Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

food safety

A

preventative measures to protect food from UNINTENTIONAL hazards

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2
Q

food quality

A

attributes that DON’T matter for safety but influence VALUE (positive or negative)

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3
Q

food defense

A

protect food from INTENTIONAL aldulturation

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4
Q

food protection

A

food safety AND defense

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5
Q

food control

A

mandatory REGULATIONS for consumer protection

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6
Q

food security

A

giving people physical and economic ACCESS to safe and nutritious foods

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7
Q

HACCP

A

hazard analysis plan, doos businesses require to be HACCP certified by an accredited third-party

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8
Q

cGMPs

A

current Good Manufacturing Practices, essential foundation for HACCP plans

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9
Q

Seven principles of HACCP

A

hazard analysis, CCPs, critical limits, monitoring requirements, corrective actions, record keeping, verification procedures

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10
Q

What part of the food supply does the FDA regulate??

A

Over 80% of food supply, all food sold across state lines, including shell eggs and their packaging, but not meat or poultry

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11
Q

FDA food, drug, and cosmetic act of 1938

A

Tightened controls over food and drugs and enhanced enforcability

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12
Q

1996 Food Quality Protection Act and Federal Insectide Act

A

Standardizes the way EPA regulates pesticides and manure management

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13
Q

Food Safety Modernization Act of 2011

A

Shifts the focus from responding to FBIs to preventing them, strengthened food safety system, also created CDC FBI program

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14
Q

USDA FSIS oversees which part of the food market?

A

Meat and poultry besides game meat (products that contain at least 50% meat) processed egg products, and catfish

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15
Q

Codex Alimentarius

A

International collection of standards to ensure food is safe and can be traded put out by the FAO/WHO

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16
Q

OIE/WOAH

A

Improves animal health worldwide!!!

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17
Q

Who needs to be present for all slaughter operations?

A

FSIS inspection personnel

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18
Q

Passed for slaughter antemortem disposition

A

fit for human food

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19
Q

suspect antemortem disposition

A

animal suspected of having diseases, detailed postmortem inspection needed

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20
Q

condemned antemortem disposition

A

clearly exhibit diseases unfit for human food, must be destroyed and not slaughtered for food

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21
Q

The four Ds of condemnation

A

Dead, dying, diseased, disabled

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22
Q

three parts of an antemortem inspection

A

observe at rest, observe in motion, determine disposition

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23
Q

What are the two steps to slaughter according to the FMSA?

A

stunning and exsanguination

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24
Q

what are the four approved methods of stunning animals for slaughter?

A

CO2, electricity, captive bolt, firearms

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25
Q

adulterated postmortem

A

including a substance that cannot be removed by trimming

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26
Q

contaminated postmortem

A

having substance on surface that can be removed by trimming

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27
Q

passed postmortem disposition

A

acceptable for consumption

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28
Q

condemned postmortem disposition

A

not ok for human food (sometimes rendering or pet food)

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29
Q

hold postmortem disposition

A

hold carcass pending laboratory testing

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30
Q

restricted postmortem disposition

A

can be used for human food with preparation restrictions

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31
Q

three steps to postmortem livestock inspection

A

head, viscera, carcass

32
Q

three parts to the postmortem head inspection of livestock

A

masseter muscle, lymph nodes, tongue

33
Q

five parts to the postmortem viscera inspection of livestock

A

heart, lungs, liver, digestive tract, lymph nodes, rumino-reticular junction

34
Q

four parts to the postmortem carcass inspection of livestock

A

observe and cut surface muscles, lymph nodes, palpate kidneys, diaphragm

35
Q

food preservation

A

the process of treating food to stop or slow down spoilage

36
Q

how many people suffer from food insecurity worldwide?

A

820 million

37
Q

Irradiation

A

Not suitable for dairy products and some fruits, kills nearly all surface pathogens with low-dose ionizing radiation

38
Q

Pasteurization

A

HTST- high temperature short time
UHT- ultra high temperature
ESL- extended shelf life, filtration as well

39
Q

freeze-drying

A

freezes and lowers ambient pressure, reduced water content, used in vaccines

40
Q

pickling

A

lowers water content and pH

41
Q

fermentation

A

beneficial microorganisms lower pH and produce vitamins

42
Q

salt or sugar curing

A

reduced moisture content, kills cells

43
Q

smoking

A

dries surface, deposits natural preservatives

44
Q

modified atmosphere

A

reduced oxygen, slows aging/infestation

45
Q

hurdle technology

A

controlling by the application of more than one approach

46
Q

health halo effect

A

over-estimating healthfulness based on a single claim

47
Q

what methods cannot be used in organic foods

A

genetic engineering, ionizing radiation, synthetic pesticides, chemical fertilizers

48
Q

who regulates organic foods?

A

USDA

49
Q

organic livestock standards

A

no drugs for prevention, access to outdoors all times

50
Q

why wouldn’t organic food be more environmentally friendly?

A

losses in efficiency may offset some of benefit

51
Q

farm bill effect on low income

A

food stamp legislation, provides incentives for fresh foods and veggies

52
Q

what three positions in the president’s cabinet directly relate to food regulation

A

agriculture, commerce, health and human services

53
Q

what does foodnet monitor?

A

monitor 8 pathogens in 10 states, only 15% of US population

54
Q

what is the largest source of food-borne diseases by percentage

A

34% plants, 64% restaurants

55
Q

infections vs intoxications

A

longer incubation periods in infections, shorter incubation periods in intoxications

56
Q

salmonella enterica (type, foods, source, infection?, incubation, defining symptoms, defining control)

A

Non-typhoidal (foodborne) vs typhoid (human to human), raw animal products, infection, rash of flat, rose-colored spots

57
Q

campylobacter jejuni (type, foods, source, infection?, incubation, defining symptoms, defining control)

A

Raw stuff and water, comes from microbiota of farm animals, infection, Guillain-Barre syndrome

58
Q

EHEC (e coli) (type, foods, source, infection?, incubation, defining symptoms, defining control)

A

Shiga-toxin, apple cider, meats and dairy, leafy veggies, intoxication, bloody diarrhea and HUS

59
Q

listeria monocytogenes (type, foods, source, infection?, incubation, defining symptoms, defining control)

A

Salt and freeze-tolerant, infection, causes neurologic disease in livestock, 3 hrs to 3 days to 3 months, more invasive bad CFR and abortions

60
Q

clostridium perfringens (type, foods, source, infection?, incubation, defining symptoms, defining control)

A

Heat-resistant comes from soil and meat gravies, toxico-infection, 16hr incubation (fast), pigbel disease especially fatal

61
Q

staph aureus (type, foods, source, infection?, incubation, defining symptoms, defining control)

A

Intoxication, RAPID 1-7h after ingestion (preformed enterotoxin)

62
Q

bacillus cereus (type, foods, source, infection?, incubation, defining symptoms, defining control)

A

Rice+starches and heat stable for vomiting, intoxications

63
Q

clostridium botulinum (type, foods, source, infection?, incubation, defining symptoms, defining control)

A

Infant botulism associated with honey, low-oxygen, potent neurotoxin, heat resistant but still killed by boiling >5min, 18-36 hrs, canned foods

64
Q

Hepatitis A (type, foods, source, infection?, incubation, defining symptoms, defining control)

A

RNA virus, contaminated water, shellfish, salads, feces, rarely chimps, infection, 30 days incubation LONG, jaundice, get vaccinated

65
Q

norovirus (type, foods, source, infection?, incubation, defining symptoms, defining control)

A

RNA virus, shellfish and fomites, water common vehicle, infection, 12-48 hrs, leading cause of disease outbreaks in US

66
Q

biosecurity

A

avoid introduction of disease agents to a facility or region

67
Q

biocontainment

A

important backup to biosecurity, say disease has made it to your farm

68
Q

what is meant by a unidirectional flow of animals?

A

separation of (starting with most susceptible) newborns, young stock, lactating cows, non-lactating cows, essentially making sure those most at risk get cleanest areas

69
Q

what disease criteria would require depopulation to control?

A

highly contagious, disruptive to economy, good test available, no reservoir

70
Q

what disease criteria would indicate quarantine procedures could be effective control?

A

not as contagious, prevalence low, good test available, not as disruptive to economy, if vaccine is available and prevalence higher, start vaccinating susceptible

71
Q

what disease criteria would indicate quarantine and treatment, still keeping herds together?

A

High prevalence but not economically disruptive, slows transmission

72
Q

what are biological criteria for disease eradication?

A

method available to disrupt transmission, test to detect infection, one vertebrate reservoir no fomites (also still make sure to sway public opinion!!!)

73
Q

BSL-1

A

agents not known to cause disease in healthy adults, need to be clean and limited access while working, wear gloves and eye protection still

74
Q

BSL-2

A

no lethal infection nor transmissible through aerosols, treatment available, biohazard warning signs, supervisors, access restrictions, biosafety cabinets

75
Q

BSL-3

A

potential for aerosols, lethal infection, often prevention or treatment exists, strictly controlled access, decontaminating all waste, changing clothing, often respiratory PPE

76
Q

BSL-4

A

aerosol transmitted, high-risk, specialized training, strict access and no immunocompromised persons, showering at exit, full-body pressure suit

77
Q

what are the four components of a case defininition?

A

clinical presentation, who, where, when