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Phys of Domestic Animals 1 > Exam 3 > Flashcards

Exam 3 Flashcards

1
Q

what is myoglobulin

A

a red protein that is capable of binding w/ oxygen when there is low amounts of oxygen in the blood needed for phosphorylation

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2
Q

what produces ATP in the muscle cells

A

glycolysis, oxidative phosphorylation, and beta oxidation

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3
Q

in what form is glucose stored inbetween myofibrils

A

glycogen

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4
Q

what is ATP used for in skeletal muscle

A

both contraction and relaxation

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5
Q

what allows for a rapid generation of ATP

A

Creatine phosphate

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6
Q

what material are broken down in the TCA cycle that is processed in oxidative phosphorylation

A

FA, AA and glycolysis

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7
Q

what is creatine phosphate (phosphocreatine)

A

the first energy reservoir tapped at the onset of contractile activity in vertebrates skeletal muscle

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8
Q

what does phosphogens contain that can be quickly donated to ADP

A

a high energy phosphate group

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9
Q

how much creatine phosphate do vertebrake skeletal muscle contain compared to ATP

A

5x as much

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10
Q

where in the cell does oxidative phosphorylation occur

A

the mitochondria

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11
Q

what is required for oxidative phosphorylation

A

oxygen and light to moderate aerobic activity

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12
Q

what materials fuel oxidative phosphorylation

A

FA, glucose, and myoglobin

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13
Q

what type of yield is oxidative phosphorylation

A

rich yield

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14
Q

does oxidative phosphorylation take more or less time

A

more due to being a multistep pathway

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15
Q

where in the cell does gylcolysis occur

A

in the cytoplasm

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16
Q

can glycolysis produce ATP w/o oxygen

A

yes

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17
Q

what fuels glycolysis

A

glucose and high intensity anaerobic activity

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18
Q

what type of yield is glycolysis

A

a low yield

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19
Q

does glycolysis take more or less time

A

less

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20
Q

what does glycolysis produce other than ATP

A

lactate and accompanying acidosis

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21
Q

how can skeletal muscle fibers be characterized

A

contractility, oxidative capacity, and myoglobin content

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22
Q

what is the contractility of the muscle fibers based on

A

the speed at which the myosin can hydrolyze ATP

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23
Q

what does the speed of myosin reflect

A

the ATP hydrolysis rate

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24
Q

what does MHC mean

A

myosin heavy chain

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25
Q

what type of muscle is skeletal muscle considered

A

type 2

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26
Q

what is the one type of skeletal muscle that is considered type one

A

skeletal slow twitch

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27
Q

what type is cardiac MHC alpha considered

A

Fast two

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28
Q

what type is cardiac MHC beta considered

A

type one

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29
Q

what type is smooth muscle considered

A

type one

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30
Q

t/f most muscle cells are considered heterogenous meaning it contains both slow and fast fibers

A

true

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31
Q

what are the characteristics of type one muscle fibers

A

slow ATPase rate, fewer myofibrils, adapted for long slow contractions, and contains large amounts of mitochondria and myoglobin

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32
Q

what are the characteristics of type two muscle fibers

A

fast ATPase rate, faster muscle contractions, more myofibrils, and less myoglobin

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33
Q

what does more myofibrils mean

A

more surface area which means more force

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34
Q

what are the two subdivisions of type two fibers

A

Type 2a and Type 2b

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35
Q

what are the characteristics of Type 2a muscle fibers

A

large amounts of mitochondria and myoglobin and being utilized during aerobic respiration

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36
Q

what are the characterisitics of Type 2b muscle fibers

A

few mitochondria w/ little to no myoglobin (very light), rely on glycolysis for ATP production, and are utilized during anaerobic glycolysis

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37
Q

t/f: muscles that produce less force do not generate their ATP as efficiently as fibers that produce more force

A

false, muscle fibers that produce more force do not generate their ATP as efficiently

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38
Q

what do myosin activity, oxidative capacity, and myoglobin content directly effect in skeletal muscle

A

their tendency to exhibit fatigue

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39
Q

what two systems is the circulatory system is divided into

A

pulmonary and systemic ciculatory systems

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40
Q

where does deoxygenated blood get reoxygenated

A

passing thru the arterioles to the venules located in the lungs

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41
Q

where does all the oxygenated blood get deposited

A

from arterioles to venules in the remaining tissues found in the abdomenial cavity

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42
Q

what does the dissolved gas level look like with oxygenated blood

A

more dissolved oxgen w/ less CO2

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43
Q

what does the dissolved gas level look like with deoxygenated blood

A

less dissolved oxygen w/ more CO2

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44
Q

where does the pulmonary system have high pressure

A

when the oxygenated blood is getting pumped out of the left ventricle and when the deoxygenated blood is getting pumped into the lungs

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45
Q

where does the pulmonary system have low pressure

A

when the oxygenated blood is leaving the lungs and when the deoxygenated blood is being pumped back into the right atrium

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46
Q

describe the movement of the heart

A

the blood passes through the systemic circuit the blood is now partly deoxygenated flowing into the venae cavae into the right atrium then into the right atrioventricular valve to the right ventricle. Which then pumps the deoxygenated blood through the pulmonary valve into the pulomonary trunk, flowing into the lungs in the pulmonary ciruit. The reoxygenated enters thru the pulmonary veins into the left atria thru the left atrioventricular valve to the left ventricle. which pumps the oxygenated blood to the aortic valve into the systemic aorta to the entire systemic circuit.

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47
Q

what are the jobs of the atrioventricular valve and the pulmonary/atrial ‘semilunar’ valves

A

to prevent backflow

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48
Q

describe how the heart is a pressurized system

A

the heart creates a pressure wave w/ each contraction to push blood thru the arteries which dissipates as it goes thru the plumbing of the tissues

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49
Q

what is the direction of flow

A

from the heart to artery to arteriole to capillary to venule to vein back to the heart

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50
Q

how can vessels handle high pressure

A

they have lots of connective tissues allowing them to flex and stretch as well as lots of smooth muscle cells giving them great control

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51
Q

what is the definition of systole

A

when the heart is in the phase of contracting

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52
Q

what is the definition of diastole

A

when the heart is in the phase of relaxing and being filled with blood

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53
Q

which is shorter systole or diastole

A

systole

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54
Q

what does hydrostatic pressure do

A

it pushes material out

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55
Q

what does osmotic pressure do

A

it pulls material back in

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56
Q

what is the covering separating the heart from the other structures in the thoracic cavity

A

pericardium

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57
Q

where are the superior and inferior venae cavae, aorta, and pulmonary trunk located on the heart

A

the superior surface (base)

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58
Q

what is the apex

A

the most distal part of the left ventricle (point)

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59
Q

what are the two distinct layers of the pericardium

A

the fibrous and the serious

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60
Q

what two sublayers does the serious pericardium consist of

A

the parietal and the visceral

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61
Q

what is another name for the visceral pericardium

A

epicardium

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62
Q

what is the pericardial cavity

A

a lubricating fluid that keeps the parietal and visceral from rubbing against each other

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63
Q

what is the order of layers of pericardium going from outside in

A

fibrous, pericardium cavity, parietal, and visceral

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64
Q

what is the definition of the fibrous pericardium

A

connective tissue that protects the heart and maintains its position in the thorax

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65
Q

what is the majority of the heart made out of

A

myocardium

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66
Q

what is the endocardium

A

lines the chambers where the blood circulates and covers the heart valves made of endothelium which lines the blood vessels as well

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67
Q

what is the septum

A

a physical extension of the myocardium lined w/ endocardium

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68
Q

what are the two atria separated by

A

the interatrial septum

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69
Q

what are the two ventricles separated by

A

the intraventricular septum

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70
Q

what is the atrioventricular septum

A

the septum between the atria and ventricles

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71
Q

how do the semilunar valves open to allow bloodflow

A

as the ventricles contract and intraventricular pressure rises blood is pushed up agains semilunar valves forcing them to open

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72
Q

how do the semilunar valves close

A

as ventricles relax and the intraventricular pressure falls blood blows back from arteries filling the cusps of semilunar valves and forcing them to close

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73
Q

describe what is happening when the second heart beat occurs

A

the contraction is ending and the pressure wave causes blood to rush into the large arteries causing a back pressure the blood will then catch the cusps of the valve and snap them close keeping the directional flow

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74
Q

what is chordae tendinae

A

connective tissue connected to the atrioventricular valves that reinforces the valve to reduce risk of aversion caused by the pressure produced by the ventricles

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75
Q

what is papillary muscles

A

projections from the wall of the heart that attach to the chordae tendinae to provent prolapse of the AV valve leaflets during ventricular systole

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76
Q

why is the muscle of the left ventricle thicker then the muscle of the right ventricle

A

the left ventricle requires mores force to be able to push the blood to the rest of the body while the right ventricle just has to push blood to the lungs

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77
Q

what do P waves represent on an EKG

A

the action potentials that are sweeping thru the atria

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78
Q

what is the QRS complex on an EKG

A

the action potentials sweeping thru the ventricles

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79
Q

what does the T wave represent on an EKG

A

the repolarization of the ventricle

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80
Q

where do you see the repolarization of the atria

A

hiddne in the QRS complex

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81
Q

what is the isovolumic contraction

A

the pressure is building but the volume does not change due to the pressure in the aorta still being higher

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82
Q

what are the semilunar valves

A

the pulmonary and aortic valves

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83
Q

what are the atrioventricular valves

A

the tricuspid and bicuspid valves

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84
Q

t/f: the heart is capable of auto rhythmicity

A

true

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85
Q

what systems is the heart rate modulated by

A

the endocrine and nervous systems

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86
Q

what are the two types of myocardial cells

A

contractile and conducting

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87
Q

what are contractile cells

A

they consitute most of the atria and ventricles that undergo action potentials; pump the blood thru the body

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88
Q

what are conducting cells

A

a small portion of the myocardial that initate and propagate action potentials that travel throughout the heart

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89
Q

what are intercalated disks

A

the connect cardiac muscle cells to one another as well as hold protein complexes

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90
Q

what are macula adherins similar to in regards to function

A

desmosomes

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91
Q

what are fascia adherins similar to in regards to function

A

adheren junctions

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92
Q

what does a lack in terminal cisterne mean for cardiac muscle

A

it does not interact w/ the t tubule as much

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93
Q

describe the Ca induced Ca release in cardiac muscle contraction

A

there is an influx of Ca from the ECF via the T-tubules that further stimulates the release of Ca from the SR

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94
Q

what two nodes initiate and propagate the contractions of the heart

A

the sinoatrial and the atrioventricular

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95
Q

where is the AV node located in the heart

A

at the boundary between the atria and ventricles

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96
Q

where are the SA node located in the heart

A

the wall of the right atrium

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97
Q

t/f: the AV bundle runs down the intraventricular septum as one contiunous conduit

A

false, at it runs down the septum to the apex it divides into the left and right AV bundles connecting to their respective ventricles

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98
Q

what are Purkinje fibers

A

the branches of the left and right AV bundles that project into the contractile cells allowing for synchronous contraction

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99
Q

what is considered the pacemaker of the heart

A

the sinoatrial node

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100
Q

t/f: all conduction cells are capable of creating a spontaneous contraction

A

true

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101
Q

why cant action potentials move thru the atria ventricle septa

A

because it is connective tissue

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102
Q

describe the initiation and spread of depolarization during a heartbeat

A

depolarization begins in the SA node spreading outward thru the atrial muscle however the spread into the AV node is delayed and the depolarized atria starts to contract. Once the AV node is depolarized the depolarization spreads rapidly to the ventricles, during this time the atrial muscle starts to repolarize. Finally the nearly simultaneous depolarization w/in the ventricular myocardium leads to a strong ventricular contraction

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103
Q

what is the only structure that can transfer action potentials from the atria to the ventricles

A

the AV node

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104
Q

what is the purpose of the delay in the spread of action potentials between the atria and the ventricle

A

this is so the blood has time to be pushed from the atria to the ventricle

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105
Q

how does the wave of depolarization propagate to the ventricular cells in the myocardium

A

thru gap junctions

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106
Q

what type of channel is responsible for inducing an action potential in cardiac muscle

A

voltage gated long lasting Ca channels

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107
Q

is the membrane potential in cardiac muscle typically higher or lower

A

higher

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108
Q

what is the status of the Na, K, and Ca channels when the membrane potential of pacemaker cells depolarize

A

there is an increase in Na (for hyperpolarization) and Ca followed by a outflux of K

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109
Q

does cardiac muscle have a resting membrane potential

A

NO

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110
Q

when do funny channels open

A

during hyperpolarization

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111
Q

what is the proper name for funny channels

A

HCN channels or hyperpolarization activated cyclic nucleotide gated channels

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112
Q

what causes the long plateau phase only found in cardiac muscle cell action potentials

A

an influx in Ca (the key factor of a contractile action potential)

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113
Q

describe the rising phase of a cardiac action potential

A

these are phases 0 & 1 where the fast Na channels open to allow rapid flow to depolarize the cell then the Na channels become blocked and the K channels open for repolarization

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114
Q

describe the plateau phase of cardiac action potentials

A

this is phase 2 where the slow L type Ca channels open prolonging contraction and the K channels close

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115
Q

describe the falling phase of cardiac action potentials

A

this is phase 3 where the Ca channels close and the voltage gated K channels reopen

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116
Q

what is a better name for the “resting potential” for contractile cells

A

pacemaker potential

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117
Q

in the ventricules what channel starts the spread of an action potential

A

voltage gated Na channels

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118
Q

describe the steps of excitation contraction coupling in the heart

A

Ca enters the cytosol thru L type Ca channels in the membrane and t tubules which triggers the release of Ca from the SR once in the cytoplasm Ca binds to troponin-tropomyosin complex allowing the cross bridge cycle to occur

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119
Q

what is the extent and duration of the cross bridge activiy based on in cardiac muscle

A

the amount of cytosolic Ca

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120
Q

does cardiac muscle have a long or short refractory period

A

long (about 250 seconds)

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121
Q

what occurs during a cardiac refractory period

A

the Na channels remain inactive during the plateau phase preventing summation of contractions and tetanus

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122
Q

what is tetanus

A

a phenomenon where there is a maximal sustained contraction for a certain period of time

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123
Q

why is tetanus very bad for the heart

A

tetanus does not allow muscle to relax if this were to occur in the heart it would not be able to fill the ventricle w/ blood

124
Q

what are funny channels the basis for

A

spontaneous depolarization

125
Q

how does the sympathetic nervous system stimulate the SA node

A

A G protein is used as a secondary messenger to open beta receptors stimulating the release of Dentoalocyclase producing cAMP which then binds to the funny channel making it easier to open followed by PKA which then phosphorylates the L type voltage gated Ca channels

126
Q

how does the parasympathetic nervous system stimulate the SA node

A

Muscarinic receptors produce Acetylcholine that binds to G proteins the receptors antagonize cAMP as well as opening voltage gated K channels resulting in a depolarization slowing the rate

127
Q

what are the responses of contractile cardiomyocytes to the sympathetic stimulation

A

Phosphorylation of Ca channels in the plasma membrane causes the Ca channels to remain open during longer action potentials then proteins in the SR enhances release of Ca myosin then increases in the rate of myosin ATPase the speed at which the Ca pumps normally function is increased speeding up the re uptake of Ca into the SR and ECF

128
Q

what affects does ACH have on the HR

A

it slows the rate of spontaneous depolarization by opening K channels

129
Q

what affects does NE and E have on the HR

A

it increases the rate of spontaneous depolarization by making HCN and VGCC channels more likely to open

130
Q

what carries deoxygenated blood from the rest of the body back to the heart which is then pumped to the lungs by the right ventricle

A

veins

131
Q

what carries oxygenated blood from the lungs to the heart to be pumped to the rest of the body by the right ventricle

A

arteries

132
Q

what is a portal system

A

a vessel that directly connects two capillary beds

133
Q

what are the similarities between arteries and veins

A

contains a lumen and has multiple layers

134
Q

what are the differences between arteries and veins

A

shape, thickness of the tunica interna, the presence of elastic membranes

135
Q

what are the three layers of an artery wall

A

tunica externa, tunica media, tunica interna

136
Q

define the tunica intima

A

the inner layer of the wall that comprises of endothelium, the subendothelial connective tissue, and the internal elastic lamina

137
Q

define the tunica media

A

the middle layer of the wall that comprises of smooth muscle cells, elastic lamellae including the external elastic lamina and collegen fibers

138
Q

define the tunica externa

A

the most outer layer that comprises of connective tissue, macrophages, mast cells, fibroblasts, and the nerves and vessels that supply the vascular wall

139
Q

what type of cells do arteris contain the most of

A

smooth muscle cells

140
Q

what is the thickest layer in veins

A

the tunica externa

141
Q

how does the endothelium of the tunica intima appear in arteries

A

wavy

142
Q

how does the endothelium of the tunica intima appear in veins

A

very smooth

143
Q

what is the thickest layer in arteries

A

the tunica media which contains smooth muscle cells and elastic fibers

144
Q

what does the tunica media contain in veins

A

smooth muscle cells, collagenous fibers, Nervi vasorum, and vasa vasorum

145
Q

what does the tunica externa contain in arteries

A

collagenous, elastic fibers, nervi vasorum, and vasa vasorum

146
Q

what are the characteristics of elastic arteries

A

they have more elastic fibers and smooth muscle cells

147
Q

what are the characteristic of muscular arteries

A

a high concentration of smooth muscle cells

148
Q

what are the characteristics of arterioles

A

they have one or two layers of smooth muscle cells, an interanl elastic lamina, and have a small tunica externa, contains a thin layer of collagen and isolated elastic fibers

149
Q

where does the exhange of gasses and nutrients takes place

A

the capillaries

150
Q

what are pericytes

A

perivascular cells that wrap around blood capillaries, small arterioles, and venules

151
Q

t/f: pericytes can constrict and dilate associated capillaries

A

true

152
Q

what do gap junctions connect in capillaries

A

the cytoplasm of endothelial cells and pericytes

153
Q

what are the three types of capillaries

A

continuous, fenestrated, and sinusoid

154
Q

describe continuous capillaries

A

intact endothelium w/ no major gaps containing intercellular junctions to help the cell membrane allow certain materials pass thru example is muscle cells

155
Q

describe fenestrated capillaries

A

they have microscopic holes in them allowing solutes to move more freely between them other than water soluble molecules example is kidneys

156
Q

describe sinusoid capillaries

A

they have major gaps in the endothelium allowing for passage of large molecules example is bone marrow

157
Q

what are the thinnest capillaries important for

A

oxygen diffusion

158
Q

what are venules essentially

A

tubes of endothelium that are either surrounded by pericytes (small) or one to two layers of smooth muscle cells (large)

159
Q

what structure is present in veins to help directionality

A

valves

160
Q

how do skeletal muscles assist in moving blood back to the heart

A

the contraction pushes blood past open valves

161
Q

where is the majority of the blood volume located in the body

A

the systemic circulatory system

162
Q

t/f: the systemic veins are not able to easily store a high volume of blood even at a low pressure

A

false, they are capable of expanding easily allowing them to have a high volume even at low pressure

163
Q

what are veins examples of

A

blood reservoirs

164
Q

what are blood reservoirs

A

excess blood that can be mobilized when needed particularly when the blood volume is low these include the spleen, liver, larger abdominal veins, venous plexus beneath the skin

165
Q

what does increased blood returning to the heart increase

A

end diastolic volume

166
Q

what is a metarteriole

A

a branch from the arteriole that meets w/ the thoroughfare from the venule that is the main point of gas exchange in capillaries

167
Q

what are precapillary spincters

A

smooth muscle cells that broken away from the arteriole into the capillary bed forming a ring of smooth muscle around the blood vessels

168
Q

what is a vascular shunt

A

when the sphincters contract cutting off the blood from the capillaries forcing the blood back into the venule

169
Q

what is autoregulation of BP

A

when the brain or heart tells sphinters to constrict blood flow in the capillaries of extremities in cold temperatures

170
Q

how do you find the MAP

A

take the diastolic plus the pulse pressure then divide it by 3

171
Q

what do continuous capillaries have in their cell membrane that allows for diffusion of water and other small materials

A

slit like gaps/clefts

172
Q

how are plasma proteins such as albumin passed thru the cell membrane

A

they are packaged by the cell membrane then fused w/ the plasma membrane then diffused in the ICF

173
Q

how are exchangeable proteins moved thru the cell membrane

A

thru the vesicular transport

174
Q

what is interstitial fluid a result of

A

the blood filtering thru the capillaries maintaining homeostasis by pushing some of the liquid in the veinous of the capillaries derived by filtration and diffusion

175
Q

how is interstitial fluid compare to plasma

A

it contains all the same components but is lower in the concentration of proteins

176
Q

what are proteoglycan filaments

A

thin coiled or twisted molecules composed of about 98% hyaluronic acid and 2 % protein

177
Q

what is the consistency of proteoglycan filaments

A

gel like

178
Q

what is the formula for ECF

A

plasma + interstitial fluid

179
Q

what qualities does the filtration from the heart have

A

high MAP, rich oxygen, and rich in nutrients

180
Q

what qualities does reabsorption to the heart have

A

low MAP, poor in oxygen, and poor in nutrients

181
Q

what is bulk flow

A

the mass movement of fluids into and out of capillary beds requires transport processes that are more efficient than diffusion alone

182
Q

what is filtration

A

how fluid moves from an area of higher pressure in a capillary bed to an area of lower pressure in the tissue

183
Q

what is reabsorption

A

the movement of fluid from an area of higher pressure in the tissues into an area of lower pressure in the capillaries

184
Q

t/f: small molecules can create an osmotic gradient

A

false only large molecules

185
Q

what does an increase in pressure in the atria end show

A

a net increase in hydrostatic pressure

186
Q

what does an increase in pressure in the venous end show

A

a net decrease in osmotic pressure

187
Q

what does a high albumin in the area of gas exchange equal

A

an increase in venous pressure

188
Q

what generates hydrostatic pressure

A

gravity and blood pressure

189
Q

what does hydrostatic pressure create

A

Net Filtration Pressure (NFP)

190
Q

what generates osmotic pressure

A

plasma proteins

191
Q

what does mean capillary pressure typically stay at

A

17 mm Hg

192
Q

what is blood pressure

A

the measurement of the pressure or force of blood inside your arteries

193
Q

what is the formula for blood pressure

A

cardiac output (C.O) * total peripheral resistance (T.P.R)

194
Q

what is the formula for cardiac output

A

heart rate * stroke volume

195
Q

what things can increase heart rate

A

sympathetic nervous system, hormones, and ions

196
Q

what things can decrease heart rate

A

parasympathetic nervous system and ions

197
Q

what is are the three aspects to stroke volume

A

preload, contractility, and afterload

198
Q

what is preload

A

volume of the blood that reaches the heart

199
Q

how can preload be increased

A

by drinking water and increasing the mobilization from blood reservoirs from various organs in the body

200
Q

what does a greater stretch of the heart muscle do

A

it allows the heart to use a greater force when pushing blood to the rest of the body

201
Q

what is contractility

A

the addition of hormones and chemicals in the blood such as epinephrine and T4 will increase the stroke volume

202
Q

what type of control increases venous return to affect end diastolic volume and later stroke volume

A

intrinsic control

203
Q

what control increases sympathetic activity

A

extrinsic control

204
Q

what is the formula for flow

A

delta P/R

205
Q

what is pressure differential called

A

pulse pressure

206
Q

what is the formula for resistance

A

8nL/pier^4

207
Q

what directly affects the resistance

A

viscosity of blood, the length of blood vessels, and radius of the vessels

208
Q

what has the biggest affect on resistance

A

the radius of the vessels

209
Q

what is vasoconstriction

A

when the diameter/radius of blood vessels is constricted decreasing blood flow

210
Q

what is vasodialation

A

when the diameter/radius of blood vessels are dialated to increase blood flow

211
Q

what are important evolutionary adaptations that are required to breath in air

A

lungs, alveoli that are coated w/ water, and mucus coats

212
Q

what is the role of mucus coats

A

they are designed to keep the upper respiratory tract moist

213
Q

what happens when you breath

A

you create a negative pressure that allows passive effusion to take place

214
Q

what is the role of the epiglottis

A

to close off the trachea keeping food from entering the lung and vis versa w/ the esophagus

215
Q

what is the path of external respiration

A

from the nose to the sinuses to the trachea

216
Q

what critical adaptation does the trachea have and what is its purpose

A

the hyaline cartilage keeps the structure of the trachea as negative and positive pressure causes it to collapse and expand

217
Q

what is the carina

A

the ridge of cartilage that contains specialized nervous tissue that induces violent coughing if foreign material contacts it

218
Q

what are bronchi

A

they are progressive branches in the lungs that eventually become terminal bronchioles and respiratory bronchioles

219
Q

what is found at the end of the bronchioles

A

alveolar sacs

220
Q

what is the alveoli

A

sacs where true respiration takes place via gas exchange

221
Q

what is the cardiac notch

A

a space present on the left lung due to it sharing space w/ the heart

222
Q

what truly allows for the alveoli to deposit oxygen into RBC’s

A

capillaries running across the alveoli and connecting to them

223
Q

what is the respiratory membrane

A

where the capillary wall meets the alveolar wall

224
Q

what are alveolar pores

A

they connect neighboring alveoli to each other to help maintain equal air pressure throughout the lung

225
Q

what are type 1 alveolar cells

A

a squamous epithelial cell of the alveoli that constitutes most of the alveolar surface area

226
Q

what are type 2 alveolar cells

A

the secrete pulmonary surfactant a substance that reduces the surface tension of the alveoli and they work interspersed among type 1 cells

227
Q

what are alveolar macrophages

A

the remove debris and pathogens that have reached the alveoli they are considered phagocytic cell of the immune system

228
Q

what is the unit of air exchange in lungs

A

the air blood

229
Q

what makes up the respirtory membrane

A

epithelial cell and type 1 alveolar cells

230
Q

what is a distinct feature of type 2 alveolar cells

A

they consist of lamellar bodies that contain phospholipid precursors to pulmonary surfactant

231
Q

why do water and air molecules have a high attraction for each other in the lungs

A

hydrogen bonding

232
Q

what does lung (pulmonary) surfactant greatly reduce

A

the surface tension of water

233
Q

what is pulmonary surfactant

A

a major phospholipid called (DPPC) that consists of two C16 palmitic acid groups attached to a phosphatidylicholine head group

234
Q

what happens to surface tension w/o surfactant

A

the attractive forces create high surface tension pulling molecules together causing a collapse

235
Q

what are the three roles of surfactant

A

regulate alveolar size, keeps alveoli dry, and participates in innate immune function

236
Q

what is opsonization

A

protein that can bind to the back of bacteria which are then targeted by phagocytes

237
Q

what is the visceral pleura

A

the layer that attached to the lungs

238
Q

what is the parietal pleura

A

the outer layer that connects to the thoracic wall, the diaphragm, and mediastinum

239
Q

what is the function and location of the intercostal muscle

A

it surrounds the pleural cavity and it pulls down the rib cage and pushes air out of the lung

240
Q

what is the purpose of the small gap between the lung tissue and the intercostal muscle

A

it contains a small amount of fluid keeping the organs moist

241
Q

is the lung directly attached to the ribcage

A

NO

242
Q

What is pleural fluid

A

it is secreted by both pleural layers and acts to lubricate their surfaces and creates surface tension that helps maintain the position of the lungs against the thoracic wall

243
Q

what is atmospheric pressure

A

the pressure exerted by the weight of the gas in the atmosphere on objects on the Earth’s surface (760 mm Hg at sea level)

244
Q

what is intra alveolar pressure

A

the pressure w/in the alveoli (when equal to atmospheric pressure it is 760 mm Hg)

245
Q

what is intrapleural pressure

A

the pressure w/in the pleural sac that is exerted outside the lungs w/in the pleural cavity, typically less that atmospheric pressure

246
Q

what is the purpose of the pleural cavity producing a negative pressure

A

it allows the lung to slide along the ribcage but does not allow them to be pulled from the ribcage

247
Q

what does surface tension of the pleural fluid provide

A

cohesion between the lung and the thoracic wall

248
Q

what allows the lung to maintain the correct amount of pleural fluid in the lung

A

the continual removal of excess pleural fluid

249
Q

what happens if there is too much fluid in the pleural cavity

A

a collapsed lung

250
Q

what can cause an accumulation of air in the pleural cavity

A

chest injury, lung disease, ruptured air blisters, and mechanical ventilation

251
Q

what is the relationship between BP and BV

A

the smaller the BV the higher the BP

252
Q

what is plumonary ventilation (breathing)

A

inspiration and expiration

253
Q

what is external respiration

A

gas exchange between alveolar capillaries and the alveoli

254
Q

what is internal respiration

A

oxygen movement from blood into tissues; carbon dioxide from tissues into the blood

255
Q

what is pressure

A

gas molecules exerting force on surfaces w/ which they contact

256
Q

how do gasses normally present themselves

A

as a mixture of different types of gases

257
Q

what is partial pressure

A

the pressure of a single gas w/in a mixture of gases

258
Q

what is Dalton’s law

A

the total pressure of an ideal gas mixture is the sum of the partial pressures of the gases in the mixture

259
Q

what are the three gases typically found in a mixture

A

N2, O2, and CO2

260
Q

where does a gas typically move to

A

an area with a lower partial pressure

261
Q

what is the partial pressure for O2

A

158.8 mm Hg

262
Q

what is the partial pressure for CO2

A

.3

263
Q

what is alveolar air

A

the compostion and partial pressure of air in the alveoli

264
Q

what is the partial pressure of O2 in the alveoli

A

104 mm Hg

265
Q

what is the partial pressure of CO2 in the alveoli

A

40 mm Hg

266
Q

what is involved in inspiration

A

contraction of skeletal muscles (inhale)

267
Q

what is involved in expiration

A

the relaxation of skeletal muscle (exhale)

268
Q

what are the two muscle groups used during normal inspiration

A

diaphragm and the external intercostal muscles

269
Q

what are the accessory muscles of inspiration (forceful inspiration)

A

sternocleidomastoid and scalenus

270
Q

what are the muscles used during active expiration

A

internal intercostal muscles and the abdominal muscles

271
Q

are the lungs themselves involved with creating the movement that helps inspiration and expiration

A

no

272
Q

what controls respiration in the nervous system

A

the respiratory center

273
Q

how are the neural impulses sent from the respiratory center to the diaphragm

A

phrenic nerves

274
Q

what is the pre-Botzinger complex

A

a group of pacemaker neurons that spontaneously depolarize, initiate action potentials, and repolarize in a rhythmic fashion establishing respiratory rate

275
Q

where is the respiratory center located in the brain

A

the medulla and the pons region

276
Q

what groups are located in the medulla

A

the ventral respiratory group and the dorsal respiratory group

277
Q

what groups are located in the pons region

A

pneumotaxic and apneustic center

278
Q

where is the pre-Botzinger complex located

A

directly above the ventral respiratory group

279
Q

what is the dorsal respiratory group (DRG)

A

it sends efferent signals to maintain to constant breathing rhythm by stimulating the diaphragm and intercostal muscles to contract, the neurons continue to produce action potentials even in the absence of external afferent signals, as well as influenced by afferent inputs from stretch receptors and chemoreceptors

280
Q

what is the ventral respiratory group

A

it contains both inspiratory and expiratory neurons that primarily become active during excercise and stress which is involved w/ force breathing

281
Q

what are the pontine respiratory groups responsible for

A

regulating the rate of breathing (pneumotaxic) and the duration of inspiration (apneustic) as well as regulating the DRG neurons

282
Q

what are the two things that can stimulate the medulla influencing the respiratory rate

A

PCO2 and pH

283
Q

what are central chemoreceptors

A

they are medullary cells responsible for monitoring CO2

284
Q

how do the central chemoreceptors respond to elevated CO2 levels

A

the respiratory centers stimulate an increase in respiration rate to expel more CO2 by responding w/ an increase in H+

285
Q

what are peripheral chemoreceptors

A

they are specialized receptors located in the carotid arteries and the aortic arch that are made to increases afferent signals to the respiratory centers in response to a decrease in pH and oxygen as well as an increase in CO2 (partial pressure)

286
Q

because the body doesn’t compensate for a decrease in PaO2 (monitored by the carotid bodies) until it falls well below normal what is assumed

A

under normal circumstances oxygen plays no role in the stimulation to breath

287
Q

what other signals can alter breathing

A

increase production of lactic acid, arterial H+, and alveolar ventilation and the stimulation of peripheral chemoreceptors and medullary inspiration neurons

288
Q

what is a heme

A

the prosthetic group (non-amino part) in hemoglobin

289
Q

how many oxygen atoms can each hemoglobin hold

A

4 one for each heme

290
Q

what is HbO2

A

oxyhemoglobin

291
Q

what is HbCO2

A

carbaminohemoglobin

292
Q

what is HHb

A

reduced hemoglobin

293
Q

what are the two states hemoglobin can exist in

A

relaxed (R) and tense (T)

294
Q

what is the difference between the two hemoglobin states

A

the amount of affinity to oxygen respectively

295
Q

what percentage of blood from a sample of arterial blood is HbO2

A

98.5%

296
Q

what is cooperativity

A

as each molecule of oxygen is bound it further facilitates the binding of the next molecule, until all four heme sites are occupied by oxygen

297
Q

what are the three major mechanisms that can transport CO2 into a RBC

A

CO2 is dissolved in the blood plasma, CO2 is transported in th eform of HCO3- (bicarbonate) which also dissolves in the plasma, and CO2 is transported by erythocytes

298
Q

what is Le Chatelier’s principle

A

if a stress is placed on a system at equilibrium, the system will proceed in a direction that minimizes the stress such as concentration, pressure, and temperature

299
Q

describe Chloride shift

A

CO2 moves down the concentration gradient dissolving into the RBC binding to the hemoglobin the CO2 quickly turns into Carbonic acid which gets pushed out of the RBC as chloride is pushed in this causes the pH of the RBC to decrease allowing the oxygen to unbind from hemoglobin releasing it from the cell

300
Q

what is the Bohr effect

A

H+ binds to the Heme group that decreases the binding of oxygen when H+ is elevated

301
Q

what is the carbamino effect

A

the decrease in the affinity of Hb for oxygen in the presence of CO2 NOT THE BINDING OF CO2 TO A HEME PORTION

302
Q

what happens to CO2 once oxygen is bound to hemoglobin

A

the binding releases CO2 and H+ dissociating CO2 from the RBC

303
Q

what is Haidane Effect

A

displacement of CO2 w/ high O2

304
Q

what does low oxygen in tissues do to O2 dissociation from hemoglobin

A

it improves it

305
Q

what does low pH in tissues do to O2 dissociation from hemoglobin

A

it improves it

306
Q

what does high pH in tissues do to O2 dissociation from hemoglobin

A

it reduces it

307
Q

what does low PO2 and low pH/high PCO2 increase

A

the off loading of oxygen in the vicinity of actively metabolizing tissues

Phys of Domestic Animals 1 (4 decks)

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