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parasitology > exam 1 > Flashcards

exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

which type of parasite can be described as a “tube within a tube”

A

roundworms - nematodes

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2
Q

roundworms are _____ meaning they have a body cavity filled with fluid under pressure

A

pseudocoelomates

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3
Q

roundworms exhibit ____, inhibited larval development to avoid adverse conditions for development and maturation

A

hypobiosis

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4
Q

dorsoventrally flattened worm with segmented body, no GIT and covered in tegument

A

tapeworms - cestodes

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5
Q

tapeworms infect by forming a ____, infective larvae in the tissues in the final IH

A

metacestode

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6
Q

how do tapeworms reproduce

A

self/cross fertilization

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7
Q

what is the intermediate host for tapeworms

A

vertebrates; some arthropods

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8
Q

infective stage of tapeworms

A

metacestode

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9
Q

what is the organ of attachment for cyclophilidea tapeworms

A

suckers

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10
Q

how are the eggs of cyclophilidea tapeworms

A

with hooks, non-operculated

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11
Q

what is the organ of attachment for pseudophylidea tapeworms

A

bothria

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12
Q

how are the eggs of pseudophylidea tapeworms

A

with operculum (cap)

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13
Q

leaf like body with 2 suckers, incomplete GIT, non-segmented and covered by tegument with operculated eggs

A

flukes - trematodes

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14
Q

first IH of flukes

A

snail

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15
Q

dx of flukes by

A

fecal sedimentation

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16
Q

main hosts swine and canine; retractable spiny attachment, no GIT

A

thorny-headed worms - acantheocephalans

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17
Q

IH of thorny headed worms

A

beetle

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18
Q

identifying parts of a mite

A

pedicel and caruncle
celicera mouthpart
anus and anal plate

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19
Q

where is the mites’ lifecycle done

A

entire cycle on host

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20
Q

which type of lice has stout mandibles with its head wider than the thorax

A

chewing/biting lice

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21
Q

main host of chewing lice

A

birds

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22
Q

type of lice with piercing mouthparts and head narrower than thorax

A

sucking louse

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23
Q

main host of sucking louse

A

mammals

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24
Q

what parasite group has 5 nymph instar stages

A

bugs

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25
Q

maggots; fly larvae in the tissue

A

myiasis

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26
Q

how do flagellates reproduce

A

asexually by binary fission

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27
Q

lifecycle of mucoflagellates

A

direct

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28
Q

lifecycle of hemoflagellates

A

indirect

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29
Q

IH of hemoflagellates

A

blood sucking insects

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30
Q

lifecycle and reproduction of intestinal coccidia

A

direct; sexual gametogony

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31
Q

lifecycle and reproduction of systemic coccidia

A

indirect; asexual (IH) and sexual (H)

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32
Q

IH of systemic coccidia

A

mammals

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33
Q

lifecycle and reproduction of blood coccidia

A

indirect; asexual (RBC) and sexual (ticks)

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34
Q

IH of blood coccidia

A

ticks

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35
Q

which coccidia is transmitted by ingestion of sporulated cysts

A

systemic

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36
Q

what type of dx test would be good for moving protozoa or mobile amoeba

A

direct fecal smear

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37
Q

most common fecal test

A

fecal flotation

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38
Q

types of fecal flotation

A

passive/standing
centrifugal

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39
Q

why is centrifugal flotation the better method

A

more sensitive

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40
Q

modified passive fecal flotation to increase sensitivity; common to dx helminths in livestock

A

McMaster method

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41
Q

dx test for eggs with higher specific gravity that don’t float easily

A

fecal sedimentation

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42
Q

dx test for parasites that shed larvae in the feces; a fresh sample must be used

A

baerrmann method

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43
Q

dx test for when L3s are morphologically distinguishable

A

coproculture

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44
Q

limitations of fecal tests

A

chances of false negatives and positives

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45
Q

dx test for rapid detection and ID of microfilariae

A

modified knott’s test

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46
Q

types of skin scraping

A

superficial
deep

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47
Q

what can be done if the skin scraping contains a lot of debris and mites are suspected but not found

A

KOH digestion

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48
Q

what test can be done for parasites that have their larval/adult stages in host tissues

A

tissue digestion

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49
Q

preferred method to detect eggs of pinworms in LA

A

peri-anal tape method

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50
Q

dx test for parasite Ag in feces

A

coproantigen test

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51
Q

blood Ag test

A

snap test IDEXX

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52
Q

Ab tests for protozoal infections

A

complement fixation
immunodissusion
haemagglutination
florescent antibody

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53
Q

DNA based dx method

A

PCR

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54
Q

development time inside the definitive host

A

prepatent period

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55
Q

total duration of shedding

A

patent period

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56
Q

developmental time outside the definitive host; influenced by external environmental factors

A

translation

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57
Q

infective larvae in the environment

A

infective stage

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58
Q

esophageal worm

A

spirocerca lupi

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59
Q

distribution of spirocerca lupi

A

tropical/subtropical
cold areas travel related

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60
Q

spirocerca lupi main host

A

dogs

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61
Q

spirocerca lupi IH

A

beetles

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62
Q

spirocerca lupi site

A

esophagus

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63
Q

key pathology of spirocerca lupi

A

nodules in esophagus or aorta

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64
Q

shed stage of spirocerca lupi

A

eggs

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65
Q

infective stage of spirocerca lupi

A

L3

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66
Q

dx test for spirocerca lupi

A

fecal flotation

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67
Q

control for spirocerca lupi

A

control IH; clear feces rapidly

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68
Q

how long do spirocerca lupi larvae migrate before settling in the esophagus

A

3 months

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69
Q

stomach worm

A

physaloptera sp.

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70
Q

distribution of physaloptera

A

worldwide; higher mid-eastern US

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71
Q

main host of physaloptera

A

coyotes and foxes

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72
Q

IH of physaloptera

A

arthropods - beetles, crickets, cockroaches

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73
Q

lifecycle of physaloptera

A

indirect

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74
Q

physaloptera site

A

stomach

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75
Q

transmission route of physaloptera

A

ingestion of IH or paratenic host

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76
Q

physaloptera key pathology

A

gastritis; vomiting

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77
Q

shed stage and infective stage of physaloptera

A

eggs; L3

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78
Q

the eggs of physaloptera have a thick shell and contain _____

A

fully developed larvae

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79
Q

canine roundworm

A

toxocara canis

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80
Q

distribution of toxocara canis

A

worldwide

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81
Q

toxocara canis main host

A

dogs

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82
Q

morphology of toxocara canis

A

3 prominent lips on anterior end
cervical alae

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83
Q

toxocara canis lifecycle

A

direct

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84
Q

toxocara canis site

A

small intestine

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85
Q

toxocara canis transmission route

A

ingestion of infective eggs or paratenic host
transuterine/transmammary

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86
Q

toxocara canis key pathology

A

respiratory signs
vomiting, mucoid diarrhea, pot-bellied appearance

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87
Q

shed stage and infective stage of toxocara canis

A

eggs; eggs w/ L3

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88
Q

dx of toxocara canis

A

fecal flotation, clinical signs

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89
Q

control of toxocara canis

A

deworming puppies and dam; environmental sanitation

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90
Q

in toxocara infected puppies of <6m, the larvae go through _____, where they will eventually be coughed up and then swallowed so they can develop into adults in the small intestine

A

hepato-tracheal migration

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91
Q

in toxocara infected dogs of >6m, the larvae go through ____, where they become arrested in tissues and only become reactivated during pregnancy (otherwise a dead end)

A

somatic migration

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92
Q

if a dog becomes infected with toxocara canis through ingestion of a paratenic host, there is ____; the larvae only develop in the intestine

A

no systemic migration

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93
Q

feline roundworm

A

toxocara cati

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94
Q

toxocara cati main host

A

cats

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95
Q

toxocara cati have a ____ than toxocara canis

A

more prominent cervical ale

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96
Q

transmission route of toxocara cati

A

ingestion of PH; transmammary

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97
Q

lower prevalence roundworm of dogs/cats

A

toxocara leonina

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98
Q

transmission route of toxocara leonina

A

ingestion of infective eggs

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99
Q

key pathology of toxocara leonina

A

diarrhea

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100
Q

raccoon roundworm

A

baylisascaris procyonis

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101
Q

baylisascaris procyonis IH

A

dogs

102
Q

baylisascaris transmission route

A

ingestion of infective eggs or PH

103
Q

baylisascaris key pathology

A

asymptomatic in DH
larva migrans and severe neuro signs in IH

104
Q

canine/southern hookworm

A

ancylostoma caninum

105
Q

ancylostoma caninum distribution

A

most prevalent in SE states
seasonal preference for warmer/humid months

106
Q

ancylostoma caninum main host

A

dogs

107
Q

ancylostoma caninum lifecycle

A

direct

108
Q

ancylostoma caninum site

A

small intestine or muscle/organs

109
Q

ancylostoma caninum transmission route

A

ingestion of L3/PH
skin penetration
transmammary

110
Q

ancylostoma caninum key pathology

A

anemia; dark tarry feces; weight loss

111
Q

dx test of ancylostoma caninum

A

centrifugal flotation

112
Q

when do arrested ancylostoma caninum L3 reactivate

A

deworming, stress, pregnancy

113
Q

reactivation of tissue arrested L3 ancylostoma caninum results in ___; the intestine is repopulated by arrested larvae; leads to refractory egg shedding

A

larval leak syndrome

114
Q

where do anyclostoma caninum larvae develop

A

outside of egg when egg hatches
takes 5-7 days in warm, moist soil

115
Q

feline hookworm

A

anyclostoma tubaeforme

116
Q

ancylostoma tubaeforme transmission route

A

ingestion of L3/PH
L3 skin penetration

117
Q

unless heavy infection, ancylostoma tubaeforme is generally ____

A

asymptomatic

118
Q

distribution of ancylostoma brazilense

A

warmer, coastal areas; gulf coast

119
Q

ancylostoma brazilense is ___

A

zoonotic

120
Q

ancylostoma brazilense transmission route

A

percutaneous

121
Q

ancylostoma brazilense key pathology

A

cutaneous larva migrans
linear eruptive lesions
intense pruritis

122
Q

northern hookworm

A

uncinaria stenocephala

123
Q

uncinaria stenocephala distribution

A

northern US, canada, northern europe

124
Q

uncinaria stenocephala main hosts

A

dogs and wild canids

125
Q

morphology of uncinaria stenocephala

A

buccal cavity with cutting plates

126
Q

uncinaria stenocephala transmission route

A

ingestion of L3

127
Q

threadworm of humans/dogs

A

strongyloides stercoralis

128
Q

strongyloides stercoralis distribution

A

worldwide; warm and humid more common

129
Q

strongyloides stercoralis main hosts

A

humans, dogs, cats, primates

130
Q

strongyloides stercoralis lifecycle

A

direct

131
Q

strongyloides stercoralis site

A

crypts of small intestine

132
Q

strongyloides stercoralis transmission route

A

ingestion of L3
L3 skin penetration
transmammary

133
Q

strongyloides stercoralis key pathology

A

diarrhea - young dogs
cutaneous larval migrans - people

134
Q

strongyloides stercoralis shed stage

A

L1

135
Q

strongyloides stercoralis dx test

A

baermann

136
Q

exclusive to strongyloides

A

sexuallu reproducing free-living stage and parthenogenic adult parasitic stage

137
Q

oral infection of strongyloides leads to ____ migration

A

hepato-tracheal

138
Q

skin penetration of strongyloides leads to ___ migration

A

semi-tracheal

139
Q

strongyloides L1 may develop into L3 in the small intestine and cause ____

A

auto-infection

140
Q

canine whipworm

A

trichuris vulpis

141
Q

trichuris vulpis distribution

A

worldwide; warm and humid
common in kennels

142
Q

trichuris vulpis main host

A

dogs

143
Q

trichuris vulpis lifecycle

A

direct

144
Q

trichuris vulpis site

A

large intestine - cecum and colon

145
Q

trichuris vulpis transmission route

A

ingestion of eggs containing L1

146
Q

trichuris vulpis key pathology

A

anemia, freq. defecation and straining; typhilitis, colitis, rectal prolapse

147
Q

trichuris vulpis infective stage

A

eggs with L1

148
Q

trichuris vulpis dx test

A

centrifugal flotation

149
Q

trichuris vulpis common co-infection with

A

hookworm

150
Q
A

spirocerca lupi

151
Q
A

physaloptera sp.

152
Q
A

toxocara canis

153
Q
A

toxocara cati

154
Q
A

toxocara leonina

155
Q
A

baylisascais procyonis

156
Q
A

ancylostoma caninum

157
Q
A

uncinaria stenocephala

158
Q
A

trichuris vulpis

159
Q

heartworm

A

dirofilaria immitis

160
Q

heartworm has highest prevalence in

A

southeastern US

161
Q

heartworm main host

A

dogs (less common in cats)

162
Q

heartworm IH

A

mosquitoes

163
Q

heartworm lifecycle

A

indirect

164
Q

heartworm site

A

adults - heart and pulmonary artery
microfilaria - blood

165
Q

heartworm transmission route

A

mosquito gets L1 from blood meal, develops to L3, infects dog with blood meal

166
Q

caval syndrome

A

worms block caudal vena cava and tricuspid valve

167
Q

heartworm shed stage

A

microfilariae

168
Q

heartworm infective stage

A

L3

169
Q

heartworm dx test

A

dogs- Ag test (adult F); direct blood smear (Mf)
cats - Ab test (+Ag test to see if current infection)

170
Q

what other microfilariae make be mistaken for HW causing a false positive

A

acanthocheilonema reconditum

171
Q

why can feline HW have more false negatives

A

have more M only infections and in low numbers

172
Q

french heartworm

A

angiostrongylus vasorum

173
Q

angiostrongylus vasorum distribution

A

endemic to newfoundland; emerging in the US

174
Q

angiostrongylus vasorum main host

A

foxes, canids, dogs

175
Q

angiostrongylus vasorum IH

A

mollusks

176
Q

angiostrongylus vasorum lifecycle

A

indirect

177
Q

angiostrongylus vasorum site

A

lung capillaries, pulmonary artery, RV

178
Q

angiostrongylus vasorum transmission route

A

ingestion of L3

179
Q

angiostrongylus vasorum key pathology

A

cardiopulmonary disease; chronic cough, exercise intolerance

180
Q

angiostrongylus vasorum shed stage

A

L1 in feces

181
Q

angiostrongylus vasorum infective stage

A

L3 in IH/PH

182
Q

rat lungworm

A

angiostronyglus cantonensis

183
Q

angiostronyglus cantonensis distribution

A

endemic in dogs in Aus
emerging in N america

184
Q

angiostronyglus cantonensis main host

A

rats

185
Q

angiostronyglus cantonensis IH

A

mollusks

186
Q

angiostronyglus cantonensis lifecycle

A

indirect

187
Q

angiostronyglus cantonensis site

A

lungs

188
Q

angiostronyglus cantonensis transmission route

A

ingestion of IH with L3

189
Q

angiostronyglus cantonensis key pathology

A

neuroangistrongyliasis (canine and human)

190
Q

_____ can be accidental hosts of angiostronyglus cantonensis

A

dogs and humans

191
Q

feline lungworm

A

aelurostrongylus abstrusus

192
Q

aelurostrongylus abstrusus distribution

A

british columbia, atlantic canada

193
Q

aelurostrongylus abstrusus main host

A

cats

194
Q

aelurostrongylus abstrusus IH

A

mollusks

195
Q

aelurostrongylus abstrusus site

A

lungs

196
Q

aelurostrongylus abstrusus key pathology

A

verminous pneumonia
gray nodules on surface of lungs with milky fluid containing egg and larvae

197
Q

fox lungworm/bronchial lungworm

A

crenosoma vulpis

198
Q

crenosoma vulpis distribution

A

common in NE US and E Canada

199
Q

crenosoma vulpis main host

A

foxes, wolves, dogs

200
Q

crenosoma vulpis site

A

bronchi and bronchioles

201
Q

crenosoma vulpis key pathology

A

mimic allergy respiratory rxn (dog)
cough elicited on tracheal palpation

202
Q

crenosoma vulpis shed stage

A

L1 in feces

203
Q

canine lungworm

A

filaroides spp.

204
Q

high transmission of filaroides in ___

A

kennels

205
Q

filaroides lifecycle

A

direct

206
Q

filaroides site

A

tracheal bifurcation, lungs

207
Q

filaroides transmission route

A

ingestion of L1 from feces/regurgitation
autoinfection of L1

208
Q

filaroides key pathology

A

cough/retch triggered by exercise or cold
nodules in trachea

209
Q

filaroides shed stage

A

L1 in feces

210
Q

filaroides infective stage

A

L1

211
Q

tracheal worm

A

eucoleus (capillaria) spp

212
Q

eucoleus main host

A

hunting dogs

213
Q

eucoleus lifecycle

A

direct

214
Q

eucoleus site

A

trachea and bronchi

215
Q

eucoleus key pathology

A

dry cough
dyspnea

216
Q

eucoleus shed stage

A

eggs

217
Q

eucoleus dx test

A

fecal flotation

218
Q

eye worm

A

thelazia spp.

219
Q

thelazia main host

A

dogs cats deer mammals

220
Q

thelazia IH

A

fruit flies and house flies

221
Q

thelazia site

A

eyes

222
Q

thelazia key pathology

A

ocular lesions, conjunctivitis, nodules, ocular edema, photophobia, red eye

223
Q

filaroid nematode

A

onchocerca lupi

224
Q

onchocerca lupi main host

A

dogs, cats

225
Q

onchocerca lupi IH

A

black flies

226
Q

onchocerca lupi site

A

eyes

227
Q

onchocerca lupi life cycle

A

indirect

228
Q

black flies need ___ to complete the onchocerca lupi lifecycle

A

waterways

229
Q

giant kidney worm

A

dioctophyme renale

230
Q

dioctophyme renale main host

A

minks, dogs, fish eating animals

231
Q

dioctophyme renale IH

A

earthworm

232
Q

dioctophyme renale is the

A

largest known parasitic nematode

233
Q

dioctophyme renale site

A

kidney (usually R)

234
Q

dioctophyme renale transmission route

A

ingestion of PH or IH containing L3

235
Q

dioctophyme renale key pathology

A

kidney infections, hematuria, dysuria, R renomegaly, UTI

236
Q

dioctophyme renale shed/infective stage

A

eggs/L3

237
Q

dioctophyme renale dx test

A

UA

238
Q

___ is the most important source of dioctophyme renale infection

A

raw fish

239
Q

rhabdtid nematode

A

rhabditis strongyloides

240
Q

rhabditis strongyloides site

A

skin

241
Q

rhabditis strongyloides transmission route

A

adults and larvae are free living;
L3 can cause skin lesions

242
Q

rhabditis strongyloides key pathology

A

skin lesions, alopecia, crusting on feet, ventral thorax and abdomen

243
Q

guinea worm

A

dracunculus insignis

244
Q

dracunculus insignis main host

A

dogs and cats that hunt frogs; racoons

245
Q

dracunculus insignis IH

A

crustaceans

246
Q

dracunculus insignis site

A

skin

247
Q

dracunculus insignis PH

A

frogs

248
Q

dracunculus insignis transmission route

A

drinking water containing infected copepods or ingestion of PH w/ L3

249
Q

dracunculus insignis key pathology

A

SQ nodules, pruritis, dermatitis

250
Q

how are dracunculus insignis larvae released

A

when uterus breaks

251
Q

this nematode causes skin lesions in areas that come in contact with the ground

A

rhabditis strongyloides

parasitology (4 decks)

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