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Neuroscience > Exam 3 > Flashcards

Exam 3 Flashcards

1
Q

(T/F) The vestibular system is tonically active.

A

True

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2
Q

When kinocilium

A
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3
Q

___ is the depolarizing signal in the membranous labyrinth.

A

K+

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4
Q

What occurs if hair cells bend toward kinocilium?

A

Further depolarization –> K+ channels open –> Ca+ flow –> NT release increased –> increase signal to vestibulocochlear nerve

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5
Q

What occurs if hair cells bend away from kinocilium?

A

Close more K+ channels –> hyperpolarization –> decrease signal to vestibulococheal nerve

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6
Q

What is the job of vestibular nucleus?

A

balance activity between both sides

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7
Q

Another name for vestibular system

A

special proprioception

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8
Q

Fluid within membranous labyrinth

A

enodlymph

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9
Q

Fluid upon membranous labyrinth

A

perilymph

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10
Q

(Endolymph/Perilymph) is continuous with CSF.

A

perilymph

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11
Q

Function of semicircular canals

A

dynamic equilibrium (know how you’re moving)

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12
Q

What is the sensory spot in semicircular canals?

A

ampulla

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13
Q

What is the sensory spot in the utricle/saccule?

A

macula

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14
Q

Macula function

A

static equilibrium (sense pull of gravity)

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15
Q

What is the sensory part of the system that generates action potentials through dendrites?

A

hari cells

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16
Q

What is cupula? Where is it located?

A

gelatinous membrane
in ampulla

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17
Q

Fluid has ____ so ampulla moves through fluid rather than fluid moving toward it (usually).

A

inertia

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18
Q

What is the Doll’s Eye Reflex?

A

eyes stay fixed when head moves

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19
Q

Vestibulo-Spinal Reflex pathway is a pathway

A

info –> vestibular nuclei –> vestibulospinal tract

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20
Q

(T/F) Decussation occurs in the Vestibulo-Spinal Reflex.

A

False!
stays ipsilateral

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21
Q

Lateral vestibulospinal tract –>

A

neck + all 4 limbs

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22
Q

Ventral vestibulospinal tract –>

A

neck + thoracic limbs

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23
Q

What occurs as a result of the vestibulo-spinal reflex?

A

stimulate ipsilateral extensors + dorsal neck (side falling)
inhibit ipsilateral flexors + contralateral extensors

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24
Q

What is the purpose of the vestibulo-spinal reflex that is also the main job of vestibular system?

A

oppose gravity

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25
Q

Pitch of sound? Loudness of sound?

A

frequency
amplitude

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26
Q

(High/Low) frequencies travel further.

A

Low

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27
Q

Function of ossicles in middle ear

A

amplify signals

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28
Q

Oval/vestibular window adhered to ____ and functions for:

A

stapes
send pressure waves through perilymph

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29
Q

Function of round/cochlear window

A

relief from fluid pressure

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30
Q

Function of middle ear muscles

A

regular ossicle movement, dampen sound

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31
Q

What is the Tensor Tympani M innervated by?

A

Trigeminal N

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32
Q

Function of Tensor Tympani M

A

stiffen malleus

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33
Q

Innervation of Stapedius M

A

Facial N

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34
Q

Function of Stapedius M

A

stiffens stapes

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35
Q

Bony core of cochlea

A

modiolus

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36
Q

3 membranes in cochlea

A

basilar membrane
reisner’s membrane
tectorial membrane

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37
Q

Scala vestibuli is filled with ____.

A

perilymph

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38
Q

Cochlear duct is filled with ____.

A

endolymph (high K+)

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39
Q

Scala tympani is filled with ______.

A

perilymph

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40
Q

What two things make up Organ of Corti?

A

tectorial membrane + hair cells

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41
Q

(High/Low) frequencies are perceived at top of cochlea while (High/Low) frequencies are perceived at the base.

A

low
high

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42
Q

Increase in firing rate of hair cells increases ____.

A

amplitude

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43
Q

Order of central processes for vestibular system.

A

Cochlear N in Cochlear Nucleus –> Trapezoid Body (decussates) –> Caudal Colliculus

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44
Q

Function of Caudal commissure

A

allow bilateral processing of sound (3D map)

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45
Q

Doppler Effect

A

difference in frequency if sound is coming away or toward you

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46
Q

Function of thalamus

A

relay + signal processing

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47
Q

Function of medial + lateral geniculate nuclei

A

receive info from senses –> relay to auditory cortex

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48
Q

Location of auditory cortex

A

sylvian gyrus

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49
Q

Function of auditory cortex

A

high level function / analysis of sounds

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50
Q

(T/F) Photoreceptors of the eye are constantly depolarized (tonically active).

A

True

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51
Q

Where are photoreceptors located?

A

retina

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52
Q

Photoreceptors are (inhibitory/excitatory) and release _____ (NT) on ____ cells.

A

excitatory
glutamate
bipolar cells

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53
Q

_____ cells give rise to the Optic N.

A

ganglion

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54
Q

What kind of cell is inhibited at rest in the retina?

A

ganglion cell

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55
Q

Cone function

A

differentiate between frequencies
produce color vision

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56
Q

(Rods/Cones) are high acuity but low sensitivity.

A

cones

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57
Q

What is area centralis?

A

area of highest cone concentration
highest acuity
center of visual field

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58
Q

What 3 types of animals have 3 pigments to detect 3 wavelengths (blue, green, red)?

A

primates, reptiles, amphibians

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59
Q

What 2 animals have 2 pigments and can detect 2 wavelengths (blue, red)?

A

dog
cat

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60
Q

What type of animal has 4-5 pigments into the ultraviolet range?

A

birds

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61
Q

What is the fifth pigment that birds have?

A

cryptochrome I

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62
Q

Function of cryptochrome I

A

detect magnetic field of earth
(in birds + dogs)

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63
Q

Rods function

A

vision in low light

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64
Q

What is the photoreceptor 3 cell pathway?

A

rod/cone –> bipolar cells –> ganglion cell

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65
Q

(Rods/Cones) have high sensitivity but low acuity.

A

rods

66
Q

What is the highly reflective layer on back of retina

A

Tapetum Lucidum

67
Q

Function of Tapetum Lucidum

A

increase sensitivity to light (increase changes of signal to rod)

68
Q

Mechanism of Pupillary-Light Reflex

A

light –> pre-tectal nuclei –> PSNS split –> CN III –> ciliary ganglia = both pupils constrict

69
Q

In birds, (everything/nothing) decussates so ______ occurs with their PLR response.

A

everything
only one eye constricts

70
Q

What are photopigments (opsins)?

A

membrane plates in photoreceptors

71
Q

Red-colored pigment in rods

A

rhodopsin

72
Q

Rhodopsin mechanism at rest

A

cGMP activated –> Na+ channel open = constant depolarization

73
Q

Rhodopsin mechanism with photon present

A

shut off rhodopsin = hyperpolarization –> shut off bipolar cell (inhibitory) –> ganglion cell release from inhibition = AT in Optic N

74
Q

Vitamin A function

A

reactivates photopigments (back to resting state)

75
Q

Two types of inhibitory interneurons

A

horizontal cells
amacrine cells

76
Q

Central Processing Vision Mechanism

A

signal –> Optic N –> Optic chiasm –> Optic tracts –> Lateral geniculate nucleus –> Thalamus –> Visual/Occipital cortex

77
Q

What 3 parts of vision does the Retina process?

A

color
edge
movement

78
Q

What part of vision is processed higher in the brain?

A

shape –> ID & location

79
Q

What is parallel processing?

A

vision can involve emotion + autonomic systems

80
Q

What is stereoscopic vision?

A

overlap in visual field which allow for depth perception

81
Q

How much decussation do optic tracts have in cat/human? Dog? Bird?

A

50%
75%
100%

82
Q

Which animal has a narrower stereoscopic field?

A

dog

83
Q

Cat’s eyes are positioned _____, which cause a (smaller/larger) visual field and a (smaller/larger) stereoscopic field.

A

frontal
smaller
larger

84
Q

Horse/cow eyes are positioned ____, which cause a (smaller/larger) visual field and a (smaller/larger) stereoscopic field.

A

lateral
larger
smaller

85
Q

In bright light, the (SNS/PSNS) is activated, the ______ M is activated, and the pupil (constricts/dilates).

A

PSNS
sphincter M
constricts

86
Q

In dim light, the (PSNS/SNS) is decreased, _____ M contracts, which leads to pupil (constriction/dilation).

A

PSNS
dilator Mm
dilation

87
Q

Pathway of SNS innervation to eye

A

Brain –> spinal cord (T1-T2) –> vagosympathetic trunk –> synapse at cranial cervical ganglion –> ophthalmic V –> pupil

88
Q

Horner’s Syndrome symptoms

A

constricted pupil, elevated third eyelid, droopy eye, eye sunken in

89
Q

Anisocoria

A

unequal pupils

90
Q

2 types of anisocoria

A

miosis
mydriasis

91
Q

Miosis loss of (PSNS/SNS) & (small/large) pupil.

A

SNS loss
small

92
Q

Mydriasis loss of (PSNS/SNS) & (small/large) pupil.

A

PSNS
large

93
Q

(T/F) Rods converge on single ganglion cell.

A

True
Increased sensitivity (but decreases acuity)

94
Q

Cones are (more/less) convergent than rods.

A

LESS
more 1:1 cones to ganglion cell
greater acuity, less sensitivity

95
Q

Horizontal cell function

A

lateral inhibition –> sharpens signal

96
Q

Amacrine cell function

A

signal processing at retinal level

97
Q

Signals to retina on medial side (decussate/don’t decussate) while signals on the lateral side of the contralateral eye (decussate/don’t decussate).

A

decussate
don’t decussate

98
Q

20% of the optic N goes to the _____.

A

rostral colliculi

99
Q

Stereoscopy

A

visual system compares differences between R vs. L side

100
Q

Suprachiasmatic nucleus function

A

circadian rhythm / hibernation

101
Q

(T/F) The nerves decussate in the vision pathway.

A

FALSE!
info decussates, not nerves

102
Q

Menace response pathway

A

optic N –> occipital cortex –> thalamus –> frontal cortex –> cerebellum –> facial N

103
Q

Peripheral Blindness (3 possible problems)

A

retina
optic nerves
chiasm

104
Q

PLR is affected in (peripheral/central) blindness.

A

peripheral vision

105
Q

Location of Central Blindness (3)

A

optic tracts
thalamus
cortex

106
Q

PLR not affected in (peripheral/central) blindness.

A

central

107
Q

Afferent lesion will (have/not have) anisocoria).

A

NOT

108
Q

ERG measures:

A

changes in electrical potential
whether or not retina is functional

109
Q

Bilateral blindness what would it mean to tracking/menace responses & PLR?

A

NO tracking
NO menace
NO PLR either eye

110
Q

Solanacia family plants block the (SNS/PSNS) function, leading to (dilation/constriction) of pupil.

A

PSNS
dilation

111
Q

3 possible causes of unilateral central blindness

A

tumor
stroke
infection
(localized damage)

112
Q

Hemineglect

A

sensory pathways intact but no behavioral response to stimuli

113
Q

EEG function

A

access animal’s state of consciousness (asleep vs. awake)
measures frequency of brainwaves

114
Q

RAS (Reticular Activating System)

A

motivation + wakefulness

115
Q

4 states of consciousness

A

sleep/wake
pathological (epilepsy, meningitis)
pharmacological (drugs)
non-pharm (meditation, music)

116
Q

Coma/stupor

A

not responsive at all to environment

117
Q

EEG stands for

A

electroencephalogram

118
Q

EEG of low voltage, high frequency, desynchronized = (what 2 states)

A

awake
REM sleep

119
Q

EEG of high voltage, low frequency, synchronized =

A

NREM sleep

120
Q

State of CNS readiness when animal wakes up:

A

arousal

121
Q

Least muscle tone in ______

A

REM sleep

122
Q

Arousal (wake) characteristics

A

behavioral
ANS
neurophysiological (Reticular Activating System)

123
Q

SNS increases during (sleep/wake).

A

wake

124
Q

2 RAS neurons that act through thalamus

A

lateral dorsal tegmentum
pedunculopontine tegmentum

125
Q

RAS neurons that BYPASS thalamus (name 3).

A

NE neurons
serotonin neurons
OREXIN

126
Q

Which NT is proponent of wakefulness & REM sleep?

A

Acetylcholine

127
Q

Remove RAS =

A

loss of desynchronized EEG
increase sleep

128
Q

Narcolepsy is due to a loss of ______ in the brain.

A

orexin

129
Q

Cell bodies for NE neurons located:

A

locus coeruleus (pons)

130
Q

Cell bodies for Serotonin located:

A

midbrain/pons (raphe)

131
Q

(high/low) activity of NE/serotonin during wakefulness, and ____ during REM sleep.

A

high
OFF

132
Q

REM sleep has ____ waves which generated visual aspect of it.

A

PGO

133
Q

What NT is released to inhibit alpha motor neurons for muscle atonia in REM sleep?

A

GABA

134
Q

What state does cardiorespiratory control get destabilized?

A

REM sleep

135
Q

High ____ power with high voltage in EEG.

A

delta

136
Q

What is slow wave sleep initiated by?

A

GABAergic VLPO neurons (ventrolateral preoptic)

137
Q

What are 2 humoral agent that can induce slow wave sleep?

A

adenosine (normally)
pro-inflammatory cytokines (sickness)

138
Q

Humoral mediator that allow pregnant moms to have more REM sleep:

A

prolactin

139
Q

Wakefulness (VLPO & RAS)

A

up RAS
inhibits VLPO

140
Q

Sleep (VLPO & RAS)

A

down RAS
up VLPO

141
Q

(T/F) A comatose animal can still have reflexes.

A

True

142
Q

Modified Glasgow Coma Scale

A

1-3
3 is lowest
greatest state of coma/unconsciousness

143
Q

Anesthesia (on RAS, respiration, EEG)

A

RAS - down
resp - down
EEG - synchronized

144
Q

What is the major receptor acted on with anesthesia?

A

GABA-a receptor

145
Q

Seizure def

A

brain disease from cerebral cortex
with abnormal electrical activity

146
Q

Cause of seizures

A

too many neurons firing synchronously

147
Q

2 things that determine seizure threshold

A

normal resting membrane potential
balanced input (excite/inhibition)

148
Q

Sz causes

A

energy deficiency

149
Q

Explain energy deficiency cause of sz

A

loss of Na/K pump causes Na+ leakage –> depolarization = seziure

150
Q

Myokymia

A

involuntary muscle spasms

151
Q

Function of astrocytes

A

take up and buffer extracellular K+ to even out ion concentrations

152
Q

What NT allows for excitation?

A

glutamate

153
Q

2 possible toxins that are glutamate agonists

A

myco-toxins
shellfish toxins

154
Q

2 effects of excitotoxicity

A

cytotoxic edema
apoptosis

155
Q

What part of the brain is particularly susceptible to seizures?

A

hippocampus

156
Q

Focal seizures

A

manifest in one specific area

157
Q

2 problems with activating Na+ channels

A

pyrethrins
mycotoxins

158
Q

What ion is used to regulate Na+ channel?

A

calcium

159
Q

Lack of calcium binding to Na+ channels will threshold of resting Vm to (increase/decrease).

A

decrease

160
Q

What is the major inhibitory NT? What channel does it open?

A

GABA
Cl- channels

Neuroscience (4 decks)

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