop

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

Do you chose to reduce the smaller or larger embryo when a mare has twin embryos

A

smaller

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

How is twin reduction done in mares

A

1) around day 14-16 when the embryos are migrating throughout the uterus
2) Press down with ultrasound and steam roll to disrupt the membrane around the embryo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

What is the optimal technique for pregnancy diagnosis

A

*Stage dependent
False negatives and positives are possible with any test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

T/F: false negatives and positives are possible with any pregnancy diagnosis test

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

What are the different pregnancy tests for the mare

A

1) Early Pregnancy Factor (HSP-10) - day 1-120 of gestation
2) U/S: day 11- term
3) Palpation: day 18- term
4) Progesterone: day 18-90
5) eCG: day 35-120
6) Relaxin: day 80-term
7) Estrogens (conjugated or total- day 90 to term)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

How might you behavior play a role in pregnancy diagnosis

A

potentially effective only in polyestrous species (large animals with repeated estrous cycles)

Failure to return to estrus may be suggestive of pregnancy, however other reasons exist for failure to return

expression of estrus strongly suggests that not being pregnant, however this may be erroneous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

expression of estrus strongly suggests ____________, however this may be erroneous

A

expression of estrus strongly suggests that not being pregnant, however this may be erroneous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

What might be potential causes of errors for using behavior in polyestrous species for pregnancy diagnosis

A

inappropiate heat detection
season
lactation
nutrition
pseudopregnancy (persistent CL)
early embryonic loss
failure of follicular developement
ovarian patholgoy (ie ovarian cysts)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

visual assessment of abdomen for pregnancy diagnosis

A

potentiall effective in second to third trimester of many pregnany animals
changes in abdominal shape and body weight may be indicative of pregnancy
may be difficult in overweight or obese animals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

When might external palpation of the abdomen for pregnancy diagnosis be effective in dogs

A

days 24-35 of gestation
feel a string of pearls

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

Palpation of abdomen for pregnancy diagnosis

A

Dog: days 24-35 of gestation
feel a string of pearls

Large animals: ballottement of the abdomen (large animals)- bump fetus on transabdominal pressure, detection of fetal movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

Common technique to detect pregnancy in large animals (cows and horses)

inexpensive, rapid accurate
stage dependent and require practiced clinical skil
often performed in conjunction with U/S in horses

A

transrectal palpation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

What are the 4 positive signs of pregnancy in cattle when doing transrectal palpation *

A

1) Palpation of the amnionic vesicle
2) Fetal membrane slip
3) Palpation of the placetome (cotyledon/caruncle)
4) Palpation of the fetus

*Fremitus in middle uterine artery- fluid turbulence associated with a buzz feeling is “suggestuve of pregnancy but not a + sign)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

What sign on transrectal palpation in cattle is suggestive of pregnancy but not a + sign

A

*Fremitus in middle uterine artery- fluid turbulence associated with a buzz feeling is “suggestuve of pregnancy but not a + sign)

only detectable in pregnant animal but not direct diagnosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

Palpation of the amnionic vesicle *

A

*one of the 4 signs of transrectal palpation in the cow
-retract reproductive tract into the pelvic canal
-fell uterus for asymmetry

*can estimate the day of gestation

know these two things

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

What is the membrane slip

A

one of the 4 signs of pregnancy in cattle when doing transrectal palpation

*Chorioallantoic membrane between placentomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

What are you feeling on a membrane slip

A

Chorioallantoic membrane between placentomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

Palpation of placentome

A

one of the 4 cardinal signs of pregnancy diagnosis via transrectal palpation
feeling for the caruncle/ cotyledons

*Size of placetome can be used to estimate gestational age
example 75 days- pea size and increase to half dollar size (150 days)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

When can you first palpate the fetus in cows

A

one of the 4 signs of positive pregnancy in cattle via transrectal palpation

55-60 days

estimate size (2 months- mouse and increase to beagle dog at 6 months)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

What are the 4 positive signs of pregnancy in cattle when doing transrectal palpation *

A

1) Palpation of the amnionic vesicle
2) Fetal membrane slip
3) Palpation of the placetome (cotyledon/caruncle)
4) Palpation of the fetus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

What are the positive signs of pregnancy in horses when doing transrectal palpation *

A

1) Fetal bulge (size dependent on stage of gestation)
2) Fetal movement

*NO membrane slip (diffuse placenta)
*No placetomes (diffuse placenta)

Additional signs: increase tone in uterus and cervix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

Why might you need to do U/S with transrectal palpation for pregnancy diagnosis in the horse

A

*NO membrane slip (diffuse placenta)
*No placetomes (diffuse placenta)

transrectally, can only use fetal bulge and movement to detect (positive signs) and increased tone in uterus and cervix (additional sign)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

When in pregnancy can amnionic vesicles first be detected in dogs on U/S

A

Day 19-20

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

When can the fetal heart beats be noted on U/S in the dog

A

Day 23-28+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

Ultrasonography for pregnancy diagnosis in dogs

A

Very good for detection of pregnancy, may not be accurate for determining the number of embryos or fetuses
Transabdominal technique

Day 19-20: Amniotic vesicles
Day 23-28: heart beat can be noted (dogs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

How is ultrasounography for large animals done

A

transrectal technique
very good for early detection of pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

Ultrasonography for pregnancy diagnosis in mares

A

Transrectal Approach
very good for early detection of pregnancy
Day 11- embryos first detected
Day 25- heart beat can be noted
Tell you pregnancy loss, detection and management of twins, fetal sex determination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q

When can sex of cattle and horse be determined

A

59-70 days after ovulation

*Look at the position of the genital tubercle identified

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
173
Q

Why is radiography not good for early detection of pregnancy in small animals

A

it depends on mineralization of fetal skeleton (day 43-44 in dogs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
174
Q

When does mineralization of fetal skeleton occur in dogs and you can therefore determine of radiography

A

day 43-44

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
175
Q

How can you tell how many fetuses a dog has on radiography

A

count the number of skulls and spinal columns
this is good for evaluation of a bitch with dystocia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
176
Q

T/F: progesterone can differentiate between pregnant and non-pregnant dogs

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
177
Q

What endocrine test should you use for pregnancy diagnosis in small animals

A

Relaxin at the second half of pregnancy
Withness Preg Test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
178
Q

Endocrine tests for the diagnosis of pregnancy in cattle

A

1) Progesterone (not direct indicator of pregnancy- complete absence of progesterone <1.0ng/ml) is compatible with pregnancy
2) Estrone sulfate - produced by placentra
3) Interferon-tau - secreted by trophoblast cells, detectable as early as 15 days after breeding
4) Early Pregnancy Factor (EPF)- detectable as early as 24 hours after ovulation

*Not usually done in cattle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
179
Q

T/F: progesterone is a direct indicator of pregnancy in cattle

A

False

Progesterone (not direct indicator of pregnancy- complete absence of progesterone <1.0ng/ml) is incompatible with pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
180
Q

What are endocrine tests for pregnancy diagnosis in mares

A

1) Progesterone- not direct indicator of pregnancy, false errors with sample timine, pseudopregnancy, complete abscence of progesterone is incompative with pregnancy
2) Early Pregnancy Factor
3) eCG- endometrial cups of placenta
4) Estrogens (estrone sulfate)
5) Relaxin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
181
Q

When do estrogens increase during mare pregnancy

A

Day 90, peak at day 200 and decrease after.

a good marker of good pregnancy health

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
182
Q

When does relaxin begin to increase in pregnancy of mare

A

Day 75 increase with peak at day 150 and remains high until term

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
183
Q

Fibrinogen and ceruloplasmin

A

acute phase proteins that may be elevated in dogs gestation from week 3/4 onward
can be used for pregnancy diagnosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
184
Q

early pregnancy factor

A

elevated within a day of conception
and can be used in different species
difficult to perform

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
185
Q

phocomelia

A

developed due to human mothers being prescribed thalidomide for nausea in the 1950s and 1960s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
186
Q

Developmental pathology is an interaction between

A

Genetics and Environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
187
Q

What are broad classes of Environmental Teratogens

A

1) Physical- intrauterine trauma (e.g palpation), hyperthermia
2) Nutritional- Vit A: both hyper and hypo are teratogenic, copper deficiency, iodine deficiency
3) Toxic; plants, drugs, alcohol
4) Infectious
5) Metabolic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
188
Q

What is the leading cause of noninfectious blindness in the world

A

Hypovitaminosis A

(also hypervitaminosis A can cause teratogens)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
189
Q

Griseofulvin treatment of pregnant animal results in

A

birth defects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
190
Q

What does iodine deficiency lead to in neonates

A

Goiter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
191
Q

T/F: a single agent can induce dramatically different disease at different stages of gestation

A

True

preimplantation- early embroynic death, looks like fertility
organogenesis- major tetraogenesis
histogenesis- less severe defects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
192
Q

What causes cerebellar hypoplasia

A

Cats- Panleukopenia
Cows- BVDV or Blue tongue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
193
Q

What causes cerebellar hypoplasia

A

Feline panleukopenia
BVDV or blue tongue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
194
Q

Veratrum californicum

A

Called Skunk Cabbage
Cyclopamine (alkaloid) will produce cyclopean lambs around day 14 of gestation

causes short legged animals day 28-31

causes tracheal stenosis Days 30-36

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
195
Q

When does feeding Veratrum californicum cause short legs and musculoskeletal abnormalities

A

Days 28-31

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
196
Q

When does feeding Veratrum californicum cause cyclopean lambs?

A

Day 14 of gestation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
197
Q

When does feeding Veratrum californicum cause tracheal stenosis

A

Days 30-36

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
198
Q

T/F: totally different agents can induce the same pathologic changes in the fetus

A

true- depends on the time of gestation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
199
Q

What causes Arthrogryposis

A

1) Heritable in several breeds of cattle and humans
2) Viral (Akabane, Cache Valley)
3) Poisonous plants (Lupine and acorn)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
200
Q

How do you tell if the defect is genetic or environmental

A

can be difficult
-Hints of mendelian or familial disease?
-Gross and histopathology of fetus, placenta
-Isolate etiologic agent
-Specific antibodies in fetal/ neonatal serum
-Examine environment (plants)
Most important is to know the possibilities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
201
Q

What are the factors involved in pathogenesis of tetragens

A

1) Genotype of animal (mother and conceptus)
2) Dose and frequency (thresholds) of tetragen
3) Nature of agent or insult (MLV vaccines)
4) Stage of development- germ cells, early embryo (usually death of conceptus) , organogenesis (major defects), histogenesis (less severe defects), perinatal period

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
202
Q

What are the fates of abnormal conceptus

A

-Early embryonic death
-abortion
-mummification
-maceration
-premature birth
-still birth
-prolonged gesation
-congnenital disease
-defects manifest later in life (fetal origins of adult disease)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
203
Q

Why might there be prolonged gestation

A

adrenal hypoplasia
hypopthalamic pituitary hyoplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
204
Q

What is maceration

A

macerated fetal tissues - broken down a fetus with bones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
205
Q

where there is no evidence that a particular structure formed

A

Agenesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
206
Q

body part is underdeveloped

A

hypoplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
207
Q

structure is developed but not developed correctly,

A

dysplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
208
Q

organ that develops but does not develop to correctly to meet its function

A

dystrophy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
209
Q

organ develops to be large

A

hyperplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
210
Q

where a canal is not formed in a hollow organ

A

atresia or stenosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
211
Q

a situation in which an organ or body part is in the wrong position, either from birth or because of an injury

A

ectopia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
212
Q

where there is more than one, or the normal amount of an organ or structure

A

supernumeration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
213
Q

Ectopia cordis

A

where the heart develops in the wrong place

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
214
Q

What are causes of viral teratology

A

-Venezuelan Encephalitis
-Rift Valley Fever
-Cache Valleu
-Bluetongue virus
-Akabane, Schmallenberg
-BVDV
-Border Disease Virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
215
Q

How is bluetongue transmitted

A

via culicoides gnats

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
216
Q

What teratogenic effects does bluetongue virus cause

A

Hydranencephaly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
217
Q

Bluetongue in sheep is _________ while in cattle it is_______

A

sheep- see severe disease, large outbreaks

Cattle- typically subclinical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
218
Q

Why should you not vaccinate pregnant animals for Bluetongue

A

attenuated vaccines can cross the placenta and cause hydranencephaly (destructive process)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
219
Q

How is Akabane transmitted

A

it is a bunyavirus that is transmitted by mosquitoes and Culicoides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
220
Q

Akabane virus

A

bunyavirus that is transmitted by mosquitoes and Culicoides
distribution: Australia, Japan, Africa, Israel
infected adult cattle, sheep, and goats (subclinical)

lesion: abortion, stillbirth, premature birth, arthrogryposis and hydranencephaly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
221
Q

How does Akabane virus affect pregnancy?

A

Abortion, stillbirth, and premature birth

*Arthrogyposis and hydraencephaly of the fetus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
222
Q

What lesions to the fetus will you see with Akabane virus

A

Abortion, stillbirth, and premature birth

*Arthrogyposis and hydraencephaly of the fetus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
223
Q

Schmallenberg virus is a _____________

A

bunyavirus in Europe, discovered 2011

vector borne

-hydraencephaly
-arthrogyrposis
(similar to Akabane)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
224
Q

Cache Valley virus is a ___________

A

mosquito borne bunya virus
mild in adults but in pregnancy
<32 days- conceptus death
32-37 days- Musculoskeletal/CNS
38-48 days- mostly CNS
>48 days- few affects if any

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
225
Q

Hydraencephalic calves can be caused by Bluetongue, Akabane, or Schmallenberg. How do you differentiate??

A

Akabane and Schmallenberg is foreign so alarming

Differentiate via testing for antibodies.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
226
Q

When do calfs gain immunocompensy in gestation

A

around day 150. will produce antibodies against the virus if exposed in utero

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
227
Q

Noncytopathogenic viruses

A

infection 60-120 days
widespread fetal infection but not aborted

persistently infected -> families

Status at birth:

Virus positive
antibody negative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
228
Q

Cytopathogenic viruses

A

infection throughout gestation
critical periods: death to no significant effect

Status at birth: Virus negative and antibody positive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
229
Q

When does non-cytopathogenic BVDV infection occur

A

60-120, widespread fetal infection (not destroyed because occurs before immunocompensy and see it as sell)

not aborted

stays in the family

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
230
Q

Noncytopathogenic is virus _____ and antibody _____ while cytopathogenic is virus ____ and antibody ____

A

Noncytopathogenic: Virus positive, antibody negative

Cytopathogenic: virus negative, antibody positive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
231
Q

Border Disease virus

A

a pestivirus in sheep
lesions:
1) dysmyelination (shaker)
2) wool looks like hair (hairy)

Hairy Shaker Disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
232
Q

What are the two lesions seen with Border Disease Virus

A

1) Dysmyelination (Shaker)
2) Wool looks like hair (Hair)

Hairy Shaker Disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
233
Q

Pestiviruses

A

1) BDVD
2) Swine Fever Virus
3) Border Disease Virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
234
Q

derived from trophoblastic ectoderm and extraembryonic mesoderm

A

chorion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
235
Q

How does the chorion form

A

derived from trophoblastic ectoderm and extraembryonic mesoderm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
236
Q

mesodermal bud emerging from the posterior end of the primitive streak. The bud grows and expands across the exocoelomic cavity and fuses with the chorion

A

allantois

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
237
Q

What are the functions of the placenta

A

1) Exchange between mother and fetus- massive surface area, large blood flow. gases and small molecules like gluocse
proteins: limited if any transport can pass (IgG in some species)
Toxins

2) Endocrine functions: significant species differences
Progesterone- all mammals but different quantitity
Estrogens
Gonadotropin -eCG or hCG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
238
Q

You see a greenish color of placenta, is this significant

A

No there is bleeding at margins of placenta- hemolysis and bilirubin.
This is normal

239
Q

Should you rip out a retained placenta?

A

No- never. it can do damage

240
Q

What species have placenta with microcotyledons

A

Horses?

241
Q

What is a cervical star with horses

A

pale area of the placenta which apposes the cervix. It lacks the finger-like villi which give the chorioallantois a velvety appearance

the one spot that is not diffuse

242
Q

You see someone handling placenta of goats with their mouth. Why might this be concerining?

A

Zoonotic transfer of Brucella or Q-fever

243
Q

Where does the fetal component of the placenta develop from? What about the maternal component?

A

Fetal: develops from blastocyst

Maternal: Maternal endometrium

244
Q

How might you predict parturition in animals

A

1) Previous history of dam
2) Breeding dates- gestation length
3) LH surge (dogs)
4) Behavioral changes- segregation, nesting, anorexia, restlessness
5) Physiologic tests (ie body temp, milk calcium levels)
6) Monitor or alarms (Dog temp drops from 101-102.5F to below 100 she will deliver in less than 24 hours)

245
Q

What temperature drop in a dog tells that she is about to deliver pups?

A

A dog’s temp should be between 101-102.5F. When the dog/s temperature drops below 100F she should deliver the pups in less than 24 hours

246
Q

In what species can you tell parturition based on LH surge

A

Dogs

247
Q

What body changes happen close to parturition that might help you predict when it occurs

A

1) Relaxation around pelvis and perineum
2) Vulva becomes edematous and relaxes
3) Mammary enlargement, dilation of teat ends
4) Ventral edema (cows and mare)
5) Leaking milk
6) Waxing of teat ends (mare) - colostrum that has just leaked out

248
Q

What is one of the single best indicator of a mare being close to giving birth

A

Waxing of teat ends where colostrum is leaked out and solidifies. Happens in about 75% of mares

249
Q

Why do you see ventral edema prior to parturition in mares and cattle?

A

weight of the pregnancy blocks the lymphatic ducts causing a build up of edema

250
Q

What causes the relaxation of cervix and ligaments surrounding the pelvic canal prior to parturition

A

combination of estrogen and relaxin

250
Q

What causes the increase contractile potential of the myometrium prior to parturition

A

progesterone drops and removes the block on uterus contractions

allows there to be contractions

251
Q

What controls the time of parturition*

A

Maturation of fetus determines the readiness of birth

Parturition is triggered when fetus is physiologically read to survive outside the uterus

Fetus sends a signal to the dam to initiate parturition

252
Q

What is the signal for parturition in many species *

A

fetal ACTH signaling the production and cortisol**

Cortisol causes change in ratio of estradiol to increase and progesterone to decrease

Parturition is driven by prostaglandins and oxytocin, which stimulate myometrial contractions

253
Q

What are the effects of fetal cortisol

A

changes the ratio of estradiol to increase to progesterone to decrease

parturition is then driven by prostaglandins and oxytocin which stimulate myometrial contractions

254
Q

What does estradiol do prior to parturition

A

it increases

255
Q

What does progesterone do prior to parturition

A

it decreases

256
Q

How does fetal cortisol cause the change of estrogen to increase and progesterone to decrease prior to parturition

A

Corticoids from the fetus activate the 17a hydroxlase, 17-20 desmolase and aromatase that convert progesterone to estradiol.

Since progesterone decreases and estradiol increases, you no longer have the progesterone block to myometrial activity

257
Q

How might the mom be able to alter the timing of parturition

A

Dam often has limited control over the timing of parturition.
Labor can be delayed temporarily if the dam is stressed or disturbed

Labor is most common at night in many species when external stimuli or activities are minimal

258
Q

What is the signal for parturition

A

fetal cortisol

259
Q

How did they determine that cortisol induces parturition

A

Sheep model where removal of the pituitary or adrenal gland from the fetus within pregnant ewes resulted in prolonged pregnancy (no cortisol was able to be released)

Administration of ACTH or cortisol to the ovine fetus resulted in premature labor

Administration of a corticosteroid (dexamethasone) to pregnant ewes also initiates labor

260
Q

During parturition, after increased E:P ratio, what is secreted

A

PGF2a is secreted from the placenta and endometrium to lyse CL and cause some myometrial contractions

Oxytocin receptor numbers increase on the myometrial cells

261
Q

What initially induces uterine contractions during parturition

A

PGF2a induces uterine contractions

oxytocin is released from posterior pituitary as fetus contacts cervix- Ferguson reflex

Oxytocin enhances PGF2a release and magnifies uterine contraction

262
Q

What is the Ferguson Reflex *

A

oxytocin is released from the posterior pituitary as the fetus contacts the cervix

this oxytocin enhances PGF2a release and magnifies uterine contractions

263
Q

What triggers the Ferguson Reflex

A

when the fetus contacts the cervix

release of oxytocin from the posterior pituitary

264
Q

How is parturition initiated in CL dependent species like does and sowes

A

1) Fetal cortisol initiates parturition
2) Placental estrogen increases
3) PGF2a release causes regression of the maternal CL (luteolysis)
4) Labor begins as maternal progesterone concentrations decline

265
Q

How is parturition initiated by litter bearing species

A

parturition is initiated by signals from entire litter (ie one early maturing fetus cannot trigger labor)

rapidly maturing fetuses may be favored

266
Q

What are the 3 stages of labor *

A

1) Initiation of myometrial contractions- removal of the progesterone block

2) Delivery/expulsion of the fetus

3) Passage of fetal membranes (placenta)

267
Q

What is Stage I of parturition *

A

Initiation of myometrial contractions- removal of the progesterone block. fetus moves so head and forelimbs are extended and body rotates into dorsal position

Onset: initial uterine contractions and relaxation of cervix

End: Rupture of chorioallantois (large animals) or full dilation of cervix (small animals)

Clinical signs: anorexia, restlessness, nervousness, frequent lying down, standing, mild discomfort, patchy sweating (mare), increased RR (bitch), actively running or squirting milk

Time: dog (6-12hr), cow (2-6hr), mare (1-4hr)

268
Q

What is Stage II of parturition *

A

Delivery/expulsion of the fetus

Onset: rupture of chorioallantois

End: Delivery of fetus

Clinical signs: active straining, appearance of white/grey translucent membrane (amnion) at vulva, birth of fetus

Time: varies in species: cow (30-60min), mare (12-30min), bitch (6 hours) - longer in primiparous dams

*delay in delivery process increases risk of fetal or neonatal death

269
Q

What is Stage III of parturition *

A

Passage of fetal membranes (placenta)

Onset: delivery of fetus
End: passage of fetal membranes

Time: Horse (15min to 3hr), Cow (0.5 to 8 hours), bitch (fetal membranes expelled irregularly between fetuses- dam alternates between stage II and Stage III as each fetus is delivered)

270
Q

What marks the end of Stage I of labor

A

Rupture of chorioallantois (large animals) or full dilation of cervix (small animals)

271
Q

What marks the onset of Stage I of labor

A

initial uterine contractions and relaxation of cervix

272
Q

What are the clinical signs of Stage I of labor

A

anorexia, restlessness, nervousness, frequent lying down, standing, mild discomfort, patchy sweating (mare), increased RR (bitch), actively running or squirting milk

273
Q

What is the onset of Stage II of labor

A

rupture of chorioallantois

274
Q

What marks the end of Stage II of labor

A

delivery of fetus

275
Q

What are the clinical signs of Stage II of labor

A

active straining, appearance of white/grey translucent membrane (amnion) at vulva, birth of fetus

276
Q

What increases the risk of fetal or neonatal death *

A

Delay in the delivery process (Stage II)

277
Q

What is the difference between uterine contractions of dams with single fetus versus multiple fetuses

A

Single: Uterine contractions start at horn tips, while caudal portion is relaxed

Multiple: Contractions begin just cranial to caudal- most fetus, forcing it through the birth canal
process is repeated for the next most caudal fetus

278
Q

How do uterine contractions work with multiple fetuses

A

Contractions begin just cranial to caudal- most fetus, forcing it through the birth canal
process is repeated for the next most caudal fetus

279
Q

How do uterine contractions work with single fetus

A

Uterine contractions start at horn tips, while caudal portion is relaxed

280
Q

What marks the onset of Stage III of labor

A

Delivery of fetus

281
Q

What marks the end of Stage III of labor

A

Passage of fetal membranes

282
Q

What amount of time constitutes a retained placenta in a horse

A

> 3hours being in stage III

normally takes 15 min to 3 hours to pass the fetal membranes

283
Q

How does the dog pass their fetal membranes

A

fetal membranes expelled irregularly between fetuses- dam alternates between stage II and Stage III as each fetus is delivered

284
Q

placentophagia

A

act of eating their own placenta

dams of many domestic animal species eat their own placentas

may cause choke or colic in large animals

285
Q

What could result from placentophagia in large animals

A

choke or colic

286
Q

How do you induce labor *

A

Ruminants: Corticosteroids (Dexamethasone) - be careful with corticosteroids tx
or prostaglandins

CL dependent species: prostaglandins

Horses: oxytocin

287
Q

How do you induce labor in horses*

A

Oxytocin

288
Q

When might you induce labor

A

when they are as close to the normal delivery day

mature fetus- induce it so you get a natural birth

Might do it in a history of mares with stillbirth foals, tendon issues, etc.

289
Q

medical care of a patient throughout pregnancy, delivery and in the post-partum period

A

Obstetrics

290
Q

slow or difficult labor or delivery
medical emergency

A

Dystocia

291
Q

Define Presentation, Position, and Posture in regards to labor and delivery

A

Presentation- relationship of the long axis of the fetus to the dam’s birth canal

Position- relationship of the dorsum of the fetus to the quadrants of the dam’s pelvis

Posture- relationship of the fetal extremities to the fetus itself

292
Q

relationship of the long axis of the fetus to the dam’s birth canal

A

Presentation
-cranial or caudal or traverse

293
Q

relationship of the dorsum of the fetus to the quadrants of the dam’s pelvis

A

position

294
Q

relationship of the fetal extremities to the fetus itself

A

posture

295
Q

That is the normal presentation of the fetus during birth

A

Anterior presentation

296
Q

What the the possibilities of presentation during birth

A

1) Anterior (normal)
2) Posterior
3) Transverse

297
Q

What are the possibilities of position during birth

A

1) Dorso-sacral (normal)
2) Dorsal-pubic
3) Dorsal-right ileal
4) Dorsal left ileal

298
Q

What is the normal position during birth

A

Dorso-sacral (normal)

299
Q

What is dorsal-pubic position

A

When the position of fetus (dorsum) is positioned towards the pubis of the the dam’s pelvis (upside down)

300
Q

What is the normal posture during birth

A

Head extended, both front and legs are extendend

301
Q

What are the different possibilities of posture during birth

A

1) Head-extended, both front legs extended (normal)
2) Head back to the right of the fetus, both front legs are extended
3) Etc

302
Q

What is the normal orientation in the birth canal **

A

1) Anterior presentation
2) Dorsal-sacral postion
3) Both forelimbs and head extended (posture)

303
Q

in large animals, dystocia is most common in

A

first-calf heifers (maternal mismatch- fetus is too large and dam is too small relative to fetus)

cattle-incidence ranges from 3-25%
sows- 1-2%
mares 4-14%

304
Q

What are fetal causes of dystocia

A

1) Abnormal presentation, position or posture
2) Developmental abnormalities
3) Dead or sick fetus

305
Q

What are obstructive causes of dystocia

A

1) Fetal- maternal mismatch- fetus is too large and dam is too small relative to fetus (first calf heifers and toy dog breeds)

2) Maternal pathology (decreased diameters of the birth canal)
- pelvic fractures (mares)
-failure of cervical dilation (ewes- ringwomb)

3) Mechanical: abnormalities in presentation, position, and posture

306
Q

How might mare have decreased diameter of the birth canal

A

pelvic fractures

307
Q

What is ringwomb in sheep

A

decreased diameter of birth canal due to failure of cervical dilation in ewes

308
Q

Why is a posterior presentation problematic

A

the tailhead can get hooked on the top of the pelvis and leads to dystocia because it cant get out

309
Q

If you palpate an animal giving birth and all you feel is the dorsal spinal processes of the vertebrae, what presentation is the fetus in

A

transverse presentation

310
Q

What is the true breech orientation

A

1) Posterior presentation
2) dorsosacral postion
3) both hind limb flexed at hip

311
Q

Does the transverse presentation stimulate the ferguson reflex in the mare? *

A

NO- ferguson reflex is not triggered

312
Q

failure of effective first or second stage of labor

A

Uterine inertia

313
Q

Uterine inertia

A

failure of effective first or second stage of labor

Primary (no contraction)- failure to initiate labor
-Bitch and sow
-Cows- hypocalcemia (milk fever)

Secondary: uterine fatigue following prolonged labor

314
Q

How might an animal have primary uterine inertia

A

Primary (no contraction)- failure to initiate labor
-Bitch and sow
-Cows- hypocalcemia (milk fever)

315
Q

What are difficulty foaling complications

A

-Front legs flexed at shoulder
-neck flexed to side; muzzle not reachable
-breech presentation
-transverse presentation
-twins (both entering birth canal simultaneously)

316
Q

is often required to deliver fetus and saeve the life of the dam and/or fetus

A

obstetrical intervention

317
Q

What are rules of obstetrical intervention

A

1) cleanliness
2) Lubrication- obstetrical lubricant (J-lube)
3) Expedience- significant progress should be made in 20-30 minutes

318
Q

What is the importance of the physical exam in obstetrical intervention

A

-diagnose/identify obstetrical problem
-determine if fetus is alive (palpation, U/S, EKG, etc.)
-Formulate a plan- vaginal delivery (assisted or controlled), cesarean section, fetotomy

319
Q

What forms of restraint might be needed for obstetrical intervention

A

physical restraint
transquiliation
epidural anesthesia
general anesthesia

320
Q

manipulation process by which a fetus is returned to a normal presentation, position, or posture

A

mutation

321
Q

a mutation where pushing the fetus cranially out of the maternal pelvic canal into the abdominal cavity where more space is available for manipulation

A

Repulsion

322
Q

a mutation where turning a fetus on its long axis (ie to move the hips of a calf fetus to take advantage of the widest pelvic diameter to prevent hip-lock

A

Rotation

323
Q

a mutation where rotating a fetus perpendicular to its long axis to correct a transverse presentation (ie into a cranial or caudal presentation- very difficult

A

Version

324
Q

withdrawl of the fetus from the dam using outside force or traction
1) force of 2 people
2) Pull during a contraction
3) Relax in between contractions

A

Extraction

325
Q

What are the guidelines of extraction?

A

1) force of 2 people
2) Pull during a contraction
3) Relax in between contractions

326
Q

What are indications for extraction

A

-Uterine inertia
-Fetus not entering birth canal
-Epidural/ general anesthesia- absence of uterine contractions
-Large fetus
-Fetotomy - after transection of retained body part

327
Q

What are the contraindications for extraction

A

-abnormal presentation, position or posture
-excessively large or deformed fetuses
-excessively small/ stenotic cervix or small birth canal

328
Q

What is assisted vaginal delivery *

A

vaginal delivery with the dam awake and either standing or recumbent
-sedation, epidural (if needed)

329
Q

What is controlled vaginal delivery *

A

vaginal delivery with the dam under general anesthesia
-reduces straining, allows for repositioning of fetus
-can elevate hindquarters to reposition fetus
No uterine contractions (while under anesthesia)

330
Q

a surgical procedure in which the fetus is removed from the uterus through an incision through an the abdominal wall and uterus

A

Cesarean section- laparohysterotomy

331
Q

What is the procedure of choice if vaginal delivery is not possible and the fetus is alive

A

Cesarean section

332
Q

What is a fetotomy

A

an operation performed on a dead fetus to expedite removal of the fetus from the uterus
-accomplished by reducing the size of the fetus by removal of specific body parts that are preventing the normal vaginal delivery

333
Q

How do you determine the live/dead status of the fetus

A

-Fetal movement in response to stimuli
a) fingers in mouth- evaluate suckling response
b) Pinch tongue- evaluate for reflex
c) Pressure on eye- evaluate for withdrawal reflex
d) Pinch nose- evaluate reflex

-Detection of fetal pulse
a) Umbilical cord (pulsation)
b) Heartbeat (hand on chest)

334
Q

What are the advantages of fetotomy

A

-Reduces size of fetus (allows for extraction of fetus)
-Avoids Cesarean surgery
-May reduce trauma to dam (vs excessive traction)
-May be less expensive than Cesarean

335
Q

What are disadvantages of fetotomy

A

-may cause uterine trauma
-may take a long time
-requires several people (some training/experience helpful)
-Potential for injury to person performing fetotomy
-Live/dead if status of fetus unknown

336
Q

What are possible complications to all obstetrical interventions

A

-Metritis, peritonitis
-Retained placenta
-Uterine, cervical or vaginal injury
-Reduction in future fertility- dependent on many factors

337
Q

What are outcomes of dystocia in the mare

A

Foal survival- survival rate is low to moderate, highly dependent on early recognition, duration and type of dystocia, intervention

Mare survival: survival rate- moderate to high

Mare future reproduction: pregnancy rate- good in absence of uterine/cervical trauam

338
Q

wry

A

twist deformity in the neonate that can cause dystocia

339
Q

schistosomus

A

where the body wall didnt close in the fetus. GI content will be out

340
Q

Stage I of parturition in canine

A

synchronous uterine contractions leading to complete cervical dilation

anorexia, restlessness, panting, shivering, nesting
averages 6-12 hours
nervous, primiparous bitches can experience up to 36 hours of stage I

340
Q

Stage 1 of parturition in feline

A

synchronous uterine contractions leading to complete cervical dilation

restless, nesting, panting, vocalizing
can last 1 hour to 24 hours

341
Q

How do dogs act when they are in stage I of parturition

A

anorexia, restlessness, panting, shivering, nesting
averages 6-12 hours
nervous, primiparous bitches can experience up to 36 hours of stage I

342
Q

What is the difference in timing of stage I of parturition compared to dogs and cat

A

Dog: 6-24 hours

Cats: 1-24 hours

343
Q

Tocodynamometry

A

a device used to detect uterine contractions

344
Q

Stage II parturition (canine)

A

puppies moving through the birth canal
usually delivered every 30-60 minutes
up to 2 hours between can be normal
stage II usually complete in 6 hours, can extend up to 24 hours

345
Q

T/F: cats can interrupt labor if disturbed

A

True- several hours between delivery can be normal

345
Q

Stage II parturition (feline)

A

kittens moving through the birth canal
first kittens typically delivered within 60 minutes of onset of stage II
usually delivered every 30-60 minutes
extended delivery more common in queens than bitches
-can interrupt labor if disturbed
-several hours between delivery can be normal

346
Q

Stage III (canine and feline)

A

expulsion of fetal membranes
often occurs during stage II
pass with puppies or within 15 minutes
retained fetal membranes are rare in canine

347
Q

T/F: retained placentas are common in dogs

A

false- they are pretty rare

348
Q

What is the incidence of canine dystocia

A

5-28%

349
Q

What is the most common (non-obstructuve.) cause of dystocia in the bitch*

A

primary uterine inertia
“failure of uterus to begin labor at full term”
-uterus fails to respond to fetal signals and insufficient stimulation exist to initiate labor
-small litters
-large litters (overstretch myometrium)
-inherited predisposition

350
Q

How might primary uterine inertia occur in dogs

A

-small litters
-large litters (overstretch myometrium)
-inherited predisposition

351
Q

What is Primary Uterine inertia in small animals

A

“failure of uterus to begin labor at full term”
-uterus fails to respond to fetal signals and insufficient stimulation exist to initiate labor
-small litters (1-2)
-large litters (overstretch myometrium)
-inherited predisposition

Incompletely dilated cervix
factors: genetic
, nutritional, hormonal- obesity, malnutrition, parity, age

352
Q

What is secondary uterine inertia in small animals

A

continued uterine contractions fail to expel fetuses
uterine musculature eventually fails
caused by obstruction of the birth canal

353
Q

What are the maternal and fetal factors of dystocia in small animals

A

Maternal: Breed, conformation, uterus (torsion, rupture, adhesion), pain, feat, primary and secondary uterine inertia

Fetal: presentation, posture, position, abnormal fetal development (40% born caudal longitudinal)

354
Q

What is the normal presentation of fetus in bitch birth

A

cranial longitudinal presentation

(presentation is the relationship of the spinal column of the fetus to that of the bitch and to the portion of the fetus presented to the birth canal)

355
Q

What is the criteria for dystocia in dogs*

A

1) Stage II abdominal contractions with no delivery in 20-30 minutes (hard pushes)
2) >2 hours between delivery of fetuses- weak stage II contractions
3) Presence of uteroverdin (green) without the delivery of a subsequent pup
4) Abundant serous fluid (allantoic fluid, waterbreaking) without delivery of pup within one hour
5) Fetal membranes visible- “allantochorion pouch” visible without the delivery of pup within one hour
6) >1 hour after onset of weak contractions (rupture of chorioallantois) and no pups
7) Systemic illness/collapse- sepsis, pregnancy toxemia, uterine rupture look at the same on presention
8) Prolonged gestation
9) Fetal distress
10) Partial birth

356
Q

What is the normal position of the fetus during bitch birth

A

Dorsosacral

(refers to the relationship between the dorsum of the fetus and the quadrants of the maternal pelvis)

357
Q

What is a normal posture of the fetus during bitch birth

A

Forelimbs extended

(refers to the relationship of the fetal extremities to the fetal body)

358
Q

What is the normal presentation, position, and posture in the dog?

A

1) Cranial longitudinal presentation
2) Dorsosacral
3) Forelimbs are extended

359
Q

T/F: it is possible to determine an accurate due date based on breeding dates in dogs

A

False- it is impossible

Dogs will stand to be bred for days

Normal gestation can be 57-72 days post a single breeding date

360
Q

How long is normal dog gestation

A

Normal gestation can be 57-72 days post a single breeding date

all are prolonged if ?72 days post breeding

some at overdue at 65 days

breeding day is not good at determining due date

361
Q

What defines a prolonged canine pregnancy

A

1) >66 days post LH surge

2) >64 days post ovulation (ovulation typically consistant with 4-5 ng/ml progesterone)

3) >60 days after onset of cytological diestrus

4) >12-24 hours post drop in progesterone to <2ng/ml

362
Q

How do you determine fetal distress on ultrasound

A

generally accepted that a normal fetal heart rate is 180-220 bpm
-HR of 150-180 is consistent with fetal distress
-Heart rate <150 is considered emergency
-Heart rate <100 is very poor/ grave prognosis

363
Q

What is a normal fetal heart rate of dog

A

180-220bpm

364
Q

What fetal heart rate is consistent with fetal distress

A

150-180bpm

365
Q

What fetal heart rate is consistent with emergency

A

<150 bpm

366
Q

Can you give definitive numbers of offpsrings with ultrasound?

A

No you cannot

367
Q

How do you evaluate dystocia in small animals

A

-Assess general health and present condition- provide supportive care if necessary
-Reproductive tract health
a) Vaginal discharge- amount, duration, character
b) Vaginal palpation- palpable fetus, obstruction, is the Ferguson reflex present or prior delivery of 1 or more pup
c) Blood profile (CBC) and progesterone level (<2ng/ml inability to support pregnancy; 2-4.9 is consistent with declining levels)
d) Abdominal radiographs- fetal number, size, position, evidence of fetal death. Pelivmetry is poorly coorelated with dystocia prediction in the bitch
e) Ultrasound for fetal viability af fetal stress

368
Q

What will not work if the ferguson reflex is not present **

A

Medical management will not be effective

369
Q

In small animals, what makes medical management for dystocia not effective ***

A

Lack of ferguson reflex

370
Q

Can you palpate the cervix of the dog?

A

No- you are likely feeling the vaginovestibular junction

371
Q

When evaluating dystocia and you test for progesterone level. What do the levels tell you

A

<2.0 ng/ml is inability to support pregnancy
2.0-4.9 ng/ml is. consistent with declining level
5.0 or greater is a functioning CL

372
Q

In the bitch, ______ is poorly correlated with dystocia prediction via abdominal radiographs

A

pelvimetry

373
Q

What can abdominal radiographs tell you when evaluating dystocia

A

fetal number, size, position
evidence of fetal death

*pelvimetry is poorly correlated with dystocia prediction in the bitch

374
Q

What is the difference between mild and severe dystocia in small animals

A

Mild dystocia: healthy bitch with normal conformation, pups normal size and appropriate position, no evidence of obstruction, no evidence of fetal distress or compromise, 4 or less pups remaining, weak or infrequent contractions
*Eligible for medical management

Severe dystocia: obvious oversized fetuses, evidence of fetal compromise, green/black discharge with no pup born in 20-30 minutes, progesterone level <2ng/ml for 24 hours, obstructive dystocia (any cause), dystocia for any reason with 4 or more pups remaining
*Advise C section

375
Q

What is mild dystocia in small animals classified as

A

*Eligible for medical management (Manipulative, medical, c section)
-healthy bitch with normal conformation
-pups normal size and appropriate position
-no evidence of obstruction
-no evidence of fetal distress or compromise
-4 or less pups remaining
-weak or infrequent contractions

376
Q

What should you do for a small animal with severe dystocia

A

Advise surgical intervention (C-section)

377
Q

What is severe dystocia classified as in small animals

A

-obvious oversized fetuses
-evidence of fetal compromise
-green/black discharge with no pup born in 20-30 minutes
-progesterone level <2ng/ml for 24 hours
-obstructive dystocia (any cause)
-dystocia for any reason with 4 or more pups remaining

*Advice C section

378
Q

Manipulation intervention in small animals

A

used for mild cases of dystocia
grasp fetus and provide gentle traction to remove it from the canal, preferably during a contraction
use lots of lube
dont pull limb or tail
pull during contraction if possible
changing positions of bitch might help

379
Q

When should you do medical intervention for dystocia in small animals

A

only if the bitch has 4 or less pups remaining and the birth canal is unobstructed
only about 28% chance of success
Calcium and Oxytocin are drugs of choice

380
Q

What do you use for medical intervention of dystocia in small animals

A

Oxytocin- uterine contraction action, milk ejection action, direct action on the rate of calcium influx into the myometrial cells

Calcium- affects the strength of uterine contractions, monitor heart rate and rhythm using ECG

381
Q

What does oxytocin do to treat dystocia

A

uterine contraction action, milk ejection action, direct action on the rate of calcium influx into the myometrial cells

382
Q

What drug can you give to increase the strength of uterine contractions

A

Calcium gluconate - monitor heart rate and rhythm using ECG

383
Q

Protocol for medical intervention of small animal dystocia

A

-Oxytocin
-if no pup is born in 30 minuts, give 10% calcium gluconate
-If no pup born in 20 minutes, igve another dose of oxytocin as described above
-If delivery begins, but slowly you can repeat doses of oxytocin every 30 minutes with a max of 3 doses
-If no pus with above, advice C section

384
Q

Manipulative intervention in small animals should be done when

A

there is a palpable fetus

pup is in birth canal
assist by gentle traction during contraction
use lots of lube
dont pull limb or tail
change position of bitch

385
Q

What should you do if there is unsuccessful manipulative intervention in small animals with dystocia

A

Attempt more than 10 minutes and obstruction becomes evident with fetal distress/ compromise

you may attempt episotomy is delivery is close and last pup is present

or advise C section

386
Q

What should you do if you do medical intervention with oxytocin and calcium to treat mild dystocia in small animals and it is unsuccessful

A

Advise C section

387
Q

What breeds of cats have higher prevalence of dystocia

A

Purebreds- flat faces

388
Q

In cats, what maternal factor of dystocia is life threatening*

A

torsion, rupture, adhesion

389
Q

What is by far the most common cause of dystocia in cats

A

primary uterine inertia (same etiology as canine)

390
Q

How might cats get secondary uterine inertia

A

same as dog
common with all causes of obstructive dystocia
uterine fatigue with large litters

391
Q

What are abnormal fetal development causes of fetal factor dystocia in cats

A

Large fetus
Cephalopelvic disproportion

392
Q

What are factors for dystocia diagnosis in cats

A

active labor (stage II) for more than 2 hours with no kitten born
69-70 days from breeding- prolonged gestation
-failure of labor to begin within 24 hours with rectal temp drop >1 F
-Partial birth- kitten and/or membranes visible for more than 15 minutes with no progress
-Failure to deliver all kittens within 24 hours
-Signs of systemic illness
-More than 3 hours between birth of normal kittens
-Abnormal vulvar discharge- hemorrhage, green/blck discharge
-Fetal distress- heart rate similar to puppies

393
Q

In cats, can you use progesterone for onset of labor

A

NO

394
Q

Is medical intervention of dystocia more common in dogs or cats *

A

cats
1) Do not attempt Medical therapy unless you are prepared for surgical intervention
2) Make sure to discuss risks and poor success rate of medical management

395
Q

What considerations should you make for medical therapy of dystocia in kittens *

A

cats
1) Do not attempt Medical therapy unless you are prepared for surgical intervention
2) Make sure to discuss risks and poor success rate of medical management (all most never works)

*Do C section instead

396
Q

When should you advise C section in a queen

A

if there is severe dystocia

*or at all- medical management really isnt that successful and there are risks

397
Q

What are the length of stages of parturition in dog, how does this different from the cat *

A

Dog
1: 6-12 hours
2: 30-60 minutes
3: 15 minutes

Cat
1: 1-24 hours
2: 30-60minuts
3: 15 minutes

398
Q

What hormone declines in parturition in dogs and cats *

A

Progesterone

399
Q

What is the most common (non-obstructive) cause of dystocia in the bitch **

A

Primary Uterine Inertia
“Failure of uterus to begin labor at full term”
uterus fails to respond to fetal signals and insufficient stimulation exists to initiate labor

400
Q

What are the chances of success of medical management of dystocia in dogs **

A

only about 28%

401
Q

Do dogs need oxytocin if they are already experiencing uterine contractions? *

A

No - they might need calcium gluconate as it affects strength of uterine contractions

monitor heart rate and rhythm using ECG

402
Q

Mild of Severe Canine Dystocia?
obvious oversized fetuses

A

Severe

403
Q

Mild of Severe Canine Dystocia?

Green and black discharge with no pup born in 20-30 min

A

Severe

404
Q

Mild of Severe Canine Dystocia?
Progesterone level <2ng/ml for 24 hours

A

Severe

405
Q

Mild of Severe Canine Dystocia?
Obstructive dystocia

A

Severe

406
Q

Mild of Severe Canine Dystocia?
Dystocia with 4 or more pups remaining

A

severe

407
Q

Mild of Severe Canine Dystocia?
4 or less pups remaining

A

mild

408
Q

Mild of Severe Canine Dystocia?
healthy bitch with normal conformation

A

mild

409
Q

Mild of Severe Canine Dystocia?
Weak or infrequent contractions

A

Mild dystocia

410
Q

Mild of Severe Canine Dystocia?
No evidence of fetal distress or compromise

A

Mild

411
Q

Where is mammary tissue derived from

A

ectoderm
band (30days) thru bud stage (43 days in cattle)

412
Q

Fetal development and growth of mammary gland

A

1) Bud is spherical -cells break out of sphere
forms branchs calld primary sprouts
2) Sprouts (galactrophores) differentiate into teat and gland cisterns
3) Center dies, leading canal (d100-130)
4) Secondary sprouts branch from primary
5) Mammary fat pad and median suspensory ligament develop from mesoderm (210 days)

413
Q

Ruminants have _____ galactophores per teat

A

1

414
Q

Pigs have _____ galactophores per teat

A

2

415
Q

Mares have ______ galactophores per teat

A

2
2 opening per teat

416
Q

What occurs during fetal development of the mammary gland in males

A

Bud is spherical and cells break out of sphere forming primary sprout, however, testosterone causes pinching off sprout from bud leading to failure of teat development

417
Q

How many teats do cows have

A

2 teats

1 duct per teat

418
Q

How many teats do sheep and goats have

A

2 teats

1 duct per teat

419
Q

How many teats do dogs have

A

10 teats

12 ducts/teat

420
Q

How many teats do mares have

A

2 teats

2 ducts/teats

421
Q

How many teats do pigs have

A

10-14

2 ducts/teat

422
Q

When does isometric mammary gland development occur in cattle

A

it grows proportionally to the rest of the body

Birth to 2-3 months

423
Q

When does allometric mammary gland growth occur

A

2-3 months to 1 year (pUberty) where the parenchyma of the mammary gland increases
-Requires adequate fat pad
-But risk of overfeeding/excessive fat depositon

424
Q

During puberty what is responsible for mammary development

A

Estrogen- stimulate ductal development

Progesterone- proliferation of stromal cells, stimualte ductal side branching and alveolar bud formation

425
Q

Why in short-cycle mammals like mice, rats, hamsters, and gerbils there is no alveoli or end buds until pregnancy

A

because there is little progesterone available

426
Q

Why in long-cycling mammals does mammary gland development occur during puberty

A

cyclic production of FSH and LH
-varies produce estradiol and progesterone
-duct development under influence of estrogen, growth hormone in first few cycles, progesterone and prolactin: lobules and alveoli develop

427
Q

What causes mammary development during pregnancy and lactation

A

Consistent high levels of progesterone and placental lactogen, estradiol as well

Growth of gland is slow in early pregnancy, becomes exponential as pregnancy progresses

Mammary fat pad replaced with ducts, alveoli, blood vessels, and connective tissue

428
Q

When does mammary development cease in most animals

A

after the first lactation

except in cattle and goats- their mammary gland will increase up to 4 lactations

429
Q

Mammary gland size in goats and cattle will develop up to

A

4 lactations

however >12 declines

430
Q

What increase in milk production would you expect to see with increases in parity

A

2nd time calving; 10pounds/day higher than 1st time heifers and increasing

but mammary gland size only increases up to 4 lactations

431
Q

What is progesterone’s role in lactogenesis

A

it inhibits prolactin-induced synthesis of prolactin receptors
inhibits production of a-lactablumin (glucose to lactose)
binds to glucocorticoid sites, prevents GC effects

*Delays lactogenesis during pregnancy

432
Q

it inhibits prolactin-induced synthesis of prolactin receptors
inhibits production of a-lactablumin (glucose to lactose)
binds to glucocorticoid sites, prevents GC effects

*Delays lactogenesis during pregnancy

A

Progesterone

433
Q

What is the role of estrogen in lactogenesis

A

stimulatory effect
-decreases anterior pituitary lactotroph sensitivity to dopamine leading to prolactin secretion

434
Q

How does estrogen stimulate prolactin secretion

A

decreases anterior pituitary lactotroph sensitivity to dopamine (inhibitory) leading to prolactin secretion

435
Q

What are the effects of prolactin in lactogenesis

A

stimulatory effects
-Increases receptors
with glucocorticoids and estrogen- increases casein synthesis
-Stimulates synthesis of lactalbumen

Placental lactogen stikmulatory effects: binds to prolactin receptors

436
Q

Prolactin increases casein synthesis with

A

glucocorticoids and estrogen

437
Q

What stimulates milk letdown

A

Oxytocin

438
Q

What inhibits milk letdown

A

Epinephrine
-Increase tone inf ducts and blood vessel; inhibits oxytocin reaching the alveoli
-Block oxytocin from binding to myoepithelial cell

439
Q

How does epinephrine inhibit milk let down

A

-Increase tone inf ducts and blood vessel; inhibits oxytocin reaching the alveoli
-Block oxytocin from binding to myoepithelial cell

440
Q

When do cows reach their peak of milk production

A

90 days and then slowly decreases

441
Q

How long should the dry period be of not milking a cow be

A

about the last 60 days of their gestation dried off to recover

udder involutes and goes towards pregnancy

442
Q

How old should dairy heifers be at their first calving

A

22-24 months of age

443
Q

What are typical dairy conception and pregnancy rates

A

Conception: 50%
Pregnancy: 20%

444
Q

Why do lactating ruminants get ketosis

A

minor GI glucose absorption. rumen microflora digest all simple carbs, generating VFA
only propionate can go to glucose and there are obligate glucose demands (late term fetus and lactose synthesis)

Lack of CHOs increase lipoysis and increase NEFA generating ketones

445
Q

Involution of the gland

A

Increased hydrostatic pressure (milk is not being removed)
-exceeds capillary hydrostatic pressure, thus fluid absorbed and reduces milk synthesis

Ductal cells resorb- size and number of alveolar cells

Lysosomal enzymes break down and digest epithelial cells

Secretion absorbed by lymphatic and venous drainage

446
Q

What are the stages of mammary gland involution

A

1) Active involution: milk secreted at unchanged rate 2-4 days, complete cessation after 30 days

2) Steady state: secretory cells are reduced gradually: if dry too long, replaced by adipose tissue and subsequent production is reduced

3) Redevelopment and colostrogenesis

*Recommended goal of 45 days (30 day dry period appears to be adequate- colostrogenesis)
but 70-80+ is detrimentral

447
Q

Why is an adequate dry period

A

Recommended goal of 45 days (30 day dry period appears to be adequate- colostrogenesis)
but 70-80+ is detrimentral - parenchyma gets replaced by adipose tissue

448
Q

Bovine milk composition

A

Water -88%

Lactose- 4.9% Major osmole, progesterone inhibits, prolactin stimulates

Fat (3.4%)- wide species variability, triacylglycerol, apocrine secretion from ER

Protein (3.3%)- casein, a-lactalbumin, b-lactoglobulin, secreted within golgi vesicles

Minerals (0.7%)

449
Q

What controls milk volume

A

Lactose- major osmole in milk

450
Q

Milk fat depression syndrome

A

<3.3% fat and higher protein

1) High milk production: low fiber ration, forage chopped too fine or course

2) Low Milk production: severe energy deficit- acetate diverted to ketone production for non-mammary energy demands (muscle, heart, kidney)

451
Q

How does a holstein get high milkfat >3.8% milk

A

fair to poor milk production
severe body condition loss

inadequate energy intake leading to mobilization of body fat leading to increase availability of TG, GA for milk fat synthesis

Insufficient glucose/ propionate for lactose synthesis

452
Q

What is A2 milk

A

A1 beta-casein blamed for chronic disease and some claim milk intolerance lessened in A2 milk

A2 differs by one amino acid (recessive trait)
some breeds have higher frequency of A1 like herseys

often get more money for it

453
Q

How might there be failure of passive transfer

A

Quantity: need dairy (holstein) 1 gallon in first 5 hours, failure to absorb (chilled calf)

Quality: dam health and immune status, breed, lactation, and leaking, harvest and storage

Quickness: race betwee nIg, bugs, and time

454
Q

Bovine and Equine colostrum tends to be high in _____ but low in ______

A

High: IgG
Low: IgM and IgA

455
Q

Canine colostrum tends to be high in ______

A

IgA

456
Q

How might a calf not absorb colostrum

A

if they are too cold

457
Q

What values of colostrum do you need

A

50mg/ml on Bricks
22% of greater on refractometet

458
Q

Ig primarily absorbed by special enterocyte functional for __________

A

24-36 hours

really 12-24

459
Q

You need to get _______ gallons of colostrum in the calf by the _______ *

A

1 gallons within the first 5 hours

460
Q

Absorption of colostrum occurs within

A

first 12-24 hours (gone by 36 hours)

abomasal digestive enzymes are in low quantities for first 48 hours
Ig primarily absorbed by special enterocytes function for 24-36 hours

leaky gut goes both ways- calves will secrete IgG from colostrum back into the gut lumen

461
Q

inappropriate milk production by pregnant female prior to parturition
-precocious mammary development in young non-pregnant animals
-Estrogenic compounds (zeralenone)
-Cystic ovarian disease in heifers
-Suckling by herdmates or self
-Genetics (heavy milking lines)

A

Galactorrhea

462
Q

What might cause galactorrhea

A

-precocious mammary development in young non-pregnant animals
-Estrogenic compounds (zeralenone)
-Cystic ovarian disease in heifers
-Suckling by herdmates or self
-Genetics (heavy milking lines)

463
Q

What do you need to rule out in cases of galactorrhea

A

mastitis

464
Q

Galactorrhea treatment

A

rule out mastitis

Do not milk out unless prepared to treat like lactating animal - predispose to ascending infections

Mastectomy for pets

*Not a lot of treatment options aside from stopping the causes

465
Q

Where do you typically see displaced glandular tissue in goats

A

vulva

466
Q

condition of producing no/too little milk
more common in pigs, horses, camelids
non-specific sequelae to severe dystocia, illness, starvation, pregnancy toxemia (sheep and goats)

A

Agalactia

467
Q

Agalactia is a nonspecific sequelae to

A

severe dystocia, illness, starvation, pregnancy toxemia (sheep and goats)

468
Q

What species is agalactia more common in

A

pigs, horses, camelids

469
Q

What is Sow MMA syndrome

A

Mastitis/ Metritis/ Agalactia syndrome

occurs close to farrowing (first three days)- udder but no let down or drying up. Pigs starved unless supplemented

multifactorial- older fatter sows or poor facility hygiene

Limited Treatment: Oxytocin/ +/- antibiotics +/- NSAID

470
Q

Why do sows get MMA

A

they old, fatter
they in poor facilities (hygiene)

multifactorial and poorly understood

471
Q

How do you treat sows with agalactia

A

Oxytocin/ +/- antibiotics +/- NSAID

472
Q

How might a mare get agalactia

A

Ergotism in mares- tall fescue infected with Neotyphodium coenophialum

Ergopeptine alkaloids are dopamine agonist which inhibits prolactin secretion and agalactia results

leads to prolonged gestation and placental edema

Treatment: Domperidone (dopamine antagonist) - Equidone

473
Q

How do ergopeptine alkaloids cause agalactia

A

dopamine agonist which inhibits prolactin secretion

474
Q

What is result of horses eating tall fescue infected with Neotyphodium coenophialum

A

Ergopeptine alkaloids are dopamine agonist which inhibits prolactin secretion and agalactia results

leads to prolonged gestation and placental edema

Treatment: Domperidone (dopamine antagonist) - Equidone

475
Q

How do you treat ergotism induced agalactia in mares

A

Domperidone (dopamine antagonist) - Equidone

476
Q

Domperidone is a

A

dopamine antagonist used to treat ergotism and agalactia in mares

477
Q

What might interfere with milk letdown in cattle

A

Stress-induced (epinephrine) interference with oxytocin effects
-exogenous oxytocin works for a little but they become dependent on it

common in first lactation dary cows (new environment and handling)

478
Q

What breed of cattle have greater incidence of milk letdown

A

Bos indicus cattle

479
Q

intercellular fluid accumulation in the mammary gland

A

Udder edema

-acute or chronic
-reduced mammary blood flow?
-Risk factors: periparturient heifer (first calving)

480
Q

Udder edema is commonly seen in

A

Periparturient heifer (first calving)
age at first calving, genetics, milk production and fetal sex
-feeding excess salt
-obesity, inactivity over conditioning
-male calves (dystocia)
-winter calving (oxidative stress)

need to differentiate from mastitis

481
Q

How do you treat udder edema

A

Dietary Cation-Anion Difference diet - lpw salts
antioxidants Vit E and Zn
Diuretics
+ early milk out

482
Q

Why do we care about udder edema

A

1) interferes with milk removal
-colostrum (nursing)
-milk unit attachment
-Milk let down

2) disrupts median suspensory ligament

3) frostbite

483
Q

Why might you see Udder Asymmetry

A

Nonpathologic- nursing/milking preference

Pathologic
a) Acute Mastitis
b) Chronic Mastitis- abscesses, induration, non-functional gland
c) Masses- CHANGS

484
Q

What is CHANGS for all the differentials that can cause udder asymmetru

A

Cysts
Hematoma
Abscess
Neoplasia
Granuloma
Seroma

485
Q

In dogs, _____ of mammary tumors are malignant while ______ are benign

A

50% malignant
50% benign

risk reduced to 0.5% if spayed before the first heat cycle

486
Q

How do mammary tumors spread

A

through the lymphtics

487
Q

Mammary tumors in dogs

A

50% malignant
50% benign
Risk reduced to 0.5% if spayed before first heat cycle
Spread through the lymphatics
Posterior 2 glands are more commonly affected

Carcinomas, sarcomas, carcinosarcomas, adenomas

488
Q

The majority of mammary tumors in cats are

A

Malignant adenocarcinomas

86% reduction if spayed before first heat cycle

489
Q

Mammary tumors in cats

A

Majority are Malignant adenocarcinomas

86% reduction if spayed before first heat cycle

also they hae Glandular mammary hypertrophy syndrome-

490
Q

T/F: mammary tumors are rare in ruminants and horses

A

True

491
Q

inflammation of the mammary gland
typically due to bacterial infections

A

Mastitis / Intra-mammary infection

492
Q

Clinical Severity levels of mastitis in cattle

A

Subclinical: Increase in SCC +/- positive culture

Mild: Increase in SCC +/- position culture and abnormal milk

Moderate: Increase in SCC +/- position culture, abnormal milk, and inflamed udder

Severe: Increase in SCC +/- position culture, abnormal milk, inflamed udder, and sick cow

493
Q

Subclinical mastitis cows will have

A

Increase in SCC +/- positive culture

494
Q

Mild mastitis cows will have

A

Increase in SCC +/- position culture and abnormal milk

495
Q

Moderate mastitis cows will have

A

Increase in SCC +/- position culture, abnormal milk, and inflamed udder

496
Q

Severe mastitis cows will have

A

Increase in SCC +/- position culture, abnormal milk, inflamed udder, and sick cow

497
Q

California Mastitis Test (CMT)

A

Pick on quarter per well
equal amounts of milk and gel

see increased gel and purple color with increased SCC

not good for subclinical infections

498
Q

How do you treat mastitis in cattle

A

depends on pathogen and severity
-Intramammary antibiotics- lactating vs dry
-Systemic antibiotics
-NSAIDS
-Fluids and supportive care
-Cull/ euthanize
-Kill quarter or amputate teat

499
Q

What is the difference between contagious vs environmental mastitis pathogens

A

Contagious
a) from infected cows
b) subclinical infections
c) excellent ability to colonize gland
d) Duration of infection- lifetime of cow
d) Excellent ability for cow to cow transfer

Environmental
a) form mud, manure, bedding, watter
b) Clinical
c) Fair to poor colonization ability
d) Days to weeks infection
e) fair to poor potential for cow to cow transfer

500
Q

Is contagious or environmental mastitis pathogens more likely to cause clinical mastitis

A

Environmental: Clinical

Contagious: Subclinical

501
Q

Are contagious or environmental mastitis pathogens better at colonizing the gland

A

Contagious have netter ability to colonize gland

Environmental: fair to poor

502
Q

Is contagious or environmental mastitis pathogens more likely to infect the lifetime of the cow

A

Contagious: lifetime of cow

Environmental: days to weeks

503
Q

What pathogens are strictly environmental causes of mastitis

A

Coliforms
A/ pyogenes
Pseudomonas
Prototheca
Yeast

504
Q

What pathogens are strictly contagious causes of mastitis

A

Strep. ag
Mycoplasma

505
Q

What is the mechanism of mastitis infection

A

1) Organisms deposited on teat end
2) Streak canal infection
3) Moves into the glands

506
Q

What is the single most effective practice to reduce incidence of contagious mastitis *

A

Post-milking teat dipping

507
Q

Post-milking teat dipping is ___________

A

the single most effective practice to reduce incidence of contagious mastitis *

508
Q

What is key to control environmental mastitis *

A

1) Integrity of the teat end immune defenses
2) Pre-milking teat dip
3) Clean housing
4) Hygienic milking practices

509
Q

Pre-Milking Prep steps

A

1) Dip: Disinfectant with contact time
2) Strip: Teat stimulation and ID mastitis
3) Dry: and clean on teat ends
4) Attach: lag time for let down

510
Q

milk removed by vacuum at teat end
limit time in low flow of milk (get good oxytocin stimulation)

A

Machine milking

511
Q

How might teat hyperkeratosis occur

A

from overmilking (also causes low milk flow) or leaving the milking machine on for too long
-you will see a purple ring

512
Q

composed of two adjacent heavy yellow elastic sheets of tissue that arise from the abdominal wall and that attach to the medial flat surfaces of the two udder halves.
separates R and L sides

A

Median suspensory ligament

*strains in older animals

513
Q

Where do supernumerary teats typically occur in cattle

A

behind the hind teats

connected to normal teats- orifice at base, on side of teat

usually have glandular tissue

514
Q

What are different congenital teat obstructions

A

a) Imperforate plate at gland cistern
b) Absence of teat cistern
c) Absence of streak canal

515
Q

What supplies blood to the mammary gland

A

Femoral artery
External pudendal a ***
Subcutanous abdominal vein (Milk vein)
also ventral perineal a (small amount)

516
Q

What is the ration of blood flow to milk

A

400:1

lots of blood flow to the mammary gland

injuries to the milk vein are emergencies

517
Q

As the calf grows, what veins antastomase to form the milk vein (subcutaneous abdominal vein)

A

cranial and caudal epigastric vein

518
Q

The alveolus is composed us

A

myoepithelial cells
capillary network

519
Q

What percent of milk is glandular milk in cattle

A

80% is glandular milk
milk letdown is needed for this

20% milk in cistern (do not need oxytocin)

*small ruminants. are opposite

520
Q

What are the components of the streak canal

A

-circular smooth muscle
-epithelium
-keratin plug

521
Q

Spectrum of calf problems

A

Non infectious
a) Poor adaptation
b) metabolic/ physiologic
Infectious
a) Localized/ superficial
b) Focal/ inflammatory
c) Septicemic

522
Q

What typically happens to the calf when less than 2 days old

A

Perinatal
typically non–infectious
associated with physiological derangements- birthing trauma, difficult postnatal adaptation

523
Q

What typically causes death of calves when greater than 3 days old

A

Neonatal *
Likely infectious in nature

524
Q

In calves, potential physiologic problems that dont kill

A

may predispose to infectious problems

525
Q

What is the percent breakdown of calves that die at different periods of being alive

A

First 24 hours: 31.3%

24 hours to 3 weeks: 35%

3 weeks to weaning: 33.7%

Majority of calves that die are less than 3 weeks = perinatal and neonatal

526
Q

What is needed for blood oxygenation and oxygen delivery in the neonate

A

Pulmonary blood flow
Ventilation- lung expansion, lung fluid
Physical/muscular activity
CV function
Circulatory fluid function

527
Q

Fluid volume and balance of Calves when they are born

A

-Normal tissue hydration
-Volume depletion/ contraction
-Need fluid supplementation to maintain circulatory volume

528
Q

How do neonates perform thermogenesis

A

Non-shivering- Brown fat metabolism (2% of calves) which is highly vascular, metabolically active via aerobic metabolism. Blood shunted through brown fat to increase

Shivering- of skin and skeletal muscle. increases heat production by 33-100%
hypoglycemic and hypoexemic calves do not shiver

Physical activity- most important. trying to stand calf- increases heat production by 33-100%. In first 10min of standing, the calf increases heat production by 100%
calves that do not try to stand get very cold, very fast

529
Q

How does brown fat help in the thermoregulation of neonates

A

Brown fat metabolism (2% of calves) which is highly vascular, metabolically active via aerobic metabolism. Blood shunted through brown fat to increase

530
Q

Normal calves at birth have *

A

1) Transient hypoxia/ischemia = Birth asphyxia
2) Mild mixed respiratory and metabolic acidosis
3) Mild hypoxemia
4) Lactic acidosis

531
Q

How does the pH change as the neonate develops form birth to 24 hours

A

Born with lactic acidosis (7.30) but then it increases to 7.43.

532
Q

How does PCO2 change as the neonate develops form birth to 24 hours

A

They are born with mild hypoxemia and then decreases

533
Q

How does PO2 change as the neonate develops form birth to 24 hours

A

they have a transient hypoxia and ischemia and that will resolve as the PO2 increases

534
Q

when should a calf be standing after delivery

A

Within 1 hour

535
Q

What should the body temp of a newborn calf be managed at

A

101-102

536
Q

When should active suckling be in a claf

A

active suckling <2 hours

537
Q

Normal newborn calfs should have

A

-uncomplicated vaginal delivery
-stands <1 hour
-Good mothering
-Body temp 101-102
-Active suckling <2 hours
-Attentive, responsive, active

538
Q

Calves that are slow to adapt are

A

Lethargic, inactive- slower to time to stand

Delayed suckling- time to nurse is really important

539
Q

What are the consequences of poor calf adaptation

A

-Decreased activity, lethargy (hypothermia)
-Delayed intake of colostrum, decreased energy/nutrient intake, decreased fluid volume, decreased Ig consumption
-Hypothermia, hypoglycemia, hypoxemia
-Decreased Ig uptake
-Decreased disease resistance

540
Q

What factors lead to abnormal neonatal adaption

A

-Dystocia
-Premature birth
-Illness in dam
-In-utero problems

541
Q

defined as delayed or ddifficult parturition
due to fetal-maternal size mismatch
-fetal malrepresentation
-maternal causes

A

Dystocia

542
Q

Dystocia increases the degree of ___________

A

neonatal asphyxia and makes it harder for calves to adapt successfully

543
Q

What are the effects of the calf of dystocia

A

-Prolonged hypoxia, ischemia, birth asphyxia

-Lactic acidosis

*Longer time to stand and to nurse

544
Q

What acocunts for 60% of total calf loss

A

dystocia

545
Q

calves with dystocia are _________ times more likely to die

A

4-5 times

and 3.8 times more likely to develop other diseases

546
Q

What is normal dystocia levels, when managed correctly in beef operation

A

Cows about 1%
Heifers about 3%

547
Q

calf death before, during, or within 48 hours of calving

A

stillborn
-estimated to be 7-8%

Stillborns: 78% are born dead, 21% are born alive

90% of stillborns alive at the start of calving

548
Q

the most dramatic physiological changes in calves occur at

A

birth and death

549
Q

perinatal morbidity due to ________ accounts for about half of all calf deaths through weaning and increase the risk of infectious disease

A

dystocia

550
Q

What can manage and reduce the losses associated with dystocia

A

simple management and husbandry practices

1) Decrease the occurence of dystocia
2) Manage dystocia to decrease impact on calves and dams
3) *Identify abnormal calves and provide more care

551
Q

What are the goals to decrease dystocia losses in cattle

A

1) Decrease the occurence of dystocia
2) Manage dystocia to decrease impact on calves and dams
3) *Identify abnormal calves and provide more care

552
Q

What should you monitor in a neonatal calf

A

1) Delivery status
2) Behavior - time to stand, suckle reflex, activity and strength
3) Rectal temperature
4) Respiratory pattern

553
Q

What should you do for neonatal assistance after calving

A

1) Stimulate and enhance respiration- assist in ventilation of the lungs (breathing) and stimulate by rubbing/drying calf
2) Maintain body temperature (thermoregulation)- provide supplemental heat
3) Increase blood volume and provide energy (administer colostrum)

554
Q

How do you stimulate and enhance respiration of a neonatal calf

A

1) Place in sternal recumbency
2) Remove mucus from airway
3) Vigrorous drying/rubbing on chest
4) Provide positive pressure ventilation
5) Administration of oxygen

555
Q

Calves that took more than 15 minutes to become sternal recumbence have a

A

84% predictive of nonvitality

556
Q

What is the appropriate time line of a calf standing after birth

A

3min- head right
5min- sternal recumbence
20minutes- attempting to stand
60 minutes- standing

557
Q

What should you do when doing positive pressure ventilation on a calf

A

make sure to hold off the esophagus or you will cause bloat

558
Q

How do calves lose heat and how should you prevent heat loss

A

Evaporation - reduce by drying calves (also stimulates respiration)

Conduction- reduce by providing straw and bedding

Convection- reduce exposure to wind, dry calves

559
Q

What is the most importance source of heat in the calf

A

physical activity

560
Q

When should you provide a heat source to the calf

A

When their temp is 100 or less

supplemental heat sources
-Heaters, hot water bottles, warming hut
-colostrum- also provides energy for activity
-calf jacket

561
Q

What are supplemental heat sources used to maintain body temp of neonates when their temperature is 100 or less

A

-Heaters, hot water bottles, warming hut
-colostrum- also provides energy for activity
-calf jacket

562
Q

What are the affects of providing a calf with an infrared heater for 24 hours postpartum

A

Improvements in
-Rectal temp
-SO2 (%)
-Tidal volume
-Dynamic lung compliance
-Respiratory rate

563
Q

How do you increase blood volume and provide energy to a calf

A

feed colostrum

564
Q

How do neonatal calfs have acidosis

A

-Metabolic and respiratory
-circulatory volume contraction
-lactic acidosis- volume expansion, energy metabolism
-Respiratory acidosis from increased ventilation

565
Q

Non-immunoglobulin components of colostrum

A

1) other immune-active agents
2) optimum source of standard nutritional elements
3) Concentrated energy, protein, vitamins, minerals
4) Fluid, warmth

566
Q

ant procedure above and beyond natural mating used to attain or maintain a pregnancy
or
alter normal reproduction processes or function

A

Assisted reproduction

567
Q

Assisted reproduction includes:

A

-Hormonal management
-Collection and preservation of gametes- sperm, eggs, embryos
-AI
-Embryo transfer
-IVG
-ICSI
-Cloning

568
Q

stimulation of development and ovulation of multople follicles
usually accomplished by admin of gonadotropins
FSH (pFSH, oFSH, eFSH)
eCG (PMSG)
Primarily used in ruminants for embryo transfer, limited efficacy in horse

A

Superovulation

569
Q

How many embryos might superovulation in cattle yield

A

10-15 embryos, of which 5 to 6 or more are suitable for transfer

570
Q

procedure in which an embryo is removed from the uterus of one female (donor) and transferred into the uterus of a surrogate female (recipient)
common porcedure in large domestic animals to conserve and/or distribute valuable genetics

A

embryo transfer

571
Q

Where does fertilization and early embryonic development take place

A

in the donor oviduct and uterus

*embryo is removed from the uterus of the donor (6 to 8 days after ovulation)

572
Q

how are embryos collected

A

non-surgical, transcervical uterine lavage
catheter with flexible, inflatable cuff

flush: catheter passed through cervix, catheter pulled back against internal os
flushed infused into uterus by gravity flow
recovery through a filter

*Need to know how many fluids are provided

573
Q

embryo filter

A

75um screen on bottom or on side or in center

fluid in filter cup is poured into petri dish and filter cup is rinsed

574
Q

How are embryos identified

A

under microscopes (10X)

575
Q

short-term storage of embryos

A

cooled- decrease metabolism, prolonges survival, 24 hour storage

576
Q

long-term storage of embryos

A

frozen- liquid nitrogen, forever storage

577
Q

in large animals, embryo transfer is almost always performed

A

through nonsurgical transfer

578
Q

In cattle, the embryo needs to be placed _____________ ***

A

on the same side of the corpus luteum

579
Q

In horses, does it matter where you place the embryo

A

no it is going to migrate regardless.

580
Q

cryoprotectants used in embryo freezing

A

glycerol, ethylene glycol and then stored in liquid nitrogen

581
Q

Most horses owners want what sex of horse

A

fillies

582
Q

What is used to determine sex of the embryo

A

aspiration of blastomeres
biopsy of blastomeres

a small section of the trophoblast cells are removed
aspiration via needle

then PCR to detect male cells
remainder of embryo is frozen until transfer

583
Q

how are oocytes collected

A

use of transvaginal ultrasound probe and needle aspirtion system

oocytes are capacitated sperm are placed togehter in petri dish

Fertilization and embryonic development proceeds

584
Q

What species does the embryo not hatch out of

A

the horse

585
Q

At what stage are embryos transfered

A

late morula to blastocytes into a synchronized patient

alternatives: freeze, biopsy, ship, autotransfer

586
Q

separation of X and Y bearing spermatozoa via high speed flow cytometer
based on DNA content of sperm
X-bearing sperm have 3% more DNA than Y bearing sperm

A

Sex Selection of Spermatozoa

587
Q

What animal breed associations do not allow registration of cloned animals

A

equine breed associated

588
Q

How is cloning performed

A

by transplanting the nucleus of one cell into an oocyte from which the nucleus has been removed

589
Q

Where do you want to harvest sperm from in a dead male

A

tail of epididymis and vas deferens

590
Q

How to you harvest epididymal semen

A

the testes/ epidydyms/ vas are rinsed and placed in a plastic bag
They are then shipped cooled (not frozen) to the referral center
needs to be processed qithin 12 to 24 hours

the tail of the epididymis is dissected free from the testis

Spermatozoa are flushed from the epididymis and counted

Seminal plasma harvest from a male of known fertility with frozen semen may be added

freezing extender is added
sperm are frozen using standard techniques

20-100 straws are usually obtained (5-25 breeding doses)

591
Q

How do you harvest oocytes from a dead animals

A

Ovaries removed, rinsed in saline and place in a plastic bag or sleeve
Ovaries are transported counter to counter to a referral center
Ovaries should be maintained at ambient temperature (not cooled or frozen)
Cooled semen from the stallion of choice should be sent separate from the ovaries

oocytes are collected by aspiration, scraping the follicular wall or slicing the ovary
recovered oocytes are cultured for 24-30 hours
Subsequent procedures: oocyte transfer, ICSI

592
Q
A