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Horse Prod > Exam 3 > Flashcards

Exam 3 Flashcards

1
Q

When is the parasite successful

A

If the parasite does not damage or kill its host especially prior to propagation

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2
Q

What is the benefit of not removing all parasites

A

Leaving a small number of parasites can be beneficial to the immune system of the host and reduce the likelihood of resistance

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3
Q

What is hygiene hypothesis

A

Increasing societal frequency of diseases associated w/ hyperactivity of the immune system

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4
Q

What are symptoms of heavy parasite loads

A

Poor performance, poor growth, weight loss, colic, diarrhea, dermatitis, and respiratory tract infection

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5
Q

What is the most important GIT parasite

A

Small strongyles

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6
Q

How can horses get tapeworms

A

Ingestion of a free living oribatid mite in the pasture that has ingested tapeworm eggs from an infected horse’s feces

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7
Q

Where are adult tapeworms found

A

In the cecum hanging on to the lumen w/ suckers and hooks

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8
Q

What can an abundance of tapeworms cause

A

An obstruction of the ileo-cecal junction, irritation to the epithelial lining, and mild colic

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9
Q

How can you monitor for tapeworm presence

A

Fecal, spotting an egg in the feces, and blood test for antibodies

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10
Q

How are tapeworms treated

A

With praziquantel specifically pyrantel

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11
Q

What internal parasite is commonly found in foals

A

Roundworms/ascrids

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12
Q

Why do ascrids last a long time in their environment

A

Because they have a tough membrane surrounding the egg

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13
Q

How are ascrids transmitted

A

Oral ingestion of feces therefore they can be transmitted from foal to foal

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14
Q

How are ascrid ova unique

A

They are ubiquitous to the area

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15
Q

What does the life cycle of ascrids include

A

Larval migration in the body such as to the peritoneum, liver, lungs, and bronchi

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16
Q

Why does deworming a foal typically cause colic

A

Because if the ascrids are killed they cant move w/ peristalsis

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17
Q

What can you use to decrease the risk of colic after deworming

A

Mineral oil

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18
Q

What is the immune self cure phenomenon

A

At 9-10 months of age the foal develops immunity to the parasite naturally removing them from the body

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19
Q

What two parasites cant be determined between from their egg

A

Small and large strongyles

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20
Q

How do horses get strongyles

A

They eat a blade of grass that has a 3rd stage larvae on it

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21
Q

What type of strongyle can migrate past the gut

A

Large strongyles

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22
Q

What do dormant small strongyles form

A

Cysts in the lining of the large intestine

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23
Q

What is synchronous re emergence

A

When multiple small strongyle cysts burst at the same time causing hemorrhage

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24
Q

What risk do strongyles bring to the horse

A

They tune into the endocrine system and infection can increase the risk of resistance

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25
Q

How do most horses infested w/ strongyles present

A

Asymptomatic but some can experience weight loss, reduced food intake, fever, anemia, diarrhea, and colic

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26
Q

How do horses get bot flies

A

They lay eggs on the horses hair shafts then the horse licks it of themselves or other horses

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27
Q

What is the life cycle of the bot fly

A

Hatch in the mouth and become larvae which develop in the stomach and are passed in the feces they the pupate and fly away

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28
Q

How are tapeworms managed

A

W/ a special treatment annually

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29
Q

How do you break the life cycle of internal parasites

A

Avoid overcrowding, low stocking density, removing manure, and deworming

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30
Q

What is the old method of internal parasite method

A

Rotation of different dewormers

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31
Q

What are the challenges of the old deworming method

A

Over deworming causing resistance

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32
Q

What are the benefits of deworming after determining the necessity w/ a fecal

A

As effective as treating all because 80% of horses dont have issues w/ parasites, cost efficient, reduces over use of dewormers, and reduces resistance

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33
Q

What are high shedders

A

Any horse less than 2 years old and horse at 500+ EPG

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34
Q

What are moderate shedders

A

200-500 EPG

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35
Q

What are low shedders

A

Under 200 EPG

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36
Q

When do we start deworming foals

A

At 2 months of age

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37
Q

What does killing every parasite do to a heavy shedder

A

Cause health issues such as colic

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38
Q

What is the prefered method for treating heavy shedders

A

A slow kill w/ 1/2 doses of dewormer over multiple days allowing the body to pass them efficiently

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39
Q

When are low shedders dewormed

A

In the fall (tapeworms) and spring

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40
Q

When do heavy shedders get dewormed

A

Fall, spring, and additional times throughout the year anywhere from every 6-12 weeks

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41
Q

How do you dose dewormer

A

Always at the higher end of the weight dose

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42
Q

What is avermectin products such as ivermectin and moxidectin used for

A

Adults for anything but roundworms

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43
Q

What dewormer are roundworms resistant too

A

Ivermectin

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44
Q

What dewormer can only be used to target encysted small strongyles

A

Moxidectin

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45
Q

What two types of dewormer are used for foals

A

Benzimidazole (fenbendazole and oxybendazole) and pyrimidine (pyrantel)

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46
Q

Why are benzimidazoles and pyrimidines only used in foals

A

Because there is a high amount of resistence seen w/ small strongyles

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47
Q

What type of horses is moxidectin bad for

A

Thin or small horses

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48
Q

What is the deworming protocol for foals

A

Begin treatment at 2 months of age, treat every 8 weeks until 1 year old, once over 9 months of age begin giving Moxidectin, and ivermectin at 12 months of age

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49
Q

What is the special deworming protocol for foaling mares

A

They get treated in the spring or w/ in 12 hrs of foaling w/ ivermectin

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50
Q

When are coggins tests done in the state of Missouri

A

Change of ownership, traveling, showing, breeding/boarding facility

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51
Q

What two diseases cant be protected against w/ vaccines

A

Equine Infectious Anemia (EIA) and Equine Protozoal Myeloencephalitis (EPM)

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52
Q

What is EIA

A

Immunodeficiency virus that is spread from blood to blood and causes fever, anemia, edema +/- weight loss

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53
Q

What is the treatment for EIA

A

There is no treatment typically horses are euthanized

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54
Q

How is spread of EIA reduced

A

By doing a coggins test

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55
Q

What is EPM

A

Neurologic disease that is spread by opossum feces that is ingested and causes progressive neurological symptoms such as muscle asymmetry

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56
Q

Can EPM be treated

A

Yes but can only be diagnosed w/ blood work and a spinal tap however most vets just treat if they feel thats what it is

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57
Q

What neurologic diseases can be treated w/ vaccines

A

Tetanus, Rabies, Eastern/Western Equine Encephalomyelitis (EEE/WEE), and West Nile Virus (WNV)

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58
Q

What is tetnus

A

A neurologic diseases caused by bacteria from the soil contaminating wounds that is known fo causing a prolapsed third eye lid and stiff tail/body

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59
Q

What is rabies

A

A neurologic disease that is spread by infected wildlife that causes +/- spasms, salivation, and sometimes aggression

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60
Q

What is the incubation period for tetanus

A

1-30 days and is often fatal but not contagious

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61
Q

What is the incubation period for rabies

A

2-8 weeks and is always fatal

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62
Q

What is EEE/WEE

A

Neurologic diseases that is spread by infected mosquitoes that get infected from a bird causing high fevers and neurologic symptoms

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63
Q

What is the incubation period for EEE/WEE

A

1-3 weeks, is often fatal, and is not contagious between horses

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64
Q

What is WNV

A

A neurologic disease that is caused by infected mosquitoes that get infected by birds causing neurologic symptoms and +/- fever

65
Q

What is the incubation period of WNV

A

3-15 days, can be fatal, and is not contagious between horses

66
Q

What is a core vaccine

A

Tetanus, rabies, EEE/WEE, and WNV are recommended vaccines for all horses regardless of their risk of exposure

67
Q

What are common respiratory diseases that can be protected against w/ vaccines

A

Influenza, Equine Herpes Virus (EHV), and Strangles

68
Q

What is the incubation period for the common respiratory diseases

A

7-14 days

69
Q

What is the length of time horses are mildly ill w/ the flu and EHV

A

2-7 days

70
Q

What diseases are highly contagious amongst horses

A

Flu, EHV, and Strangles

71
Q

What is EHV Myeloenchephalopathy (EHM)

A

A neurologic strain of EHV that is fatal and not protected by vaccines

72
Q

Which disease has one strain that can lead to late term abortions

A

EHV

73
Q

What are risk based vaccines

A

Vaccines given based on the likelihood that the horse is exposed to an infected horse

74
Q

What is pigeon fever

A

A bacteria infection that is spread by contact w/ the bacteria to a wound causing often external or internal abscesses

75
Q

What type of environment does the pigeon fever bacteria thrive in

A

Dry drought like environements

76
Q

Why can horses get pigeon fever multiple times

A

Because no immunity is build to the bacteria

77
Q

What type of horses tend to be less susceptible to pigeon fever

A

Foals

78
Q

What is Pars Pituitary Intermedia Dysfunction (PPID)

A

Cushings disease that is the result of something on or in the pituitary causing an increase in cortisol levels

79
Q

What are symptoms of cushings

A

Lack of shedding, wooly coat, decrease in immune function (consistently sick), muscle atrophy, and +/- abnormal fat deposition on the crest of the neck

80
Q

What does medication do for horses w/ cushings

A

Stops the excessive ACTH production but can not cure the disease or reverse the symptoms

81
Q

What is Equine Metabolic Syndrome (EMS)

A

Insulin dysregulation that leads to abnormal chuncks of fat deposit all over the body including the crest of the neck, severe laminitis, difficulty losing weight, and insulin resistance

82
Q

What is book in terms of a stallion

A

Reservation list of mares that are being bred to a particular stallion

83
Q

What is service and cover in terms of a stallion

A

They are both another way to say breeding

84
Q

When is breeding season for a stallion

A

Mid Feb to 1st of July

85
Q

What is a teaser

A

A horses that is being used to determine behavior signs of estrus in mares

86
Q

What is collection in terms of a stallion

A

Capture ejaculate from the stallion

87
Q

What is belling out

A

Flaring of the glans penis that stretches the cervix and keeps the sperm from flowing out

88
Q

What does the sheath produce and how often does it need cleaned

A

The sheath produces smegma and needs to be cleaned once a year

89
Q

What is the function of the testis

A

Produce sperm and hormones

90
Q

What is the location and orientation of the testis

A

Inguinal and horizontal in an oval shape

91
Q

What is the size variation of the testis

A

Larger the testis the more sperm is produced so they are their largest during breeding season

92
Q

What is average DSP

A

3-4 billion/day

93
Q

When is puberty for horses male and female

A

Around 1 year w/ individual variation

94
Q

What is the breeding season based on

A

Forage accessibility

95
Q

What are the roles of testosterone

A

Development of secondary sex characteristics, sperm production, control of breeding behavior, and negative feedback control

96
Q

What are secondary sex characteristics

A

Crusty neck, shiny coat, increased muscle mass, and large jowls

97
Q

When are castrations done

A

6 months to 2 years

98
Q

Why do we wait till at least 6 months

A

So they are easier to handle when sedating

99
Q

How does testosterone affect growth

A

Allows for growth plates to close faster and build muscle faster

100
Q

What is the preferred castration method

A

Field anesthesia so they can lay down either on their side or back for more visability

101
Q

What does settled mean

A

The mare becomes pregnant

102
Q

When is a mare typically bred for the first time

A

About 3 years old varying for different breeds or sizes

103
Q

When is anestrus

A

Winter months

104
Q

What is the function of the vestibular sphincter

A

Muscular sphincter that can tighten the vestibular area preventing urine from going towards the uterus

105
Q

What is the function of the cervix

A

Muscluar sphincter that closes down tight to protect the uterus from infection and should only be open during heat

106
Q

What is unique about the uterus

A

It is in a fixed location

107
Q

What are the three barriers of defense

A

The vulva, vestibular sphincter, and cervix

108
Q

What does a compromise to any barrier of defense mean

A

The mare is at high risk for consistent uterine infections and decreased pregnancy rates

109
Q

What happens if the pelvic bone is lower than the uterus

A

The uterus will begin pulling the reproductive tract tilting the vulva resulting in a shelf and stretching the vulvar lips that the mare will defecate on and wind sucking will occur

110
Q

What is the term used to describe the stretched out opening of the vulvar lips

A

Pneumovagina

111
Q

What is the caslicks procedure

A

Done to manage a pneumovagina, tissue is trimmed from each side of the vulva then sown together closing the top of the vulva

112
Q

What is a unique aspect of the cervix

A

It has longitudinal folds on the inside of the cervix that allows for sperm transportation and cervical expansion

113
Q

What is a unique aspect of the uterus

A

Endometrial folds that helps w/ sperm transport

114
Q

What are unique aspects of the ovaries

A

Cortex is on the inside, medulla is on the outside, mostly covered by mesothelium, ovulation can only occur at the ovulation fossa

115
Q

What is the length of diestrus

A

14-15 days

116
Q

What is the length of estrus

A

4-10 days

117
Q

What is the timing for ovulation

A

24-48 hrs prior to end of estrus behavior

118
Q

What is the concept of early cyclicity

A

To have foals born as close to Jan 1st as possible mares can be put under artificial lights so they are exposed to “day” light for a consecutive 16 hrs/day to trick their body it into cycling earlier

119
Q

How long is the avg estrous cycle

A

21-22 days

120
Q

When is foal heat

A

1-2 weeks post partum

121
Q

What does estrogen control

A

Endometrial edema, relaxing cervix, estrogen increases as the follicle grows, and causes spike of LH for ovulation

122
Q

What does progesterone control

A

Maintenance of pregnancy, closes cervix, tone of the uterus, and lack of edema

123
Q

What does PGF2alpha control

A

Lycs the CL and decreases progesterone production

124
Q

When is PGF2alpha released

A

When there is no recognition of pregnancy and uterine infections causing short cycling

125
Q

What is the hormone present during the follicular phase (estrus

A

Estrogen

126
Q

What occurs during the luteal phase (diestrus)

A

Release of progesterone keeping the uterus quiet for embryo development, increase in uterine tone, inhibits LH release, and FSH is still being produced allowing for selection to occur

127
Q

How can we manipulate the estrous cycle

A

Inducing ovulation, short cycling, and synchronization

128
Q

How is ovulation induced

A

W/ pharmaceutical agents such as hCG and deslorelin

129
Q

What does hCG do

A

Acts like LH

130
Q

What does deslorelin do

A

Acts like GnRH causing an LH surge and ovulation w/in 24-48 hrs

131
Q

When can ovulation be induced

A

When there is a 35 mm follicle or greater and endometrial edema

132
Q

What is short cycling

A

When PGF2alpha is given to shorten diestrus

133
Q

When can you short cycle a horse

A

When there is a mature CL present

134
Q

What is important to keep in mind when giving a horse PGF2alpha

A

Their lungs do not metabolize it as quickly so they get a much lower dose than similar sized species

135
Q

What happens when synchronizing horses

A

Estrogen and progesterone is given for 10 days to shut down all gonadotropins then prostaglandin is given just in case a CL is present then 8 days after PGF2alpha is given ovulation is induced

136
Q

When can synchronization occur

A

At any point in the cycle

137
Q

When do we strive to breed

A

12-48 hrs before ovulation

138
Q

Why do we want to breed 12-48 hrs prior to ovulation

A

Because sperm has to go thru some final maturation steps prior to being fertilized

139
Q

What are the two choices for monitoring ovulation when breeding natural cover and onsite AI

A

Breed every other day or ultrasound to determine when to breed then induce ovulation

140
Q

When are uterine cysts a problem

A

When there is a large cluster of them keeping an embryo from traveling in a horn preventing MR

141
Q

What occurs on days 5-6 of gestation

A

Embryo moves into the uterus

142
Q

What occurs during days 7-15 of gestation

A

Transuterine movement for MR

143
Q

What occurs on days 16-17 of gestation

A

Fixation which is where it physically cant move in the uterus anymore

144
Q

What occurs at day 30 of gestation

A

Development of embryonic chorionic girdle

145
Q

What occurs at day 35 of gestation

A

Embryo forms endometrial cups

146
Q

What is the embryonic vesicle

A

A fluid filled membrane that surrounds the embryo

147
Q

What occurs during the first trimester

A

Setting up for maintenance of pregnancy, when EED occurs, fixation, development of embryo chorionic girdle, development of endometrial cups, and eCG supports pregnancy thru this trimester

148
Q

What occurs during the second trimester

A

The smooth sailing trimester, least amount of fetal growth, and least amount of stress on the mare’s body

149
Q

What occurs during the third trimester

A

Largest amount of fetal growth, most stress on a mares body, and when the mare needs additional nutrients

150
Q

Why are endometrial cups so important

A

They produce eCG which causes maintenance of the primary CL and causes formation of secondary CL

151
Q

How are secondary CLs formed

A

Ovulation continues to occur lutenizing follicles increasing progesterone production

151
Q

How long is pregnancy maintained by endometrial cups

A

From days 35 to 120 of gestation

152
Q

What does the fetoplacental unit produce

A

5 alpha pregnanes

153
Q

What does the fetoplacental unit require to maintain pregnancy

A

A healthy fetus and placenta

154
Q

What type of placenta does the horse have

A

Epitheliochorial

155
Q

What is the downfall of the epitheliochorial placenta

A

Large molecules can not pass thru so antibodies cant be transferred to the fetus from the mother and there are only two antibiotics that can affect the placenta

156
Q

What are the three ways to detect pregnancy

A

Transrectal ultrasound, rectal palpation, or monitoring any return in estrus behavior

157
Q

What typically happens w/ twin pregnancies

A

One twin often dies early during MR

Horse Prod (3 decks)

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