Exam 1 (Chapters 1, 8, 9, 10, 11, 13, 5 (p. 63-76), & 32 (p. 1041 - 1070))

Question 1

Objective Data

(Ch. 1)

Answer 1

Measurable data observed by health professional during an exam

Question 2

Subjective Data

(Ch. 1)

Answer 2

Patient reported data

what the patient says about themselves during history taking

Question 3

What are the two types of data collection methods and are they objective or subjective?

(Ch. 1)

Answer 3

• History Taking = subjective
• Physical Exam = objective

Question 4

6 Phases of the Nursing Process

(Ch. 1)

Answer 4

1. assessment
2. diagnosis
3. outcome identificiation
4. planning
5. implementation
6. evaluation

Question 5

First Level Priorities

(Ch. 1)

Answer 5

• A - airway
• B - breathing
• C - circulation

Question 6

Second Level Priorities

(Ch. 1)

Answer 6

• Acute pain
• Change in mental status
• Infection

Question 7

Third Level Priorities

(Ch. 1)

Answer 7

• Lack of knowledge
• Family coping
• Activity
• Rest

Question 8

4 Types of Data that are collected

(Ch. 1)

Answer 8

1. Complete (Total Health) Database:
* describes current & past health state & forms baseline to measure all future changes

2. Episodic or Problem-Centered Database:
* collect “mini” database, smaller scope & more focused than complete database

3. Follow-Up Database:
* status of all identified problems should be regularly evaluated

4. Emergency Database:
* rapid collection of data often complied concurrently with life-saving measures

Question 9

What is evidence based practice (EBP)?

(Ch. 1)

Answer 9

• systematic approach
• emphasizes use of best evidence

Question 10

5 Steps of Evidence Based Practice (EBP)

(Ch. 1)

Answer 10

QESAA
1. Ask clinical question

2. Acquire sources of evidence

3. Appraise & synthesize evidence

4. Apply relevant evidence in practice

5. Assess the outcome

Q: ask a question
E: gather sources of evidence
S: synthesize evidence
A: apply relavent evidence to practice
A: assess the outcome

Question 11

Validation of data entails

a.) distinguishing normal from abnormal
b.) making inferences
c. using an organized & comprehensive approach
d. checking the accuracy & reliability of data

(Ch. 1)

Answer 11

d. checking the accuracy & reliability of data

Question 12

Which critical thinking skill helps the nurse to see relationships among the data?

a. validation
b. clustering related cues
c. identifying gaps in data
d. distinguishing relevant from irrelevant

(Ch. 1)

Answer 12

b. clustering related cues

Question 13

An example of subjective data is:

a. decreased range of motion
b. crepitation in the left knee joint
c. left knee has been swollen & hot for the past 3 days
d. arthritis

(Ch. 1)

Answer 13

c. left knee has been swollen & hot for the past 3 days

Question 14

Which of the following is considered an example of objective data?

a. alert & oriented
b. dizziness
c. earache
d. sore throat

(Ch. 1)

Answer 14

a. alert & oreinted

Question 15

4 Components of the General Survey

(Ch. 9 & 10)

Answer 15

BAMS

1. Physical Appearance
* age, sex, LOC, skin color, facial features

2. Body Structure
* stature, nutrition, symmetry, posture, position, body build & contour

3. Mobility
* gait & ROM

4. Behavior
* facial expression, mood & affect, speech, dress, hygiene

B: behavior
A: appearance
M: mobility
S: structure

Question 16

Normal Temperature Range

(Ch. 9 & 10)

Answer 16

• 96.4 - 99.1 °F

OR

• 35.8 - 37.3 °C

Question 17

What can influence temperature?

(Ch. 9 & 10)

Answer 17

• Age
• Pain
• Exercise
• Smoking
• Drinking hot or cold fluids

Question 18

What is pulse?

(Ch. 9 & 10)

Answer 18

pressure wave created by stroke volume when the heart is pumping

Question 19

How long should the apical pulse be taken for?

(Ch. 9 & 10)

Answer 19

1 minute

Question 20

List Pulse Descriptors

(Ch. 9 & 10)

Answer 20

Force:
* 0 = no pulse
* +1 = weak, thready
* +2 = normal
* +3 = bounding

Rhythym:
* Regular or irregular

Question 21

Normal Pulse Rate

(Ch. 9 & 10)

In an Adult

Answer 21

60 - 100 BPM

Question 22

Bradycardia Pulse Rate

(Ch. 9 & 10)

Pulse Rate that constitues bradycardia

Answer 22

• < 50 BPM

(less than)

Question 23

Tachycardia Pulse Rate

(Ch. 9 & 10)

Pulse rate that constitutes tachycardia

Answer 23

• > 95 - 100 BPM

(greater than)

Question 24

What are respirations and what does one respiration consist of?

(Ch. 9 & 10)

Answer 24

• breaths per minute
• 1 breath = 1 inspiration AND 1 expiration

Question 25

**Normal Respiratory Rate** (in adults) | (Ch. 9 & 10)

Answer 25

10 - 20 / minute

Question 26

**What situations can affect respirations?** | (Ch. 9 & 10)

Answer 26

* Narcotis * Head injury * Anesthesia * Exercise * Sleep * Heart Failure

Question 27

**How can respiratory rate be described / what should be noted when measuring respiratory rate?** | (Ch. 9 & 10)

Answer 27

* **Sounds:** wheezing, grunting, gurgling * **Effort:** accessory muscle use * **Position:** orthopnea, tropod, nocturnal dyspnea, sleeping upright in a chair

Question 28

**What does pulse oximetry measure?** | (Ch. 9 & 10)

Answer 28

saturation of oxygen (SpO2)

Question 29

**Normal SpO2 Range** | (Ch. 9 & 10)

Answer 29

97 - 99%

Question 30

**What situations can affect oxygen saturation?** | (Ch. 9 & 10)

Answer 30

* Anemia * Lung disease * Heart disease * Inadequate O2 given

Question 31

**What is Blood Pressure?** | (Ch. 9 & 10)

Answer 31

* **Systolic:** blood pushing aginst the vessel wall (CONTRACTION) * **Diastole:** blood resting and no longer pushing against the vessel wall (REST)

Question 32

**What is Pulse Pressure?** | (Ch. 9 & 10)

Answer 32

difference between systolic & diastolic BP

Question 33

**What can influence BP?** | (Ch. 9 & 10)

Answer 33

* age, race, sex, weight, emotions, exercise, stress, medication * cardiac output, volume of circulating blood, viscosity, elasticity of vessel walls

Question 34

**Normal Blood Pressure** | (Ch. 9 & 10)

Answer 34

**< 120/80** | systolic: < 120 diastolic: < 80

Question 35

**Hypertension Blood Pressure** | (Ch. 9 & 10) ## Footnote What constitutes hypertension?

Answer 35

BP > 120 - 129 / 80

Question 36

**What is orthostatic hypotension?** | (Ch. 9 & 10)

Answer 36

**Drop** in systolic BP > 20 mmHg * increase in pulse > 20 b/min when changing to a standing position | (greater than)

Question 37

**How high should the BP cuff be inflated?** | (Ch. 9 & 10)

Answer 37

20 - 30 mmHg **above** pulse cessation point

Question 38

**Common Errors with BP Assessment** | (Ch. 9 & 10)

Answer 38

* arm placement * crossed legs * deflating cuff too fast or slow * not waiting 1-2 min between readings * failure to palpate for inflation level * incorrect cuff size (too big or too small) * defective equipment

Question 39

**What are Korotkoff Sounds?** | (Ch. 9 & 10)

Answer 39

* **Korotkoff I:** first clear audible tapping sound (systolic number) * **Korotkoff V:** silence or last audible sound (diastolic number)

Question 40

**Which patient would be most likely to present with a pulse rate that is lower than normal?** **a.** a 70-year-old telephone salesman presenting with dehydration **b.** a 20-year-old runner who had surgery 4 days ago for a fractured leg **c.** a 67-year-old who presented with an exacerbation of his COPD | (Ch. 9 & 10)

Answer 40

**b.** a 20-year-old runner who had surgery 4 days ago for a fractured leg

Question 41

**Helpful Temperature Conversions to Memorize** * 104 °F = ? * 98.6 °F = ? * 95 °F =? | (Ch. 9 & 10)

Answer 41

* 104 °F = **40 °C** * 98.6 °F = **37 °C** * 95 °F = **35 °C**

Question 42

What is an ausculatory gap? | (Ch. 10 - vital signs)

Answer 42

** No Sound** * silence for 30 - 40 mmHg during deflation; this is an abnormal finding

Question 43

**Common errors in blood pressure measurement include:** **a.** taking BP in an arm that is at the level of the heart **b.** waiting < 1-2 minutes before repeating the BP reading on the same arm **c.** waiting 30 minutes if the client has just smoked a cigarette **d.** using a BP cuff whose bladder is 80% of the arm circumference | (Ch. 9 & 10)

Answer 43

**b.** waiting < 1-2 minutes before repeating the blood pressure reading on the same arm

Question 44

What is inspection & what does it require? | (Ch. 8)

Answer 44

**Inspection:** concentrated watching**;** compares the R & L sides of the body Requires: * good lighting * adequate exposure * occasional use of certain instruments

Question 45

What is palpation and what is it used to assess? | (Ch. 8)

Answer 45

**Palpation:** applies sense of touch to assess... * texture * temperature * moisture * organ location & size * swelling * vibration or pulsation * rigidity or spasticity * crepitation * presence of lumps or masses * presence of tenderness or pain

Question 46

What is percussion & what does it depict? | (Ch. 8)

Answer 46

**Percussion:** tapping the patient's skin with **short, sharp strokes that create audible vibration & sounds** to assess underlying structures * Depicts the size, location, & density of underlying organs

Question 47

**What are the 4 key parts of assessment?** | (Ch. 8)

Answer 47

* **I:** inspection * **P:** palpation * **P:** percussion * **A:** auscultation

Question 48

**What is palpation *unable* to determine?** | (Ch. 8)

Answer 48

disease state of an organ

Question 49

**When is light vs deep palpation used?** | (Ch. 8)

Answer 49

* **Deep Palpation:** intermittent pressure to examine abdominal contents * **Light Palpation:** used to detect surface characteristics

Question 50

**Characteristics Assessed by Palpation** | (Ch. 8)

Answer 50

* texture * temperature & moisture * organ location & size * swelling * vibration & pulsation * rigidity or spasticity * crepitation (cracking) * presence of lumps / masses or tenderness / pain

Question 51

**List the characteristics of percussion** | (Ch. 8)

Answer 51

* resonant * hyperresonant * tympany * dull * flat * amplitude

Question 52

What is a **resonant** sound & where is it located during percussion? | (Ch. 8)

Answer 52

* **clear sound** * over lung fileds, hollow

Question 53

When is a **hyperresonant** sound heard durring percussion? | (Ch. 8)

Answer 53

* over **child lungs** * in patients with **COPD**

Question 54

What is a **tympany** & where is it heard during percussion? | (Ch. 8)

Answer 54

* heard over the **abdomen (air filled areas)** * **normal finding** * sounds like a **drum**

Question 55

What is a **dull** sound during percussion & where is it heard? | (Ch. 8)

Answer 55

* sounds like a **muffled thud** * heard over **organs** (liver, spleen, etc.)

Question 56

What is a **flat** sound during percussion & where is it heard? | (Ch. 8)

Answer 56

* sound comes to a **dead stop**

Question 57

What is **amplitude** in terms of percussion characteristics? | (Ch. 8)

Answer 57

can be **loud** or **soft**

Question 58

What sounds are detected using the bell vs the diaphragm of the stethoscope? | (Ch. 8)

Answer 58

* **Diaphragm:** used to detect **high pitch** sounds (lung, abdoem, heart) * **Bell:** used to detect **low pitch** sounds (vascular, extra heart sounds, etc.)

Question 59

What sounds is the diaphragm of the stethoscope used to detect? | (Ch. 8)

Answer 59

**high pitched sounds** * lungs, abdomen, heart

Question 60

What sounds is the bell of the stethoscope used to detect? | (Ch. 8)

Answer 60

**low pitch sounds* * vascular sounds, extra heart sounds

Question 61

What is the difference in how you place the diaphragm vs. the bell for effective auscultation? | (Ch. 8)

Answer 61

* **Diaphragm** = place **firmly** * **Bell** = place **lightly**

Question 62

What side should you always examin the patient from? | (Ch. 8)

Answer 62

RIGHT side

Question 63

**The bell of the stethoscope** **a.)** is used for soft, low-pitched sounds **b.)** is used for high-pitched sounds **c.)** is held firmly against the skin **d.)** magnifies sound | (Ch. 8)

Answer 63

**a.)** is used for soft, low-pitched sounds

Question 64

**Which of the following techniques uses the sense of touch when assessing a patient?** **a.)** inspection **b.)** percussion **c.)** palpation **d.)** auscultation | (Ch. 8)

Answer 64

**c.)** palpation

Question 65

**Is pain subjective or objective?** | (Ch. 11)

Answer 65

subjective

Question 66

**What type of treatment should be considered when treating or managing pain?** | (Ch. 11)

Answer 66

holistic treatment

Question 67

What are the 4 concepts of nociception? | (Ch 11)

Answer 67

**1.) Transduction:** stimulus occurs in periphery **2.) Transmission:** pain moves from spinal cord to brain **3.) Perception:** conscious awareness of pain sensation **4.) Modulation:** neurons release NTs that block pain impulses

Question 68

What is **transduction** in regard to nociception? | (Ch. 11)

Answer 68

stimulus is felt in the periphery

Question 69

What is **transmission** in regard to nociception? | (Ch. 11)

Answer 69

pain impulse moves from spinal cord to brain

Question 70

What is **perception** in regard to nociception? | (Ch. 11)

Answer 70

conscious awareness of pain sensation

Question 71

What is **modulation** in regard to nociception? | (Ch. 11)

Answer 71

neurons (from the brainstem) release neurotransmitters that block pain impulses

Question 72

What is neuropathic pain? | (Ch. 11)

Answer 72

**abnormal processing of pain** * most difficult type of pain to treat * pain is perceived long after injury heals

Question 73

Give examples of neuropathic pain | (Ch. 11)

Answer 73

* chronic pain / nerve pain * shingles * sciatica * phantom limb * diabetes * patients with HIV

Question 74

What are 4 sources of pain? | (Ch. 11)

Answer 74

* visceral pain * deep somatic pain * cutaneous pain * referred pain

Question 75

What is **visceral pain?** | (Ch. 11)

Answer 75

pain in the **deep interior organs** | stomach, gallbladder, kidneys

Question 76

What is **deep somatic pain?** | (Ch. 11)

Answer 76

pain in the **blood vessels, bone, muscle, tendons, etc.**

Question 77

What is **cutaneous pain?** | (Ch. 11)

Answer 77

superficial / skin injuries

Question 78

What is **referred pain?** | (Ch. 11)

Answer 78

pain felt from one site, but pain is actually caused by pain or injury in a different location of the body

Question 79

What is acute pain? | (Ch. 11)

Answer 79

* short-term * follows a predictable trajectory * dissipates after injury heals * has protective qualities * activates autonomic nervous system * **elevated BP & respiratory rate**

Question 80

What is chronic pain? | (Ch. 11)

Answer 80

* continues beyond expected time * has no protective qualities * **normal vital signs** * level of pain may not correspond with physical findings

Question 81

What does pain in aging adults indicate? | (Ch. 11)

Answer 81

pathology or injury

Question 82

**Which type of pain would cholecystitis (gallbladder disease) cause?** **a.)** somatic **b.)** visceral **c.)** cutaneous **d.)** chronic

Answer 82

**b.) visceral pain** | visceral pain = internal organs

Question 83

**What anticipated finding regarding patients with chronic pain should guide a nurse's care planning?** **a.)** patients with chronic pain have trouble sleeping **b.)** patients with chronic pain show elevated blood pressure **c.)** patients with chronic pain need less medication **d.)** patients with chronic pain may show few or no outward signs of pain | (Ch. 11)

Answer 83

**d.) patients with chronic pain may show few or no outward signs**

Question 84

What is unique about aging skin? | (Ch. 12)

Answer 84

* drier, flat skin * decreased sebum & sweat production, elasticity, functioning melanocytes, elastin, collagen, subcutaneous fat * changes in temperature regulation, nails, & hair * increased vascular fragility * skin lesions are more common * increased risk for damage from pressure due to changes in circulation & decreased ability to form new collagen

Question 85

**What factors can lead to the development of a pressure ulcer?** | (Ch. 12)

Answer 85

* **external pressure** * **friction & shearing** * **immobility** * **nutrition & hydration** * **moisture** * **mental status** * **age**

Question 86

What is the Braden Scale & explain how it works. | (Ch. 12)

Answer 86

**assesses risk for developing pressure injury** * **lower score = higher risk** for pressure injury development | high score = less risk of pressure injury low score = high risk

Question 87

**What are the 7 factors used in the Braden Scale to assess pressure injury risk?** | (Ch. 12)

Answer 87

* sensory perception * moisture * activity * mobility * nutrition * friction & shear

Question 88

**What are the 4 stages of pressure injury?** | (Ch. 12)

Answer 88

**1.) Non-Blanchable Erythema:** intact skin with non-blanchable erythrma **2.) Partial-Thickness Skin Loss:** loss of dermis, skin is open & presents as an abrasion or blister. **3.) Full-Thicckness Skin Loss:** subcutaneous tissue may be visible, presents as a deep crater **4.) Full-Thickness Skin/Tissue Loss:** tissue necrosis or damage to muscle, bone, or supporting structures

Question 89

**What is a stage I pressure injury?** | (Ch. 12)

Answer 89

**intact skin with non-blanchable erythema** * localized redness * skin is not broken * skin does not blanch

Question 90

**What is a stage II pressure injury?** | (Ch. 12)

Answer 90

**partial-thickness skin loss** * skin is open * loss of epidermis & exposed dermis * appears as an abrasion or blister

Question 91

**What is a stage III pressure injury?** | (Ch. 12)

Answer 91

**Full-Thickness Skin Loss** * subcutaneous tissue may be visible * appears as a deep crater * may see subcutaneous fat, granulation tissue, & rolled edges

Question 92

**What is a stage IV pressure injury?** | (Ch. 12)

Answer 92

**Full-Thickness Skin/Tissue Loss** * all skin layers are involved * extends into supporting tissue exposing muscle, tendon, or bone * tissue necrosis

Question 93

What should be included in wound & skin lesion documentation? | (Ch. 12)

Answer 93

* color * characteristics of edges & wound bed * size & shape * depth / tunnles / raised * odor * clocked method * drainage characteristics * treatment method, patient tolerance, date, time, signature

Question 94

What is pruritis? | (Ch. 12)

Answer 94

itchy skin

Question 95

Explain how capillary refill is measured | (Ch. 12)

Answer 95

**brisk: 1-2 seconds** - less than 3 seconds **sluggish: 3+ seconds**

Question 96

**A patient who is admitted for liver failure would be likely to show which of the following skin changes?** **a.)** cyanosis **b.)** flushing **c.)** rubor **d.)** jaundice

Answer 96

**d.) jaundice**

Question 97

**Keloid** | (Ch. 12)

Answer 97

hypertrophic scar

Question 98

**Petechiae** | (Ch. 12)

Answer 98

* tiny punctate hemorrhages * 1-3 mm * round & discrete * dark red, purple, or brown in color

Question 99

**Nodule** | (Ch. 12)

Answer 99

* solid * elevated * hard or soft * larger than 1 cm

Question 100

**Vesicle** | (Ch. 12)

Answer 100

* elevated cavity containing free fluid * up to 1 cm * clear serum flows if wall is ruptured

Question 101

**Ecchymosis** | (Ch. 12)

Answer 101

a large patch of capillary bleeding into tissue

Question 102

**What is an annular or circular lesion?** | (Ch. 12)

Answer 102

**begins in the center & spreads to periphery** | Ex: tinea corporis (ringworm), tinea versicolor, pityriasis rosea

Question 103

**What is a grouped skin lesion?** | (Ch. 12)

Answer 103

**clusters of skin lesions** | vesicles of contact dermatitis

Question 104

**What is a gyrate skin lesion?** | (Ch. 12)

Answer 104

**twisted, coiled spiral, or snake-like lesion**

Question 105

**What is a linear skin lesion?** | (Ch. 12)

Answer 105

**scratch, streak, line, or stripe**

Question 106

**5 Levels of Consciousness** | (Unit 1 (assessment of whole person) Ch. 5 (mental status))

Answer 106

**1.) Alert** **2.) Lethargic (Somnolent)** **3.) Obtunded** **4.) Stupor (Semi-Coma)** **5.) Coma**

Question 107

Explain the first level of consciousness | (Unit 1 (assessment of whole person) Ch. 5 (mental status))

Answer 107

**Alert:** * awake or readily aroused * oriented * fully aware of external & internal stimuli & responds appropriately * conducts meaningful interpersonal interactions

Question 108

Explain the second level of consciousness | (Unit 1 (assessment of whole person) Ch. 5 (mental status))

Answer 108

**Lethargic (Somnolent):** * not fully alert; drifts off to sleep when not stimulated * can be aroused to name when called in normal voice, but looks drowsy * responds appropriately to questions or commands but thinking seems slow & fuzzy * inattentive, loses train of thought * spontaneous movements are decreased

Question 109

Explain the third level of consciousness | (Unit 1 (assessment of whole person) Ch. 5 (mental status))

Answer 109

**Obtunded:** * sleeps most of the time * difficult to arouse - needs loud shout or vigorous shake * acts confused when is aroused * converses in monosyllables * speech is mumbled & incoherent * requires constant stimulation for even marginal cooperation

Question 110

Explain the fourth level of consciousness | (Unit 1 (assessment of whole person) Ch. 5 (mental status))

Answer 110

**Stupor (Semi-Coma)** * spontaneously unconscious * responds only to persistent & vigorous shake or pain * has appropriate motor response; otherwise can only groan, mumble, or move restlessly * reflex activity persists

Question 111

Explain the fifth level of consciousness | (Unit 1 (assessment of whole person) Ch. 5 (mental status))

Answer 111

**Coma** * completely unconscious * no response to pain or any external or internal stimuli * light coma has some reflex activity but no purposeful movement * deep coma has no motor response

Question 112

Name each of the 5 stages of conscioussness & provide a 1-5 word explanation | (Unit 1 (assessment of whole person) Ch. 5 (mental status))

Answer 112

**1.) Alert:** awake & responsive **2.) Lethargic (Somnolent):** sleepy/drowsy (falls asleep between care) **3.) Obtunded:** difficult to arouse **4.) Stupor (Semi-Coma):** very difficult to arouse **5.) Coma:** completely unconscious / unarousable

Question 113

What is delirium? | (Unit 1 (assessment of whole person) Ch. 5 (mental status))

Answer 113

**clouding of consciousness** * inattentive, incoherent conversation * impaired recent memory & confabulatory for recent events * often agitated & having visual hallucinations * disoriented with confusion worse at night when environmental stimuli are decreased

Question 114

What are the 3 different types of aphasia? | (Unit 1 (assessment of whole person) Ch. 5 (mental status))

Answer 114

**1.) Global Aphasia** **2.) Broca Aphasia** **3.) Wernicke Aphasia**

Question 115

**What is Global aphasia?** | (Unit 1 (assessment of whole person) Ch. 5 (mental status))

Answer 115

Patient cannot **understand OR express** language

Question 116

**What is Broca Aphasia?** | (Unit 1 (assessment of whole person) Ch. 5 (mental status))

Answer 116

individual cannot express themself using words, **strugles to form complete sentences** * **uses broken words** | Broca = br..oken

Question 117

**What is Wernicke Aphasia?** | (Unit 1 (assessment of whole person) Ch. 5 (mental status))

Answer 117

**inability to understand language** * **fluent speech, but it's a word salad (does not make sense)** | Wernicke = what?

Question 118

**What are the levels of the Sedation Scale & what do they mean?** | (Unit 1 (assessment of whole person) Ch. 5 (mental status))

Answer 118

* **S:** asleep, easy to arouse * **1:** awake & alert * **2:** slgihtly drowsy, easily aroused * **3:** frequently drowsy, arousable, drifts off to sleep during conversation * **4:** somnolent, minimal or no response to physical stimulation

Question 119

**What does a sedation scale level S mean?** | (Unit 1 (assessment of whole person) Ch. 5 (mental status))

Answer 119

* asleep * easy to arouse

Question 120

**What does a sedation scale level 1 mean?** | (Unit 1 (assessment of whole person) Ch. 5 (mental status))

Answer 120

* awake & alert

Question 121

**What does a sedation scale level 2 mean?** | (Unit 1 (assessment of whole person) Ch. 5 (mental status))

Answer 121

* slightly drowsy * easily aroused

Question 122

**What does a sedation scale level 3 mean?** | (Unit 1 (assessment of whole person) Ch. 5 (mental status))

Answer 122

* frequently drowsy * arousable * drifts off to sleep during conversation

Question 123

**What does a sedation scale level 4 mean?** | (Unit 1 (assessment of whole person) Ch. 5 (mental status))

Answer 123

* somnolent * minimal or no response to physical stimulation

Question 124

**What does a mental status exam consist of?** | (Unit 1 (assessment of whole person) Ch. 5 (mental status))

Answer 124

* appearance * behavior * cognition * thought process * perception