Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the differences between Gram pos and Gram neg bacteria:
- drug penetration of the cell membrane
- distribution of β-lactamases
- peptidoglycan thickness
- number of membranes in the cell wall
- peptidoglycan content
- peptidoglycan bridging

A

Gram positive -
- drugs can penetrate the outer layers of the cell wall effectively
- β-lactamases are excreted through the cell wall to the external environment (this means G+ needs to produce more β-lactamases compared to G-)
- very thick peptidoglycan
- 1 bacterial membrane (this membrane is the main barrier keeping drugs out of the cell)
- peptidoglycan an L-lysine residue replaces the meso-diaminopimelic acid residue found in G-, meaning an H replaces the COOH of the DAP in G-
- peptidoglycan bridging exists between the L-Lys strand and the terminal D-Ala of the second molecule

Gram negative -
- drugs don’t penetrate much due to the outer membrane
- β-lactamases are confined to the periplasmic between the outer membrane and the inner membrane
- thin peptidoglycan
- 2 (inner & outer): The outer membrane excludes drugs, but some drugs can still get in through porins.
- peptidoglycan contains meso-diaminopimelic acid residue (DAP)
- peptidoglycan is cross-linked by a bridge between the DAP residue of one strand and the D-Ala of another

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2
Q

How does transpeptidase cross-link peptidoglycan strands?

A
  1. -OH of the transpeptidase (serine residue) binds where the amide is in the peptidoglycan between 2 D-Ala residues
  2. a tetradehral intermediate is formed
  3. a oxygen double bond is formed, which kicks out the terminal D-Ala residue
  4. the terminal lysine of a new peptidoglycan comes and attacks the ester (oxygen double bond)
  5. the oxygen double bond is formed again, which kicks out the transpeptidase. Now two peptidoglycans are connected & the transpeptidase is recycled!
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3
Q

What is the MOA of penicillins?

A

Penicillins inhibit the transpeptidases that cross-link the peptidoglycan. This results in a defective bacterial cell wall -> cell death. The reactivity of the β-lactam system is due to the highly strained 4-membered ring, and because the ketone carbonyl is more reactive than the amide carbonyl due to steric inhibition.

  1. penicillin fools the transpeptidase into thinking it’s D-Ala-D-Ala, so the serine residue on the transpeptidase attacks oxygen double bond on the penicillin
  2. this forms a tetrahedral intermediate
  3. an ester forms, which results in an extremely stable compound that is inactive
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4
Q

Why do penicillins display selective toxicity for bacteria but not the host?

A

The bacterial transpeptidases do not catalyze reactions with host cell proteins because the bacterial substrate contains unnatural D-Ala amino acid residues that are not found in the host cell proteins (mammalian cell proteins have L-Ala, not D-Ala).

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5
Q

What are the mechanisms of bacterial resistance for penicillins?

A
  1. Decreased cellular uptake of the drug
  2. Mutation of the penicillin-binding proteins to decrease their affinity for penicillins
  3. efflux pump that pumps the antibiotic out of the cell
  4. production of β-lactamases that hydrolyze the β-lactam moiety (β-lactamase binds to penicillin, forms an intermediate, then the compound lyses to form an inactive penicillin & regenerated β-lactamase)
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6
Q

What is the mechanism of penicillin allergenicity?

A

Allergenicity of β-lactam antibiotics results from the drug acting as a hapten. It acetylates host cell proteins, which then raises antibodies that result in an allergic reaction.

The allergic reaction originates from the pharmacophore of the drug, which means we can’t overcome it by structural manipulation & if you’re allergic to one β-lactam, you’re likely allergic to almost all of them.

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7
Q

How do penicillins degrade under acidic and basic conditions?

A

Acidic: main degradation products are Benzylpenicillenic Acid, Benzylpenillic Acid, and Benzylpenicilloic Acid
- With the help of anchimeric assistance, the side chain attacks the β-lactam ring. After going through a few intermediates, A Penicilloic Acid is formed. If the side chain is rotated, eventually A Penillic Acid will be formed. The A Penicillenic Acid is formed when a sulfhydryl group is eliminated during the conversion of A Penicilloic Acid -> A Penillic Acid.
- If the side chain is more election attracting, it will be less likely to degrade.

Basic:
- hydroxide from basic conditions attacks the carbonyl of the β-lactam, eventually resulting in A Penicilloic Acid
- no anchimeric assistance

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8
Q

What is the main chemical feature of penicillins that confers resistance to degradation under acidic conditions?

A

If the side chain is more election attracting (more electrophilic), it will be less likely to degrade.

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9
Q

How does degradation under acidic and basic conditions affect biological activity?

A
  • Penicillin hydrolysis products have no antibiotic activity
  • Hydrolysis of the β-lactam is irreversible
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10
Q

What conditions promote penicillin degradation?

A

Heavy metal ions catalyze penicillin degradation (so these should be kept away from penicillin solutions).

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11
Q

How does the lipophilicity of penicillins affect their serum protein binding?

A

The more lipophilic the side chain is, the more highly protein bound the penicillin will be.

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12
Q

How does serum protein binding of penicillins affect penicillin degradation?

A

Protein binding protects drugs from degradation.

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13
Q

How does serum protein binding of penicillins affect their half-life?

A

Half-life is usually not affected by protein binding, since the penicillins’ dissociation rates from the protein are fast and the renal excretion rates are rate-limiting.

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14
Q

How does penicillin serum protein binding affect bioavailability?

A

Protein binding reduces bioavailability by reducing the effective concentration of the free drug.

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15
Q

What are the mechanisms of penicillin excretion?

A
  1. Renal (90% tubular secretion, 10% glomerular filtration)
  2. Biliary

Most penicillins are excreted through the kidneys (except nafcillin, which is cleared by biliary excretion)

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16
Q

How does renal disease affect penicillin half life?

A

Half lives of penicillins that are excreted by the kidneys are prolonged in cases of renal disease or failure

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17
Q

How does probenecid affect penicillin half life and what is the mechanism involved?

A

Probenecid and penicillins are both anionic. So when the penicillin is administered with probenecid, it competes for the secretion mechanism, which in turn extends the half life of the penicillin.

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18
Q

How are penicillins distributed in the body?

A

Penicillins are distributed to most tissues except the CSF. But, if the meninges are inflames, some parenteral penicillins can enter the CSF. This is good because some can then be used for the treatment of meningitis.

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19
Q

How are penicillins synthesized?

A

Synthetic penicillins are made by acylation of 6-aminopenicillanic acid (6-APA)

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20
Q

What is the β-lactam nomenclature? (5 classes)

A

penam - house with a sulfur on the roof & a garage

penem - house with a sulfur on the roof, double bond on the wall, & a garage

carbapenem - house with a double bond on the wall & a garage

cephem - house with a sulfur on the room, a basement, a double bond in the basement, & a garage

monobactam - just a garage

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21
Q

What are the main differences between phenoxymethyl penicillin (pen V) and penicillin (pen G) and what chemical feature is responsible for this difference?

A

Main difference is that penicillin V is more stable in acid due to the electronegative ether oxygen in the side chain. This means Pen V is less nucleophilic, so it decreases participation in the β-lactam hydrolysis degradation reaction.
- Pen V more stable in the stomach
- β-lactamase sensitivity and toxicity are about the same as penicillin G though

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22
Q

What major penicillins are β-lactamase-resistant parenteral or oral penicillins, β-lactamase-sensitive, broad-spectrum, oral penicillins?

A

β-lactamase resistant parenteral penicillins:
- Methicillin
- Nafcillin
- Oxacillin

β-lactamase resistant oral penicillins:
- Oxacillin
- Cloxacillin
- Dicloxacillin

β-lactamase sensitive, broad-spectrum, oral peniciillins:
- Piperacllin
- Azlocillin
- Mezlocillin

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23
Q

What is the main chemical feature of methicillin that confers resistance to hydrolysis by β-lactamases?

A

Steric hindrance of the nucleophilic attack by the enzyme on the β-lactam carbonyl. The phenyl ring is directly attached tot he amide carbonyl & there are two methoxy substituents in the ortho position. If you take off a methoxy or if you change the position to para, it would be sensitive to β-lactamases again.

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24
Q

Why is methicillin so unstable to hydrolysis under acidic conditions?

A

It is unstable due to electron donation toward the amide carbonyl oxygen by the ortho methoxy groups, which mades the amid carboxyl oxygen more nucleophilic.

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25
Q

What is nafcillin’s β-lactamase sensitivity and acid stability?

A

not sensitive to β-lactamase

Slightly more stable in acid than methicillin, but clinically, it’s identical to methicillin.

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26
Q

What are the structural similarities of oxicillin, cloxicillin, and dicloxicillin? What are their β-lactamase sensitivity, protein binding, and cross-resistance with methicillin?

A

Structure: they are all isoxazoles

Non sensitive to β-lactamases

Protein binding: highly protein bound, so they are not good for treatment of septicemia

Cross-resistance: generally cross-resistant with methicillin

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27
Q

Why is ampicillin stable in acid?

A

The amino group is protonated in the stomach, which makes it more electron-attracting. This decreases nucleophilicity of the amide carbonyl oxygen so that it does not participate in the ring-opening of the lactam.

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28
Q

What is the main difference between amoxicillin and ampicillin with regard to absorption?

A

Amoxicillin is an analog of ampicillin. It has a phenolic hydroxyl group that is now in the aromatic ring. This results in better oral absorption.

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29
Q

How do the β-lactamase inhibitors (clavulanic acid & sulbactam) work?

A

These acylate the serine hydroxyl group in the active site of the β-lactamase.

Using these with the β-lactamase sensitive β-lactams will increase the activity of the β-lactam antibiotic activity

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30
Q

Why do the acylureidopenicillins have a broadened spectrum of antibacterial activity and enhanced potency?

A

These have added side chain fragments that resemble a longer section of the peptidoglycan than ampicillin does.

These have activity against G(+), but also some G(-), like Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Klebsiella pneumoniae, and Bacteroides fragilis.

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31
Q

What are the main starting materials for the synthesis of cephalosporins? Where do they originate from? How are the cephalosporins synthesized?

A

7-aminocephalosporanic acid is the starting material for cephalosporins (it has an amine to react with things to add side chains). It is the product of some conversions of Cephalosporin C, which was isolated from Cephalosporium acremonium.

Also, 7-amino-3-deacetoxycaphalosporanic acid is a useful starting material for the synthesis of cephalosporins. It’s synthesized from phenoxymethylpenicillin.

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32
Q

What is the MOA of cephalosporins?

A

They react with transpeptidases, which results in inhibition of peptidoglycan cross-linking.

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33
Q

How are cephalosporins acted on by β-lactamase?

A

Cephalosporins are hydrolyzed by β-lactamases. The β-lactamase opens their ring structure and renders them inactive.

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34
Q

How do cephalosporins compare with penicillins in terms of allergenicity?

A

Cephalosporin allergic reactions are generally less common and less severe than penicillins. But cross-allergenicity is common, so cephalosporins should be used with caution in pts who are allergic to penicillin.

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35
Q

What is the main classification scheme for cephalosporins?

A

1st gen through 5th generation.

From the 1st through 3rd generation, Gram-negative activity is gained and Gram-positive is lost.

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36
Q

How do you classify the main cephalosporins as 1st gen, 2nd gen, 3rd gen, or 4th gen? What is the structural feature that aids in their classification?

A

1st gen - Methyl at C3. primarily active against Gram (+) cocci

2nd gen - Carbamate at C3. these have Gram(+) activity like the 1st gens, but they are also active against Haemophilus influenzae. These also have better Gram(-) activity.

3rd gen - Pyridinium ring at C3. Aminothiazole/oxime ether at C7. Less active against staph than the 1st gens, but more active vs. Gram (-) bacteria than the 1st/2nd gens (due to side chain carboxyl). More frequently used against nosocomial multidrug-resistant strands.

4th gen - N-methylpyrrolidine at C3. Syn methoximino at C7. Add Pseudomonas aeruginosa and some enterobacteria that are resistant to 3rd gens. These are also more active against Gram (+).

5th gen - Ceftaroline Fosamil is broad-spectrum prodrug that can be used against MRSA.

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37
Q

What is the main structural feature that distinguishes if a cephalosporin is orally active vs. parenteral?

A

Orally active cephalosporins have substituents at C3 that are not chemically reactive (ex. Cephalexin).

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38
Q

What structural feature of the cephalosporin C-3 side chain confers acid stability?

A

The less reactive it is, the more stable it will be in acid. In 1st gen orally active cephalosporins, there is only a methyl at C3.

In 2nd gens, there is a carbamate that is not a good leaving group, which enhances PO bioavailability.

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39
Q

How do cephalosporins with syn and anti oxime ethers on the C7 side chain differ in terms of hydrolysis by β-lactamases? What is the reason for this difference?

A

The syn methoximino group is more resistant to β-lactamases than the anti isomer.

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40
Q

How do cephalosporins with acetate vs. carbamate side chains at C3 differ with respect to enzymatic hydrolysis by esterases?

A

The carbamate will be more stable, so it will undergo less hydrolysis by esterases. This is due to the electron-donating NH2 on the carbamate.

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41
Q

How does the distribution of cefuroxime differ from most of the other cephalosporins? How is this clinically useful?

A

Cefuroxime penetrates the BBB into the cerebrospinal fluid which makes it useful in the treatment of Haemophilus influenzae meningitis.

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42
Q

What is the relationship between cefuroxime and cefuroxime axetil? What are their differences of bioavailability and route of administration?

A

Cefuroxime axetil is the orally active prodrug of cefuroxime. It is more lipophilic due to the 1(acetyloxy)ethyl ester, so it’s more readily absorbed from the GI tract. After absorption, it’s hydrolyzed back to cefuroxime.

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43
Q

What is the effect that the large oxime ether has on ceftazidime’s stability vs. β-lactamases?

A

The large oxime ether increases stability against β-lactamases.

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44
Q

What does the charged pyridinium ring of ceftazidime do in regard to β-lactam reactivity and with aqueous solubility?

A

The pyridinium ring at C3 is a really good leaving group and it strongly activates the β-lactam ring. It also results in enhanced aqueous solubility and makes it parenterally active, since it’s too reactive to be given orally.

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45
Q

What is the effect that the charged N-methylpyrrolidine moiety of cefepime has on β-lactam reactivity?

A

The N-methylpyrrolidine moiety is a good leaving group, which increases the reactivity of the β-lactam, making it too reactive for oral use.

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46
Q

What effect does the syn methoximino group on the C7 side chain of cefepime have on stability vs. β-lactamases?

A

The syn methoximino group stabilizes cefepime against β-lactamases.

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47
Q

What is the distinguishing structure of the cephamycins? What does this do for β-lactamases? What are 2 names of cephamycins?

A

The cephamycins have a 7α-methoxyl group & are often classified as 2nd gen cephalosporins. The 7α-methoxyl group increases stability against β-lactamases.
- Ex. cefoxitin, cefotetan

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48
Q

What adverse reaction does cefotetan cause?

A

Due to releasing N-methylthiotetrazole, the pt could experience hypoprothrombinemia or a disulfiram reaction.

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49
Q

Why can’t thienamycin be used as a drug? How has this been overcome?

A

Thienamycin is too reactive to be used as a drug, since the primary amino group attacks the β-lactam intermolecularly. Instead, the N-formiminoyl group was added, which is seen in Imipenem.

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50
Q

What effect does the replacement of the sulfur atom of the penicillins with a methylene group in the carbapenems have on the reactivity of the β-lactam ring?

A

Due to replacing the sulfur with a methylene group, reactivity is increased. This is because a methylene is smaller than a sulfur, so the ring strain is greater in the carbapenems.

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51
Q

What is the unique feature that the antibiotic imipenem has vs. β-lactamases?

A

Imipenem reacts with and inhibits β-lactamases, on top of reacting with penicillin-binding proteins.

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52
Q

What effect does renal enzyme dehydropeptidase-1 have on imipenem? How has this limitation been overcome?

A

renal dehydropeptidase-1 hydrolyzes imipenem. By co-administering cilastatin, a dehydropeptidase-1 inhibitor, we can overcome this.

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53
Q

Mechanistically, how do the monobactams react with penicillin-binding proteins (transpeptidases)?

A

Because the sulfamic acid is so electronegative, it activates the β-lactam ring toward chemical hydrolysis and to react with PBPs

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54
Q

Do the monobactams have cross allergenicity with the penicillins and cephalosporins?

A

No cross allergenicity has been reported, except with ceftazidime, since it has an identical oxime ether sidechain.

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55
Q

What do the structures of vancomycin and teicoplanin look like?

A

These molecules are very large and appear to be lipophilic.

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56
Q

What is the difference between the MOA of vancomycin and that of penicillin?

A

Vancomycin is an inhibitor of Gram (+) cell wall biosynthesis. Vanc binds to the peptidyl side chain D-ala-D-ala terminus in the peptidoglycan precursor, before cross-linking. So, cross-linking is inhibited, since the peptidoglycan is already bound up.

Additionally, vanc sterically hinders the attack of the other peptidoglycan by engulfing the peptidoglycan.

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57
Q

What is the mechanism of bacterial resistance of vancomycin?

A

Mutation of the peptidoglycan cell wall precursor from D-Ala-D-Ala to D-Ala-D-Lactate. Vancomycin doesn’t have the same affinity for the D-Lactate, so it doesn’t bind to it, and therefore, doesn’t inhibit crosslinking.

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58
Q

What is the route of administration of vancomycin?

A

Vanc is usually administered IV (horrible bioavailability if given orally).

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59
Q

What are the main toxic effects of vancomycin?

A
  1. Red man’s syndrome
  2. Nephrotoxicity
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60
Q

What are the differences in clinical uses of teicoplanin and vancomycin?

A

Same as vancomycin, but has a much longer 1/2 life than vanc.

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61
Q

What is the PK of vancomycin?

A

Doesn’t achieve good blood levels if given orally. Highly distributed in tissue and 90% eliminated by glomerular filtration.

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62
Q

How can you tell if something is a lipoglycopeptide or lipopeptide? What are oritavancin, telavancin, dalbavancin, and daptomycin?

A

Lipoglycopeptides have a peptide, glyco, and lipo portion (obviously).
- Ex. oritavancin, telavancin, dalbavancin

Lipopeptides have a peptide and lipid portion, but no glyco portion.
- Ex. daptomycin

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63
Q

What are the MOAs of oritavancin, telavancin, dalbavancin, and daptomycin?

A

Oritavancin - Disrupts the membrane of gram(+) bacteria by inhibiting transpeptidation and transglycosylation.

Telavancin - similar to vanc. Binds to D-ala-D-ala terminus. It inhibits transpeptidation and transglycosylation.

Dalbavancin - identical to vanc

Daptomycin - aggregation of dapto in the bacterial membrane creates holes that leak ions.

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64
Q

β-lactam antibiotics - MOA, mechanisms of resistance, pharmacodynamic properties, elimination half life, route of elimination, and potential for cross-allergenicity

A

MOA - inhibitors of cell wall synthesis by inhibiting peptidoglycan binding proteins

Mechanisms of resistance - 1. destruction by β-lactamase enzymes, 2. alteration in PBPs (so that they can’t bind to them). 3. decreased permeabiltiy of outer cell wall membrane in Gram (-) bacteria

Pharmacodynamics - time dependent (T>MIC) bactericidal activity (except against Enterococcus spp., which is bacteriostatic)

Elimination half-lie - short 1/2 life (<2 hours), except ceftriaxone, cefotetan, cefixime, ertapenem

Route of elimination - Renal elimination. Primarily eliminated unchanged by glomerular filtration and tubular secretion, except nafcillin, oxacillin, ceftriaxone, and cefoperazone

Cross-allergenicity - All have cross-allergenicity, except for aztreonam

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65
Q

Which gram positive aerobes (1) and gram negative aerobes (8) and gram negative anaerobes (1) produce β-lactamase?

A

Gram positive: Staphylococcus aureus

Gram negative aerobes:
- H. influenzae
- E. coli
- K. pneumoniae
- M. catarrhalis
- N. gonorrhoeae
- Proteus spp.
- P. aeruginosa
- S. marcescens

Gram negative anaerobes: Bacteroides fragilis

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66
Q

What is the spectrum of activity of the natural penicillins? (esp. think about Staph aureus, Enterococcus spp., Pseudomonas aeruginosa, and Bacteroides fragilis)

What is pen G the drug of choice for?

A

natural penicillins: excellent against non-β-lactamase producing cocci and bacilli
- (+): Group streptococci, Viridans streptococci, Some Streptococcus pneumoniae, most Entercoccus spp., very little Staphylococcus (due to penicillinase production), Bacillus anthracis, Corynebacterium spp.
- (-): some gram(-) cocci: Neisseria meningitidis, non-β-lactamase-producing Neisseria gonorrhea, Pasteurella multocida
- anaerobes: good activity: (above the diaphragm) mouth anaerobes, (below the diaphragm) Clostridium spp, but not C. diff
- other: Treponema pallidum (syphillus) drug of choice for this

Penicillin G is considered a potential drug of choice for infections due to viridans and group strep, N. meningitidis, Corynebacterium diphtheriae, Baccilus anthracis, Clostridium perfringens, and tetani, and Treponema pallidum

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67
Q

What spectrum of activity do the penicillinase-resistant penicillins and aminopenicllins have? (esp. think about Staph aureus, Enterococcus spp., Pseudomonas aeruginosa, and Bacteroides fragilis)

What can the aminopenicillins be the DOC for? (2)

A

penicillinase-resistant penicillins: antistaphylococcal penicillins
- (+): group and viridans strep (less than Pen G), MSSA (not MRSA), not active against Enterococcus spp. or Streptococcus pneumoniae
- (-): none
- anaerobes: none

aminopenicillins: extended gram negative activity
- (+): similar to natural penicillins, also ineffective against Staph aureus, better than natural penicillins for Enterococcus spp., and excellent against Listeria monocytogenes
- (-): (SHEP) Salmonella/Shigella, Haemophilus influenzae, Escherichia coli, Proteus mirabilis
- anaerobes: similar to Pen G
drug of choice for Listeria monocytogenes and Enterococcus spp.

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68
Q

What spectrum of activity do the carboxypenicillins and ureidopenicillins have? (esp. think about Staph aureus, Enterococcus spp., Pseudomonas aeruginosa, and Bacteroides fragilis)

A

carboxypenicillins: developed against more resistant Gram (-) and Pseudomonas aeruginosa
- (+): generally pretty weak activity
- (-): (SHEPMEPP) Salmonella/Shigella, Haemophilus influenzae, Escherichia coli, Proteus mirabilis, Morganella spp., Enterobacter spp., Providencia spp., Pseudomonas aeruginosa; not active against Klebsiella spp. or Serratia spp.

ureidopenicillins: more gram (-) activity
- (+): good against group and viridans strep, some activity against enterococcus spp., no activity against Staph
- (-): most enterobacterales (SHEPMEPP+KS) see above for SHEPMEPP, add Klebsiella spp. and Serratia marcescens
- aerobes: similar to Pen G, some activity against Bacteroides fragilis

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69
Q

What spectrum of activity do the β-lactamase inhibitor combinations have? (esp. think about Staph aureus, Enterococcus spp., Pseudomonas aeruginosa, and Bacteroides fragilis)

A

β-lactamase inhibitor combinations: developed to overcome β-lactamase production
- (+): not many clinical studies, but have activity against MSSA
- (-): enhanced activity against some β-lactamase producing strains of E. coli, Proteus spp., Klebsiella spp., H. influenzae, M. catarrhalis, and N. gonorrhoeae; not very good against inducible β-lactamase enzymes Serratia marcescens, P. aeruginosa, indole-positive Proteus spp., Citrobacter spp., and Enterobacter spp.
- anaerobes: enhanced activity against β-lactamase producing strands of Bacteroides fragilis and B. fragilis group (DOT) organisms

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70
Q

What are the common agents in these classes: natural penicillins, penicillinase-resistant penicillins, aminopenicillins, carboxypenicillins, ureidopenicillins, and β-lactamase inhibitor combinations

A

natural penicillins - aqueous penicillin G (IV), benzathine penicillin G (IM), procaine penicillin G (IM), penicillin VK (PO)

penicillinase-resistant penicillins - nafcillin (IV), methicillin, oxacillin (IV), dicloxacillin (PO)

aminopenicillins - ampicillin (IV, PO), amoxicillin (PO)

carboxypenicllins - ticarcillin (IV)

ureidopenicillins - piperacillin

β-lactamase inhibitor combinations - amoxicillin/clavulanic acid (PO), ampicillin/sulbactam (IV), piperacillin/tazobactam (IV)

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71
Q

What are the distribution characteristics of the penicillins into the CSF, urinary tract, lungs, skin/soft tissue, and bone?

A
  • widely distributed into body tissues & fluids (inc. pleural fluid and bone), but do not peptrate the eye or prostate.
  • When inflamed meninges are present & high, maximal parenteral doses of penicillins are used, the penicillins can enter the CSF
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72
Q

What penicillins are NOT primarily eliminated by the kidneys? Which penicillins need dosage adjustment in renal insufficiency? Which penicillins are removed during hemodialysis?

A
  • All penicllins are eliminated primarily by the kidneys and require dosage adjustments, except nafcillin and oxacillin which are eliminated by the liver (piperacillin undergoes dual elim)

NOT primarily eliminated by kidneys: nafcillin, oxacillin, ceftriaxone, and cefoperazone

removed during HD: all except nafcillin and oxacillin (the ones that get removed may need supplemental dosing after HD)

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73
Q

Which penicillins should be used with caution in patients with CHF or renal failure due to the sodium load associated with administration of their parenteral formulations? Which ones contain the most mEq of sodium per gram?

A

Aqueous Sodium Penicillin G - 2.0 mEq
Nafcillin - 2.9 mEq
Ticarcillin - 5.2 mEq
Piperacillin - 1.85 mEq

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74
Q

What are the main clinical uses of the representative agents within each group of penicillins?

A

natural penicillins - treponema pallidum (syphilis)

penicillinase-resistant penicillins - infections due to methicillin-susceptible Staphylococcus aureus (MSSA)

aminopenicillins - Enterococcal infections and Listeria monocytogenes meningitis

carboxypenicillins and ureidopenicillins - hospital-aquired infections from gram negative bacteria. piperacillin is the most active penicillin against Pseudomonas aeruginosa

β-lactamase inhibitor combo products - Augmentin = dogmentin (good against human/animal bites) & otitis media, sinusitis, bronchitis, and lower respiratory tract infections; parenterals are good for polymicrobial infections, intraabdominal infections, gynecological infections, and diabetic food infections; pip-tazo is good Pseudomonas aeruginosa (esp. hospital acquired)

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75
Q

What are the major adverse effects associated with the penicillin antibiotics (8)? Which ones are most likely to cause interstitial nephritis?

A
  • hypersensitivity (type 1 is immediate/severe, type 2 is delayed/less severe). cross allergenicity is seen among all penicillins
  • neurologic effects like seizures and confusion from toxic doses (not seen with nafcillin)
  • hematologic effects like leukopenia, neutropenia, or thrombocytopenia when used for long-term therapy (reversible)
  • N/V/D
  • Interstitial nephritis - most commonly seen with methicillin (d/c’d now) and nafcillin). This is immune-mediated damage to renal tubules and can progress to renal failure. Manifested through eosinophiluria and an abrupt increase in serum creatinine
  • phlebitis (nafcillin)
  • hypokalemia
  • sodium overload and fluid retention (ticarcillin, piperacillin)
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76
Q

What is the spectrum of activity for the 1st and 2nd generation cephalosporins? (what are the representative agents for these)

A

1st gen (cefazolin, cephalexin):
- (+): Group and viridans strep, PSSP, MSSA
- (-): (PEK) Proteus mirabilis, Escherichia coli, Klebsiella pneumoniae

2nd gen (cefuroxime, cefoxitin, cefotetan, cefprozil):
- (+): group and viridans strep, PSSP, MSSA (but 1st gens are still better against these)
- (-): (HENPEK) Haemophilus influenzae, Enterobacter, Neisseria, Proteus mirabilis, Escherichia coli, Klebsiella pneumoniae
- anaerobes: (cefoxitin) Bacteroides fragilis

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77
Q

What is the spectrum of activity for the 3rd and 4th generation cephalosporins? (what are the representative agents for these)

A

3rd gen (ceftriaxone, ceftazidime, cefpodoxime):
- (+): similar to 1st/2nd gen, (ceftriaxone only) activity against penicillin-resistant Streptococcus pneumoniae (PRSP),
- (-): (HENPECKSSS) HENPEK + Citrobacter spp., Serratia marcescens, Salmonella spp., Shigella spp. ONLY ceftazidime and cefoperazone (not ceftriaxone) have activity against Pseudomonas aeruginosa
- anaerobes: limited activity

4th gen (cefepime):
- (+): similar to ceftriaxone (PRSP)
- (-): HENPECKSS + Pseudomonas aeruginosa and β-lactamase producing Enterobacter and E. Coli

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78
Q

What is the spectrum of activity for ceftaroline, cefiderocol, and cephalosporins with β-lactamase inhibitors?

A

ceftaroline - Anti-MRSA cephalosporin
- (+): similar to ceftriaxone (including PRSP) & MRSA
- (-): HENPECKSSS (but no Pseudomonas aeruginosa)

cefiderocol - developed to have activity against MDR organisms
- (+): none
- (-): HENPECKSSS + some strains that produce ESBLs, AmpCs, and carbapenemases

ceftolozane-tazobactam -
- (+): Streptococci
- (-): HENPECKSSS, some ESBL producers, but is the most active against Pseudomonas aeruginosa

ceftazidime-avibactam -
- (+): Streptococci
- (-): HENPECKSSS, many ESBL producers, some KPC and OXA producing enterobacterales, AmpC producing Enterobacterales AND Psudomonas aeruginosa

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79
Q

What are cephalosporins generally NOT active against (3)

A

MRSA (except ceftaroline)
Enterococcus spp
Legionella pneumophila

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80
Q

What are the best cephalosporins for Staphylococcus aureus, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, resistant bacteria (ESBL, AmpC, and KPC-producing), and anaerobes like Bacteroides fragilis?

A

Staphylococcus aureus - ceftaroline

Pseudomonas aeruginosa - ceftolozane-tazobactam (also ceftazidime-avibactam, some 3rd gens, and cefepime)

resistant bacteria (ESBL, AmpC, and KPC-producing): cefiderocol, ceftolozane-tazobactam, and ceftazidime-avibactam (but carbapenems are best for this)

Bacteroides fragilis - cefoxitin

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81
Q

Which cephalosporins penetrate the CNS and achieve therapeutic concentrations in the cerebrospinal fluid? Which cephalosporin has the longest elimination half-life (BID dosing)? Which cephalosporins do not require dosing adjustments in renal insufficiency?

A

CSF concentrations are only achieved with parenteral cefuroxime, 3rd gen, and 4th gen agents.

ceftriaxone has a 1/2 life of 8 hours (BID dosing)

ceftriaxone and cefoperazone are eliminated by the biliary system, so they do not need doses adjusted in renal insufficiency.

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82
Q

What are the major adverse effects associated with the cephalosporins? (5)

A
  • Hypersensitivity
  • Hematologic: leukopenia, neutropenia, or thrombocytopenia from prolonged use
  • GI: C. diff, biliary sludging (ceftriaxone)
  • Nonconvulsive status epilepticus (pts improve after d/c)
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83
Q

What is the risk of cross-allergenicity between penicillins and cephalosporins? In which situations should or shouldn’t a penicillin-allergic patient receive a cephalosporin?

A
  • Rate of cross-reactivity is 1-5% (1st gen cephalosporins (not cefazolin) show the greatest risk)
  • If ICU admission due to anaphylaxis/interstitial nephritis/delayed severe skin allergic reactions -> Avoid ALL β-lactams
  • If immediate or delayed hypersensitivity reactions not requiring ICU admission -> avoid cephalosporins w/ identical side chains, use other cephalosporins with caution/close monitoring
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84
Q

Which cephalosporins contain a MTT (methylthiotetrazole) side chain and what is the significance of it?

A

Cefamandole, cefotetan, cefmetazole, cefoperazone, and moxalactam all have an NMTT side chain.
- These cause unique adverse effects.
1. Hypothrombinemia
2. Disulfiram reaction

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85
Q

What is the spectrum of activity of the carbapenems (inc. meropenem/vaborbactam, imipenem/relebactam, and aztreonam)

What are doripenem and meropenem the DOC for?

A

imipenem, meropenem, ertapenem, doripenem -
- (+): imipenem and doripenem have the best activity; group and viridans streptococci, PSSP, Enterococcus faecalis (only imipenem), MSSA
- (-): doripenem and meropenem are the best; drugs of choice for ESBL- and Amp-C producing bacteria, HENPECKSSS, + Pseudomonas aeruginosa (not ertapenem)
- anaerobes: great activity against gram (+)/(-) anaerobes

meropenem/vaborbactam -
- (+): see above
- (-): see above; also have activity against KPC-producing Enterobacterales
- anaerobes: great activity against gram (+)/(-) anaerobes

imipenem/relebactam -
- (+): see above
- (-): see above; also have activity against KPC-producing Enterobacterales
- anaerobes: great activity against gram (+)/(-) anaerobes

aztreonam -
- (+): none
- (-): HENPECKSSS + Psuedomonas aeruginosa
- anaerobes: none

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86
Q

What don’t carbapenems cover? (4)

A

MRSA
C. diff
Stenotrophomonas maltophilia
atypical bacteria

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87
Q

Which carbapenem has the longest elimination half-life (QD doing)? Which carbapenems and monobactams achieve therapeutic concentrations in the CSF? What is the purpose of co-formulating imipenem with cilastatin? Which carbapenems/monobactams require dosage adjustments in renal insufficiency?

A

ertapenem can be dosed q24h

CSF: only meropenem (of the carbapenems) should be used for CNS infection, aztreonam also penetrates into CSF

imipenem undergoes hydrolysis in the kidney by DHP, which results in potentially nephrotoxic metabolites. Cilastatin is a DHP inhibitor, which prevents renal metabolism and protects against potential nephrotoxicity.

all carbapenems require dosage adjustment in renal dysfunction, also aztreonam does as well

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88
Q

What are the major adverse effects with carbapenems and aztreonam? What risk factors are associated with the development of CNS toxicity with the carbapenems?

A

Carbapenems:
- hypersensitivity
- GI: N/V/D
- CNS: Seizures (renal dose adjustments are important)

Aztreonam:
- hypersensitivity
- GI: N/V/D

CNS toxicity risk factors:
- Preexisting CNS disorders (hx of seizures, brain lesions, recent head trauma)
- high doses (>2g imipenem per day)
- presence of renal dysfunction

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89
Q

What is the risk of cross-allergenicity between penicillins and carbapenems or aztreonam? Which β-lactam antibiotic can be used safely in a patient who experiences anaphylaxis to penicillin?

A

Carbapenems:
- cross reactivity (<1%) can occur in pts with a history of penicillin allergy
- If ICU admission due to allergy -> AVOID ALL β-lactams
- If no ICU admission -> give carbapenems with caution/close monitoring

Aztreonam:
- no cross-reactivity

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90
Q

Which antibiotics are present in streptogramin?

A

quinupristin & dalfopristin (Synercid is a 30/70 mixture of the two)

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91
Q

Which atoms in quinupristin and dalfopristin allow salt formation and enhance water solubility?

A

the amino side chains allow for salt formation & enhance water solubility needed to make a useful formulation

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92
Q

Are quinupristin and dalfopristin bacteriostatic or bactericidal?

A

they are bacteriostatic by themselves.

Together (synercid) is bacteriostatic against Enterococcus faecium and bactericidal against strains of MSSA and MSRA.

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93
Q

What is the route of administration of streptogramin?

A

parenterally

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94
Q

What is the mechanism of action of dalfopristin?

A

Dalfopristin interferes with peptidyl transferase, which is supposed to catalyze the formation of a peptide bond between two amino acids during peptide synthesis. This inhibits the formation of peptides.

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95
Q

What is the MOA of quinupristin?

A

Quinupristin binds in the ribosomal tunnel and causes blockage of the tunnel

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96
Q

What are the therapeutic uses of synercid? (3)

A
  1. Vancomycin-resistant Enterococcus faecium (VRE) (not E. faecalis)
  2. Skin infections caused by MRSA
  3. Vancomycin-resistant Enteroccus faecium UTIs
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97
Q

What are the mechanisms of resistance to quinupristin?

A

Adenine methylation of A208 in the 23S rRNA. This sterically hinders the binding of quinupristin. (This results in synercid being only bacteriostatic since dalfopristin is the only active one now)

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98
Q

What are the main side effects from synercid?

A

Generally not problematic.
- Some mild side effects include inflammation and pain at the side of injection, nausea, diarrhea, muscle weakness, rash

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99
Q

What is the PK of synercid and what is the metabolism of quinupristin and dalfopristin?

A
  • Average t1/2 is 1.5 hours (linear relationship between dose/AUC)
  • Does not penetrate BBB
  • Synercid cleared 75% through biliary excretion, rest in urine.

Quinupristin: metabolized to quinupristin glutathione conjugate & quinupristin cysteine conjugate

Dalfopristin: metabolised to Pristinamycin IIA -> Pristinamycin IIA Reduction Product & a hydrolysis product

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100
Q

What drug interactions (+ mechanisms) does synercid have?

A

Streptogramins inhibit CYP3A4

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101
Q

What is the MOA of the oxazolidinones?

A

Linezolid interacts with the 50S ribosomal subunit, which prevents the formation of the 70S initiation complex, which inhibits the initiation step of bacterial translation, and therefore inhibits bacterial protein synthesis.

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102
Q

What are the main therapeutic uses of linezolid? (3)

A
  1. Vancomycin-resistant Entercoccus faecium
  2. Nosocomial pneumonia caused by methacillin-resistant strains of Staphylococcus aureus
  3. Skin infections caused by MRSA
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103
Q

Why should linezolid only be used to treat or prevent infections that are proven or strongly suspected to be caused by multi drug-resistant Gram(+) bacteria?

A

To reduce the development of drug-resistant bacteria & maintain the effectiveness of linezolid

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104
Q

What is the mechanism of resistance for linezolid?

A

Seen especially by the Enterococcus species.

Resistance is due to target site modification. (modifications in the peptidyl transferase center of 23S rRNA, resulting in reduced affinity of linezolid to the 50S subunit)

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105
Q

What are the main side effects of linezolid?

A
  • N/V/D
  • Headache
  • Tongue discoloration
  • oral Candidiasis

Serious: (fully reversible myelosuppession)
- thrombocytopenia
- GI bleeding
- anemia
- neuropathy (after 6 months of treatment)

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106
Q

What are the main metabolic pathways of linezolid?

A
  • Metabolized via morpholine ring oxidation
  • 30% of dose is excreted in urine
  • 2 major metabolites
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107
Q

What is the PK and ROA of linezolid?

A

PK: 100% bioavailable after PO administration, t1/2 is 4-6 hours

ROA: excellent PO bioavailability, also available for IV administration

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108
Q

What drugs interactions (+ mechanism) does linezolid have?

A

No CYP450 interactions

Linezolid is a reversible, nonselective inhibitor of monoamine oxidase, which creates a potential for interaction with adrenergic and serotonergic agents. (use with caution in pts who are sensitive to increases in BP & pts should not consume large quantities of foods/bevs that are rich in tyramine to avoid a significant pressor response)

109
Q

What are the differences in potency and MOA between tedizolid phosphate and linezolid?

A

Tedizolid is more potent than linezolid against MRSA. It has the same MOA as linezolid. Can be administered PO or IV.

110
Q

What structural features are common in aminoglycoside antibiotics?

A

The aminoglycosides have 1,3-diaminocyclitol core structures that are usually linked to one or more aminoglycoside rings. The core structures are named Streptidine and 2-Deoxystreptamine and they are cyclohexane rings with 3 or more -OH groups.

Due to polarity, these are incapable of crossing lipid-containing cellular membranes (poor PO absorption, poor penetration through meninges, poor lung penetration)

111
Q

What is the MOA of aminoglycosides?

A

Aminoglycosides inhibit protein biosynthesis by binding to the 30S ribosomal subunit. They also bind to the 16S rRNA, which forms the A site. This blocks further translation and causes premature termination. Additionally, it causes nonsense proteins to be produced (due to 30S binding). All of this together leads to the leakage of ions and disruption of the cytoplasmic membrane, resulting in cell death.

112
Q

What are the aminoglycoside uptake mechanisms?

A
  1. Entry of positively charged aminoglycosides through the outer membrane kicks the Mg2+ and Ca2+ out, which form salt bridges w/ phosphates of the phospholipids in the membrane. This makes the membrane more permeable to aminoglycoside entry.
  2. Active transport to pass through cytoplasmic membrane
113
Q

What are the resistance mechanisms to the aminoglycosides?

A
  1. Metabolism by bacteria- acetylation, adenylation, and phosphorylation of the aminoglycosides can inactivate them.
  2. Altered ribosomes - 16S binding site an be altered through point mutations.
  3. Altered aminoglycoside uptake - More rare
114
Q

What is the toxicity of aminoglycosides? What are the symptoms of aminoglycoside ototoxicity? Which toxicities are reversible vs. irreversible?

A

Ototoxicity - irreversible; Symptoms can initially start with tinnitus & high-frequency hearing loss, or in vestibular damage (vertigo, loss of balance, ataxia)

Nephrotoxicity - reversible;

115
Q

What is the potential toxic effect that aminoglycosides have on respiration? How can it be reversed or treated?

A

Respiratory paralysis - can be reversed by neostigmine or calcium gluconate, but mechanical respiratory assistance may be needed.

116
Q

What are the risk factors for manifestation of aminoglycoside toxicity?

A
  • Taking loop diuretics or vancomycin (or other nephrotoxic antimicrobial drugs)
  • Compromised renal function
  • Genetic vulnerability
  • Longer treatment durations
117
Q

What are the main clinical uses of aminoglycosides?

A

Aminoglycosides have broad spectrum activity against both Gram(+) and Gram(-) bacteria, but they are almost always used for treatment of Gram(-) bacteria. They are often used in combination with penicillins for synergistic effects.

118
Q

Why shouldn’t aminoglycosides and penicillins be administered together in the same solution/injection site?

A

They should be administered separately to avoid the chemical reaction between the two classes, which would render both drugs inactive.

119
Q

What is the aminoglycoside-induced frame shift? What are its consequences?

A

This results in the formation of altered proteins (nonsense proteins) -> cell death

120
Q

Why is amikacin less susceptible to bacterial metabolism than kannamycin?

A

Amikacin has an L-hydroxyaminobuteryl amide moiety that inhibits bacterial metabolism, which makes it more potent than kanamycin.

121
Q

What features of gentamicin have made it the most important (widely used) aminoglycoside antibiotic?

A
  • low cost
  • reliable activity against all but the most resistant Gram(-) aerobes
122
Q

What is the polyketide biosynthesis pathway?

A

The polyketides are produced by sequential addition of propionate groups to a growing chain. This results in methyl groups on alternate carbon atoms in the macrolide ring.

123
Q

What do the structures of the macrolides look like?

A

The structure has a desosamine sugar (critical for activity) & cladinose sugar (not critical for activity),

124
Q

How is the solubility of erythromycin increased?

A

If the amine forms salts, it will be more soluble.

125
Q

What is the MOA of the macrolides?

A

Macrolides inhibit bacterial protein synthesis by binding reversibly to the P site of the bacterial ribosome, which also inhibits translocation of peptidyl-tRNA from the A site to the P site. This involves the bacterial 23S RNA. (mostly bacteriostatic)

126
Q

What are the resistant mechanisms to the macrolide antibiotics?

A
  1. Lactone ester hydrolase - decrease the macrolides by hydrolysis of the macrocycle
  2. Production of an RNA methylase - Inhibits binding of macrolides to the 50S subunit
  3. Mutation of adenine to guanine at the specific site A2058 - Results in 10,000x reduction in binding of erythromycin and clarithromicin to the 23S ribosomal RNA
  4. Efflux pump
127
Q

Why is resistance to macrolides by Pseudomonas spp. and Enterobacter spp. unable to be avoided?

A

These inhibit intrinsic resistance by not allowing entry of the macrolides.

128
Q

How can acidic conditions inactivate erythromycin? How has this been overcome with some of the newer macrolide antibiotics?

A

Under acidic conditions, a process involving 6-OH and 12-OH groups can result in an inactive ketal product (which causes GI cramping)

Clarithromycin replaces the 6-OH with an OCH3, which stabilizes the molecule and enhances oral absorption.

Azithromycin have an N-methylated methyleneamino moiety that replaces the C-9 ketone, so the ketal formation is no longer possible. This makes the molecule stable for oral absorption.

129
Q

What is the metabolism of erythromycin?

A

Main route - demethylation in the liver to be eliminated in bile (small portion in the urine). Metabolism by CYP3A4 results in a demethylated metabolite that has narrower spectrum and is less active.

130
Q

What is the basis for drug interactions with the macrolides? Which macrolides are more likely to be involved in drug interactions?

A

Erythromycin and clarithromycin bind and inhibit CYP3A4 (need to dose reduce with ergotamine, digoxin, methylprednisolone, carbamezepine, etc.) With rifampicin and rifabutin, activity of erythromycin is reduced

Azithromycin does not display this interaction.

131
Q

What are the main side effects of the macrolides?

A

Relatively safe
- vomiting, gastric cramps, abdominal pain
- minor and severe allergic skin reactions (from hives to SJS)
- reversible cholestatic hepatitis with long term use
- erythromycin shows increased risk of pyloric stenosis in children whose mothers took the drug during the late states of pregnancy or while nursing

132
Q

Why are erythromycin PO dosage forms given as either enteric coated or more stable salts or esters?

A

These dosage forms allows for more stability in acid.

133
Q

What is the role that phagocytes have in the delivery of erythromycin to the site of action?

A

Erythromycin is found in high concentrations in phagocytes. These transport erythromycin to the tissues/site of infection, which is a very efficient drug delivery system.

134
Q

What is the MOA of vancomycin, quinupristin-dalfopristin, the oxazolidinones, daptomycin, and the lipoglycopeptdes?

A

vancomycin - (1) inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis through locking glycopeptide polymerization, (2) inhibits synthesis and assembly during the second stage of cell wall synthesis (binds D-ala-Dala) by preventing cross-linking and further elongation of the peptidoglycan
- slowly bactericidal

quinupristin-dalfopristin - each bind differently to the 50S ribosomal subunit, inhibiting early and late stages of bacterial protein synthesis
- bacteriostatic alone, when used together they have a synergistic effect (time-dependent bactericidal, when bactericidal)

oxazolidinones - bind to the 50S ribosomal subunit near the interaface with the 30S subunit, preventing the 70S initiation complex, ultimately inhibiting protein synthesis
- bacteriostatic

daptomycin - binds to bacterial membranes and inserts its lipophilic tail to form a transmembrane channel that causes leakage of cellular contents, ultimately resulting in bacterial cell death
- rapid, conc. dependent bactericidal activity

lipoglycopeptides - interferes with polymerization by binding to the D-Ala-D-Ala terminus. Oritavancin and telavancin (not dalbavancin) also insert their lipophilic tails into the membrane to leak out cellular contents.
- conc. dependent bactericidal

135
Q

How do bacteria become resistant to vanc, quinupristin-dalfopristin, the oxazolidinones, daptomycin, and the lipoglycopeptides?

A

vancomycin - modification of the D-ala-D-ala vancomycin binding site; In VRE, thickening of the peptidoglycan layer of the cell wall restricts access of vancomycin to its site of activity

quinupristrin-dalfopristin - alteration of ribosomal binding site, enzymatic inactivation

oxazolidinones - resistance is pretty rare, but occasionally can be alteration of the ribosomal subunit target site
- cross resistance is seen between tedizolid and linezolid

daptomycin - rarely reported, but has been seen with altered cell membrane binding due to loss of a membrane protein

lipoglycopeptides - alteration in the D-Ala-D-Ala terminus (but oritavancin still maintains activity in this case)

136
Q

What is the spectrum of activity for vancomycin?

A

activity against gram(+) aerobes and anaerobes
- group/viridans strep
- Strep pneumoniae, inc. PRSP
- Enterococcus faecalis and faecium
- Staph aureus and coagulase-negative staph, both MSSA and MRSA
- Corynebacterium spp.
- Listeria monocytogenes
- Actinomyces
- Clostridium spp (inc. C. Diff)

Not active against Gram-negative aerobes or anaerobes

137
Q

What is the spectrum of activity for quinupristin-dalfopristin?

A

Gram(+):
- group/viridans Strep
- Streptococcus pneumoniae, including PRSP
- Enterococcus faecium, including VRE, but NOT E. faecalis
- Staphylococcus aureus and CNS, inc. MSSA and MRSA
- anaerobes: Listeria monocytogenes, Clostridium (not C. diff), Peptostreptocuccus

Gram(-): limited activity against Neisseria and Moraxella, NOT active against Enterobacteriaceae

Atypicals: Mycoplasma pneumoniae

138
Q

What is the spectrum of activity for the oxazolidinones, daptomycin, and the lipoglycopeptides?

A

oxazolidinones -
- group/viridans Strep
- Streptococcus pneumoniae (inc. PRSP)
- Enterococcus faecium AND faecalis, including VRE!!
- MSSA, MRSA, VISA, VRSA (not 1st line tho)
- activity against anaerobes, but not C. diff
- gram negative: no G(-) organisms
- atypicals: some activity, not used clinically

daptomycin -
- group/viridans Strep
- Streptococcus pneumoniae (inc. PRSP)
- Enterococcus faecium AND faecalis, including VRE!!
- MSSA, MRSA, VISA, VRSA, LR (#2 for MRSA)
- Corynebacterium jeikeium
- gram neg: no G(-) organisms

lipoglycopeptides - don’t really have a great place in therapy
- group/viridans Strep
- Streptococcus pneumoniae
- Enterococcus faecium AND faecalis, but some VRE strains show resistance to tela and dalbavancin
- MS, MR, VI, oritavancin also has activity against VRSA
- gram negative: none

139
Q

What are the major PK characteristics of vancomycin and quinupristin-dalfopristin (bioavailability, half-life, CSF penetration, route of elimination, dosage adjustments in renal insufficiency, and removal during HD)?

A

vancomycin -
- doesn’t get absorbed orally, but this is good for C. diff, since we want the drug to concentrate in the colon. For systemic infections, we only treat IV (not IM).
- distributed in tissues/fluids (esp. adipose tissue), but variable penetration in the CSF. We must wait ~1 hour before getting a level due to the wide distribution.
- renally eliminated, need dose adjustment in renal deficiency
- somewhat removed during HD (~10% per hour)

quinupristin-dalfopristin -
- displays significant post-antibiotic effect
- only available parenterally
- minimal penetration into CSF
- mostly eliminated through hepatic clearance (CYP450), dosage adjustments unnecessary in renal insufficiency, but suggested with hepatic insufficiency

140
Q

What are the major PK characteristics of the oxazolidinones, daptomycin, and the lipoglycopeptides (bioavailability, half-life, CSF penetration, route of elimination, dosage adjustments in renal insufficiency, and removal during HD)?

A

oxazolidinones -
- post-antibiotic effect for the Gram positives
- linezolid has 100% oral bioavailability
- distributed into well-perfused tissues, CAN penetrate into CSF
- eliminated by renal and non-renal routes. No dosage adjustments needed in renal insufficiency
- linezolid is removed by HD, but not tedizolid

daptomycin -
- distributes well into tissues
- doesn’t get into CSF(?)
- primarily eliminated by kidneys, dose adjustment required in renal insufficiency

lipoglycopeptides -
- no PO absorption
- no CSF
- not removed by HD
- telavancin: renal elimination, dose adjustment suggested w/ renal insufficiency
- dalbavancin: LONG half life (346h), fecal and renal elim, dose adjustment in pts. w/ severe renal insufficiency who aren’t receiving HD
- oritavancin: unsure how it’s eliminated, no dosage adjustments necessary

141
Q

What are the major clinical uses for vancomycin, quinupristin-dalfopristin, the oxazolidinones, daptomycin, and the lipoglycopeptides?

A

vancomycin - drug of choice for MRSA, serious G(+) infections in penicillin-allergic patients, PRSP, PO vanc is drug of choice for C. Diff

quinupristin-dalfopristin - very expensive, only used when vanc, linezolid, AND dapto cannot be used; VRE

oxazolidinones - used when vancomycin and β-lactams can’t be used; VRE infections, nosocomial pneumonia due to MRSA

daptomycin - used when vanc and/or linezolid can’t be used; Staphylococcus aureus bacteremia or endocarditis (not left sided), VRE, NOT to be used in pneumonia since it’s inactivated by a pulmonary surfactant

lipoglycopeptides - used when vanc, linezolid/tedizolid, AND daptomycin can’t be used… limited clinical use

142
Q

What are the major adverse reactions associated with vancomycin, quinupristin-dalfopristin, the oxazolidinones, daptomycin, and the lipoglycopeptides?

A

vancomycin - red-man syndrome (reaction related to rate of infusion, can slow down infusion to minimize/prevent), nephrotoxicity (inc. risk with higher doses), ototoxicity (irreversible), hypersensitivity skin reacitons, myelosuppression with prolonged therapy

quinupristin-dalfopristin - venous irritation, extremely painful myalgias/arthralgias (but pretty rare), rash

oxazolidinones - thrombocytopenia & anemia with long-term treatment, GI, CNS (headache, neuropathy with long term linezolid treatment)

daptomycin - Myopathy/CPK elevation (stop statin if necessary), acute eosinophilic pneumonia (rare but serious. need to d/c if this happens), N/D, headache, injection site reactions, rash

lipoglycopeptides - red-man syndrome, nephrotoxicity (telavancin), QTc prolongation, taste disturbances
- black box warning against use in pregnancy!!

143
Q

What are the major drug interactions associated with quinupristin-dalfopristin, the oxazolidinones, daptomycin, and the lipoglycopeptides?

A

quinupristin-dalfopristin -
- CYP450 3A4 inhibitor, need to reduce doses for lipid-lowering agent (HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors), immunosuppressive agents (cyclosporine, tacrolimus), carbamazepine, etc.

oxazolidinones -
- weak inhibitors of monoamine oxidase, so there’s a potential for drug interactions. Risk of serotonin syndrome in pts receiving serotonergic agents (ex. SSRIs). Use with caution

daptomycin -
- HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors may lead to increased incidence of myopathy if used during daptomycin therapy

lipoglycopeptides -
- no significant drug interactions
- telavancin and oritavancin interfere with PT and INR tests due to binding to the phospholipid reagents

144
Q

What is the similarity in MOA between clindamycin and erythromycin?

A

Clindamycin inhibits protein synthesis by binding to the bacterial 50S ribosome. It binds to the same exact site as erythromycin. Because of this, antagonism and cross-resistance has been seen.

145
Q

What are the main clinical uses of clindamycin?

A
  1. aerobic gram (+) cocci (inc. some Staphylococcus and Streptococcus)
  2. anaerobic gram (-) bacilli (inc. some Bacteroides and Fusobacterium)
146
Q

What is the main side effect of clindamycin that limits its clinical use?

A

pseudomembranous colitis and diarrhea limit the use of clindamycin, even if it’s clearly the superior agent

147
Q

What are the main metabolic pathways of clindamycin? How do those influence its biological activity?

A

Metabolized by CYP450 enzymes in the liver to the inactive sulfoxide and N-demethylated derivative.

148
Q

What is the absorption, distribution, and elimination of clindamycin?

A

absorption - ~90% absorbed from GI tract

distribution - widely distributed, penetrates CNS enough to be useful in treatment of cerebral toxoplasmosis in AIDS

elimination - urine and bile. Dosage adjustment may be needed in hepatic failure

149
Q

What are the main adverse effects of clindamycin?

A

Common: diarrhea, pseudomembranous colitis, N/V, abdominal cramps, rash

150
Q

What is the significance of pseudomembranous colitis?

A

pseudomembranous colitis is a potentially lethal condition that affects 2-10% of pts treated with clindamycin. It is due to overgrowth of Clostridium difficile and results in the production of a toxin that causes a range of adverse effects, like diarrhea/colitis/toxic megacolon.

This should be treated promptly with metronidazole or vancomycin.

151
Q

How do tetracyclines bind to heavy metals?

A

Tetracyclines form stable chelates with polyvalent metal ions, such as Ca2+, Al3+, Cu2+, and Mg2+.

Two of the oxygens with bind to the metal ion.

152
Q

Why shouldn’t the tetracyclines be administered with foods that are rich in calcium or with other drugs that are rich in calcium or other heavy metals?

A

If administered with calcium/heavy metals, it will form chelates that are not absorbed in the GI tract. So, they shouldn’t be taken with milk, TUMS, iron pills, etc.

If the metals cannot be avoided, they should be consumed at least 1 hour before or 2 hours after tetracyline administration.

153
Q

What is the preferred ROA of the tetracyclines?

A

The preferred route is oral, since oral absorption is adequate in absence of the multivalent metal ions in the GI tract.

154
Q

Why shouldn’t children take tetracycline?

A

When the teeth are still forming, the tetracycline can form a calcium chelate, which results in permanently brown/gray teeth. This discoloration becomes worse as time goes on due to photooxidation.

155
Q

What is tetracycline epimerization? What effect does it have on biological activity?

A

Since the hydrogen on the amine-bearing carbon is acidic, enolization and epimerization can occur. Basically this makes the H go from the up conformation to the down conformation.

The epitetracycline product is inactive, so it’s possible to lose even 50% of activity through this epimerization pathway.

156
Q

At what pH is tetracycline epimerization most rapid? What is the relative rate of epimerization in the solid state vs. in solution?

A

Most rapid at a pH of 5.

Epimerization is slower in solid state compared to solution.

157
Q

What is the process of tetracycline dehydration?

A

Due to the benzylic hydroxyl group at C6 being antiperiplanar to the proton at C5, the OH can easily be eliminated. This results in an inactive and toxic product, 4-epianhydrotetracycline.

158
Q

What is the toxicity of epianhydrotetracycline?

A

It is toxic to the kidneys and can produce a Fanconi-like syndrome (failure of reabsorption in the proximal convoluted tubule), which can be fatal.

159
Q

Why do minocycline and doxycycline lack renal toxicity of tetracycline?

A

Minocycline and doxycycline don’t have a C6 hydroxyl group, so it’s not possible to dehyrate or form the toxic product.

160
Q

How do tetracyclines cleave in under basic conditions?

A

In a base with a pH of 8.5 or above, tetracylines undergo cleavage. The end product is an inactive lactone.

161
Q

What is the MOA of the tetracyclines?

A

Tetracyclines bind to the 30S ribosomal subunit and inhibit bacterial protein synthesis by blocking the attachment of the aminoacyl-tRNA to the A site of the ribosome, which results in the termination of peptide chain growth. So these inhibit the codon-anticodon interaction.

162
Q

Why are tetracyclines selective to bacteria, and not the host cells?

A

Eukaryotic cells (host cells) do not have the tetracycline uptake mechanism that bacterial cells have. If the tetracycline were to get into the cell, they would have the same inhibitory effect.

163
Q

What are the main therapeutic uses of the tetracyclines?

A

Most commonly used for treatment of acne. They are the treatment of choice for infections caused by chlamydia.

164
Q

Why is demeclocycline more stable to dehydration than tetracycline?

A

It has a secondary hydroxyl group at C6, instead of tertiary (like tetracycline). This means demeclocycline dehydrates more slowly.

165
Q

What are the unique toxicities of minocycline in comparison with other tetracyclines?

A

Minocycline has vestibular toxicities, like vertigo, ataxia, and nausea. Other tetracyclines don’t have this.

166
Q

Why is doxycycline widely considered to be the tetracycline of choice?

A

Because it can’t be dehydrated so it doesn’t have the 4-epianhydrotetracycline-mediated toxicity. It also produces fewer GI symptoms. It has great oral bioavailability and can be dosed once daily.

167
Q

Why doesn’t tigecycline have potential for 4-epihydrotetracycline-mediated toxicity?

A

It does not have the C6 hydroxyl group.

168
Q

What are the potential toxic effects of tigecycline? What is unique about resistance development to tigecycline?

A

Heptotoxicity (rare), pancreatitis, anaphylactoid reactions

It is protected from resistance development due to efflux pump and ribosomal protection proteins.

169
Q

What are the main therapeutic uses of sarecycline and omadacycline?

A

Sarecycline - moderate/severe acne

Omadacycline - skin infections and community acquired bacterial pneumonia

170
Q

Why shouldn’t sarecycline and omadacycline be administered to pregnant women and are not recommended during breast feeding? What other interactions are there?

A

They can cause fetal harm/is teratogenic

171
Q

What is the MOA of chloramphenicol?

A

Binds reversibly to the 50S ribosomal subunit at the site near erythromycin and clindamycin. It inhibits peptidyl transferase activity of the ribosome, thus preventing the peptide bond between the P and A site, and inhibiting protein synthesis

172
Q

What is the mechanism of the reaction that is catalyzed with peptidyl transferase in protein synthesis?

A

Peptidyl transferase catalyzes the reaction with the amine from the A-site with the peptide in the P site.

173
Q

What is the therapeutic use of chloramphenicol?

A

Limited due to toxic side effects (Cush didn’t mention any specific uses of chloramphenicol)

174
Q

What is the relationship between chloramphenicol sodium succinate and chloramphenicol?

A

chloramphenicol sodium succinate is a prodrug that is hydrolyzed by the liver to chloramphenicol.

175
Q

what are the main therapeutic uses of chloramphenicol sodium succinate?

A

bacterial meningitis, typhoid fever, rickettsial infections, intraocular infections, etc.

176
Q

What are the solubility characteristics and distribution of chloramphenicol?

A

chloramphenicol is lipid soluble. It remains relatively unbound to plasma proteins. It penetrates into all tissues of the body, including the brain.

177
Q

What are the main bacterial resistance mechanisms to chloramphenicol?

A
  1. reduced membrane permeability
  2. mutation of the 50S ribosomal subunit
  3. elaboration of chloramphenicol acetyltransferase (acetylates hydroxy groups on chloramphenicol, making them unable to bind to the 50S ribosomal subunit)
178
Q

How is chloramphenicol metabolized in humans?

A

Metabolized by the liver to glucuronide, which is inactive (nucleophilic attack of 1º alcohol on UDPGA, which is catalyzed by glucuronyl transferase). Then, it is excreted by the kidneys.
*need dose adjustment in hepatic insufficiency

Also metabolized by reduction of the amino group to an amino, resulting in a less active metabolite.

179
Q

What is the most serious potential toxicity of chloramphenicol? How does it limit the use of chloramphenicol?

A

Aplastic anemia (but it’s unpredictable). It is generally fatal and the effect usually becomes apparent weeks/months after chloramphenicol treatment has been stopped.

180
Q

How does the risk of serious toxicity compare in chloramphenicol eye drops vs. oral chloramphenicol?

A

Highest risk = oral chloramphenicol

Lowest risk = eye drops

181
Q

How can chloramphenicol toxicity be minimized?

A

Monitor blood levels, keep concentrations less than 25mcg/mL.

182
Q

Is chloramphenicol bone marrow suppression a predictor of aplastic anemia?

A

Bone marrow suppression is common. It’s due to impairment of mitochondrial function resulting from inhibition of protein synthesis. This is completely reversible and does NOT predict future development of aplastic anemia.

183
Q

What is the relationship between chloramphenicol-induced childhood leukemia and length of treatment with chloramphenicol?

A

Increased length of treatment causes increased risk of childhood leukemia

184
Q

What are the drug interactions with chloramphenicol?

A

Chloramphenicol inhibits CYP450, so be cautious of drugs metabolized by CYP450.

185
Q

What does the effect of inflammation of the meninges have on the brain concentrations of chloramphenicol?

A

Even is the meninges are not inflamed, chloramphenicol has 30-50% penetration in CSF. It can get to 89% when the meninges are inflamed.

186
Q

What are the core structures of the quinolone antibiotics?

A

quinolone, cinnolone, 1,8-naphthyridone, pyridopyrimidone

they are 2-ringed structures with nitrogens in at least 1 of the 2 rings

187
Q

What are the characteristics of the 1st, 2nd, and 3rd generation quinolones?

A

1st - developed for G(-) activity, so they have limited activity against G(+). These don’t achieve good systemic concentrations and are only useful for lower UTI infections. Both agents are discontinued (oxolinic acid, nalidixic acid).

2nd - fluorine at C-6 and heterocyclic ring at C-7. These have a broader spectrum and are more potent. Ciprofloxacin is the most potent fluoroquinolone against G(-), and these also have more G(+).

3rd/4th - improved activity against G(+), particularly Streptococcus pneumoniae. None are as potent as Cipro against Gram(-).
- ex. Levofloxacin and Moxifloxacin ( moxi is last resort due to severe side effects)

188
Q

What are the functions of topoisomerases and gyrases?

A

They untangle DNA by cutting one or two strands of DNA, then allowing strand passage through the break, allowing DNA to untwist.

189
Q

How do topoisomerases work?

A

They cleave DNA by carrying out a nucleophilic attack on a phosphodiester linkage of DNA, so one strand becomes free and the other becomes enzyme-linked. The DNA is then reformed.

190
Q

How does DNA transport by bacterial type IV topoisomerases and gyrases occur?

A
  1. G-segment DNA binds to the binding site across the tops of the two CAP regions.
  2. Once DNA is bound, the CAP regions remain in a closed formation.
  3. 2 ATP molecules bidn to the ATPase domains, leading to N-gate closure with a T-segment DNA trapped in the DNA capture domain.
  4. A gap opens in the G segment DNA, the T-segment passes through, then the G segment is religated
  5. Gate opens for release
191
Q

What is the difference between topoisomerase I and topoisomerase II enzymes?

A

Topoisomerase I - cleaves 1 strand

Topoisomerase II - cleaves 2 strands

192
Q

What are the common mechanistic features of bacterial gyrase, bacterial DNA topoisomerase IV, and mammalian topoisomerase II? (6)

A
  1. Dimeric enzyme binds duplex DNA and cleaves both opposing strands with a 4-base stagger
  2. Cleavage involves covalent attachment of each subunit of the dimer through a phosphotyrosine linkage to the 5’ end of the DNA
  3. Two DNA ends are the cleavage site are pulled apart by a conformational change of the enzyme to create an opening in the gated G-segment DNA. The transported DNA (T-segment) is then passed through the opening
  4. Transported DNA can be from the same molecule or from a different molecule
  5. All type II enzymes can be distinguished by their relative abilities to relax DNA vs. decatenate or catente DNA
  6. Catalysis requires Mg2+ and ATP hydrolysis is involved
193
Q

What is the MOA of the quinolones?

A

Quinolones bind to the cleavage complex that exists after step 2 of DNA unwinding (right after the DNA has been cleaved by the topoisomerase). This stabilized the cleavage and inhibits the religation. The double-strand eventually breaks, leading to apoptosis.

194
Q

What are the therapeutic uses of the quinolones? (6)

A
  1. UTIs - ciprofloxacin
  2. prostatitis - ciprofloxacin & ofloxacin
  3. STDs
  4. GI infections
  5. Respiratory tract infections
  6. Bone, joint, soft tissue infections
195
Q

What is the main bacterial resistance mechanism to the quinolones?

A

Decreased cellular permeability (entry is dependent upon diffusion through porin channels)

Increased efflux pumps

Mutation of target enzymes (in A and B subunits)

196
Q

What are the main features of quinolone absorption, distribution, and elimination?

A

absorption - readily absorbed orally, high degree of bioavailability; should not be administered with heavy metals due to chelate formation

distribution - widely distributed. penetrates CSF

elimination - renal and hepatic clearance

197
Q

How is ciprofloxacin metabolized?

A

Metabolized by UGT (at 3-carboxyl position) to an inactive metabolite. Then it is excreted in the urine.

198
Q

What are the main adverse effects of the quinolone antibiotics? What adverse effect does gatifloxacin (4th gen) have?

A

Generally well tolerated.
- Most common: N/V/D
- CNS: headache, dizziness
- Rare: hallucinations, seizures, peripheral neuropathy, tendonitis (can be severe due to tendon rupture)
- Reversible arthropathy

Gatifloxacin - hyperglycemia/hypoglycemia in diabetic patients

199
Q

What is the MOA of the aminoglycosides?

A

Inhibition of protein synthesis by irreversibly binding to the 30S ribosomal subunit, which disrupts the initiation of protein synthesis and causes misreading of the mRNA.

Once inside the periplasmic space of gram neg. organisms, oxygen is required to get through the cytoplasmic membrane. (this doesn’t work in anaerobes obviously)

AGs are rapidly bacterial in concentration-dependent manner

200
Q

What are the mechanisms of resistance for the aminoglycosides?

A
  1. Alteration in aminoglycoside uptake - chromosomal mutations that influence any part of the binding and/or electrochemical gradient that facilitates aminoglycoside uptake
  2. Synthesis of aminoglycoside-modifying enzymes - MOST COMMON; due to a plasmid-mediated resistance factor that enables bacteria to modify the structure of the aminoglycoside, leading to high-level resistance.
    - Cross resistance with gentamicin and tobramycin, but not amikacin or plazomicin
  3. Alteration in ribosomal binding sites - rare, since gent/tobra/amikacin bind to multiple sites; may occur with streptomycin, since it only binds to a single site on the 30S ribosomal subunit
201
Q

What is the spectrum of activity for the aminoglycosides?

A

Gram (+): never used alone! Always used in low doses with cell-wall active agents to provide synergy; Primarily gentamicin
- viridans strep
- Enterococcus spp.
- Staph aureus and CNS

Gram (-): A,P > T > G (no streptomycin); Higher doses are used, A, G, and T are often used in combo for synergy
- PPPEEACKSSS
- Pseudomonas aeruginosa
- Proteus spp.
- Providencia spp.
- E. Coli
- Enterobacter spp.
- Acinetobacter spp. (not plazo)
- Citrobacter spp.
- Klebsiella spp.
- Salmonella spp
- Serratia marcescens
- Shigella spp.
- Plazomicin has some activity against ESBL/AmpC/KPC producing bacteria

NO ANAEROBES

Streptomycin is active against Mycobacterium tuberculosis

202
Q

What are the PK characteristics of the aminoglycosides? How will patient characteristics influence dosing of the aminoglycosides?

A

absorption - poor PO absorption due to being highly polar cations. Vd and clearance varies due to patient characteristics, which influences dosing for each individual patient. When given IM, so they shouldn’t be used in critically ill pts.

distribution - distributed primarily in extracellular fluid compartment, but do not get into CSF (meninges are lipophilic), sputum, or adipose tissue.

elimination - excreted unchanged by kidney (high urinary concentrations), must adjust dosing in renal insufficiency; supplemental dosing required for HD

203
Q

What is the target peak and trough for gentamicin and tobramycin based on the dosing method, bacteria, and infection type?

A

Peak:MIC ratio of 10:1 is optimal
*need to reach peak w/in 24 hours in pts with G(-) sepsis

Standard:
- G(-) Moderate infections: Peak 4-6; Trough 0.5-1.5
- G(-) Mod-severe: Peak 6-8; Trough 1-1.5
- G(-) Severe: Peak 8-10; Trough <2
- G(+) synergy: Peak 3-5; Trough 1

Extended interval: single daily dose only for G(-) bacteria in pts with normal renal function
- G(-) infections: Peak 13-20; Trough <0.5 or undetectable

204
Q

What are the major clinical uses for the aminoglycosides (esp. regarding combo therapy)?

A

Aminoglycosides, besides plazomicin, are rarely used alone.
- Amikacin/gent/toba are used for serious infections due to G(-) aerobic bacteria
- Gentamicin or streptomycin are used in combo for serious infections due to enterococci, viridans streptococci, or staphylococci

  • plazomicin only used for gram neg
205
Q

What are the major adverse reactions that may occur during aminoglycoside therapy?

A

nephrotoxicity - inc. risk with prolonged high trough concentrations

ototoxicity - irreversible

rare: neuromuscular blockage, hypersensitivity, sterile abscess formation with IM injection

206
Q

What is the MOA of the fluoroquinolones?

A

These inhibit DNA synthesis by binding and inhibiting bacterial topoisomerases. They target DNA gyrase and topoisomerase IV. DNA gyrase is the target for the Gram(-) bacteria, topoisomerase IV is the target for the Gram(+) bacteria (S. aureus).

(concentration-dependent bactericidal activity)

207
Q

What are the mechanisms of resistance to the fluoroquinolones?

A
  1. Alteration in binding sites
  2. Efflux pumps
  3. Alteration in cell wall permeability (decreased porin proteins)

(cross-resistance is usually observes between the FQs)

208
Q

What is the spectrum of activity for the older vs. newer fluoroquinolones and delafloxacin? Which have the best activity against Staphylococcus aureus, Streptococcus pneumoniae, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, atypical bacteria, and anaerobes?

A

Gram (+): Ciprofloxacin has poor activity against G(+); newer FQs (levofloxacin, moxifloxacin, delafloxacin) have enhanced activity against some G(+); levo and moxifloxacin are the “respiratory quinolones”
- group/viridans strep, limited Entercoccus
- Streptococcus pneumoniae including PRSP (not cipro)
- MSSA
- MRSA (delafloxacin)

Gram (-): Enterobacteriaceae: cipro/levo/delafloxacin > gemi/moxifloxacin; HENPECKSSS
- Haemophilus influenzae
- E. Coli
- Neisseria spp.
- Proteus spp. & Providencia spp.
- Enterobacter spp.
- Citrobacter spp.
- Klebsiella pneumoniae
- Serratia marcescens
- Shigella spp.
- Salmonella spp.
- Pseudomonas aeruginosa (cipro≥levo>dela; NOT moxi or gemi)

anaerobes: tovafloxacin has some activity against Bacteroides fragilis

atypicals: FQs extremely active against Legionella

other: Mycobacterium tuberculosis (cipro, levo, moxi, dela)

209
Q

What are the PK differences between the fluoroquinolones in terms of PO bioavailability, 1/2 life, dosing interval, penetration into CSF, route of excretion, necessity for dose adjustment in renal insufficiency, and removal by hemodialysis?

A

PO bioavailability: good PO absorption, except delafloxacin (levo/moxi are best)

1/2 life/ dosing interval:
- cipro: 4-6 hrs, BID
- levo: 6-8 hrs, QD
- moxi: 9.2, QD
- dela: 4-8, BID

penetration into CSF: minimal

route of excretion: renal (levo, ofoloxacin, gatifloxacin); hepatic (trovafloxacin, moxifloxacin), both (cipro, delafloxacin)

necessity for dose adjustment in renal insufficiency: levo, ofoloxacin, gatifloxacin, cipro, delafloxacin

removal by hemodialysis: NONE

210
Q

What are the major adverse effects associated with fluoroquinolone therapy?

A
  • Neurologic: peripheral neuropathy
  • Hepatotoxicty: seen with trovafloxacin, so use was restricted. Also seen a bit with moxifloxacin
  • Cardiac: prolong QTc interval; Use w/ caution in pts with hypokalemia, use of antiarrhythmics (amiodarone, sotalol), preexisting QTc prolongation)
  • Articular damage: contraindicated in pediatric patients, avoid in breastfeeding patients
  • Tendonitis, tendon rupture: esp w/ older pts and corticosteroid use
211
Q

What are the major drug interactions that may occur with fluoroquinolone antibiotics?

A
  • Divalent/trivalent cations (zinc, iron, ca, al, mg) impair aborption of any oral fluoroquinolone
  • warfarin - causes inc. prothrombin time

Ciprofloxacin also inc. concentrations of theophylline and cyclosporine.

212
Q

What are the differences in structure between erythromycin, azithromycin, and clarithromycin? What are the clinical advantages of clarithromycin and azithromycin over erythromycin?

A

erythromycin - 14 membered macrocyclic lactone ring

clarithromycin - 14 membered ring with a methoxy group instead of C-6 hydroxyl group (increases acid stability, enhances antibacterial activity, tissue penetration, and prolongs half life)

azithromycin - 15 membered ring (azalide). This improves PO availability, antibacterial activity, tissue penetration, and prolongs half life

213
Q

What is the MOA of the macrolides?

A
  1. Suppress protein synthesis and inhibit bacterial growth by reversibly binding to the 50S ribosomal subunit
    (bacteriostatic, maybe bactericidal at high concentrations)
214
Q

What are the mechanisms of resistance to the macrolides?

A
  1. active efflux - that that big of a deal bc clarithromycin and azithromycin have really high intracellular concentrations
  2. alteration in the binding site - methylation of the 50S binding site (high-level of resistance to all macrolides AND other antibiotics that bind to the 50S ribosome like clindamycin and Synercid)

cross-resistance is usually observed

215
Q

What are the differences in spectrum of activity between the macrolides? (esp. atypical)

A

G(+): clarithryomycin > erythro > azithro
- group/viridans strep, S. pneumoniae (PSSP)
- MSSA (mild/mod infections only)
- Bacillus, Corynebacterium

G(-): azithro > clarithro > erythro (NOT enterobacteriaceae)
- Haemophilus influenzae (not erythro)
- Moraxella catarrhalis
- Neisseria spp.

Atypicals: Azithro and clarithro are better for legionella and mycoplasma
- Legionella pneumophila
- others

Anaerobes: above the diaphragm

216
Q

What are the PK differences among the macrolides in terms of distribution characteristics, 1/2 life, route of excretion, dosage adjustment in renal insufficiency, and removal by HD?

A

distribution characteristics - all get into tissues and cells, but not the CSF. High intracellular conc., low serum conc. (clarithro/azithro > erythro for intracellular conc.)

1/2 life - erythro 1.4hrs, clarithro 3-7hrs, azithro 68 hours

route of excretion - erythro metabolized by primarily CYP450 enzymes, clarithro by CYP450 and some renal, azithro biliary

dosage adjustment in renal insufficiency - not needed for erythro or azithro, needed for clarithro if CrCL < 30

removal by HD - NONE! The molecules are large

217
Q

What are the main indications for use of the macrolides?

A
  • Community acquired pneumonia - esp. atypical coverage
  • STDs
  • Mycobacterium avium Complex Infections
218
Q

What are the major adverse effects with the macrolides? What measures can be employed to alleviate the GI distress or phlebitis with erythromycin therapy?

A

GI - most common with erythromycin (epigastric distress, abdominal pain, N/V/D)

Thrombophlebitis/infusion site irritation - with IV erythro and azithro; can partially avoid by diluting the dose and infusing slowly

QTc prolongation

219
Q

What major drug interactions are associated with macrolides? Which macrolides cause which drug interactions?

A

CYP450 - Erythromycin and clarithromycin are inhibitors of CYP450 3A4 and 2C9
- caution with theophylline, carbamazepine, valproate, cyclosporine, digoxin, phenytoin, warfarin

Azithromycin doesn’t inhibit CYP450, but hypoprothombinemia has been seen when the pt is on warfarin. So need to carefully monitor PT/INR.

220
Q

How can the inactive prontosil be converted to an active antibiotic after oral administration?

A

Inactive prontosil is a prodrug of the active sulfonamide, p-aminobenzenesulfonamide

221
Q

How is tetrahydrofolic acid formed and why is it a critically important metabolites?

A

Tetrahydrofolic acid is formed through a series of reactions that starts with dihydropteroate diphosphate + p-aminobenzoic acid (PABA) being converted to dihydropteroic acid by dihydropteroate synthase.

This is important because tetrahydrofolic acid eventually turns into thymine and is incorporated into DNA.

222
Q

What is the MOA of the sulfonamides?

A

The sulfonamides inhibit the incorporation of p-aminobenzoic acid (PABA) into the folic acid nucleus. They inhibit dihydropteroate synthase.

223
Q

Why are sulfonamides toxic to pathogenic bacteria, but not to humans?

A

Humans get folic acid from our diet, but bacteria don’t.

224
Q

How can the antibiotic activities of the sulfonamides be reversed?

A

Can be reversed by adding large quantities of PABA to the diet.

225
Q

How does the acidity of p-aminobenzoic acid compare with that of sulfanilamide?

A

PABA: 4.9

Sulfanilamide: 10.4

PABA is mainly anionic at physiological pH, whereas sulfanilamid is a weak acid at physiological pH.

226
Q

What is the relationship between the pKa of synthetic sulfonamide derivatives and their potencies?

A

Being more acidic enhances the potency.

227
Q

How do the aromatic substituents on the sulfonamide nitrogen increase acidity?

A

The aromatic subtituents are electron-withdrawing & have more resonance stabilization of the anion, making the compound more acidic.

228
Q

How does an increase in the acidities of the sulfonamides affect the incidence of crystalluria?

A

Increase in acidity decreases the incidence of crystalluria. This is because it’s more water soluble when it’s anionic.

229
Q

Why are sulfonamides used in combo with other antibiotics?

A

Sulfonamides are used in combination because resistance is too widespread for them to be used alone. Trimethoprim has antifungal activity and it inhibits dihydrofolate reductase, which inhibits sequential steps in biosynthesis of tetrahydrofolic acid.

230
Q

How is sulfasalazine metabolized by interstitial bacteria? What do the metabolites do?

A

bacteria in the GI tract metabolize it to sulfapyridine and 5-aminosalicylic acid, which has antiinflammatory activity. 5-ASA is used in ulcerative colitis and Crohn’s disease.

231
Q

What is the MOA of pyrimethamine? What are its therapeutic uses when combined with certain sulfonamides?

A

Sulfadiazine is combined with pyrimethamine in chemotherapy to treat acute toxoplasmosis. Pyrimethamine inhibits dihydrofolate reductase.

232
Q

What are the mechanisms of resistance to the sulfonamides?

A

Resistance is very prevalent for the sulfonamides:
1. Mutations that cause overproduction of PABA (overcome competitive inhibition)
2. Mutations in the target enzyme (dihydropteroate synthase) that decreases its affinity for the sulfonamides
3. Mutations that result in a decrease in cell permeability to the sulfonamides

233
Q

What is the PK of the main sulfonamides (+trimethoprim)?

A

TMP is absorbed and distributed more rapidly. Its inactive oxidized metabolites are cleared in the urine.

SMX is widely distributed in the body, including the CSF. It’s not as distributed as TMP.

234
Q

How are the sulfonamides metabolized in humans?

A

Sulfonamides are metabolized by N-4 N-acetylation and sometimes N-1 glucuronidation. These metabolites have no antibiotic activity. Hydroxylamine and nitroso metabolites are toxic.

The human population could be rapid or slow acetylators, which affects the rate of metabolism of sulfonamides in humans.

235
Q

What is the MOA of colistin?

A

The ammonium cations of colistin displace cations in the bacterila cell membrane (Mg2+ and Ca2+) and facilitate binding of the antibiotic to anionic lipopolysaccharides in the cell membrane.

236
Q

What is the MOA of metronidazole and what is its main therapeutic use?

A

MOA - Partial reduction of the nitro group in anaerobic bacteria leads to a radical anion that degrades bacterial DNA.

Use - Anaerobic bacteria and protozoa. It’s drug of choice for mild to moderate C. difficle.

237
Q

What are the MOAs and therapeutic uses of lefamulin acetate and pretomanid?

A

Lefamulin acetate:
- MOA: selective binding to the peptidyl transferase center (PTC) of the 50S ribosomal subunit to prevent bacterial protein synthesis
- Use: community-acquired bacterial pneumonia

Pretomanid:
- MOA: inhibits mycolic acid biosynthesis through an unknown mechanism, and poisons respiration (mitochondria) through the generation of nitric oxide
- Use: treatment-resistant tuberculosis

238
Q

What is the definition of disinfectants, antiseptics, and sterilants? What are examples of each?

A

disinfectants - kills the vegetative form of the microorganism, but not spores, on inanimate surfaces

sterilants - kills or removes ALL types of living microorganisms, including spores and viruses

antiseptics - applied to living tissue for the purpose of preventing infection

239
Q

What are the MOAs of alcohols, chlorhexidine, and iodine? When is it appropriate to use each agent?

A

alcohols:
- MOA: denature proteins
- Use: antiseptics/disinfectants

chlorhexidine:
- MOA: strongly adsorbs to bacterial membranes, causing leakage of small molecules & precipitation of cytoplasmic proteins
- Use: used in water-based formulations as a topical antiseptic. It has moderate activity vs. fungi and viruses.

iodine:
- MOA: iodinates phenylalanyl and tyrosyl groups in proteins and oxidizes sulfhydryl groups in proteins
- can be bactericidal; tincture of iodine is used as an antiseptic.

240
Q

What are the MOAs of povidoneiodine, sodium hypochlorite, and halazone? When is it appropriate to use each agent?

A

povidone-iodine: (betadine)
- MOA: the free iodine is active; iodinates phenylalanyl and tyrosyl groups in proteins and oxidizes sulfhydryl groups in proteins
- Use: antiseptic available in many items. It’s less likely to produce hypersensitivity reactions. It’s a nontoxic, nonvolitile, non staining iodine.

sodium hypochlorite:
- MOA: function groups present in proteins and nucleic acids are oxidized by hypochlorous acid
- Use: disinfectant water

halazone:
- MOA: in water, produces HOCl, which is germicidal
- Use: disinfect small quantities of drinking water

241
Q

What are the MOAs of chloroazodin, oxychlorosene, and phenols? When is it appropriate to use each agent?

A

chloroazodin -
- MOA: in water, produces HOCl, which is germicidal
- Use: Dressing wounds, lavage, irrigation

oxychlorosene -
- MOA: Slowly liberates HOCl in solution
- Use: antiseptic to treat local infections, remove necrotic tissue in massive infections, and to treat wounds.

phenols -
- MOA: disrupt the cell wall and membranes, precipitate proteins, inactivate enzymes
- Use: bactericidal, fungicidal, and inactivate lipophilic viruses. NOT sporicidal. Used to disinfect hard surfaces (floors/bench tops/beds)

242
Q

What are the MOAs of quaternary ammonium compounds and formaldehyde and glutaraldehyde? When is it appropriate to use each agent?

A

quaternary compounds -
- MOA: bactericidal action due to inactivation of energy-producing enzymes, denaturation of proteins, and disruption of cell membranes
- Use: fungistatic, sporistatic, inhibit algal growth, bactericidal against G(+) and mod. active against gram(-). Used to reduce microbila load on inanimate surfaces (sanitizers). They are inactivated by soaps.

aldehydes -
- MOA: React with amino groups in proteins and nucleic acids
- Use: used to sterilize instruments that cannot be sterilized by steam in an autoclave

243
Q

What are the MOAs of hydrogen peroxide and peracetic acid and ethylene oxide? When is it appropriate to use each agent?

A

Hydrogen peroxide & peracetic acid:
- MOA - oxidizers
- Use - mainly used as disinfectant and sterilant
- Hydrogen peroxide - used to sterilize respirators, acrylic resin implants, milk and juice cartons, plastic eating utensils, and contact lenses
- Peracetic acid - more potent than hydrogen peroxide. It is used to sterilize equipment in the food and beverage industry because its breakdown products are safe and do not smell or taste bad

Ethylene oxide:
- MOA: reacts covalently with a variety of nucleophilic groups present in biological systems
- Use: Used to sterilize equipment that can’t be sterilized by heat in an autoclave

244
Q

What chemical species are present when sodium hypochlorite is dissolved in water? What about when chlorine is dissolved in water?

A

When sodium hypochloite is dissolved in water, the product is hypochlorous acid (HOCl) + NaOH

When chlorine is dissovled in water, the produce is hypochlorous acid (HOCl) + HCl

245
Q

What germicidal species are formed when sodium hypochlorite or chlorine is dissolved in water?

A

Hypochlorous acid (HOCl) is the active germicidal species that forms when chlorine is dissolved in water.

246
Q

Which irritating, volatile gas is produces when household bleach is acidified?

A

chlorine gas

when aommia in urine reacts with bleach, it can form chloramine (CINH2), which is also toxic

247
Q

Which sterilants are carcinogenic? Which aren’t?

A

Carcinogenic:
- formaldehyde
- ethylene oxide

Not:
- peroxygen compounds (hydrogen peroxide, peracetic acid)

248
Q

How are parabens metabolized?

A

Parabens are rapidly hydrolyzed to corresponding benzoic acid derivatives, which are rapidly conjugated and excreted

249
Q

Why shouldn’t quaternary ammonium compounds be used as antiseptics?

A

Because they may contain infectious gram-negative bacteria (ex. Pseudomonas) that could cause an outbreak. It has been claimed that the newer formulations have overcome this problem.

250
Q

What are the MOAs and mechanisms of resistance of the tetracyclines/analogs?

A

MOA - inhibit bacterial protein synthesis by reversibly binding to the 30S ribosome, blocking the binding of amino-acyl tRNA to the A site on the mRNA complex. This prevents the addition of amino acid residues to the elongating peptide chain and inhibits protein synthesis.
- bacteriostatic

Resistance -
1. Decreased accumulation of tetracycline w/in the bacteria due to altermed permeability or efflux pumps
2. Decreases access to the ribosome due to ribosomal protection proteins
3. Enzymatic inactivation of the tetracycline
*tigecycline, ervacycline, and omadacyline retain activity against many tetracycline-resistant bacteria because they do NOT seem to be affected by tetracycline-specific efflux and ribosomal protection

251
Q

What is spectrum of activity of the tetracyclines/analogs?

A

G(+) aerobes: minocycline and doxycycline are the most active
- group/viridans strep
- Streptococcus pneumoniae (PSSP)
- Some Enterococcus spp.
- Some Staphylococcus aureus (MSSA)
- Bacillus, Listeria, Nocardia
*analogs rarely used, but have MSSA/MRSA activity and some VSE/VRE

G(-) aerobes: many Enterobacteriaceae are relatively resistant
- H. influenzae
- Haemonphilus ducreyi
- Campylobacter jejuni
- Helicobacter pylori
- Acinetobacter baumannii (minocycline IV)
analogs cover EEACKSS (E. coli, E. cloaecae/aerogenes, Acinetobacter baumannii, Citrobacter freundii/koseri, Klebsiella pneumoniae/oxytoca*, Serratia marcescens, Stenotrophomonas maltophilia)

Anaerobes:
- G(+): Actinomyces, Propionibacterium spp.
*analogs cover the two above + Peptostreptococcus and Clostridium perfringens, as well as Bacteroides spp.

Misc. organisms:
- Legionella pneumophilia
- Chlamydophila pneumoniae
- Chalmydophila psittaci
*ervacycline and omadacyline cover atypicals, but not tigecycline

252
Q

What are the MOAs and mechanisms of resistance of TMP-SMX?

A

MOA - bactericidal together
- Sulfamethoxazole: inhibits dihydropteroate synthesis, which inhibits formation of dihydrofolic acid
- Trimethoprim: inhibits activity of dihydrofolate reductase, which prevents the reduction of dihydrofolate to tetrahydrofolate

Resistance -
1. Altered target sites: point mutations in dihydropteroate synthase and/or altered production or sensitivity of bacterial dihydrofolate reductase

253
Q

What is the spectrum of activity of TMP-SMX?

A

G(+)
- S. aureus, some MRSA, esp. CA-MRSA
- S. pyogenes (marginal)
- Nocardia

G(-)
- HENPEACKSSS: H. influenzae, E. Coli, Neiserria, Proteus, Enterobacter, Acinetobacter, Citrobacter, Klebsiella, Serratia, Shigella, Salmonella
- Stenotrophomonas maltophilia
- NO P. aeruginosa

anaerobes: NONE

other: Drug of choice for Pneumocytis carinii/jirovecii

254
Q

What are the MOAs and mechanisms of resistance of the polymyxins?

A

MOA - bind to the anionic lipopolysaccharide molecules of the outer membrane of Gram negative bacteria, causing displacement of Ca2+ and Mg2+, which normally stabilize the cell membrane. This leads to changes in cell wall permeability, leakage of cellular contents and subsequent cell death.

Resistance -
1. alteration of outer cell membrane: decrease lipopolysaccharides content, reduction in calcium and magnesium content, decreased outer membrane proteins
*cross resistance between polymyxin B and colistin

255
Q

What is the spectrum of activity of the polymyxins?

A

G(+): inactive

G(-): excellent; PEEACKSSS
- Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Enterobacter spp. E. Coli, Acinetobacter (inc. MDR strains), Citrobacter, Klebsiella, Salmonella, Shigella, Stenotrophomonas
- NOT Burkholderia, Proteus, Providencia, Serratia, or Brucella

anaerobes: none

256
Q

What are the MOAs and mechanisms of resistance of clindamycin?

A

MOA - Inhibits protein synthesis by exclusively binding reversibly to the 50S ribosomal subunit
- primarily bacteriostatic, but can display time-dependent bactericidal activity

Resistance -
1. Alteration of the ribosomal binding site
*not a substrate for macrolide efflux pumps

257
Q

What is the spectrum of activity of clindamycin?

A

G(+):
- group/viridans strep
- PSSP
- MSSA and CA-MRSA

Anaerobes: most useful for above the diaphragm
- G(+): Peptrostreptococcus spp., Clostridium spp. (not C. diff), Actinomyces, Propionibacterium
- G(-): Bacteroides spp., Prevotella spp., Fusobacterium

Other:
- Pneumocystis carinii/jirovecii
- Toxoplasmosis gondii
- Pasmodium falciparum and vivax (malaria

258
Q

What are the MOAs and mechanisms of resistance of metronidazole?

A

MOA - Prodrug that is activated by a reductive process. It’s selectively toxic towards anaerobic bacteria due to the presence of electron transport components, like ferredoxins, in these bacteria. Ferredoxins donate electrons to metronidazole, forming highly reactive nitro radical anions. These damage bacterial DNA and cause cell death.
- Rapidly bactericidal, concentration-dependent

Resistance - relatively uncommon
1. Altered growth requirements: Higher oxygen concentrations
2. Altered levels of ferredoxin

259
Q

What is the spectrum of activity of metronidazole?

A

NO AEROBES

G(-) anaerobes:
- Bacteroides fragilis
- B. fragilis DOT organisms (B. distasonis, ovatus, thetaiotamicron)
- Fusobacterium
- Prevotella spp. and Veilonella spp.
- Helicobacter pylori

G(+) anaerobe:
- Clostridium spp. including C. difficile
- Peptostreptococcus

Other: Trichomonas vaginalis, Entamoeba histolytica, Giardia lamblia, Gardnerella vaginalis

260
Q

What is the PK of the tetracyclines/analogs? (PO bioavailability, distribution into CNS, route of elim, removal during HD, dose adjustments)

A

PO bioavailability - tigecycline and eravacycline are only available IV, tetracycline only available PO
- Doxycycline (preferred) and minocycline are best absorbed from GI tract
- Administrataion with divalent or trivalent cations impairs the absorption of the tetracyclines.

distribution into CNS - only small amounts diffuse into the CSF

route of elim
- renal: tetracycline, demeclocycline
- non-renal: doxycycline, minocycline
- biliary/fecal: tetracycline analogs

removal during HD - not significant

dose adjustments - only tetracycline need renal dose adjustment, tigecycline and eravacycline need dose adjustment in sever hepatic impairment

261
Q

What is the PK of TMP-SMX? (PO bioavailability, distribution into CNS, route of elim, dose adjustments)

A

PO bioavailability - rapidly and well absorbed orally
*1:5 ratio of trimethoprim to sulfamethoxazole

distribution into CNS - Does get inot the CSF, but not really used for meningitis; gets into saliva, breast milk, urine, and uninflamed prostatic tissue

route of elim - renal

dose adjustments - dose adjustment needed in pts with CrCL < 30mL/min

262
Q

What is the PK of the polymyxins? (PO bioavailability, distribution into CNS, route of elim, removal during HD, dose adjustments)

A

PO bioavailability - not absorbed from GI tract, only IV is available in the US

distribution into CNS - colistin poor CSF penetration, not well described for polymyxin B

route of elim - colistin/polymyxin B nonrenal, colistimethate sodium (CMS, prodrug of colistin) is 50% by renal

removal during HD -

dose adjustments - none needed for colistin/polymyxin B, dose adjustment needed for CMS when CrCL is < 80mL/min

263
Q

What is the PK of clindamyin? (PO bioavailability, distribution into CNS, route of elim, removal during HD, dose adjustments)

A

PO bioavailability - almost completely absorbed after PO administration

distribution into CNS - does NOT penetrate CSF, even if meninges are inflamed

route of elim - primarily metabolized in liver

removal during HD - NONE

dose adjustments - not necessary

264
Q

What is the PK of metronidazole? (PO bioavailability, distribution into CNS, route of elim, removal during HD, dose adjustments)

A

PO bioavailability - Almost completely absorbed after PO administration

distribution into CNS - DOES penetrate the CSF and brain tissue

route of elim - metabolized by the liver, some in urine, some in feces (good for C. diff)

removal during HD - yes

dose adjustments - dose adjust in renal or hepatic dysfunction

265
Q

What are the major clinical uses for tetracyclines/analogs, TMP-SMX, polymyxins, clindamycin, and metronidazole?

A

Tetracycines/analogs - outpatient community acquired pneumonia (doxy) or infections to unusual organisms

TMP-SMX - UTIs, bacterial prostatitis, Pneumocystis carinii/jirovecii pneumonia

Polymyxins - Very toxic, so use is limited to MDR bacteria; polymyxin preferred for systemic infections, colistin preferred for UTIs

Clindamycin - infections due to anaerobes outside of the CNS (pulmonary, diabetic foot, etc.)

Metronidazole - infections due to anaerobes below the diaphragm or in the brain, C. diff

266
Q

What are the major adverse events associated with tetracyclines/analogs, TMP-SMX, polymyxins, clindamycin, and metronidazole?

A

Tetracycines/analogs - GI (N/V), photosensitivity, esophageal irritation, discoloration of primary dentition, do not use in pregnancy/lactation

TMP-SMX - dose related myelosuppression (leukopenia, trombocytopenia), rash, crystalluria, hyperkalemia, kernicterus in newborn, do not use in pregnancy/lactation

Polymyxins - nephrotoxicity, neurotoxicity

Clindamycin - GI (N/V/D, C. diff), hepatotoxicity

Metronidazole - GI (metallic taste), CNS (peripheral neuropathy), may be teratogenic, avoid during 1st trimester and during breastfeeding

267
Q

What are the drug interactions associated with the tetracyclines, TMP-SMX, and metronidazole?

A

Tetracyclins - impared absorption when given with divalent/trivalent cations (ex. Ca2+, Mg2+)

TMP-SMX - warfarin (inc. anticoagulant effects)

Metronidazole - warfarin (inc. anticoagulant effect), alcohol (disulfiram reaction)

268
Q

What are the potential therapeutic advantages of the tetracycline analog antibiotics?

A

They have expanded spectrum of activity that includes many tetracycline-resistant strains. BUT they are bacteriostatic, so they are rarely used.