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Exam 2 Flashcards

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1
Q

food safety

A

preventative measures to protect food from UNINTENTIONAL hazards

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2
Q

food quality

A

attributes that DON’T matter for safety but influence VALUE (positive or negative)

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3
Q

food defense

A

protect food from INTENTIONAL aldulturation

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4
Q

food protection

A

food safety AND defense

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5
Q

food control

A

mandatory REGULATIONS for consumer protection

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6
Q

food security

A

giving people physical and economic ACCESS to safe and nutritious foods

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7
Q

HACCP

A

hazard analysis plan, doos businesses require to be HACCP certified by an accredited third-party

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8
Q

cGMPs

A

current Good Manufacturing Practices, essential foundation for HACCP plans

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9
Q

Seven principles of HACCP

A

hazard analysis, CCPs, critical limits, monitoring requirements, corrective actions, record keeping, verification procedures

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10
Q

What part of the food supply does the FDA regulate??

A

Over 80% of food supply, all food sold across state lines, including shell eggs and their packaging, but not meat or poultry

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11
Q

FDA food, drug, and cosmetic act of 1938

A

Tightened controls over food and drugs and enhanced enforcability

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12
Q

1996 Food Quality Protection Act and Federal Insectide Act

A

Standardizes the way EPA regulates pesticides and manure management

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13
Q

Food Safety Modernization Act of 2011

A

Shifts the focus from responding to FBIs to preventing them, strengthened food safety system, also created CDC FBI program

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14
Q

USDA FSIS oversees which part of the food market?

A

Meat and poultry besides game meat (products that contain at least 50% meat) processed egg products, and catfish

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15
Q

Codex Alimentarius

A

International collection of standards to ensure food is safe and can be traded put out by the FAO/WHO

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16
Q

OIE/WOAH

A

Improves animal health worldwide!!!

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17
Q

Who needs to be present for all slaughter operations?

A

FSIS inspection personnel

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18
Q

Passed for slaughter antemortem disposition

A

fit for human food

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19
Q

suspect antemortem disposition

A

animal suspected of having diseases, detailed postmortem inspection needed

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20
Q

condemned antemortem disposition

A

clearly exhibit diseases unfit for human food, must be destroyed and not slaughtered for food

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21
Q

The four Ds of condemnation

A

Dead, dying, diseased, disabled

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22
Q

three parts of an antemortem inspection

A

observe at rest, observe in motion, determine disposition

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23
Q

What are the two steps to slaughter according to the FMSA?

A

stunning and exsanguination

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24
Q

what are the four approved methods of stunning animals for slaughter?

A

CO2, electricity, captive bolt, firearms

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25
adulterated postmortem
including a substance that cannot be removed by trimming
26
contaminated postmortem
having substance on surface that can be removed by trimming
27
passed postmortem disposition
acceptable for consumption
28
condemned postmortem disposition
not ok for human food (sometimes rendering or pet food)
29
hold postmortem disposition
hold carcass pending laboratory testing
30
restricted postmortem disposition
can be used for human food with preparation restrictions
31
three steps to postmortem livestock inspection
head, viscera, carcass
32
three parts to the postmortem head inspection of livestock
masseter muscle, lymph nodes, tongue
33
five parts to the postmortem viscera inspection of livestock
heart, lungs, liver, digestive tract, lymph nodes, rumino-reticular junction
34
four parts to the postmortem carcass inspection of livestock
observe and cut surface muscles, lymph nodes, palpate kidneys, diaphragm
35
food preservation
the process of treating food to stop or slow down spoilage
36
how many people suffer from food insecurity worldwide?
820 million
37
Irradiation
Not suitable for dairy products and some fruits, kills nearly all surface pathogens with low-dose ionizing radiation
38
Pasteurization
HTST- high temperature short time UHT- ultra high temperature ESL- extended shelf life, filtration as well
39
freeze-drying
freezes and lowers ambient pressure, reduced water content, used in vaccines
40
pickling
lowers water content and pH
41
fermentation
beneficial microorganisms lower pH and produce vitamins
42
salt or sugar curing
reduced moisture content, kills cells
43
smoking
dries surface, deposits natural preservatives
44
modified atmosphere
reduced oxygen, slows aging/infestation
45
hurdle technology
controlling by the application of more than one approach
46
health halo effect
over-estimating healthfulness based on a single claim
47
what methods cannot be used in organic foods
genetic engineering, ionizing radiation, synthetic pesticides, chemical fertilizers
48
who regulates organic foods?
USDA
49
organic livestock standards
no drugs for prevention, access to outdoors all times
50
why wouldn't organic food be more environmentally friendly?
losses in efficiency may offset some of benefit
51
farm bill effect on low income
food stamp legislation, provides incentives for fresh foods and veggies
52
what three positions in the president's cabinet directly relate to food regulation
agriculture, commerce, health and human services
53
what does foodnet monitor?
monitor 8 pathogens in 10 states, only 15% of US population
54
what is the largest source of food-borne diseases by percentage
34% plants, 64% restaurants
55
infections vs intoxications
longer incubation periods in infections, shorter incubation periods in intoxications
56
salmonella enterica (type, foods, source, infection?, incubation, defining symptoms, defining control)
Non-typhoidal (foodborne) vs typhoid (human to human), raw animal products, infection, rash of flat, rose-colored spots
57
campylobacter jejuni (type, foods, source, infection?, incubation, defining symptoms, defining control)
Raw stuff and water, comes from microbiota of farm animals, infection, Guillain-Barre syndrome
58
EHEC (e coli) (type, foods, source, infection?, incubation, defining symptoms, defining control)
Shiga-toxin, apple cider, meats and dairy, leafy veggies, intoxication, bloody diarrhea and HUS
59
listeria monocytogenes (type, foods, source, infection?, incubation, defining symptoms, defining control)
Salt and freeze-tolerant, infection, causes neurologic disease in livestock, 3 hrs to 3 days to 3 months, more invasive bad CFR and abortions
60
clostridium perfringens (type, foods, source, infection?, incubation, defining symptoms, defining control)
Heat-resistant comes from soil and meat gravies, toxico-infection, 16hr incubation (fast), pigbel disease especially fatal
61
staph aureus (type, foods, source, infection?, incubation, defining symptoms, defining control)
Intoxication, RAPID 1-7h after ingestion (preformed enterotoxin)
62
bacillus cereus (type, foods, source, infection?, incubation, defining symptoms, defining control)
Rice+starches and heat stable for vomiting, intoxications
63
clostridium botulinum (type, foods, source, infection?, incubation, defining symptoms, defining control)
Infant botulism associated with honey, low-oxygen, potent neurotoxin, heat resistant but still killed by boiling >5min, 18-36 hrs, canned foods
64
Hepatitis A (type, foods, source, infection?, incubation, defining symptoms, defining control)
RNA virus, contaminated water, shellfish, salads, feces, rarely chimps, infection, 30 days incubation LONG, jaundice, get vaccinated
65
norovirus (type, foods, source, infection?, incubation, defining symptoms, defining control)
RNA virus, shellfish and fomites, water common vehicle, infection, 12-48 hrs, leading cause of disease outbreaks in US
66
biosecurity
avoid introduction of disease agents to a facility or region
67
biocontainment
important backup to biosecurity, say disease has made it to your farm
68
what is meant by a unidirectional flow of animals?
separation of (starting with most susceptible) newborns, young stock, lactating cows, non-lactating cows, essentially making sure those most at risk get cleanest areas
69
what disease criteria would require depopulation to control?
highly contagious, disruptive to economy, good test available, no reservoir
70
what disease criteria would indicate quarantine procedures could be effective control?
not as contagious, prevalence low, good test available, not as disruptive to economy, if vaccine is available and prevalence higher, start vaccinating susceptible
71
what disease criteria would indicate quarantine and treatment, still keeping herds together?
High prevalence but not economically disruptive, slows transmission
72
what are biological criteria for disease eradication?
method available to disrupt transmission, test to detect infection, one vertebrate reservoir no fomites (also still make sure to sway public opinion!!!)
73
BSL-1
agents not known to cause disease in healthy adults, need to be clean and limited access while working, wear gloves and eye protection still
74
BSL-2
no lethal infection nor transmissible through aerosols, treatment available, biohazard warning signs, supervisors, access restrictions, biosafety cabinets
75
BSL-3
potential for aerosols, lethal infection, often prevention or treatment exists, strictly controlled access, decontaminating all waste, changing clothing, often respiratory PPE
76
BSL-4
aerosol transmitted, high-risk, specialized training, strict access and no immunocompromised persons, showering at exit, full-body pressure suit
77
what are the four components of a case defininition?
clinical presentation, who, where, when

Public Health (3 decks)

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