Exam 3 Flashcards

1
Q

What physiologic mechanisms do the lungs have to normally resist infection and impair host defense mechanisms?

A

Upper Airways:
- Nasopharynx: nasal hair, turbinates; anatomy of upper airways; mucociliary apparatus; IgA secretion
- Oropharynx: saliva; sloughing of epithelial cells; complement production

Conducting Airways:
- Trachea, bronchi: cough, epiglottic reflexes; sharp, angled, branching airways; mucociliary apparatus; immunoglobulin production (IgG, IgM, IgA)

Lower Respiratory Tract:
- Terminal airways, alveoli: alveolar lining fluid (surfactant, fibronectin, complement, immunoglobulin); cytokines (TNF, IL-1, IL-8); alveolar macrophages (produce cytokines and recruit neutrophils, so the area becomes acidic and hypoxic); PNMs; cell-mediated immunity

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2
Q

What etiologic organisms are commonly encountered in community-acquired pneumonia, hospital-acquired pneumonia, and ventilator-associated pneumonia?

A

CAP: pneumonia developed outside of the hospital or <48h after hospital admission. Bacterial pneumonia is most commonly caused by aspiration.
- Viral cause most common
1. Streptococcus pneumoniae
- Haemophilus influenzae, Mycoplasma pneumoniae, Legionella pneumophila, Chlamydia pneumoniae

HAP & VAP: pneumonia occurring ≥ 48h after hospital admission; pneumonia occurring > 48-72h after endotracheal intubation
- aerobic gram-neg bacilli: P. aeruginosa, enteric gram-neg bacilli, Acinetobacter baumannii
- S. aureus (MRSA)

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3
Q

What etiologic organisms are commonly encountered in acute bacterial exacerbations of chronic bronchitis?

A

H. influenzae - 45%
S. pneumoniae - 20%
M. catarrhalis - 30%
- Enterobacterales, P. aeruginosa - seen in end-stage COPD

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4
Q

What is the common microbial etiology of pharyngitis?

A

Viruses are most common.

Streptococcus pyogenes are the most common bacterial pathogen.

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5
Q

What is the common microbial etiology of acute bacterial rhinosinusitis?

A

Haemophilus influenzae
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Moraxella catarrhalis

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6
Q

What is the clinical presentation of a pt with CAP, HAP, and VAP?

A

CAP: Usually a sudden onset of fever, chills, pleuritic chest pain, dyspnea, productive cough (but more gradual and lower severity with Mycoplasma pneumoniae and C. pneumoniae), tachycardia, tachypnea (& cyanosis, nasal flaring), consolidation
- In elderly: classic symptoms may be absent; may be decline in functional status, weakness, mental status, anorexia, abdominal pain
- Radiography: dense lobar consolidation

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7
Q

What is the clinical presentation of a pt with acute bronchitis, acute bacterial exacerbations of chronic bronchitis, pharyngitis, and sinusitis?

A

Acute bronchitis - cough, coryza, sore throat, malaise, headache, fever, normal chest x-ray

Acute bacterial exacerbations of chronic bronchitis - chronic cough productive of sputum on most days for at least 3 consecutive months each year for two years. 3 cardinal symptoms include increased cough/dyspnea (SOB), increased sputum volume, and increased sputum purulence

Pharyngitis - Sudden onset of sore throat with dysphagia, fever, pharyngeal hyperemia and tonsillar swelling, enlarged, tender lymph nodes, red, swollen uvula.
*cannot differentiate between bacterial and viral etiology, unless overt viral features are present

Sinusitis - Up to 4 weeks of purulent nasal drainage accompanied by nasal obstruction, facial pain-pressure-fullness, or both;

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8
Q

What determines the diagnosis of ABRS (acute bacterial rhinosinusitis)?

A
  • Onset of persistent symptoms or signs compatible with acute rhinosinusitis, lasting for ≥10 days without any evidence of clinical improvement
  • Onset with severe symptoms or signs of high fever (≥ 39ºC) and purulent nasal discharge or facial pain lasting for at least 3-4 consecutive days at the beginning of the illness
  • Onset with worsening symptoms or signs characterized by the new onset of fever, headache, or increase in nasal discharge following a typical viral URTI that lasted 5-6 days and was initially improving (“double sickening”)
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9
Q

What are appropriate examinations and diagnostic/lab tests to assist in the diagnosis of respiratory tract infections?

A
  • PCR (for respiratory viruses)
  • NPV
  • chest X-ray
  • WBC w/ differential
  • serum creatinine
  • BUN
  • electrolytes
  • LFTs (more likely altered in legionella)
  • procalcitonin
  • O2 sat
  • urinary antigen tests (not routinely used)
  • sputum exam (in hospital)
  • cultures
  • blood cultures (if suspected HAP or VAP)
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10
Q

What risk factors are associated with infections caused by multidrug-resistant Streptococcus pneumoniae, methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus, and Pseudomonas aeruginosa in CAP and MDR organisms in HAP/VAP?

A

MDR Streptococcus pneumoniae - antibiotic use w/in prev. 3 months, over 65 years old, DM, chronic lung disease/asthma, CAD/CHF, dialysis, HIV, alcohol abuse, cirrhosis, malignancy, use of an immunosuppressive medication

MDR MRSA - concurrent/recent influenza infection, hx of skin infection with CA-MRSA, necrotizing pneumonia or cavitary infiltrates, rapid progression of symptoms, respiratory failure, ICU admission, formation of empyema

MDR Pseudomonas aeruginosa - ??

MDR organisms in HAP/VAP - Prior IV antibiotics within 90 days, at least 5 days of hospitalization prior to occurrence of VAP, septic shock at time of VAP, ARDS before VAP, acute renal replacement therapy prior to VAP

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11
Q

What is the appropriate empiric antimicrobial therapy for the treatment of outpatient CAP (in pts w/ or w/o risk factors for resistant bacteria)?

A
  • Hypoxemic -> Humidified oxygen, bronchospasm -> bronchodilators (albuterol), fluids, chest physiotherapy if needed
  • Duration of treatment should be 5 days minimum, based on clinical stability

Healthy outpatient adults w/o comorbidities:
- amoxicillin 1g PO q8h (preferred)
- doxycycline 100mg PO q12h
- macrolide (if resistance is <25%, but likely won’t be used as monotherapy): azithromycin 500mg PO day 1, then 250mg for 4 days; clarithromycin 500mg PO q12h or 1000mg ER daily

Outpatients with comorbidities: (ex. chronic heart, lung, or renal disease, diabetes mellitus, alcoholism, malignancy, asplenia or immunosuppressive condition/drugs)
- Respiratory fluoroquinolone: levofloxacin 750mg daily, moxifloxacin 400mg daily
- combo therapy: β-lactam + macrolide OR β-lactam + doxycycline
- β-lactams: amox/clav, cefpodoxime, cefuroxime
- macrolide
- doxycycline

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12
Q

What is the appropriate empiric antimicrobial therapy for the treatment of inpatient CAP (inpatient non-severe, inpatient severe, inpatient + MRSA or P. aeruginosa concern)?

A

Inpatient non-severe: no risk factors for MRSA or P. aeruginosa
- β-lactam + macrolide OR β-lactam + doxycycline: amp/sul; ceftriaxone 1-2g IV q24h; azithro/clarithromycin
- respiratory fluoroquinolone monotherapy
- If contraindicated to FQs and macrolides: β-lactam + doxycycline 100mg IV/PO q12h

Inpatient severe: no risk factors for MRSA or P. aeruginosa
- β-lactam + macrolide (preferred)
- β-lactam + respiratory fluoroquinolone

Inpatient + concern for MRSA and/or P. aeruginosa
- MRSA: add vanc or linezolid
- P. aeruginosa: add coverage with pip/tazo, cefepime, ceftazidime, aztreonam, meropenem, imipenem (no ertapenem or daptomycin)

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13
Q

What is the appropriate directed antimicrobial therapy for the treatment of CAP (in pts w/ or w/o risk factors for resistant bacteria) when the organism(s) is (are) known? (S. pneumoniae, H. influenzae, mycoplasma pneumoniae/Chlamydia pneumoniae, legionella pneumophila, staphylococcus aureus, anaerobes, and enterobacterales)

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae:
- pen-susceptible: pen G or amoxicillin
- pen-resistant: respiratory FQ, ceftriaxone, cefotaxime

H. influenzae:
- non β-lactamase producing: ampicillin IV, amoxicillin
- β-lactamase producing: 2nd or 3rd gen cephalosporin, amp/sulbactam, amox/clav

Mycoplasma pneumoniae or Chlamydia pneumoniae:
- macrolide, doxycyline

Legionella pneumophila:
- fluoroquinolone, azithromycin

Staphylococcus aureus:
- methicillin-susceptible: nafcillin, cefazolin
- methicillin-resistant: vancomycin, linezolid

Anaerobes: β-lactam/β-lactamase inhibitor, clindamycin

Enterobacterales: 3rd or 4th gen cephalosporin, carbapenem

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14
Q

What is the appropriate empiric antimicrobial therapy for the treatment of HAP? (low risk, MRSA, high-risk)

A

Not at high risk of mortality & no increasing likelihood of MRSA -> provide coverage for MSSA
- pip/tazo, cefepime, imipenem OR meropenem

Not at high risk of mortality but factors for MRSA:
- pip/tazo, cefepime, ceftaidime, imipenem, meropenem, levofloxacin, ciprofloxacin, OR aztreonam
- PLUS vanc OR linezolid

High risk of mortality or prior IV antibiotic use during prior 90 days:
- Two of the following: [pip/tazo, cefepime, ceftazidime, imipenem, meropenem], [levofloxacin OR ciprofloxacin], [aminoglycoside, OR aztreonam]
- PLUS vanc OR linezolid

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15
Q

What is the appropriate empiric antimicrobial therapy for the treatment of VAP?

A

All empiric regimens should cover S. aureus, P. aeruginosa, and other gram-negative bacilli (Enterobacterales)

β-lactams w/ antipseudomonal activity: pip/tazo, cefepime, ceftazidime, imipenem, meropenem, aztreonam

non-β-lactams w/ antipseudomonal activity: ciprofloxacin, levofloxacin, amikacin, gentamicin, tobramycin, colistin, polymyxin B

Include an agent against MRSA (vanc or linezolid) if:
- risk factors for MRSA
- pts treated in ICUs where 10-20% of S. aureus isolates are methicillin-resistant
- pts treated in ICUs where prevalence of MRSA is unknown

If empirically covering MSSA: pip/tazo, cefepime, imipenem, meropenem (cefazolin, nafcillin, or oxacillin if directed therapy for MSSA)

Prescribe 2 antipseudomonal antibiotics from different classes ONLY if:
- risk factors for antimicrobial resistance
- patients in ICU where over 10% of gram-neg isolates are resistant to monotherapy agent
- pts in ICUs where local resistance rates are unknown

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16
Q

What is the appropriate directed antimicrobial therapy for the treatment of HAP and VAP when the organism(s) is (are) known? (MSSA, MRSA, Enterobacterales, ESBL producer, MBL producer, KPC producer, P. aeruginosa monotherapy, Acinetobacter baumannii, MDR to all other options)

A

MSSA - cefazolin, nafcillin, oxacillin
MRSA - vanc or lineolid
Enterobacterales - lots of options
ESBL producer - carbapenem (DOC), ceftazidime/avibactam
MBL producer - aztreonam + ceftazidime/avibactam empirically; aztreonam monotherapy if susceptible; cefiderocol
KPC producer - ceftazidime/avibactam, meropenem/vaborbactam, imipenem/cilastatin/relebactam, cefiderocol
Pseudomonas aeruginosa - monotherapy; if pt in septic shock for high risk of death -> combo therapy to which isolate is susceptible; if MDR -> ceftolazane/tazo, ceftazidime/avi, imipenem/cilastatin/relebactam, cefiderocol
Acinetobacter baumannii - carbapenem or ampicillin/sulbactam if susceptible; if resistant to carbapenem or sulbactam -> cefiderocol, sulbactam/durlobactam
MDR to all other options -> Polymyxin B

Treatment should be 7 days

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17
Q

What is the appropriate empiric antimicrobial therapy for the treatment of acute bronchitis?

A

NO ANTIBACTERIAL THERAPY WARRANTED

Treatment should only be symptomatic (ex. antitussives, antipyretics, adequate hydration). Avoid corticosteroids

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18
Q

What are the risk factors we need to assess with acute exacerbations of chronic bronchitis? (7)

A

Age 65
COPD severity
>4 exacerbations/year
Cardiac disease
Home oxygen use
Antibiotic use in last 3 months
Recent corticosteroid use

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19
Q

What is the appropriate empiric antimicrobial therapy for the treatment of acute exacerbations of chronic bronchitis when the organism(s) is (are) known? (uncomplicated, complicated, complicated w/ pseudomonas risk) + duration

A

Treatment should be 5-7 days with the goal of prompt resolution of symptoms and positively influence the duration of patient’s symptom free post-treatment period.

Uncomplicated - <65 years old, FEV > 50%, < 4 exacerbations/year, no comorbidities, no risk factors
- azithryomycin, clarithromycin
- 2nd/3rd gen cephalosporin
- doxycycline
- amoxicillin
- TMP/SMX

Complicated - ≥ 2 risk factors
- Respiratory fluoroquinolone
- Amox/clav

Complicated + Pseudomonas - severe symptoms, constant, purulent sputum, FEV <35%
- ciprofloxacin or levofloxacin
- piperacillin/tazobactam
- IV coverage if hospitalized

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20
Q

What is the appropriate empiric antimicrobial therapy for the treatment of pharyngitis or sinusitis?

A

Pharyngitis - symptomatic care
- Group A strep: penicillin V is the drug of choice!, amoxicillin is #2, can use 2nd gen cephalosporins as an option if penicillin or amoxicillin fails; 10 day course
- Group A strep + pen-allergic: 1st gen cephalosporin if no anaphylaxis; macrolide (azith/clarith), clinda; 5 day course

Sinusitis - symptomatic care
1. Amox/clav
- if β-lactam allergy: doxycyline, levofloxacin, moxifloxacin
- if risk for antibiotic resistance or failed initial therapy: amox/clav higher dose, levofloxacin, moxifloxacin
- if severe infection requiring hospitalization: amp/sulbactam, levofloxacin, moxifloxacin, ceftriaxone
- macrolides only in pen-allergic pts due to high prevalence of resistance in S. pneumoniae
- TMP/SMX has high resistance rates in S. pneumoniae

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21
Q

What is the pathogenesis, risk factors, bacterial etiology, and symptoms of impetigo?

A

Pathogenesis - (1) organism can directly invade healthy skin, (2) organism introduced into superficial layers of the skin during trauma or abrasions

Risk factors - Children, skin trauma, hot/humid climates, poor hygiene, day care settings, crowding, malnutrition, diabetes

Bacterial etiology - Most cases caused by Staphylococcus aureus and/or Streptococcus pyogenes (Group A strep)

Symptoms - Maculopapular lesions that rupture, leaving superficial erosions that are occasionally pruritic or painful with honey-colored crust. Can be non-bullous or bullous

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22
Q

What is the pathogenesis, risk factors, bacterial etiology, and symptoms of cellulitis?

A

Pathogenesis - Organism is introduced to the skin during trauma, woulds, Athlete’s feet, dry, crackled skin, injection drug use, ulcers, or surgery

Risk factors - Diabetes, IV drug use, arterial or venous insufficiency, obesity, lymphedema, immunocompromised

Bacteriology - Depends on patient age and/or risk factor. In infants an children -> H. flu, S. pyogenes, S. agalactiae (neonates); Staph is a common one; If the infection has an abscess, it’s due to CA-MRSA

Symptoms - Rapidly spreading area of redness, tenderness, warmth, and swelling in the skin with a POORLY defined border. May also see fever, malaise, regional lymphadenopathy, lymphangitis, leukocytosis, especially with a deeper infection.

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23
Q

What is the pathogenesis, bacterial etiology, and symptoms of necrotizing fasciitis?

A

Pathogenesis - Same as cellulitis, but it’s caused by a toxin-producing organism that progressively destroys superficial fascia and subcutaneous fat

Bacteriology - If monomicrobial -> group A strep (S. pyogenes), S. aureus (probs CA-MRSA); if polymicrobial -> mix of aerobes and anaerobes from the GI or GU tract

Symptoms - Cellulitis and intense pain, bullae, crepitus, wooden-hard induration, cutaneous gangrene and systemic toxicity (fever, MS changes, hypotension)

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24
Q

What is the pathogenesis, risk factors, bacterial etiology, and symptoms of diabetic foot infection?

A

Pathogenesis - Caused by the presence of neuropathy, angiopathy with ischemia, dry skin, decreased wound healing, and immune defects associated with DM. Or, the patient develops an ulcer or sustains an injury, they are unaware of it due to neuropathy, the bacteria invades the would and illicits a host response.

Risk factors -
- MRSA: hx of MRSA in past year, prevalence of MRSA over 30-50% in local area, recent hospitalization or antibiotic use in last 30 days, etc.
- Pseudomonas: soaking feet, failed non-pseudomonal antibiotics, macerated ulcer, warm climate

Bacteriology - MRSA, pseudomonas, staph, strep,

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25
Q

How are diabetic foot infections classified?

A

DFI: ulcer with at least 2 signs of inflammation (local swelling/induration, local tenderness/pain, erythema, local increased warmth, purulent drainage)

Mild: Erythema over 0.5cm but less than 2cm around the wound. No systemic manifestations or bone involvement

Moderate: Erythema over 2cm around the would. Involvement of skin structures deeper than subcutaneous. No systemic manifestations. Potentially bone invovlement

Severe: Erythema of any size. SIRS positive, which is two of the following: temp over 38ºC or under 36ºC, HR over 90 bpm, RR over 20bpm, WBC over 12K or under 4k or over 10% bands. Potential bone involvement.

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26
Q

What are the methods used for the diagnosis of impetigo, cellulitis, necrotizing faciitis, and diabetic foot infection?

A

Impetigo - based on clinical presentation (honey-colored, crusty discharge on legion with an erythematous base)

Cellulitis - based on clinical presentation (poorly defined border), increased white count

Necrotizing fasciitis - based on clinical presentation, increased white count, culture of deep tissue/blood cultures, radiography

Diabetic foot infection - Physical exam, labs, cultures, radiography, Ankle Brachial Index (ABI)

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27
Q

What are the principles of treatment of impetigo, cellulitis, necrotizing fasciitis, and diabetic foot infection?

A

Impetigo - Topical for mild cases (5 days), PO antibiotics for pts with numerous lesions or outbreaks affecting several people to help decrease transmission (7 days)

Cellulitis - Prompt therapy is neccessary. Choice of antibiotic is based on the most probable organism, patient characteristics, severity of infections, etc. If purulent -> treat BOTH Staphylococcus aureus and group strep. If non-purulent -> group strep and MSSA;

Necrotizing fasciitis - primary treatment is surgery (repeat w/ drainage until infected/necrotic tissue is no longer present), also combination of broad spectrum IV antibiotics until no more surgery is needed and/or the source is found

Diabetic foot infection - Therapy usually 1-2 weeks, may be extended to 3-4 weeks if responding slower than expected, improving but extensive infection, or severe peripheral artery disease. If bone is involved, therapy is 6 weeks.
- DFI - also need wound care, cultures, glycemic control, activity restriction, and smoking cessation

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28
Q

What is the empiric and directed treatment regimen for a patient with skin and soft tissue infection? (impetigo, cellulitis, nec fasc)

A

Impetigo - cephalexin 250-500mg PO QID in adults; 25-50mg/kg/day PO in 3-4 in divided doses for children; duration is 7 days with antibiotics)

Cellulitis - If Mild/Mod infection, used PO, if mod-severe, use IV
- Empiric: mild/mod -> dicloxacillin OR cephalexin (CA-MRSA -> TMP-SMX OR clindamycin OR linezolid); mod/severe -> nafcillin OR cefazolin (CA-MRSA) -> vancomycin OR linezolid
- Directed: narrow treatment to the organism (s. pyogenes -> penicillin, G(-) -> 3rd gen cephalosporin, extended-spectrum penicillin); duration is 5-7 days

Nec fasc -
- Empiric: vanc (MRSA), pip/tazo OR meropenem (GNR + aerobes), AND clinda (suppresses toxin production); could also take off vanc and clinda and use linezolid instead, but $$$

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29
Q

How do you treat a mild DFI? (normal, b-lactam allergy, recent antibiotic exposure, MRSA risk factors)

A

Mild is usually treated with PO antibiotics (1-2 weeks)

normal: usual pathogen is staph or strep
- cephalexin, dicloxacillin, amox/clav

b-lactam allergy: usual pathogen is staph or strep
- clindamycin, TMP/SMX, doxycycline

recent antibiotic exposure in last 30 days: same GPCs + GNR
- amox/clav, TMP/SMX

MRSA risk factors: MRSA
- TMP/SMX, clindamycin, doxycycline, linezolid

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30
Q

How do you treat a moderate DFI? (normal, recent antibiotics, macerated ulcer or warm climate, MRSA risk factors, ischemic limb/necrosis/gas forming)

A

3-4 weeks

normal: b-hemolytic strep and/or staph
- IV amp/sulbactam, cefazolin

recent antibiotics: enterobacterales
- ceftriaxone alone

macerated ulcer or warm climate: GNR including pseudomonas
- IV pip/tazo, carbapenem (meropenem/imipenem)

MRSA risk factors: MRSA
- add IV vancomycin, daptomycin, or linezolid

Ischemic limb/necrosis/gas forming: GPC + GNR + strict anaerobes
- pip/tazo, carbapenems OR ceftriaxone/cefepime + metronidazole

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31
Q

How do you treat a severe DFI?

A

Usually treated with IV therapy then transitioned to PO. 3-4 weeks unless osteomyelitis (3-6 weeks)

Usual pathogens: b-hemolytic strep and staph (MSSA, MRSA), enterobacterales, pseudomonas, anaerobes
- vanc AND pip/tazo, meropenem, ceftazidime/cefepime with IV metronidazole

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32
Q

What are the monitoring parameters for a patient with skin and soft tissue infection?

A

s/sx of infection - daily during initiation of therapy, then weekly

culture/sensitivity - at initiation of treatment, not usually done for impetigo or cellulitis

WBC count - initially, then 1-2x/week until normal

ESR or C-reactive protein - initially, then weekly during therapy

adverse effects - daily, weekly lab monitoring

radiography - initially, then as needed to document resolution

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33
Q

What is asymptomatic bacteriuria (ASB) and when is it recommended to treat?

A

ASB - presence of bacteria in the urine but without symptoms

Not recommended to treat unless:
1. Pregnant
2. Undergoing invasive urologic procedure causing tissue/mucosal damage
3. Recent renal transplant (within 1-3 months)

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34
Q

What are characteristics of patients with complicated UTIs? (10)

A
  • Function or anatomical abnormality of the urinary tract
  • Indwelling urinary catheter
  • Recent urinary tract instrumentation
  • History of childhood UTI
  • Recent antimicrobial use
  • Symptoms for >7 days at time of presentation
  • Pregnant women
  • Men
  • Elderly
  • Diabetes or other immunosuppression
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35
Q

What are the most common pathogens in acute uncomplicated cystitis, acute uncomplicated pyelonephritis, complicated UTI, and catheter-associated UTI?

A

acute uncomplicated cystitis - E. coli

acute uncomplicated pyelonephritis - E. coli

complicated UTI - E. coli, Enterococci, Pseudomonas

catheter-associated UTI - E. Coli, Yeast

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36
Q

What are we concerned about with bacteriuria if we don’t treat? (normal, kidney transplant, pregnancy)

A
  • Symptomatic UTI
  • Frequent recurrence
  • Pyelonephritis
  • Kidney injury
  • Urosepsis

For kidney transplantation:
- loss of graft function
- acute graft rejection

For pregnancy:
- preterm birth
- low birth weight

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37
Q

How do we diagnose UTIs? (what lab values are we looking for)

A

Signs of infections: SYMPTOMS

  • Urinalysis: bacteria >10^5 CFU (or less with foley), WBC >10k, Leukocyte Esterase present, Nitrate test (not definitive)
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38
Q

How do patients with cystitis vs. pyelonephritis present?

A

Cystitis -
- symptoms generally abrupt
- NEW dysuria, urgency, frequency
- Nocturia
- Suprapubic heaviness, lower back pain

Pyelonephritis -
- Flank pain
- Systemic symptoms

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39
Q

What is the presentation of complicated UTIs, especially for elderly pts and indwelling catheters/neurologic disorders?

A
  • May be atypical and non-specific

Elderly:
- AMS
- Malaise
- Change in appetite
- Urinary incontinence

Indwelling catheters or neurologic disorders:
- Lower tract symptoms may be absent
- Flank pain and fever more common

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40
Q

How do we diagnose cystitis or pyelonephritis?

A

Microbiologic criteria:
- > 100,000 CFU
- If catheter: > 1,000 CFU

PLUS:
- Cystitis symptoms: dysuria, frequency, urgency, suprapubic pain
- Pyelonephritis symptoms: fever, CVA tenderness, rigors, altered mental status, malaise

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41
Q

What are the risk factors and symptoms for prostatitis?

A

Risk factors: urethral instrumentation, prostatic surgery, receptive anal intercourse, may have no risk factors

Symptoms:
- Acute: fever, chills, malaise, myalgia, dysuria, cloudy urine, swollen/tender prostate
- Chronic: dysuria, frequency, urgency, perineal discomfort, pelvic/back pain, recurrent UTIs, normal prostate

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42
Q

What is the pathophysiology of prostatitis?

A

Natural defense mechanisms: Prostate produces antibacterial substances & mechanism flushing of urethra by voiding and ejaculation

Poor drainage of secretions from peripheral ducts or urine into prostatic tissue can lead to inflammation, fibrosis, or stones.

Prostatitis most commonly follows a UTI (infected urine ascending the urethra into the intraprostatic ducts)

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43
Q

What are the common pathogens of prostatitis in men?

A

Gram(-): Enterobacteriaceae (E. coli, Proteus), Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Gram(+): Entercoccus spp., S. aureus

Others (less likely):
- Acute: N. gonorrhea, Chlamydia
- Chronic: fungi

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44
Q

What are the 1st line treatments per the IDSA guidelines for GU infections?

A

Nitrofurantoin
TMP/SMX
Fosfomycin

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45
Q

What is the spectrum of nitrofurantoin?

A

Gram(+):
- Enterococcus (faecalis and faecium)

Gram(-):
- E. coli
- Citrobacter
- Salmonella
- Shigella
- Enterobacter
- K. pneumoniae

DOES NOT CONCENTRATE ANYWHERE BUT THE BLADDER!!

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46
Q

When should we NOT use nitrofurantoin?

A

If infection is not in the bladder

When CrCL is less than 30mL/min
- adequate urinary concentrations not achieved
- increased risk of systemic toxicities

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47
Q

Can we use nitrofurantoin in elderly or pregnant patients?

A

Elderly: generally avoid in pts over 60 years old

Pregnancy: widely used in pregnancy, but use cautious in mothers with G6PD

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48
Q

What is the spectrum of activity for TMP/SMX?

A

Gram(+):
- Staphylococcus (MRSA, MRSE)
- Listeria monocytogenes

Gram(-):
- Enterobacteriaceae: E. coli, K. pneumonia, Enterobacter, etc.

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49
Q

What is the SMX/TMP dosing in most UTI patients?

A

1 DS (800mg SMX, 160mg TMP), tab BID

Dose based off of TMP

*needs renal dose adjustments

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50
Q

What are important adverse effects for SMX/TMP?

A

GI: nausea, abdominal pain

Rash: erythematous, maculopapular, +/- pruritis

Renal: increase in serum creatinine, interstitial nephritis, hyperkalemia, hyponatremia

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51
Q

What are some precautions with SMX/TMP?

A

Pregnancy category C due to impaired folate utilization in 1st trimester and kernicterus in 3rd trimester. Consider risk/benefit, don’t tend to use.

Drug interactions: CYP450 2C9 inhibitor/substrate, caution with warfarin

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52
Q

What is the MOA and spectrum of fosfomycin?

A

MOA: inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis
- prodrug, one time dose
- long half life

Spectrum:
- E. coli
- Enterococcus spp.
- Useful for resistant organisms

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53
Q

How should we treat uncomplicated cystitis? (1st-3rd line + durations)

A

1st:
- Nitrofurantoin x5 days (not pyelonephritis)
- SMX/TMP x3 days (avoid if resistance)
- Fosfoxycin x1 dose (not pyelo, but good for MDR orgs)

2nd:
- Fluoroquinolone x3 days (not moxifloxacin bc it doesn’t concentrate)

3rd:
- Beta-lactam x7 days

54
Q

How should we treat pyelonephritis?

A

Non hospitalized:
- Ciprofloxacin x7 days
- Levofloxacin x7 days
- SMX/TMP x7-14 days
- Beta lactam x7 days

Hospitalized:
- IV fluoroquinolone
- IV extended spectrum cephalosporin and penicillin +/- aminoglycoside (ceftriaxone 1g IV q24h)
- IV carbapenem

(pregnant patients treated for 2 weeks)

55
Q

How do we treat catheter associated and complicated UTI?

A

If catheter is in place for over 2 weeks and it’s still needed, it should be replaced

56
Q

How do we treat acute prostatitis?

A

Urine culture should be obtained to guide therapy

Do not do prostate massage

Options:
- SMX/TMP
- Fluoroquinolone
- Beta-lactams

Use IV therapy initially if severe, de-escalate to PO after patient is afebrile x48h
- Duration should be 2-4 weeks

57
Q

How do we treat chronic prostatitis?

A

Appropriate antibiotics:
- Fluoroquinolones
- Trimethoprim (not SMX)

Duration: 6-12 weeks

Consider surgery or chronic suppressive therapy if treatment fails.

58
Q

How is methenamine used for GU infections?

A

It’s used a prophylaxis, but not treatment. It covers everything though.

59
Q

What are the differences between prophylactic, presumptive, and therapeutic antibiotics in the perioperative patient?

A

Prophylactic - antibiotic administration prior to contamination of previously sterile tissues or fluids.
- Goal: to prevent development of infection at surgical site and prevent post-op infection-related morbidity and mortality

Presumptive - antibiotic administration when an infection is suspected, but not yet proven. If no perforation, contamination, or infection, routine antimicrobial prophylaxis rather than presumptive therapy is warranted.

Therapeutic - antibiotic administration when infection is proven or extremely likely(?)
- Warranted in gangrenous gall bladder or perforated appendix

60
Q

What are the 4 different wound classifications? What are the risks for surgical wound infections and when is antimicrobial therapy indicated?

A

Clean - No acute inflammation or transection of GI, oropharyngeal, GU, biliary, or respiratory tracts. Elective case, no break in technique.
- Antibiotics not indicated unless high-risk procedure

Clean-contaminated - Controlled opening of GI, oropharyngeal, GU, biliary, or respiratory tracks with minimal spillage/minor technique break. Clean procedures performed emergently or with major technique breaks.
- Prophylactic antibiotics indicated

Contaminated - Acute non-purulent inflammation present. Major spillage/technique break during clean-contaminated procedure.
- Prophylactic antibiotics indicated

Dirty - Obvious pre-existing infection present (abscess, pus, or necrotic tissue present)
- Therapeutic antibiotics indicated

61
Q

What are patient-specific and procedure-specific risk factors for postoperative surgical site infections?

A

Patient:
- extremities of age
- malnutrition
- DM and preoperative glycemic control
- Smoking
- Alcohol use
- Obesity
- Co-existing infections at distal body sites
- Colonization with resistant microorganisms (nares with MRSA)
- Altered immune response
- Length of preoperative stay in hospital

Operation:
- Duration of surgical scrub
- Preoperative skin preperation
- Preoperative shaving
- Duration of operation
- Antimicrobial prophylaxis
- Hospital or OR environments
- Operating room ventilation
- Sterilization of instruments
- Implantation of prosthetic material
- Surgical drains
- Surgeon’s experience and technique

62
Q

What are the most likely pathogens associated with these different types of surgery: cardiac procedures

A

Cardiac - Staphylococcus aureus, coagulase-negative staphylococci

63
Q

What is the drug of choice for most surgical prophylaxis and why?

A

Cefazolin - drug of choice for most surgical procedures
- most widely studied, has proven efficacy, desirable duration of action/PK, it’s not broad spectrum, pretty safe and low cost

64
Q

What is the importance of antimicrobial timing, duration, and need for redosing based on pharmacodynamic principles for surgeries of different durations?

A

Antibiotics should be delivered to the surgical site prior to the initial incision (completed within 60 minutes prior to the initial incision, preferably at the time of induction of anesthesia). Bactericidal antibiotic concentrations should be maintained at the surgical site throughout the surgical procedure.

Long operations (>3 hours) may require intraoperative doses of antibiotics to maintain adequate concentrations at the surgical site for the duration of the surgery. (Readminister the dose when surgery lasts longer than 2 half-lives of the chosen antibiotics or if intraoperative blood loss exceeds 1.5L)

65
Q

Which prophylactic antimicrobials are warranted in cardiac procedures? (normal, if colonized with MRSA, if severe b-lactam allergy, if colonized with S. aureus)

A

Ex. CABG, valve repairs, placement of temporary or permanent implantable devices

(Staphyloccocus aureus), coagulase negative staphylococci

  • Cefazolin
  • Cefuroxime
  • Vancomycin in patients colonized with MRSA
  • If severe b-lactam allergy: Vancomycin or clindamycin
  • If colonized with S. aureus, intranasal mupirocin BID x5 days

Duration: up to 24 hours (single dose for device implantation)

66
Q

Which prophylactic antimicrobials are warranted in thoracic procedures? (normal, if colonized with MRSA, if severe b-lactam allergy)

A

Non-cardiac thoracic procedures: lobectomy, pneumonectomy, thoracoscopy, lung resection, and thoracotomy

SSI: S. aureus, coagulase-negative staphylococci
Post-op pneumonia: staphylococci, streptococci, gram-negatives (primarily Enterobacterales, P. aeruginosa, Acinetobacter)

  • Cefazolin, cefuroxin, ampicillin/sulbactam
  • Vancomycin in pts colonized with MRSA
  • If severe b-lactam allergy: Vancomycin or clindamycin

Duration: 24-48 hours

67
Q

Which prophylactic antimicrobials are warranted in gastroduodenal procedures? (high risk, b-lactam allergy)

A

Ex. resection of gastric/duodenal ulcers, gastric carcinomas, percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy (PEG) placement, bariatric surgery, etc.
- these procedures are usually “clean” due to acidity of the stomach, but if there is unusual alkalinity, risk of infection is increased (“clean-contaminated”)

Enterobacterales, gram-positive cocci (staph, strep), oral anaerobes

  • cefazolin single dose in high risk patients only (obstruction, perforation, hemorrhage, malignancy, achlorhydria, morbid obesity)
  • if b-lactam allergy: Vancomycin or clindamycin + aminoglycoside, aztreonam, fluoroquinolone
68
Q

Which prophylactic antimicrobials are warranted in biliary tract procedures? (normal, laparoscopic, b-lactam allergy, active infection)

A

Ex. Cholecystectomy, exploration of the common bile duct
- bile is normally sterile, infection is usually associated with acute cholecystitis, biliary obstruction, previous biliary surgery, age over 70 years old, DM, or obesity

Enterobacterales, enterococci

  • cefazolin single dose in high risk patients only (can use alternatives like amp/sul, ceftriaxone, cefoxitin, cefotetan)
  • If laparoscopic - NONE
  • if b-lactam allergy: vancomycin or clindamycin + aminoglycoside, aztreonam, or fluoroquinolone
  • if active infection is detected during surgery -> use therapeutic antibiotics with anaerobic activity
69
Q

Which prophylactic antimicrobials are warranted for an appendectomy? (if uncomplicated or b-lactam allergy)

A

Uncomplicated appendicitis - acutely inflamed appendix
Complicated appendicitis - perforated or gangrenous appendicitis, including peritonitis and abscess formation -> therapeutic antibiotics required due to established infection

Enterobacterales (E. coli most common), anaerobes (B. fragilis most common)

  • uncomplicated: cefoxitin or cefotetan single dose, OR cefazolin + metonidazole
  • if b-lactam allergy: metronidazole + gentamicin, aztreonam, or fluoroquinolone (ciprofloxacin or levofloxacin)
70
Q

Which prophylactic antimicrobials are warranted in small intestine procedures? (no obstruction, yes obstruction, b-lactam allergy)

A

Ex. incision or resection of small intestine, including enterectomy w/ or w/o intestinal anastomosis or enterostomy, intestinal bypass, or strictureoplasty (not small to large bowel anastomosis)

Gram-negative enteric organisms (aerobic (E. coli most common) and anaerobic, gram-positives (streptococci, staphylococci, enterococci)

  • if small bowel surgery w/o obstruction: cefazolin
  • if small bowel surgery w/ obstruction: cefoxitin or cefotetan OR cefazolin + metronidazole
  • if b-lactam allergy: metronidazole + gentamicin, aztreonam, or fluoroquinolone (ciprofloxacin or levofloxacin)
71
Q

Which prophylactic antimicrobials are warranted in colorectal procedures? (combo approach (PO and IV), b-lactam allergy)

A

These are super risky, especially without antimicrobial prophylaxis. Some do mechanical bowel preparation to reduce bacterial load.

Enterobacterales (E. coli most common), B. fragilis, and other obligate anaerobes

Combination approach:
- mechanical bowel prep, then oral antibiotics preoperatively, then IV antibiotic at time of surgery
- PO regimen: neomycin and erythromycin at 19,18 and 9 hours (after bowel prep is complete)
- IV regimen: cefoxitin or cefotetan single dose (or cefazolin or ceftriazone + metronidazole)
*no carbapenems due to concerns for resistance
- if b-lactam allergy: gentamicin or fluoroquinolone + metronidazole

72
Q

Which prophylactic antimicrobials are warranted in gastrointestinal endoscopy?

A

This may result in transient bacteremia, so prophylaxis is routinely recommended only for high-risk patients (ex. prosthetic heart valves, hx of endocarditis, synthetic vascular graft less than 1 year old, obstructed bile duct, or immunocompromised)

Enteric gram-negative bacilli, gram-positive cocci, oral anaerobes

  • amoxicillin PO single dose
  • cefazolin IV or ampicillin IV single dose
73
Q

Which prophylactic antimicrobials are warranted in urologic procedures? (no risk factors, yes risk factors, open/laparoscopic procedure)

A

Goal: prevention of bacteremia, SSIs, and postoperative bacteriuria
- Most important factor for SSI after urologic surgery is the presence of preoperative bacteruria (treat if present, regardless of urinary symptoms)

E. coli most common, other Enterobacterales, enterococci

  • if no risk factors: NONE
  • if risk factors: ciprofloxacin x1 or TMP/SMZ x1
  • if undergoing open or laparoscopic procedures (regardless of entry into urinary tract): cefazolin
    *this is only beneficial in high-risk patients (with pre-existing bacteriuria)
74
Q

Which prophylactic antimicrobials are warranted in gynecologic surgery (cesarian section)? (normal, b-lactam allergy, non-elective surgery)

A

Ex. cesarian section (endometritis)

Enteric gram-negative bacilli, anaerobes (Bacteroides), group B streptococci, anaerobic streptococci, enterococci

  • cefazolin x1
  • if beta-lactam allergy: gentamicin + clindamycin
  • if non-elective surgery: add azithromycin IV x1
75
Q

Which prophylactic antimicrobials are warranted in gynecologic surgery (hysterectomy)? (vaginal, abdominal, b-lactam allergy)

A

Risk of infection increases due to longer duration of surgery, young age, diabetes, obesity, peripheral vascular disease, collagen disease, anemia, poor nutritional status, previous hx of postsurgical infection

Vaginal: Staphylococci, streptococci, enterococci, lactobacilli, diphtheroids, E. coli, anaerobic streptococci, Bacteroides species, Fusobacterium spp.
Abdominal: gram-positive cocci, enteric gram-negative bacilli, anaerobes

  • if vaginal: cefazolin x1
  • if abdominal: cefazolin, cefoxitin, cefotetan, or amp/sulbactam
  • if b-lactam allergy: clindamycin or vancomycin + gentamicin, fluoroquinolone, or aztreonam
76
Q

Which prophylactic antimicrobials are warranted in head and neck surgery? (clean, clean-contaminated, if beta-lactam allergy)

A

Clean procedures: thyroidectomy, lymph node excisions: no prophy needed

Clean-contaminated: involve incision through the oral pharyngeal mucosa (ex. parotidectomy, submandibular gland excision, tonsillectomy, adenoidectomy, rhinoplasty, etc.)
- oropharyngeal flora: aerobic (viridans) and anaerobic streptococci, other anaerobes including Bacteroides species (not B. fragilis), Prevotella species, Fusobacterium spp., Veillonella spp., Enterobacterales
- cefazolin or cefuroxime + metronidazole; ampicillin/sulbactam
- if b-lactam allergy: clindamycin (add aminoglycoside if gram-negative coverage is needed)

77
Q

Which prophylactic antimicrobials are warranted in vascular surgical procedures? (normal, if MRSA, if b-lactam allergy)

A

Ex. Vascular graft (prosthetic material) placement, revascularization procedures
- Without prophylaxis, SSIs are uncommon, but they are associated with significant morbidity and mortality

S. aureus (MRSA if colonized), coagulase-negative staphylococci, enteric gram-negative bacilli

  • cefazolin at induction of anesthesia, then q8h for 2 additional doses (no more than 24 hours)
  • if colonized with MRSA: vancomycin
  • if b-lactam allergy: vancomycin or clindamycin
78
Q

Which prophylactic antimicrobials are warranted in orthopedic procedures (bacterial biofilm or no implantation of foreign materials)?

A

These are clean procedures, but prophylaxis is indicated when prosthetic material is implanted due to significant morbidity if the infection occurs.

Skin flora: S. aureus, coagulase-negative staphylococci, b-hemolytic streptococci, enteric gram-negative bacilli

  • if bacterial biofilm formation on surfaces of orthopedic devices: mupirocin intranasally BID x5 days
  • if no implantation of foreign materials: NONE
79
Q

Which prophylactic antimicrobials are warranted in orthopedic procedures (spinal procedures, hip fracture repair)?

A

Spinal procedures: spinal fusion, laminectomy, minimally invasive disc procedures
- cefazolin single dose or up to 24 hours
- if colonized with MRSA: vancomycin
- b-lactam allergy: clindamycin or vancomycin

Hip fracture repair: prophylaxis warranted in procedures involving internal fixation (nails, screws, plates, wires). Primary bacterial pathogens are S. aureus and S. epidermidis
- cefazolin x1 preop, then q8h for 24-48 hours
- if MRSA: vancomycin
- if b-lactam allergy: clindamycin or vancomycin

80
Q

Which prophylactic antimicrobials are warranted in orthopedic procedures (total joint replacement, open (compound) fracture)?

A

Total joint replacement: Lots of risk factors to increase SSIs. Primary pathogens are S. aureus and S. epidermidis.
- cefazolin x1 preop, then q8h for 2 additional doses up to 24 hours.
- if MRSA: vancomycin
- if b-lactam allergy: clindamycin or vancomycin
- prior to joint replacement: mupriocin intranasally BID x5 days
- some people do local antibiotic delivery

Open fracture: contamination almost always present, treat as presumed infection
- cefazolin +/- gentamicin

81
Q

Which prophylactic antimicrobials are warranted in neurosurgical procedures?

A

Classified as clean procedures, but significant morbidity and mortality if infection occurs.

S. aureus, coagulase negative staphylococci

CSF shunt procedures:
- cefazolin q8h x3 doses (24 hours total)
- ceftriaxone x1 (not good for staph tho)

Craniotomy:
- cefazolin x1
- cefotaxime x1
- if MRSA: vancomycin
- if b-lactam allergy: clindamycin or vancomycin

82
Q

How do you define a Clostridiodes difficile infection and what is the importance of the B1/NAP1/027 strain?

A

C. difficile is a gram-positive, spore-forming, obligate anaerobic bacillus. It is transmitted person-to-person through the fecal-oral route through ingestion of spores.

C. difficile definition - unexplained and new-onset diarrhea in the form of 3 or more unformed stools in 24 hours in conjunction with a positive stool test for C. difficile toxins or toxigenic C. difficile or colonoscopic or histopathologic findings revealing pseudomembranous colitis.

B1/NAP1/027 is a more virulent strain of Clostridiodes difficile. It’s hyper-sporulating, resulting in increased production of toxins A and B. This increases disease severity and mortality. This strain is highly resistant to fluoroquinolones and may be refractory to standard therapy.

83
Q

What is the pathogenesis of Clostridiodes difficile infection?

A
  1. Disruption of colonic microflora
  2. Source for C. difficile - endogenous flora or exogenous source
  3. Organism must have potential to produce toxin (antibiotics may stimulate toxin production, the two toxins are TcdA (inflammatory) and TcdB (cytotoxin)
  4. Risk factors (inc. antibiotic exposure, healthcare exposure, advances age, proximity to someone with CDI, comorbidity with functional impairment, PPI or H2RA use, cancer chemotherapy, GI surgery, etc.)
84
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of mild-to-moderate and severe (fulminant) Clostridiodes difficile infection?

A
  • Profuse, foul-smelling diarrhea
  • Cramping abdominal pain
  • Leukocytosis (>15k in fulminant CDI)
  • Fever (103-105ºF in fulminant CDI)
  • Hypoalbuminemia (<2.5 g/dL in fulminant CDI)
  • Increasing serum creatinine with renal failure
  • Toxic megacolon

Non-severe: WBC <15k, SCr <1.5mg/dL

85
Q

What laboratory tests are utilized in the diagnosis of Clostridiodes difficile infection?

A

Testing for C. diff or its toxins should only be performed on diarrheal stools, unless an ileus is suspected.

  • Stool culture
  • Nucleic acid amplification test (NAAT)
  • BD-GeneOhn PCR assay

Repeat testing in 7 days during the same episode of diarrhea should be discouraged. Do not test stool of asymptomatic patients. Do not test formed stool.

86
Q

How do you treat a patient with their first episode of Clostridiodes difficile infection?

A

Preferred: Fidaxomicin 200mg PO BID x10 days
Alternative: Vancomycin 125mg PO 4x/day x10 days
Alternative for non-severe if above not available: Metronidazole 500mg PO TID x10-14 days

87
Q

How do you treat a patient with recurrent episodes of Clostridiodes difficile infection?

A

1st recurrence: Fidaxomicin PO BID x10d or BID x5d followed by QOD x20d
- Alternative: vancomycin PO in tapered and pulsed regimen, vancomycin 4x/day x10 days
- Adjunct treatment: Bezlotoxumab IV x1 if recurrence within the last 6 months (caution if pt has CHF, limited data when combined with fidaxomicin, only binds toxin B)

2+ recurrences: Fidaxomicin, Vancomycin tapered/pulsed, Vancomycin followed by rifaximin 400mg TID x20d
Adjunct: Bezlotoxumab IV x1 (again, caution in CHF & there’s limited data with fidaxomicin, only binds toxin B)

88
Q

How do you treat a patient with fulminant Clostridiodes difficile infection?

A

Fulminant: hypotension or shock, ileus, toxic megacolon

Vancomycin 500mg PO (higher dose) or NG 4x daily
- If ileus, consider adding rectal installation of vancomycin

Metronidazole 500mg IV q8h should be administered with PO/PR vancomycin (esp. if ileus is present)

89
Q

What is the role of microbiota transplantation in the treatment of recurrent Clostridiodes difficile infection?

A

Can be used for:
- Recurrent or relapsing CDI: (a) 3 or more episodes of mild-to-moderate CDI and failure to respond to 6-8 week taper with vancomycin; (b) at least 2 episodes of CDI resulting in hospitalization and associated w/ significant morbidity
- moderate CDI w/ no response to standard therapy for at least 1 week
- severe or fulminant CDI w/ no response to standard therapy for 48 hours

90
Q

What is the etiology and pathophysiology of primary peritonitis, secondary peritonitis, and intraabdominal abscesses?

A

Primary Peritonitis - Infection with no obvious intraabdominal source of bacterial contamination. Usually caused by a single pathogen. Seen more commonly with alcoholic cirrhosis.

Secondary Peritonitis - Bacteria usually enter the peritoneum as a result of disruption of the integrity of the GI tract by disease, injuries, penetrating abdominal trauma, ischemia/infarction, etc. Serous fluid containing leukocytes, high protein conc. and fibrinogen move into the peritoneum, fibrinogen forms plaques and begins to form adhesions (3rd spacing). A ton of bad things happen from this.

Abscess - purulent collection of fluid separated from surrounding tissue by a fibrinous capsule. Contains necrotic debris, bacteria, inflammatory cells, and forms as a result of the body’s immune system against the infection. Results from chronic inflammation (most frequent cause is appendicitis).

91
Q

What is the normal flora of the GI tract? (stomach, biliary tract, proximal small bowel, distal ileum, colon, lower female genital tract)

A

Stomach - streptococci, lactobacilli

Biliary tract - usually sterile

Proximal small bowel - Streptococci, enterococci, E. coli, Klebsiella, Lactobacilli, Diphtheroids

Distal ileum - E. coli, Klebsiella, Enterobacter, enterococci, B. fragilis, Clostridium, peptostreptococci

Colon - Bacteroides species, peptospreptococci, Clostridium, E. Coli, Klebsiella, enterococci, Enterobacter, Candida, etc.

Lower female genital tract - Lactobacilli, streptococci, anaerobic gram-positive streptococci, Eubacteria, Bacteroids other than B. fragilis, Clostridium, S. epidermidis

92
Q

What is the typical microbiology of secondary peritonitis infections?

A

Gram-negatives:
- PEEK + Pseudomonas aeruginosa (in hospital)
- Proteus, Enterobacter spp., E. coli, Klebsiella

Gram-positives:
- SEEES
- Streptococcus spp., E. faecalis, E. faecium, Enterococcus spp., S. aureus

Anaerobes:
- BBCPP
- B. fragilis, Bacteroids spp., Clostridium spp., Prevotella spp. Peptostretococcus spp.

Also fungi

93
Q

What is the role of bacterial synergy in intraabdominal infections?

A

Combination of aerobic and anaerobic organisms are more lethal than infections caused by either alone.

Facultative bacteria (Enterobacterales)
- responsible for early mortality
- provide enrionment conducive to growth of obligate anaerobes
- produce nutrient necessary for anaerobes
- produce extracellular enzymes that promote tissue invasion by anaerobes

Anaerobes:
- Responsible for abscess formation
- Virulence factors (enzymes, polysaccharide capsule, b-lactamase production, succinic acid)

94
Q

What is the clinical presentation of peritonitis and intraabdominal abscess?

A

Peritonitis:
- abdominal pain aggravated by any motion, distention
- anorexia
- N/V
- fever +/- chills
- thirst
- decrease urine output
- inability to pass flatus or feces

Abscess:
- Abdominal pain or discomfort
- Low grade fever
- Abdominal distension or paralytic ileus
- Rim enhancing

95
Q

What are the three major areas in the management of intraabdominal infections?

A
  1. Support vital functions - early/aggressive IV fluid resuscitation, supplemental O2 or mechanical vent, parenteral nutrition
  2. Surgery - SOURCE CONTROL, collect aerobic and anaerobic specimens for gram stain, culture, and susceptibility testing
  3. Antimicrobial testing - begin empiric IV therapy immediately after obtaining appropriate cultures
    - broad spectrum agent needed to cover Enterobacterales and Bacterioides
96
Q

How do we choose empiric therapy for community-acquired secondary peritonitis infections?

A

Mild/mod - perforated or abscessed appendicitis and other infections of mild/mod severity (enterococci coverage not necessary)
- Single agent: cefoxitin, ertapenem, moxifloxacin, tigecycline, eravacycline
- Combo: cefazolin, cefuroxime, ceftriaxone, cefotaxime, ciprofloxacin, or levofloxacin WITH metronidazole

High risk/severe - severe physiologic distrubance, advanced age, or immunocompromised state (enterococci coverage recommended)
- Single: imipenem/cilastatin, meropenem, doripenem, pip/tazo (antipseudomonal drugs); if KPC: meropenem/vaborbactam, imipenem/cilastatin/relebactam
- Combo: cefepime, ceftazidime, cefiderocol, ceftaz/avibactam, ceftolozane/tazo, ciprofloxacin, or levofloxacin WITH metronidazole; if KPC: ceftazidime/avibactam or cefiderocol WITH metroniadzole

97
Q

How do we choose empiric therapy for hospital-acquired secondary peritonitis infections?

A
  • Meroperem, doripenem, imipenem/cilastatin, pip/tazo, ceftazidime + metronidazole, cefepime + metronidazole
    **want antipseudomonal
  • Aminoglycosides or colistin may be required
  • Therapy should be tailored when C&S results are knnown
  • Antifungal therapy if Candida spp. grow
  • Fluconazole appropriate for C. albicans, echinocandin for non-albicans spp.
  • Empiric antienterococcal therapy is recommended if pt has prev. cephalosporin therapy, immunocompromised, source is biliary tract, and in pts with vavlular heart disease or prosthetic intravascular material (ampicillin, pip/tazo, vancomycin)
  • Empiric coverage of MRSA if necessary
  • ceftazidime/avibactam and ceftolozane/tazobactam are FDA-approved for complicated intraabdominal infection in combination with metronidazole
98
Q

What is the appropriate duration of treatment of secondary peritonitis based on the patient’s information and type of infection?

A

Established infections: 4 days after source control, longer if source control not achieved.

Acute stomach and proximal jejunum perforations, no acid-reducing therapy or malignancy, and when source control was achieved in 24 hours: prophylactic anitbiotics directed at aerobic gram pos cocci for 24 hours or less

Bowel injuries that are repaired within 12 hours: 24 hours or less

Acute appendicitis w/o evidence of perforation, abscess, or local peritonitis: prophylactic therapy only, d/c within 24 hours

Cholecystitis w/o evidence of perforation - up to 24 hours

Diverticulitis: no antibiotics if uncomplicated, 4-7 days if moderate or severe

99
Q

What is the most common pathogenesis of primary peritonitis in children, hepatic failure, and peritoneal dialysis?

A

Children - Strep pneumoniae

Hepatic failure - E. Coli

Peritoneal dialysis - Staphylococci, Enteric gram-negative bacilli, Streptococci

100
Q

How do we treat primary peritonitis? (hepatic failure, S. aureus P.aeruginosa) + duration

A

Hepatic failure - 3rd generation cephalosporin, carbapenem, b-lactam/b-lactamase inhibitor (do not need cefepime, not concerned about pseudomonas)

S. aureus - anti-staph penicillin or 1st gen cephalosporin +/- aminoglycoside, vancomycin or linezolid if pen-allergic or meth-resistant

P. aeruginosa - antipseudomonal b-lactam + aminoglycoside

If gram stain shows Bacteroides or polymicrobial - same as secondary peritonitis

Duration: if clinical repsonse is seen in 24-48 hours, continue for 10-14 days

*in CAPD, antibiotics should be given be intraperitoneal administration

101
Q

What microorganisms do we see in intra-abdominal or visceral abscesses (hepatic, pancreatic, splenic)?

A

Intra-abdominal: similar to secondary peritonitis, but anaerobes are more frequent

Visceral abscess:
- Hepatic: E. coli and anaerobes; amoeba
- Pancreatic: enteric gram-negatives, staphylococci
- Splenic: S. aureus, streptococci, salmonella, anaerobes

102
Q

How do we treat intra-abdominal abscess?

A

Drainage

Antimicrobial therapy: cover Enterobacterales and Bacteroides spp.

103
Q

What is the bacterial etiology of endocarditis?

A

Staphylococci: 30-70%
- S. aureus is most common, esp. in persons who inject drugs
- Myocardial abscesses, purulent pericarditis, valve ring abscesses

Streptococci: 10-30%
- α-hemolytic
- URI flora: S. sanguis, S. mitis, S. salivarius, S. uberis, S. mutans, S. mitor
- More common in patients with underlying cardiac abnormalities (ex. mitral valve prolapse, rheumatic heart disease)

Enterococci: 5-18%
- E. faecalis, E. faecium
- Affects older men after GU procedure and younger women after OB procedure
- Primarily infects abnormal heart valves

Fastidious gram-negative coccobacilli: 5-10%
- HACEK: H. parainfluenzae, Aggregatibacter actinomycetemcomitans, Cardiobacterium hominis, Eikenella corrodens, Kingella kingae

104
Q

What is the most important laboratory test to do with an endocarditis patient?

A

Blood cultures - draw at least 3 sets from different sites, then 2 sets every 2-3 days

105
Q

How do we treat highly penicillin susceptible Virdans group streptococci and S. gallolyticus in native valve endocarditis?

A

Highly penicillin-susceptible: MIC ≤ 0.12mcg/mL

Penicillin G IV OR Ceftriaxone IV for 4 weeks: preferred in pts over 65yo or with renal dysfunction or hearing impairment. Could also use ampicillin

Penicillin G IV + Gentamicin for 2 weeks: not for pt with known cardiac/extracardiac abscesses or CrCL < 20mg/mL. Desired gent peak i ~3-4, trough <1

Ceftriaxone IV + Gentamicin for 2 weeks: Desired gent peak i ~3-4, trough <1

Vancomycin q12h for 4 weeks: Only for patients who are deathly allergic to b-lactams

106
Q

How do we treat “relatively” penicillin susceptible Virdans group streptococci and S. gallolyticus in native valve endocarditis?

A

Penicillin “Relatively” Resistant: MIC >0.12 and ≤0.5 mcg/mL

Penicillin G for 4 weeks + gentamicin for 2 weeks: can also do ampicillin instead of Pen G

Ceftriaxone for 4 weeks + gentamicin for 2 weeks

Vancomycin for 4 weeks: Only for patients who are deathly allergic to b-lactams

107
Q

How do we treat penicillin susceptible Virdans group streptococci and S. gallolyticus in prosthetic valve endocarditis?

A

Penicillin Susceptible: ≤ 0.12 mcg/mL

  • Pen G for 6 weeks w/ or w/o gent for 2 weeks (no advantage to add gent)
  • Ceftriaxone for 6 weeks w/ or w/o gent for 2 weeks
    *combo therapy with AG not superior to monotherapy. Avoid gent if CrCL <30min/mL. Ampicillin IV can be an alternative

Vancomycin q12h for 6 weeks: Only for patients who are deathly allergic to b-lactams

108
Q

How do we treat penicillin relatively or fully resistant Virdans group streptococci and S. gallolyticus in prosthetic valve endocarditis?

A

Penicillin Relatively or Fully Resistant (MIC > 0.12mcg/mL)

Pen G + Gentamicin for 6 weeks (Ampicillin is reasonable alternative)

Ceftriaxone + Gentamicin for 6 weeks

Vancomycin q12h for 6 weeks: Only for patients who are deathly allergic to b-lactams

109
Q

How do we treat staphylococci in native valve endocarditis?

A

MSSA: (oxacillin-susceptible)
- Nafcillin or oxacillin for 6 weeks: for complicated right-sided and for left-sided. For uncomplicated right-sided, do for only 2 weeks.
- If pen-allergic (non anaphylactoid): cefazolin IV for 6 weeks

MRSA: (oxacillin-resistant)
- Vancomycin for 6 weeks
- Daptomycin ≥ 8mg/kg/dose for 6 weeks: limited data, only can use in right-sided
- If necessary, can use linezolid. But it has lots of serious side effects and is only bacteriostatic

110
Q

How do we treat staphylococci in prosthetic valve endocarditis?

A

MSSA:
- nafcillin or oxacillin for at least 6 weeks PLUS rifampin for at least 6 weeks PLUS gentamicin for 2 weeks: cefazolin may be used in patients with non-immediate type hypersensitivity reactions. Vancomycin can be used with immediate-type reactions to beta lactams.

MRSA:
- vancomycin or at least 6 weeks PLUS rifampin for at least 6 weeks PLUS gentamicin for 2 weeks

111
Q

How do we treat penicillin and gentamicin susceptible enterococci in native OR prosthetic valve endocarditis?

A
  • Ampicillin PLUS gentamicin for 4-6 weeks
  • Pen G PLUS gentamicin for 4-6 weeks
    *4 weeks if symptoms < 3 months, 6 weeks if symptoms > 3 months; 6 weeks if prosthetic valve; recommended if CrCL is > 50mL/min

Ampicillin PLUS ceftriaxone for 6 weeks: For pts with CrCL <50mL/min or who develop CrCL <50mL/min on gentamicin

112
Q

How do we treat penicillin-susceptible and gentamicin-resistant enterococci in native OR prosthetic valve endocarditis?

A

Ampicillin PLUS ceftriaxone for 6 weeks: normal or impaired renal function

113
Q

How do we treat enterococci in native OR prosthetic valve endocarditis if the pt is unable to tolerate b-lactam therapy? What if they have intrinsic resistance to penicillin or it’s a b-lactamase producer?

A

Unable to tolerate b-lactam:
- vancomycin PLUS gentamicin for 6 weeks

Intrinsic resistance to penicillin or b-lactamase producer:
- vancomycin PLUS gentamicin for 6 weeks
*if b-lactamase-producing strain and able to tolerate a b-lactam, ampicillin-sulbactam + gentamicin may be used

114
Q

How do we treat penicillin, aminoglycoside, and vancomycin-resistant enterococci in native OR prosthetic valve endocarditis?

A

Daptomycin for at least 6 weeks

Linezolid for at least 6 weeks

115
Q

What is the most common cause of osteomyelitis (hematogenous spread) and septic arthritis? Are low or high doses most commonly given for bone and joint infections? What is the common duration of treatment?

A

Staphyloccus aureus

Higher doses are given so that adequate antimicrobial concentrations can be achieved

Duration: usually 4-6 weeks (up to 8 weeks in vertebral osteomyelitis caused by MRSA)
- If diabetes-related osteomyelitis of the foot after minor amputation and positive bone margin cultures -> 3 weeks

116
Q

In what populations can oral antimicrobial therapy be used for osteomyelitis to complete a parenteral regimen?

A
  • Children who have had a good clinical response to IV antibiotics.
  • Adults with complex orthopedic infections
117
Q

What are the 3 most important therapeutic approaches to the management of septic arthritis?

A
  1. Joint drainage
  2. Appropriate antibiotics
  3. Joint rest
118
Q

What is the pathogenesis on osteomyelitis? (hematogenous spread vs. contiguous spread)

A

Hematogenous spread: the pathogen reaches the bone via the bloodstream
- Risk factors: transient or persistent bacteremia, sickle cell disease
- Predominatly a disease of children (1-20yo) and adults over 50 years
- Usually caused by a single organism: S. aureus (children), gram-negative bacilli (older patients)

Contiguous spread: pathogen reaches the bone from an adjacent soft tissue infection or direct inoculation during trauma, puncture wounds, surgery, etc.
- Risk factors: surgery, trauma, cellulitis, joint prosthesis, orthopedic implants
- Usually adults > 40 years old (younger in trauma)
- Usually polymicrobial: S. aureus, gram-neg bacilli, anaerobes; if puncture wound through shoe -> pseudomonas aeruginosa (cipro and levo are the only PO agents for this)

119
Q

What is the empiric treatment for osteomyelitis in newborns, children ≤ 5 years, and children > 5 years?

A

Newborn - nafcillin or oxacillin IV + cefotaxime IV

Children ≤ 5 years -
- If vaccinated with HIB: nafcillin IV or cefazolin IV
- If not vaccinated with HIB: cefotaxime

Children > 5 years - nafcillin IV or cefazolin IV
- If allergic: vancomycin, clindamycin, linezolid

120
Q

What is the empiric treatment for osteomyelitis in adults or injection drug users?

A

Adults - nafcillin IV or cefazolin IV

Injection drug users: pip/tazo, cefepime, meropenem
- add vancomycin if MRSA is suspected

121
Q

What is the empiric treatment for osteomyelitis in post-op/post-traumatic patients or pts with vascular insufficiency?

A

post-op/post-traumatic - anti-pseudomonal b-lactam (pip/tazo, cefepime, meropenem)
- add vancomycin if MRSA is suscepted

vascular insufficiency - pip/tazo, meropenem, b-lactam or FQ + metrodinazole
- add vancomycin if MRSA is suspected

122
Q

How do we treat osteomyelitis that has shown to be due to S. aureus?

A
  • nafcillin
  • cefazolin

If severe allergy:
- vancomycin
- clindamycin

if MRSA:
- vancomycin
- daptomycin
- linezolid
- TMP/SMX (1st line PO when appropriate)

Other:
- dalbavancin on day 1 and day 8 (2 doses total)

123
Q

How do we treat osteomyelitis that has shown to be due to streptococci (pen-susceptible) or enterococci or streptococci with penicillin MIC ≥ 0.5mcg/mL?

A

Pen-susceptible streptococci - aqueous pen G IV or ceftriaxone

Enterococci or streptococci w/ penicillin MIC ≥ 0.5 - aqueous pen G OR ampicillin IV
- if severe allergy or Amp-R: vancomycin, gentamicin option

124
Q

How do we treat osteomyelitis that has shown to be due to H. flu, Gram-neg bacilli, P. aeruginosa, or polymicrobial infections?

A

H. flu (children) - cefotaxime IV

Gram-neg bacilli - ceftriaxone IV, cefepime IV, or ciprofloxacin PO

P. aeruginosa - cefepime IV, pip/tazo IV, or ciprofloxacin PO

Polymicrobial - meropenem, ertapenem, pip/tazo

125
Q

When can patients be switched to oral therapy for osteomyelitis?

A
  • Response to initial parenteral therapy
  • Susceptibility to oral agents
  • Oral agent achieves adequate serum and bone concentrations
  • Patient has adequate blood flow to the site of infection
  • Compliance can be ensured
  • Favorable side effect profile
126
Q

What are the oral antibiotic options for streptococci, MSSA, MRSA, and Enterobacterales?

A

Streptococci: amoxicillin, cephalexin, clindamycin
MSSA: dicloxacillin, amox/clav, cephalexin, cefadroxil, clindamycin, TMP/SMX
MRSA: linezolid, clindamycin, TMP/SMX
Enterobacterales: fluoroquinolones (cipro, levo)

127
Q

What is septic arthritis and why is it an emergency if it’s due to a bacterial cause?

A

Septic arthritis - inflammatory reaction within the synovial membrane, synovial fluid, articular cartilage, and joint space caused by the presence of a microorganism (bacteria, virus, fungus, etc.)
- Most common due to hematogenous spread.

If bacteria, it’s a rheumatologic emergency due to the potential for rapid joint destruction and irreversible loss of function (due to host inflammatory response to infection)

128
Q

What are the common organisms that cause septic arthritis in neonates, children, adults 15-40, other adults, and cat/dog bite?

A

Neonates - S. aureus
Children - S. aureus
Adults 15-40 - Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Adults overall - S. aureus
Cat or dog bit - Pasteurella multocida

129
Q

What is the empiric therapy for septic arthritis if the gram stain shows gram-pos cocci, gram-neg cocci or gram-neg bacilli?

A

Gram-pos cocci: vancomycin

Gram-neg cocci: ceftriaxone

Gram-neg bacilli: cefepime, pip/tazo, meropenem
- If severe allergy: aztreonam, ciprofloxacin, levofloxacin

130
Q

What is the duration of therapy for septic arthritis for these identified agents: S. aureus or gram-negative bacilli, streptococci, gonococci

A

S. aureus, gram-neg bacilli - 4 weeks

Streptococci - minimum of 2 weeks

Gonococci - 7-10 days