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Health Assesment > Exam 3 > Flashcards

Exam 3 Flashcards

1
Q

What are primary groups?

A

Usually informal because they are personal and close

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2
Q

What are secondary groups?

A

They are time limited groups and the purpose is to meet specific goals

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3
Q

What are some examples of groups?

A

Counseling, therapy groups, pyschoeducation, work groups, and interprofessional clinical team

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4
Q

What is the purpose of group communication?

A
  • it provides central means of communicating with others within and between clinical settings
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5
Q

What are the three characteristics of successful goals?

A, M, WC

A
  • Achievable
  • measureable
  • within capabilities of the group members
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6
Q

What is group cohesion ( group unity)?

A

Members desire to work together to accomplished their goals

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7
Q

What is a critical requirement for patient therapy groups?

A

A persons capacity to derive benefit from the group and to contribute to group goals is a critical requirement for patient therapy groups

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8
Q

What is a group norm?

A

Unwritten behavioral rules expected of group members

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9
Q

What are universal norms?

A

Explicit behavioral standards which must be present in all groups to achieve effective outcomes

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10
Q

What are some examples of universal norms?

C, RA, SD

A
  • Confidentiality
  • regular attendance
  • Using group time for specific discussion
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11
Q

What are group specific norms?

A

Rules constructed by group members that represents shared beliefs and values

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12
Q

What are examples of group specific norms?

IOL, UOH, C

A
  • Intolerances for lateness
  • use of humor
  • confrontation
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13
Q

What are group dynamics?

A

Used to describe the communication process and behaviors that occur during the life of the group

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14
Q

What is the five stage model of small group development?

F, S, N, P, A

A
  • forming
  • storming
  • norming
  • performing
  • adjourning
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15
Q

What is forming?

1st

A

When members of the group come together, and the leader orients everyone into intros. During this phase the leader intros universal norms

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16
Q

what is storming?

2nd

A

the focus is mainly on control and power withing the group, they sucsessfully deal with resistance through relationship building

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17
Q

what is norming?

3rd

A

individual goals become aligned with group goals the norms make the group “safe” and expeerience cohesiveness

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18
Q

what is preforming?

4th

A

group work gets accomplished in this phase because of accpetance of each member

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19
Q

what is adjourning?

5th

A

final phase in which they reflect and review the work that was brought forth

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20
Q

what is self role?

A

the person unconsciously acts to meet self needs at the expense of others within the group

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21
Q

what is are some examples of a dysfunction roles (SELF ROLES) within the group?

A, B, J, A, SC, R

A
  • agressor
  • blocker
  • joker
  • avoider
  • self confessor
  • recognition
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22
Q

what are the characteristics of the aggressor in dysfunctionl roles?

A

blames others, personally attacks other members, uses sarcasm and hostility to communicate

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23
Q

what are the characteristics of the blocker in dysfunctionl roles?

A

instantly reject ideas or argues every idea, obstructs descison making

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24
Q

what are the characteristics of the joker in dysfunctionl roles?

A

disrupts work of the group by constantly joking

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25
Q

what are the characteristics of the avoider in dysfunctionl roles?

A

daydreams during meetings, acts indiffrent and passive

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26
Q

what are the characteristics of the self confessor in dysfunctionl roles?

A

uses the group to express personal views and feelings unrelated to the group goals

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27
Q

what are the characteristics of the recognition in dysfunctionl roles?

A

seeks attention by excessivley talking, expresses extreme ideas or demenstrating perculiar behavoir

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28
Q

what are closed therapeutic groups?

A

have selected membership and for an extended period of time

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29
Q

what is an example of closed theraputic groups?

A

pyschotherapy groups

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30
Q

what is an open group?

A

doesn’t have defined membership

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31
Q

what is an example of an open group?

A

community support groups

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32
Q

what is an homogenous group?

A

share common goals and characteristics like diagnosis or demographic

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33
Q

what is an example of homogenous groups?

A

breast cancer support group

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34
Q

what is an example of heterogenous groups?

A

represent a wider diversity of member characteristics and personal issues

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35
Q

what are the diffrent leader styles?

A, DG, LF

A
  • authoritarian group leader
  • democratic group leader
  • laissez faire group leader
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36
Q

what is the characteritics of the authoritarian group leader?

A
  • takes full responsibilty
  • this style works best when there is limited time to make descions
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37
Q

what is the characteristics of the democratic group leader?

A
  • invites member participation
  • can adapt leadership style to fit the changing needs of the group
  • goal-oriented and flexible
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38
Q

what is the characteristics of the laissez-faire group leader?

A
  • disengaged
  • doesn’t control group decision-making
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39
Q

how do informal leaders form within a group?

A
  • have a good grip the situational demands of the task, there personality allows them to emerge as informal GL
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40
Q

what is coleadership?

A
  • a form of shared leadership found primarily in therapy and support groups
  • adsds another perspective to processing group dynamics
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41
Q

what is reminiscence groups?

A

designed to aide persons in a life review process, meant to provide a supportive ego enhancing experience

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42
Q

what is reality orientation groups?

A

helping members remain in contact with their envoirment

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43
Q

what are remotivation groups?

A

they stimulate thinking about skills needed for activites of daily living. the purpose is to attempt to reach a aprt of a cognitivley distrubed mind that is still functioning

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43
Q

what are the characteristics of effeective communication?

F, T, A, C, U

A
  • frequent
  • timley
  • accurate
  • complete
  • unambigous
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43
Q

What are the four essential characteristics of communication?

A
  • Clear
    -brief
  • timely
  • complete
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43
Q

what is the first characteristic of a healthy work place?

A

efficent in communication and clinical skills

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43
Q

what is the second characteristic of a healthy work place?

A

relentless in pursuit of collabaration

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43
Q

What factors may influence professional relationships?

A
  • Gender
  • hierarchy
  • generational diversity
  • communication silos
43
Q

what is the sixth characteristic of a healthy work place?

unit awards

A

nurse leaders embrace the healthy work envoirment, live in it, and engage others in its achivemnt

43
Q

What is the definition of ageism?

A

The systemic stereotyping and discrimination of older adults

43
Q

What have age biases been associated with?

A

Poor cognition, functional, and mental health outcomes and are a risk factor for abuse

43
Q

What are the negative impact of ageism?

A
  • elderly abuse
  • depression
  • early mortality
43
Q

What is elderlyspeak?

A

A form of patronizing speech to older adults like “baby talk”

43
Q

What are the positive outcomes of reminiscing?

A
  • improves quality of life
  • improves socialization
  • Provides cognitive stimulation
  • improves communication
  • facilitate personal growth
43
Q

What are the conflict resolution steps?

A

Step 1) identity sources of conflict
Step 2) sets goals
Step 3) implement solutions

43
Q

What is the purpose of step 1 of resolution conflict identifying sources of conflict?

A

Recognizing miscommunication early and giving an appropriate response

43
Q

What is step 2 in conflict resolution; set goals?

A

Being able to stay calm, and address the conflict with a solution

44
Q

What is the purpose of step 3 of conflict resolution; implement solutions?

A

Finding high quality, mutually acceptable solution through a win win strategy

45
Q

What is the age marker for late adulthood?

A

65 yrs old

46
Q

What are the three age cohorts?

YO, MO, OO

A
  • young old
    -middle old
    -old old
47
Q

What is aging accompanied by?

CIA, M, EL, I, SL, OF

A

Changes in appearance, mobility, energy levels, immunity, sensory levels, organ function

48
Q

What is successful aging?

A

Ability to adapt to age related changes without compromising one’s sense of self

49
Q

What are examples of debilitating problems that trouble the older demographic?

F, UI, PU, FD, D

A
  • falls
  • urinary incontinence
  • pressure ulcers
  • functional decline
  • delirium
50
Q

What is the purpose of the transitional model?

A

designed to provide continuity of care as older adults get discharged from one health agency to another

51
Q

What is ego integrity?

A

Describes acceptance of the life cycle

52
Q

What is ego despair?

A

Describes the failure of a person to accept one’s life as appropriate and meaningful

53
Q

What does the mini mental state examination asses?

O, M, A, L

A

Measures several dimensions of cognition
- orientation
- memory
- Abstraction
- language

54
Q

What is an abnormal score on the mini mental state examination?

A

Greater than 26

55
Q

What is functional status?

A

a broad range of purposeful abilities related to physical health maintenance, role performance, cognition or intellectual abilities, social activities, and level of emotional functioning

56
Q

What is apraxia?

A

Loss of the ability to take purposeful action even when muscles, senses, and vocab seems intact

57
Q

What is hallmark of dementia?

A

Difficulty with purposeful communication

58
Q

What is essential to conducting a family assessment?

A

1) needs are met
2) uncover gaps in care
3) offer multiple supports

59
Q

What is the purpose of the general systems theory?

A

Evaluations of the output and feedback loops from the envoirment inform the systems of changes needed to achieve effective outputs

60
Q

What are the main goals of von bertalanffy’s theory?

A

To prioritize the greater good, when one part of the system fails everything goes down with it

61
Q

What is the main points of Bowen’s system theories?

A
  • family roles switch in high anxiety situations
62
Q

What is the main points of the Calgary Family Assessment and Family Interaction model?

A

It is an organizing framework for nurses to be able to understand families, the model looks at structure, development, and function patterns within the family

63
Q

What is a communication deficit?

A

An impairment in the ability to receive, send, process, and comprehend concepts

64
Q

What are the different kind of communication deficits?

H, V, S, l, CP

A
  • hearing
  • vision
  • speech
  • language
    Cognitive processing
65
Q

What is hearing loss?

A

Hearing loss greater than 40dB but less than 70dB

66
Q

What is the ranges for normal hearing?

A

20dB or better in both ears

67
Q

What can cause hearing loss?

A
  • genetics
  • congenital
  • acquired
68
Q

What are the different types of hearing loss?

C, S, F

A
  • conductive
  • sensorineural
  • functional
69
Q

In what circumstances could hearing loss be acquired?

A
  • infections
  • medication toxicity
  • exposure to excessive noise
  • music playing at higher than 85dB
70
Q

What ratio of newborns are born deaf or have hearing loss?

A

3 of every 1000

71
Q

What is presbycusis?

A

Degeneration of ear structures that normally occurs with aging

72
Q

What is vision loss?

A

Visual impairments caused by a 20/200 vision or worse

73
Q

What causes vision loss?

A
  • cataracts
  • exposure to sun
  • aging
  • eye development
74
Q

What test is recommended for children younger than 5 yrs old?

A
  • amblyopia
  • strabismus
  • visual acuity
75
Q

What happens to the lens as we age?

A

The lens becomes less flexible causing the eyes to accommodate less to shifts from far to near vision

76
Q

What is presbyopia?

A

The lens is no longer able to accommodate

77
Q

What are the different kinds of impaired verbal communication?

A
  • speech
  • language
78
Q

What is a speech deficit?

A

Impaired articulation

79
Q

What is a language deficit?

A

Impaired comprehension or use of spoken sounds

80
Q

What causes a speech or language deficit?

A
  • neurological trauma
  • communication problems
81
Q

What is aphasia?

Stroke pt

A

A neurological linguistic deficit

82
Q

What is expressive aphasia?

A

They are able to understand what is being said but cannot express thoughts or feelings in words

83
Q

What is receptive aphasia?

A

Creates difficulty in receiving and processing written and oral messages

84
Q

What is global aphasia?

A

Has difficulty with both expressing and reception of messages

85
Q

What is impaired cognitive processing in children?

A

Limits on ability to learn and function in everyday life

86
Q

What is impaired cognitive processing in adults?

A

Associated with traumatic brain injury, infection, and degenerative diseases

87
Q

What percentage of people with Parkinson’s disease will experience cognitive impairment that impacts QOL?

88
Q

What is a communication deficit?

A

Different types of communication deficit resulting from a malfunctioning neurotransmitter

89
Q

What is envoirmental deprivation?

A

Sensory deprivation from areas like the ICU

90
Q

What is the gyrate shape/ pattern of lesions?

Shake

A

Snake like appearance

91
Q

What is wheals?

Itchy insect bites

A

Multiple solid red raised lesions

92
Q

What is a bulla

93
Q

What is dermatofibroma?

A

Deep lesion in the dermis ( nodule)

94
Q

Where is s1 louder?

A

The apex of the heart

95
Q

Where is s2 louder?

A

Base of the heart

96
Q

What are the typical sounds of the heart?

A
  • Lubb dub
  • low pitched and intensity
97
Q

What is the order of the cardiac auscultation?

A
  • aortic
  • pulmonic
  • erb’s point
  • tricuspid
    -mitral
98
Q

What disease is an indication of white or clear sputum?

A

Colds, viral infections, or bronchitis

99
Q

what disease(s) are an indicated with yellow or green sputum?

A

Bacterial infections

100
Q

When will black sputum occur?

A

Smoke, coal, or dust inhalation

101
Q

What is a rust color sputum an indication of?

A

TB or pneumococcal pneumonia

102
Q

What is the normal range for BMI?

A

18.5 to 24.9

103
Q

what BMI percent is considered underweight?

A

18.5 and less

104
Q

What BMI measurement is considered obses?

105
Q

What is BMI value is considered overweight?

Health Assesment (4 decks)

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