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Public Health > Exam 3 > Flashcards

Exam 3 Flashcards

1
Q

herd health management approach

A

focuses on prevention and identifying risk factors for disease

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2
Q

likely agroterrorism agents

A

newcastle disease, rift valley fever, highly pathogenic avian influenza

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3
Q

what are the two characteristics shared by a majority of emerging diseases

A

zoonotic and bacterial, tropical, often vecot-borne and drug-resistant

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4
Q

how would you report a notifiable agent

A

individuals report to state, who reports to USDA, who reports to the WOAH

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5
Q

what are genetic and biological factors of disease emergence

A

microbial adaptation and host susceptibility to infection

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6
Q

what are physical environment factors of disease emergence

A

climate, urbanization

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7
Q

what are ecological factors of disease emergence

A

changing ecosystems, human demographics and behavior

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8
Q

what are social, political, and economic factors of disease emergence

A

international travel, technology, breakdown of public health measures, poverty

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9
Q

what factors promote the transmission of zoonotic diseases

A

wildlife trade, increased contact, globalization

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10
Q

which strategies can be used to mitigate future disease emergence

A

new vaccines, antimicrobial resistance, one health, predictive vs reactive, addressing poverty

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11
Q

primary vs secondary immunodeficiency

A

primary means congenital and secondary means immune damaged later in life

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12
Q

what are not reservoirs for rabies in the US

A

dogs and cats

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13
Q

how long do dogs usually shed rabies virus in their saliva before clinical signs develop?

A

5 days

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14
Q

three stages of rabies CNS infection

A

prodromal (behavioral), excitative (furious), paralytic (dumb)

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15
Q

Rabies compendium

A

best practice recommendations by NASPHV, basis for many state laws

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16
Q

how long until an animal is considered immunized post initial vaccination?

A

28 days

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17
Q

current vaccinee and overdue guidelines for getting bit

A

revaccinated immediately and quarantined for 45 days

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18
Q

what are guidelines for rabies exposure in cattle

A

commercial slaughter prohibited for 8 months

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19
Q

which dogs have an increased risk of biting

A

male intact

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20
Q

which aerobic bacteria are most prevalent in dog bites

A

pasteurella, capnocytophaga canimorsus, MRSA

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21
Q

what type of bacteria are more prevalent in cat bitesq

A

anaerobes most prevalent

22
Q

sporotrichosis

A

fungus exposure from cat bite, ulcerated nodules

23
Q

blastomycosis

A

fungus from dog bite, skin lesions and focal lymphadenopathy

24
Q

LCMV

A

virus from rodent bites, biphasic febrile illness, first symptoms nonspecific and then meningitis

25
Q

B virus

A

herpes virus from bite of macaques, fatality rate high

26
Q

bartonellosis

A

naturally transmitted by fleas among cats, causes rash and normally self-limiting but could cause Parinaud’s oculoglandular syndrome, bacillary angiomatosis and peliosis hepatitis

27
Q

toxoplasmosis

A

from cats, oocysts (shed in feces, require oxygen and 1-5 days to spore), tachyzoites (rapid growth in tissues), bradyzoites (slow growth in tissues, resistant), and tissue cysts (bradyzoites with a wall), vaccine for pigs being developed

28
Q

larva migrans

A

hookworm implicated in cutaneous, roundworm in visceral, often travelers from tropical regions who touched bare skin to sand for long time

29
Q

dermatophytosis

A

ring worm! superficial fungal infection, “hairborne”, very durable in environment

30
Q

serology of toxoplasmosis

A

IgG previously infected, IgM means active infection, and absence means cat is susceptible

31
Q

tularemia

A

carcass of rabbits above 3000 ft, possibly vectorized, 5 types eye, lymph, mouth, lungs, typhoid, reportable 4 hrs in AZ

32
Q

RMSF (R. rickettsii)

A

small rodents to ticks (dermacentor or ixodes), reportable to CDC

33
Q

chagas

A

dogs to kissing bug, oral ingestion, acute vs chronic infection, insecticides

34
Q

chlamydiosis

A

reptiles, birds, mammals, aerosolized feces, keratoconjunctivitis, abortion, elementary body vs reticulate (BS3)

35
Q

mycobacteriosis

A

fish, elephants, primates inhale from environment, cutaneous granulomas, chronic weight loss, disinfect WELL, reportable

36
Q

rat bite fever (s. moniliformis)

A

petechial rash, arthritis, myalgia, disinfect well

37
Q

avian influenza

A

implicated in shorebirds, fecal oral, fecal cloacal, high path reportable, PPE and safe necropsies

38
Q

rat lungworm (a. cantonensis)

A

definitive host rats, intermediate snails and slugs, eosinophilic meningitis

39
Q

encephalitozoonosis

A

commonly shed in rabbit urine, neurologic signs

40
Q

anthrax

A

ruminants to spores in soil, use oxygen to turn vegetative in animal, bleeding from orifices, edema in pigs,

41
Q

bovine TB

A

cattle, deer reservoir in US, avoid contaminated raw dairy, affects lymph nodes and lungs

42
Q

brucellosis

A

abortions and epididymitis in sheep and goats, vaccine virulent in humans

43
Q

crypto

A

ingestion of oocysts, #1 cause of diarrhea in calves, feed colostrum and disinfect with H2O2

44
Q

Q fever

A

coxiella burnetii in ruminants, most excretions, avoid livestock around parturition

45
Q

lepto

A

urine or other body fluids except saliva, jaundice, abortions, bloody urine/milk

46
Q

lyme

A

borellia from rodent reservoirs to ixodes, shifting leg lameness

47
Q

EEE/WEE

A

togaviruses from birds, vector is culiseta mosquitoes, neuro signs in horses

48
Q

powassan encephalitis

A

flavavirus from rodents to ixodes, transmission w/in hours of bite

49
Q

colorado tick fever

A

coltivirus, squirrels, chipmunks and rodents to dermacentor andersoni

50
Q

babesia

A

rodents/small mammals to ixodes, hemolytic anemia

Public Health (3 decks)

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