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Health Assessment (NUR 202) > Exam 3 > Flashcards

Exam 3 Flashcards

1
Q

Which sinuses are palpable on exam?

Ch 17

A
  • Maxillary sinus
  • Frontal sinus
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2
Q

Describe the difference in the hard & soft palates

Ch 17

A
  • Hard Palate: anterior, more white
  • Soft Palate: more pink, posterior
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3
Q

List the salivary glands

Ch 17

A
  • Parotid
  • Submandibular
  • Sublingual
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4
Q

Which salivary gland is the largest & where is it located?

Ch 17

A

Parotid: in the cheeks

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5
Q

What is important to keep in mind regarding aging adults when examening the nose, mouth, & throat?

Ch 17

A

Aging Adults have…

  • Diminished smell
  • Atrophic tissues (no bulk)
  • Dental changes (dentures, teeth loss, etc.)
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6
Q

What are some symptoms of dehydration?

Ch 17

A
  • fissures on the tongue
  • dehydrated / dry mucosa
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7
Q

Health History Questions to ask regarding examining the nose

Ch 17

A
  • Discharge: what color is it? what does it look like? how often?
  • Frequent Colds: how often?
  • Trauma: broken nose? septal deviation?
  • Sinus Pain, epistaxis, Allergies, Altered Smell
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8
Q

What steps are done when examining the nose?

Ch 17

A

Inspect & Palpate

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9
Q

What parts of the nasal cavity should you examine?

Ch 17

A
  • Nasal Septum
  • Turbinates
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10
Q

What step(s) are done to examine the sinuses?

Ch 17

A

Palpate

Palpate the maxillary & frontal sinuses

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11
Q

What step(s) are performed to examine the mouth & what parts of the mouth should be examined?

Ch 17

A

Inspect

  • lips, tongue, buccal mucosa, palate, uvula, teeth, & gums
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12
Q

What step(s) should be performed to examine the throat?

Ch 17

A

Inspect

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13
Q

Explain the Tonsil Grading Scale

Ch 17

A
  • 1+ = visible
  • 2+ = halfway between tonsillar pillars & uvula
  • 3+ = touching the uvula
  • 4+ = touching one another
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14
Q

What is Herpes Simplex & how long does it take to heal?

Ch 17

A
  • contagious cold sore
  • spreads via direct contact
  • clear vesicle
  • indurated, hard, erythematous at the base
  • heals within 4 - 10 days
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15
Q

What is carcinoma & explain the healing process

Ch 17

A
  • hard & indurated
  • any lesion lasting MORE THAN 2 WEEKS should be evaluated
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16
Q

What is the major difference between Herpes Simplex & a Carcinoma?

Ch 17

A

Herpes Simplex usually heals within 4 - 10 days while a any lesion lasting more than 2 weeks should be evaluated as it may be a carcinoma

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17
Q

Explain Candidiasis (or monilial infection)

Ch 17

A
  • White, cheesy patches on the buccal mucosa or tongue (can be scraped off & usually bleeds easily)
  • also known as oral thrush / yeast infection
  • Common in patients who are on chemotherapy or use antibiotics on a regular basis
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18
Q

What are the signs & symptoms of acute tonsillitis & pharyngitis?

Ch 17

A
  • fever
  • sore throat
  • pain with swallowing
  • enlarged tonsils
  • tonsillar exudate
  • cervical lymph node enlargement
  • rheumatic fever

rheumatic fever is due to untreated strep infection

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19
Q

What is rheumatic fever caused by and what are some symptoms?

Ch 17

A

Rheumatic Fever: due to untreated strep infection

  • causes many multi-system problems
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20
Q

Which of the following is likely to elicit the most information?

a.) How often do you brush your teeth?
b.) Has your sense of taste changed?
c.) Tell me about your daily dental care.
d.) Do you have any problems with your dentures?

Ch 17

A

c.) Tell me about your daily dental care

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21
Q

Which is an expected finding in darkly pigmented people?

a.) Circumolar pallor
b.) Dappled brown patches on the buccal mucosa
c.) Bluish lips
d.) A chalky white raised patch on the mucosa of the tongue

Ch 17 – KNOW THIS!!!

A

c.) Bluish lips

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22
Q

Where is the temporomandibular (TMJ) joint located?

Ch 23

A

anterior to the tragus

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23
Q

What questions should be asked when obtaining health history about joints?

Ch 23

A
  • do you have any pain?
  • do you have any stiffness?
  • do you have any swelling, heat, or redness?
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24
Q

What questions should be asked when obtaining health history about bones?

Ch 23

A
  • do you have any pain?
  • do you have any history of deformity or trauma (fracture, sprain, dislocation) to any bones?
  • do you have a history of surgery?
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25
Q

What is important to keep in mind / know when evaluating a patient’s functional assessment (activities of daily living) & self-care behaviors?

Ch 23

A

Know the patient’s baseline!

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26
Q

What step(s) should be performed when assessing the temporomandibular joint (TMJ)?

Ch 23

A
  • Inspect
  • Palpate
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27
Q

What are examples of things to inspect when assessing the temporomandibular joint (TMJ)?

Ch 23

A
  • size
  • skin color
  • swelling
  • masses
  • deformities
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28
Q

What should you look for when palpating someone’s temporomandibular joint (TMJ)?

Ch 23

A
  • tenderness
  • temperature
  • swelling
  • masses
  • palpate muscles of mastication
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29
Q

What is one other way to assess the temporomandibular joint in addition to inspection & palpation?

Ch 23

A
  • check for ROM (limited or full)
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30
Q

What is the difference in active & passive ROM?

Ch 23

A
  • Active ROM: patient moves themselves
  • Passive ROM: WE move the patient
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31
Q

What is active range of motion?

Ch 23

A

patient moves body parts being assesed themselves

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32
Q

What is passive range of motion?

Ch 23

A

when WE move the patient

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33
Q

What is Flexion?

Ch 23

A

Bending a limb at a joint

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34
Q

What is Extension?

Ch 23

A

Straghtening a limb at a joint

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35
Q

What is Abduction?

Ch 23

A

Moving a limb away from the body

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36
Q

What is Adduction?

Ch 23

A

Adding a limb back to the body

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37
Q

What is Eversion?

Ch 23

A

Moving the sole of the food outward at the ankle

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38
Q

What is Inversion?

Ch 23

A

Moving the sole of the food inward at the ankle

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39
Q

What is Pronation?

Ch 23

A

Turning the forearm so the palm is down

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40
Q

What is Supination?

Ch 23

A

Turning the forearm so the palm is upward

“Holding a cup of SOUP”

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41
Q

List the 12 cranial nerves

Ch 24

A
  • I: Olfactory
  • II: Optic
  • III: Oculomotor
  • IV: Trochlear
  • V: Trigeminal
  • VI: Abducens
  • VII: Facial
  • VIII: Vestibulocochlear
  • IX: Glossopharyngeal
  • X: Vagus
  • XI: Accessory (spinal)
  • XII: Hypoglossal
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42
Q

What is a mnemonic to remember the 12 cranial nerves?

Ch 24

A
  • I: Oh
  • II: Once
  • III: One
  • IV: Takes
  • V: The
  • VI: Anatomy
  • VII: Final
  • VIII: Very
  • IX: Good,
  • X: Vacations
  • XI: Are
  • XII: Heavenly
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43
Q

How many cervical vertebrae are there?

Ch 24

A

C1 - C7

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44
Q

How many thoracic vertebrae are there?

Ch 24

A

T1 - T12

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45
Q

How many lumbar vertebrae are there?

Ch 24

A

L1 - L5

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46
Q

How many sacral & coccyx vertebrae are there?

Ch 24

A

S1 - S5 & Coccyx

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47
Q

List all the vertebrae

(Include sacrum & coccyx)

Ch 24

A
  • C1 - C7
  • T1 - T12
  • L1 - L5
  • S1 - S5
  • Coccyx
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48
Q

What is CN VI and what does it do?

Ch 15

A

Abducens

  • abducts eye

innervates lateral rectus muscle

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49
Q

What is CN IV and what does it do?

Ch 15

A

Trochlear

  • need it to “cross” your eyes

innervates superior oblique

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50
Q

What is CN III and what does it do?

Ch 15

A

Oculomotor

Innervates the rest of the eye

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51
Q

What is nystagmus?

Ch 15

A

Parallel tracking of the eye & lack of muscle control bilaterally

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52
Q

What is strabismus?

Ch 15

A

cross-eyed or misalignment of the eyes

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53
Q

What is diplopia?

Ch 15

A

double vision

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54
Q

What is glaucoma & what is it associated with?

Ch 15

A

Peripheral vision changes

  • Can cause vision loss & blindness due to damage to the optic nerve
  • peripheral vision changes

Associated with: aging & increased intraocular pressure

checked during eye exam

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55
Q

What are common causes of perioribital edema?

CH 15

A
  • Congestive heart failure
  • eye infection
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56
Q

What is a hordeolum?

Ch 15

A

Stye

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57
Q

What is blepharitis?

Ch 15

A

Inflammation of the eye

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58
Q

What is ptosis?

Ch 15

A

drooping of the eyelid

common after a stroke

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59
Q

What is ptosis?

Ch 15

A

drooping of the eyelid

common after a stroke

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60
Q

What should the conjunctiva & sclera look like?

Ch 15

A
  • Conjunctiva should be clear
  • Sclera should be white
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61
Q

What is anisocoria?

Ch 15

A

Unequal pupils

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62
Q

What is the biggest concern regarding the eyes when a head injury occurs?

Ch 15

A

Pupils are quick to change

  • unequal pupils (can be caused by anything that changes intracranial pressure)
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63
Q

What is accommodation?

Ch 15

A

How pupils constrict to near objects

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64
Q

Which CN are responsible for accommodation?

CH 15

A

CN III (oculomotor) & CN IV (trochlear)

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65
Q

How do you test for accommodation?

CH 15

A

1.) Have patient focus on something far away so that the pupils relax & dilate

2.) Put an object 12 inches away (close) & the pupils should constrict

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66
Q

What is the difference in checking direct & consensual light reflex?

Ch 15

A
  • Direct: checks the pupil you shine the light directly into
  • Consensual: Check the eye you do NOT shine the light directly into (shine light into same eye you checked direct with & watch the opposite eye)
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67
Q

How do we write pupil size?

Ch 15

A

Fraction

  • 3/1 –> 3 is at rest & 1 is when stimuli is applied
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68
Q

What CN does visual acuity test for?

Ch 15

A

CN II (optic)

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69
Q

Explain how the snellen chart works?

Ch 15

A
  • If the patient misses more than 1 letter in a line, then go up a line
  • Numerator: indicates the distance from the chart (always 20 feet away from the chart)
  • Denominator: indicates the distance at which a normal eye could have read that line
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70
Q

What does it mean as the denominator on the Snellen Chart Score INCREASES?

Ch 15

A

your vision is WORSE

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71
Q

What does a Snellen Chart Score of 20/30 mean?

Ch 15

A

At 20 feet (numerator), the normal eye can read at 30 feet

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72
Q

What is the red reflex?

Ch 15

A

Reflexion of the light (from the opthalmoscope) on the retina

lighter & brighter with a lighter iris

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73
Q

What is the normal appearance of the iris?

Ch 15

A

flat, round, even color

74
Q

What is important to note when checking / assessing pupils?

Ch 15

A
  • shape
  • size
  • equality R to L
75
Q

What is myopia?

Ch 15

A

nearsightedness

76
Q

What is hyperopia?

Ch 15

A

farsightedness

77
Q

What is macular degeneration?

Ch 15

A

breakdown of cells in the macula of the retina causing loss of central vision

78
Q

Explain Cataracts

Ch 15

A
  • opaque lenses
  • related to aging or trauma
  • can lead to blindness
79
Q

What is the tympanic membrane?

CH 16

A

Eardrum

  • separates external & middle ear
  • Appearance: translucent, pearly-gray, shiny, slightly concave, & reflects light
80
Q

What CN is involved in pathological hearing loss?

Ch 16

A

CN VIII

Vestibulocochlear

81
Q

What is conductive hearing loss?

Ch 16

A

dysfunction of external or middle ear

foreign bodies, perforated TM, otosclerosis

82
Q

What is vertigo?

Ch 16

A

Sensation of spinning

  • dizziness & feeling off balance
83
Q

How do you assess the ear of an infant vs. the ear of an adult?

Ch 16

A
  • Infants: short & wide eustachian tube (leads to more ear infections)
  • Adults: cerumen builds up & cilia lining the inner ear become coarse & stiff
84
Q

How do we assess a child’s ear vs. an adult’s ear?

Ch 16

A

Adult: pull pina up & back

Child: pull the ear down

85
Q

What is the correct way to hold the otoscope?

Ch 16

A

upside down

Provides barrier w/ back of the hand so speculum doesn’t go in too far

86
Q

What is tinnitus?

Ch 16

A

ringing in the ear

Can be due to ear disorders, medications, etc.

87
Q

What do we inspect on the ears?

Ch 15

A
  • Size
  • Shape
  • Placement
  • Skin condition

Are they large because of inflammation?

88
Q

What is noted when palpating the ears?

Ch 16

A
  • Tenderness (usually on mastoid process)
89
Q

Where is the cone of light located in the left & right ears?

Ch 16

A

Left Ear: 7 o’clock

Right Ear: 5 o’clock

90
Q

What can tubes in the ears lead to?

Ch 16

A

scarring on the TM from ear tubes

91
Q

How do you perform the whisper test?

A

1.) Stand behind the person

2.) Ask patient to occlude other ear

3.) **Whisper a few nubmers, 2 syllable word, or 2 words **(tell patient what type of word / how many numbers you’re going to tell them)

Do this bilaterally

92
Q

What test is used for testing equilibrium?

Ch 16

A

Romberg Test

93
Q

How do you perform the Romberg Test & what does it assess for?

Ch 16

A

Balance

1.) Have patient stand near their bed with feet together (not touching anything)

2.) Have patient stand with feet together, eyes closed, & arms at the side for 20 seconds

  • Patient should be able to maintain position without swaying
94
Q

What is the cerebellum responsible for?

Ch 24

A
  • Motor coordination of voluntary movement
  • equillibrium
95
Q

What is the frontal lobe responsible for?

Ch 25

A

personality, behavior, & emotion

96
Q

What is Broca’s area responsible for?

Ch 25

A

speech

in FRONTAL lobe

97
Q

What is the temproal lobe responsible for?

Ch 25

A

hearing, taste, smell

98
Q

What is the parietal lobe responsible for?

99
Q

What is the hypothalamus responsible for?

Ch 25

A
  • sleep
  • temperature
  • blood pressure
  • autonomic nervous system
100
Q

What is Wernicke’s area respnosible for?

Ch 25

A

speech comprehension

101
Q

What is the occipital lobe responsible for?

Ch 25

A

visual reception

101
Q

What is the occipital lobe responsible for?

Ch 25

A

visual reception

102
Q

Is decerebrate rigidity or decorticate rigidity more ominous?

Ch 25

A

Decerebrate rigidity

103
Q

What is the Preictal Phase?

Ch 25

A

Aura: subjective sensation that precedes the seizure

  • can be motor, auditory, visiual, etc.
  • Sensation the patient knows & can identify they are going to have a seizure
104
Q

What is the Ictal Phase?

Ch 25

A

Actual seizure activity

  • How long did it last?
  • What occured?
105
Q

What is the Postictal Phase?

Ch 25

A

Seizure is over

Patients may feel:
* tired
* weak
* don’t recall having a seizure
* headache
* muscle ache

Get vitals: are they different from baseline?

106
Q

What is Broca’s aphasia (expressive)?

Ch 25

A

Patient is unable to express their thoughts in words

107
Q

What is Wernicke’s aphasia (receptive)?

Ch 25

A

Patient has difficulty understanding language

108
Q

What is global aphasia?

Ch 25

A

Patient is unable to expresse their thoughts in words & is unable to understand language

Both Broca’s & Wernicke’s Aphasia

109
Q

What is global aphasia?

Ch 25

A

Patient is unable to expresse their thoughts in words & is unable to understand language

Both Broca’s & Wernicke’s Aphasia

110
Q

What does CN I assess?

Ch 25

A

Olfactory Nerve

  • sense of smell
111
Q

What does CN II test?

Ch 25

A

Optic nerve

  • tests visual acuity
112
Q

What do CNs III, IV, & VI test?

Ch 25

A

Oculomotor (III), Trochlear (IV), & Abducens (VI) nerves

  • check pupils for size, regularity, equality, direct & consensual light reaction, & accomodation
  • Assesses extraocular movements
113
Q

What does CN V test?

CH 25

A

Trigeminal Nerve

  • Motor: Assesses TMJ (clenching teech, should feel symmetrical bilaterally)
  • Sensory: sensation of light touch (eyes closed, use light touch on forehad, cheeks, chin)
114
Q

What does CN VII test?

Ch 25

A

Facial Nerve

  • Mobility
  • Facial Symmetry (response to smile, frown, close eyes tightly, lift eyebrows, show teeth)
  • Have patient puff out cheecks (press cheeks in, air should escape equally)
115
Q

What does CN VIII test?

Ch 25

A

Vestibulocochlear Nerve

  • Tests hearing (use whisper test)
116
Q

What do CN IX & X test?

Ch 25

A

Glossopharyngeal & Vagus Nerves

Tests voice & pharyngeal movement

  • touch posterior pharyngeal wall w/ tongue blade & assess gag reflex
  • Assess uvula movment, tonsillar pillars, etc.
117
Q

What does CN XI test?

Ch 25

A

Spinal Accessory Nerve

  • examine sternomastoid & trapezius muscles for equal size
  • Check shoulder resistance & rotating head against resistance

Should be equally strong bilaterally

118
Q

What does CN XII test?

Ch 25

A

Hypoglossal Nerve

  • Inspect tongue: no wasting or tremors, note lingual speech (sounds of letters l, t, d, & n)
119
Q

How can you test for muscle strength?

Ch 25

A
  • hand grasp w/ push & pull
  • plantar felxion & dorsiflexion w/ resistance
120
Q

List some of the Rapid Alternating Movements (RAM) Tests

Ch 25

A
  • Finger to Finger
  • Finger to Nose
  • Heel to Shin
121
Q

What reflexes should be checked?

Ch 25

A
  • Biceps (AC region)
  • Triceps (behind elbow)
  • Brachioradialis (wrist)
  • Quadriceps (front of knee)
  • Achilles
122
Q

What is Parkinson’s Disease & what are symptoms of it?

Ch 25

A

Defect of extrapyramidal tract

  • Posture: stooped; steps short & shuffling
  • Facial Expression: flat, staring, expressionless
  • Tremors, rigidity
123
Q

What does a positive Babinski reflex indicate and what can cause a positive Babinski reflex?

Ch 25

A

Indicates: upper motor neuron lesion

  • can be caused by stroke, brain injury, spinal cord injury
124
Q

What does Decerebrate rigidity indicate in terms of pathophysiology?

Ch 25

A

lesion in brainstem at midbrain or upper pons

125
Q

What does Decorticate rigidity indcate in terms of pathophysiology?

Ch 25

A

lesion at or above brainstem

126
Q

What is a Babinski sign?

A

should see upward movement of big toe when running “sharp” object up the bottom of the foot

127
Q

When can neuro checks occur?

Ch 25

A

Every 5, 10, 15, 30, or 60 minutes

128
Q

What is assessed in a neuro check?

Ch 25

A
  • level of consciousness
  • vital signs
  • pupillary response
  • motor function
  • GCS
129
Q

What is assessed in the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS)?

Ch 25

A
  • Eye-opening response
  • Motor respnose
  • Verbal response
130
Q

What does a GCS of 7 or less indicate?

Ch 25

A

Patient is in a coma

131
Q

What is a normal GCS score?

Ch 25

132
Q

What is the leading cause of long-term disability?

Ch 25 (neuro)

133
Q

How can you differentiate between a stroke & TIA?

A

Stroke is usually longer-lasting & symptoms worsen

TIA is brief & there is no permanent damage

134
Q

What is aphasia?

Ch 25

A

language impairment due to brain damage / injury

135
Q

What is ataxia?

Ch 25

A

Poor musle control that causes involuntary, clumsy movements

136
Q

What is decerebrate rigidity?

Ch 25

A

Arms are EXTENDED

Upper Extremities: stiffly extended, adducted, internal rotation, palms pronated

Lower Extremities: stiffly extended, plantar flexxion, hyperextended back, clenched teeth

Decerebrate = Extended

137
Q

What is decorticate rigidity?

Ch 25

A

Patient brings arms to the COR of the body

Upper Extremities: flexion of arms, wrists, & fingers; adduction of arm

Lower Extremities: extension, internal rotation, plantar flexion

decorticate = arms come to the COR of the body

138
Q

What is the difference in dysphasia & dysphagia?

Ch 25

A

Dysphasia: difficulty with Speech

Dysphagia: difficulty Swallowing

139
Q

What are the first level priorities?

Ch 1

A
  • Airway
  • Breathing
  • Circulation
140
Q

When is the diaphragm used for auscultation & what does it detect?

Ch 8

A
  • Detects high pitched sounds
  • used on the abdomen, lungs, heart
141
Q

When is the bell of the stethoscope used for auscultation & what does it detect?

Ch 8

A
  • detects low pitched sounds
  • used for Vascular sounds, extra heart sounds
142
Q

How should the diaphragm be placed on the body for auscultation?

Ch 8

A

Diaphragm is placed firmly

143
Q

How should the bell be placed for auscultation?

Ch 8

A

Bell is placed lightly

144
Q

Normal Temperature Range

Ch 9 & 10

A
  • 35.8 - 37.3 °C
  • 96.4 - 99.1 °F
145
Q

How long should the apical pulse be measured for?

Ch 9 & 10

146
Q

What is normal pulse force?

Ch 9 & 10

147
Q

What is a normal heart rate?

Ch 9 & 10

A

60 - 100 bpm

148
Q

What is a bradycardic & tachycardic heart rate?

Ch 9 & 10

A
  • Bradycardic: < 50 BPM
  • Tachycardic: > 95 - 100 BPM
149
Q

What is a normal adult respiratory rate?

Ch 9 & 10

A

10 - 20 breaths per minute

150
Q

What is a normal pulse oximetry range?

Ch 9 & 10

151
Q

What is pulse pressure?

Ch 9 & 10

A

Systolic Pulse - Diasotlic Pulse

152
Q

What constitutes hypertension?

Ch 9 & 10

A

BP < 120-129 / 80

153
Q

What is a normal adult blood pressure?

Ch 9 & 10

A

anything under 120/80

154
Q

What sound is heard when auscultating over bones or muscles?

Ch 19

155
Q

What is the normal sound sound when auscultating over the lung fields?

Ch 19

156
Q

What is the normal sound heard when auscultating over the abdomen?

Ch 19

157
Q

What sound is heard when auscultating over an organ?

Ch 19

158
Q

What is normal number of bowel sounds when auscultating?

Ch 22

A

5 - 30 sounds per minute

Hyperactive > 30 sounds per minute

Hypoactive <5 sounds per minute

159
Q

What spinal nerves are assessed when testing biceps reflexes?

Ch 24

A

Biceps = C5 - C6

160
Q

What spinal nerves are assessed when testing triceps reflexes?

Ch 24

A

Triceps = C7 - C8

161
Q

What spinal nerves are assessed when testing brachioradialis reflexes?

Ch 24

A

Brachioradialis = C5 - C6

162
Q

What spinal nerves are assessed when testing quadriceps reflexes?

Ch 24

A

Quadriceps = L2 - L4

163
Q

What spinal nerves are assessed when testing achilles reflexes?

Ch 24

A

Achilles = L5 - S2

164
Q

What causes the pupils to dilate?

a.) Brightly lit settings
b.) Narcotis
c.) Dimly lit settings
d.) Cocaine

A

d.) Dimly lit settings

165
Q

What type of hearing loss is associated with ototoxic drugs?

a.) Conductive
b.) Sensorineural

A

b.) Sensorineural

166
Q

What cranial nerve is tested by having the patient say “ahhh” & checking the gag reflex?

a.) CN IV IV (trochlear)
b.)CN VII (facial)
c.) CN V (trigeminal)
d.) CN X (vagus)

A

d.) X (vagus nerve)

167
Q

Which joints are not moveable?

a.) Synovial
b.) Non-synovial
c.) Ball & socket
d.) Hinge

A

b.) Non-synovial

168
Q

What disorder causes loss of central vision & commonly has peripheral vision intact?

a.) Cataracts
b.) Glaucoma
c.) Macular degeneration
d.) Strabismus

A

c.) Macular Degeneration

169
Q

If Phalen’s test were negative you would expect to see…

a.) No changes in feeling
b.) Tingling
c.) Numbness
d.) Burning

A

a.) No changes in feeling

170
Q

Chronic unequal pupils affects about 5% of the population & is called…

a.) Ptosis
b.) Anisocoria
c.) Blepharitis
d.) Exopthalmos

A

b.) Anisocoria

171
Q

Which cranial nerve is not associated with the eyes?

a.) CN III
b.) CN IV
c.) CN VI
d.) CN VIII

A

d.) CN VIII (vestibulocochlear)

172
Q

What is a round lesion, is indurated, crusted, & ulcerated with an elevated border & is still unhealed after 2 weeks?

a.) Chronic allergies
b.)Acute rhinitis
c.) Carcinoma
d.) Herpes Simplex I

A

c.) Carcinoma

173
Q

How do you test CN XI (spinal accessory)?

a.) Pressure on the forehead, cheek, & jaw with a cotton swab to check sensation

b.) Test the tongue by giving the patient a sour, bitter, & salty substance

c.) Use the snellen chart

d.) Ask the patient to rotate their head & shrug their shoulders

A

d.) Ask the patient to rotate their head & shrug their shoulders

174
Q

What is found with a perforated spetum?

a.) Light shines through to the other side when a penlight shines up the nares
b.) A valve that moves
c.) Small pale gray nodules
d.) There is a chronic nosebleed

A

a.) Light shines through to the other side when a penlight shines through

175
Q

Aging adults do NOT experience…

a.) Diminished smell & taste
b.) Increased tonsil size
c.) Atrophic tissue
d.) Dental changes

A

b.) Increased tonsil size

176
Q

Which is not a description of a normal TM?

a.) Translucent
b.) Pearly gray
c.) White
d.) Reflects light

177
Q

What is a pronounced lumbar curvature of the spine called?

a.) lordosis
b.) scoliosis
c.) kyphosis
d.) osteoporosis

A

a.) Lordosis (swayback, stomach sticks out)

178
Q

Chronic inflammatory pain condition that is possibly started by an autoimmune response, inflammatory event, or infection is called…

a.) Osteoporosis
b.) Osteoarthritis
c.) Rheumatoid Arthritis

A

c.) Rheumatoid Arthritis

179
Q

Which cranial nerve is tested by inspecting the tongue & asking the patient to stick their tongue out?

a.) CN XII (hypoglossal)
b.) CN I (olfactory)
c.) VII (facial)
d.) CN X (vagus)

A

a.) CN XII (hypoglossal)

180
Q

True or false:

Kyphosis cannot result from rheumatoid arthritis?

181
Q

What is the correct test to deteremine equilibrium?

a.) Weber test
b.) Whisper test
c.) Romberg test
d.) Rinne test

A

c.) Romberg test

Health Assessment (NUR 202) (4 decks)

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