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parasitology > exam 3 > Flashcards

exam 3 Flashcards

1
Q

dictyocaulus spp common name

A

ruminant lungworm

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2
Q

dictyocaulus spp location

A

trachea and bronchi

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3
Q

dictyocaulus viviparus main host

A

cattle

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4
Q

dictyocaulus filaria main host

A

small ruminants

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5
Q

dictyocaulus spp are trichostrongyles, their lifecycle is ___

A

direct

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6
Q

dictyocaulus spp shed stage

A

L1

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7
Q

dictyocaulus spp infective stage

A

L3

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8
Q

dictyocaulus spp transmission route

A

ingestion of L3 while grazing

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9
Q

dictyocaulus spp have hypobiosis at which stage

A

L4

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10
Q

___ can faciliate the spread of dictyocaulus larvae

A

pilobolus fungi

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11
Q

dictyocaulus pathogenesis

A

intermittent coughing - “husk”
bronchitis, pneumonia, resp. distress

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12
Q

dictyocaulus distribution

A

temperate climates with high rainfall

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13
Q

dictyocaulus dx

A

baermann method

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14
Q

control of dictyocaulus

A

vaccination

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15
Q

protostrongylus rufescens and muellerius capillaris main host

A

small ruminants

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16
Q

prostrongylus rufescens and muellerius capillaris site

A

lung parenchyma

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17
Q

prostrongylus and muellerius are protostrongylids, the common name is

A

small lungworms

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18
Q

protostrongylids IH

A

gastropod (snail)

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19
Q

protostrongylids pathology

A

lung lesions

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20
Q

protostrongylids shed stage

A

L1

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21
Q

protostrongylids infective stage

A

L3

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22
Q

unique morphology of muellerius L1

A

kinked tail and dorsal spine

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23
Q

protostrongylid development in IH is ___ dependent

A

temperature

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24
Q

protostrongylid L3 are ____

A

environmentally resistant

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25
Q

parelaphostrongylus tenuis common name

A

brain worm/meningeal worm

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26
Q

parelaphostrongylus DH

A

white tailed deer

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27
Q

parelaphostrongylus dead-end hosts are cattle, sheep, goat, alpacas and horses, in these hosts they cause

A

severe neurological disease

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28
Q

contributed to moose population decline

A

parelaphostrongylus

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29
Q

parelaphostrongylus spill over from

A

WTD

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30
Q

parelaphostrongylus shed stage

A

L1

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31
Q

parelaphostrongylus IH

A

slugs/snails

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32
Q

morphology of brainworm L1

A

kinked tail and dorsal spine

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33
Q

thelazia spp common name

A

eyeworm

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34
Q

thelazia morphology

A

small thin yellowish

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35
Q

thelazia pathology

A

lacrimation
conjunctivitis
photophobia
severe - opaque cornea

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36
Q

setaria spp common name

A

bovine abdominal filariosis

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37
Q

setaria main hosts

A

cattle, buffalo

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38
Q

adult setaria site

A

peritoneum, pleural cavity

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39
Q

microfilaria setaria site

A

blood

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40
Q

setaria IH

A

mosquitoes

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41
Q

setaria pathogenesis normally has little clinical significance, but what can occur when nervous tissue is affected

A

locomotor disturbances in the hindlimbs

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42
Q

stephanofilaria stilesi common name

A

dermal nematode of cattle

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43
Q

stephanofilaria site

A

dermis (L1), hair follicles (adults)

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44
Q

stephanofilaria IH

A

hornfly

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45
Q

stephanofilaria pathology

A

granulomatous and ulcerative lesions on the skin
cyst-like structures at the base of hair follicles, flanks, udder, face and neck

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46
Q

true or false: stephanofilaria can recur for years

A

true

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47
Q

true or false: resistance in stephanofilaria

A

true

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48
Q

moniezia spp common name

A

ruminant tapeworm

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49
Q

moniezia benedeni DH

A

cattle, buffalo

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50
Q

moniezia expansa DH

A

sheep, goat

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51
Q

moniezia infection is common in ____ and is seasonal

A

first year calves

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52
Q

moniezia IH

A

forage/grain mites

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53
Q

moniezia infective stage

A

cysticercoid

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54
Q

moniezia dx

A

mcmaster - square or diamond shaped eggs

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55
Q

thysanosoma actinioides common name

A

fringed tapeworm

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56
Q

thysanosoma actinioides DH

A

cattle, sheep, deer

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57
Q

thysanosoma actinioides site

A

small intestine, bile and pancreatic ducts

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58
Q

thysanosoma actinioides morphology

A

segments short and fringes posteriorly

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59
Q

what is the economic loss of thysanosoma

A

condemnation of livers

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60
Q

thysanosoma eggs

A

egg packets

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61
Q

ruminants are intermediate hosts of ____, meaning they will only have the metacestode stage

A

larval tapeworms

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62
Q

when are larval tapeworms normally dx in ruminants

A

necropsy or meat inspection

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63
Q

cysticercus bovis IH

A

cattle

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64
Q

cysticercus bovis metacestode site

A

muscle, heart

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65
Q

cysticercus ovis IH

A

sheep and goats

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66
Q

cysticercus ovis metacestode site

A

muscle

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67
Q

cysticercus tenuicollis IH

A

sheep, goats, cattle, pigs

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68
Q

cysticercus tenuicollis metacestode site

A

liver, peritoneal cavity

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69
Q

coenurus cerebalis IH

A

sheep

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70
Q

coenurus cerebralis metacestode site

A

brain, cns

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71
Q

hydatid cyst IH

A

ruminants, pigs, humans

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72
Q

hydatid metacestode site

A

lungs, liver

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73
Q

cysticercus bovis common name

A

beef measles

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74
Q

cysticercus bovis is the larval stage of

A

taenia saginata

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75
Q

cysticercus bovis affects the muscles of

A

heart, diaphragm, tongue, jaw

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76
Q

hydatid cyst is the larval stage of

A

echinococcus granulosus

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77
Q

cysticercus ovis is the larval stage of

A

taenia ovis

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78
Q

most important pathological lesion found in imported meat from australia

A

cysticercus ovis

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79
Q

coenuriosis is the larval stage of

A

taenia multiceps

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80
Q

coenuriosis site

A

cerebral parenchyma of sheep

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81
Q

how can humans get coenurosis

A

ingestion of t. multiceps eggs (not by eating the cyst)

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82
Q

fluke IH

A

snail (gastropods)

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83
Q

fasciola hepatica common name

A

common liver fluke

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84
Q

fasciola hepatica DH

A

ruminants

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85
Q

fasciola hepatica location

A

biliary ducts, gall bladder

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86
Q

number 1 fluke problem for grazing sheep and goats

A

fasciola hepatica

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87
Q

fascioloides magna common name

A

giant liver fluke

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88
Q

fascioloides magna DH

A

deer, moose
- cattle dead end
- sheep/goats incidental

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89
Q

fascioloides magna location

A

liver, rarely lungs and intestine

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90
Q

fascioloides magna distribution

A

north america

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91
Q

dicrocoelium spp common name

A

lancet fluke
zombie ant fluke

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92
Q

dicrocoelium spp DH

A

cattle, sheep, goats, pigs

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93
Q

dicrocoelium location

A

biliary ducts, gall bladder

94
Q

dicrocoelium second IH

A

ants

95
Q

paramphistomum spp common name

A

rumen fluke

96
Q

T or F: fasciola hepatica is zoonotic

A

true

97
Q

liver fluke shed stage

A

eggs

98
Q

liver fluke infective stage

A

metacercariae

99
Q

f. hepatica pathology

A

subclinical usually
anemia, hypoalbuminaemia, submandibular edema, calcified bile ducts”pipe stem liver”

100
Q

f. hepatica acute pathology in lambs/calves

A

severe hemorrhage of liver
sudden death

101
Q

fluke dx

A

sedimentation

102
Q

how can humans get hepatic fascioliasis

A

ingestion of metacercaria, usually from contaminated watercress

103
Q

fascioloides magna common name

A

giant liver fluke

104
Q

main hosts of f. magna

A

deer, elk, caribou

105
Q

dead end hosts of f. magna

A

cattle, moose, small ruminants

106
Q

why is f. magna usually fatal in sheep

A

extensive uninterrupted hepatic migration without encapsulation

107
Q

why is control of f. magna difficult

A

has a wildlife reservoir

108
Q

dicrocoelium dendriticum common name

A

zombie ant fluke, lancet fluke

109
Q

d. dendriticum site

A

bile duct

110
Q

d. dendriticum IH

A

land snails and ants

111
Q

why is d. dendriticum called the zombie ant fluke

A

causes behavioral manipulation of ants to inc chances of transmission

112
Q

flagellates that infect ruminants

A

tritrichomonas fetus
giardia

113
Q

intestinal apicomplexa that infect ruminants

A

eimeria
cryptosporidium

114
Q

systemic apicomplexa that infect ruminants

A

neospora
toxoplasma
sarcocystis

115
Q

blood apicomplexa that infect ruminants

A

babesia

116
Q

tritrichomonas foetus site

A

genital mucosa of cows and bulls

117
Q

tritrichomonas is ____ transmitted

A

sexually

118
Q

tritrichomonas effect on infected cows

A

early embryonic death
infertility

119
Q

infective stage of tritrichomonas

A

trophozoites
- no free living or cyst stage

120
Q

dx of tritrichomonas

A

epidemiological clues - 50-80% open cows
culture and PCR

121
Q

control of tritrichomonas

A

cull infected bulls

122
Q

ruminants may act as a source of zoonotic infections for which protozoa

A

giardia

123
Q

dx of giardia in ruminants

A

fecal flotation (ZnSO4)

124
Q

eimeria site

A

GIT

125
Q

eimeria causes

A

coccidiosis

126
Q

ordinary coccidiosis infects

A

young calves 2-6m
any time of year

127
Q

winter coccidiosis

A

cold snap/winter stress
first month of confinement
no oocyst in feces

128
Q

nervous coccidiosis

A

nervous signs
high mortality
feedlot cattle during winter
large # oocysts in feces
Canada and N. US

129
Q

risk factors for coccidiosis

A

extreme weather changes
dirty env
stress

130
Q

clinical signs of eimeria

A

bloody mucous diarrhea
dehydration, pale mucous membrane
prolapse of rectal membrane

131
Q

which crypto species is most important and affects calves <1m, sheep, goat, horses and humans

A

c. parvum

132
Q

T or F: crypto oocysts are immediately infective

A

T

133
Q

pathogenesis of c. parvum

A

debilitating diarrhea in calves
damage to villi

134
Q

treatment of cryptosporidiosis

A

fluids
electrolytes
colostrum to calves

135
Q

implication of c. parvum resistance to chlorine

A

can get infected through pools

136
Q

major cause of bovine aportion among dairy cows

A

neospora caninum

137
Q

tranmission of neospora in cows

A

transplacental

138
Q

most common cause of infectious abortion in sheep and goat

A

toxoplasmosis

139
Q

how is toxoplasmosis transmitted to the fetus, causing necrosis

A

via bloodstream to placental cotyledons

140
Q

how do ruminants get infected with toxoplasmosis

A

accidental ingestion of oocysts via contaminated water or vegetables

141
Q

sarcocystis site

A

tissues/muscles

142
Q

pathogenesis of sarcocystis

A

direct destruction of vascular endothelial and muscle cells
hair loss around eyes, neck, tail (rat tail)

143
Q

shed stage of sarcocystis

A

sporocyst with 4 sporozoites

144
Q

babesia is transmitted by

A

ticks

145
Q

babesia pathogenesis

A

pyrexia, haemoglobinuria, anemia, icterus, splenomegaly, hepatomegaly, dark colored urine, neurologic signs

146
Q

what can be seen in babesia infected RBCs

A

apple seed like merozoites

147
Q

surface mites of ruminants

A

chorioptes sp
psoroptes sp

148
Q

burrowing mites of ruminants

A

sarcoptes sp
demodex sp

149
Q

at what time of the year is chorioptes common

A

winter

150
Q

pathogenesis of chorioptes

A

severe localized pruritis
alopecia, crusting, oozing, +/- ulcers

151
Q

T or F: chorioptes is highly contagious between different species

A

T

152
Q

at what time of year and where is psoroptes common

A

winter, europe

153
Q

pathogenesis of psoroptes

A

severe generalized pruritis

154
Q

is psorptes contagious

A

contagious only between same species

155
Q

what mite has the common names:
leg mange, foot and tail mange, symbiotic mange, barn itch

A

chorioptic mange

156
Q

most common type of mange in ruminants in the US

A

chorioptic mange

157
Q

where does chorioptic mange usually begin

A

legs - may spread to scrotum in rams

158
Q

what is the US distribution of psoroptic mange

A

southwestern US

159
Q

sarcoptic mange pathogenesis

A

intense pruritis
follicular papules and crusts
skin thickening

160
Q

demodectic mange is caused by

A

infestation in the hair follicles

161
Q

demodectic mange pathogenesis

A

non pruritic papules and nodules

162
Q

surface mites dx

A

KOH digest of superficial skin scrape

163
Q

rhipicephalus (boophilus) tick common name

A

cattle fever ticks

164
Q

where is CFT endemic

A

south Texas, Mexico

165
Q

cattle tick transmits

A

babesia spp
anaplasma

166
Q

haemophysalis longicornis common name

A

asian long horn tick

167
Q

asian long horn tick is a 3 host species, with the adults on LA and the larvae/nymph on ___

A

birds
small mammals

168
Q

dermacentor albipictus common name

A

winter tick/moose tick

169
Q

pathogenesis of d. albipictus

A

hairless syndrome

170
Q

how many hosts does d. albipictus have

A

1

171
Q

otobius megnini (soft tick) common name

A

spinose ear tick

172
Q

how many hosts does o. megnini have

A

1

173
Q

T or F: all stages of o. megnini are parasitic

A

F - only larvae and nymph, adults are free living

174
Q

chewing lice of ruminants

A

darnalina spp

175
Q

sucking lice of ruminants

A

haematopinus spp
linognathus vituli
solenopotes capillatus

176
Q

what time of year is lice a problem in ruminants

A

winter

177
Q

hypoderma spp common name

A

cattle bot flies/cattle grubs

178
Q

where do larvae of hypoderma bovis overwinter

A

epidural fat of the spinal cord

179
Q

if h. bovis larvae are killed, what is the pathogenesis

A

stiffness, ataxia
muscular weakness
hindlimb paralysis

180
Q

where do larvae of hypoderma lineatum overwinter

A

sub mucosa of the esophagus

181
Q

if h. lineatum larvae are killed, what is the pathogenesis

A

inflammation of esophageal wall
dysphagia, drooling, bloat

182
Q

cochliomyia hominivoraz common name

A

new world screworm

183
Q

c. hominovoraz pathogenesis

A

larvae feed on raw flesh of host - big gaping wounds exposing bone

184
Q

oetrus ovis common name

A

nasal bot fly of sheep

185
Q

calliphorids common name

A

blowflies of sheep

186
Q

pathogenesis of blowfly larvae

A

hatch on the skin and feed on tissues

187
Q

risk factors for blowflies

A

warm humid weather
wounds
dirty wool sheep

188
Q

blood feeding flies of ruminants

A

black fly
horn fly
sheep ked

189
Q

simulium spp common name

A

black fly

190
Q

haematobia irritans common name

A

horn fly

191
Q

melophagus ovinus common name

A

sheep ked

192
Q

which fly feeds on ocular and nasal secretions

A

musca autumnalis - face fly

193
Q

which fly is a vicious biter which only breeds in running water

A

simulium - black fly

194
Q

pathogenesis of biting flies in cattle

A

harassment
anemia - rare
dermatitis
hypersensitivity
pathogen transmission

195
Q

which fly species is a permanent ectoparasite and resembles a tick

A

sheep ked

196
Q

sheep ked can be a host for what blood protozoa

A

trypanosoma melaphagium

197
Q

defect in hide due to allergic skin hypersensitivity caused by sheep ked

A

cockle

198
Q

stomach worms of horses

A

drashia megastoma
habronema muscae
habronema microstoma

199
Q

which species of stomach fly resides in tumor like swellings in the stomach

A

draschia

200
Q

which species of stomach worm resides in the mucosal surface

A

habronema

201
Q

IH of stomach worms

A

housefly, stable fly

202
Q

cutaneous habronemiasis

A

summer sores - granulomatous skin reactions

203
Q

pulmonary habronemiasis

A

small hazelnut-like nodules around the bronchi

204
Q

ascarids (roundworms) of horses

A

parascaris equorum
parascaris univalens

205
Q

parasite of foals with a high worm count at around 5m of age

A

parascaris spp

206
Q

parascaris goes through ___ migration

A

hepato-tracheal

207
Q

pathogenesis of parascaris

A

physical damage of liver, lungs, intestine

208
Q

strongyloides westeri common name

A

equine threadworm

209
Q

strongyloides westeri pathogenesis

A

small intestinal enteritis - diarrhea
resp. signs - larvae migrating to lung
cutaneous lesions

210
Q

strongyloides westeri transmission routes

A

transmammary - most significant
skin penetration
oral

211
Q

strongylus vulgaris common name

A

blood worm (large strongyle)

212
Q

strongylus site

A

cecum and colon

213
Q

strongylus transmission route

A

feco-oral on pasture

214
Q

where do the strongylus larvae migrate and hang out for 4m

A

aorta

215
Q

strongylus vulgaris pathogenesis

A

verminous arteritis
thrombus - may lead to necrosis

216
Q

cyathostomins common name

A

small strongyles of horses

217
Q

T or F: cyathostomins migrate beyond the mucous membrane

A

F

218
Q

where do cyathostomins larvae undergo hypobiosis

A

large intestine mucosa

219
Q

simultaneous emergence of cyathostomes in late winter/early spring causing the clinical syndrome

A

larval cyathostomiasis

220
Q

larval cyathostomiasis pathogenesis

A

watery diarrhea, severe colic - mortality up to 50%
hypoproteinemia, hypoalbuminemia

221
Q

necropsy findings of larval cyathostomiasis

A

mucosal hyperemia
hemorrhage
congestion
ulceration or necrosis

222
Q

oxyuris equi common name

A

pinworm - large intestinal nematode

223
Q

oxyuris equi site

A

cecum, colon, rectum, perianal region

224
Q

who is most susceptible to oxyuris equi

A

stabled horses, poor hygiene

225
Q

clinical signs of pinworms

A

tail rubbing, automutilation

226
Q

anoplocephala perfoliata common name

A

equine tapeworm

227
Q

anoplocephala perfoliata site

A

ileum and cecum

228
Q

anoplocephala IH

A

free living mites

229
Q

how is anoplocephala transmitted

A

pasture

230
Q

cause of spasmodic colic in horses

A

anoplocephala

231
Q

anoplocephala has a (high or low) prevalence

A

high

232
Q

how can eggs of anoplocephala perfoliata be identified

A

pyriform apparatus containing hexacanth embryo

parasitology (4 decks)

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