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Neuroscience > Exam 2 > Flashcards

Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Afferent nerves travel from the (CNS/periphery) to (CNS/periphery)

A

periphery –> CNS

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2
Q

Efferent nerves travel from the (CNS/periphery) to (CNS/periphery)

A

CNS –> periphery (target organ)

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3
Q

What are the 2 efferent pathways?

A

somatic nervous system
autonomic nervous system

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4
Q

How many neurons are in the somatic nervous system between the CNS and skeletal muscle?

A

1 neuron

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5
Q

_______ is the neurotransmitter and ______ is its receptor in the Somatic Nervous System.

A

Acetylcholine
N1 receptor

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6
Q

The Autonomic Nervous System has how many neurons?

A

2 neurons
connected by synapse (CNS–>organ)

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7
Q

What are the two neurons of the Autonomic Nervous System

A

preganglionic
postganglionic

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8
Q

What are the 2 splits of the ANS?

A

parasympathetic
sympathetic

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9
Q

What do lower motor neurons (LMNs) innervate?

A

skeletal muscle

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10
Q

Where are the cell bodies of LMNs located? (2 possibilities)

A

spinal cord OR
cranial nerve nuclei in brain

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11
Q

Where are the axons of LMNs located? (2 possibilities)

A

ventral roots OR
cranial nerves

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12
Q

What are the 4 lesions signs of LMNs?

A
  1. Paresis/Paralysis
  2. Decreased/absent muscle tone
  3. Decreased/absent spinal reflexes
  4. Skeletal muscle atrophy
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13
Q

(T/F) Upper Motor Neurons directly innervate skeletal muscle.

A

False

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14
Q

What is the function of UMNs?

A

“higher brain center” to modulate LMN activity

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15
Q

What are signs of loss of facilitatory UMN (lesion)?

A

paresis/paralysis

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16
Q

What are signs of loss of an inhibitory UMN (lesion)? (3)

A

increased muscle tone
increased reflexes
mild muscle atrophy (disuse)

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17
Q

What is the definition of a reflex?

A

response to stimulus w/o conscious thought

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18
Q

What are the 5 components of a Reflex Arc?

A
  1. Sensor
  2. Afferent nerve
  3. Integrator
  4. Efferent nerve
  5. Effector organ/tissue
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19
Q

Muscle where contraction decreases angle of the joint

A

Flexor muscle

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20
Q

Muscle where contraction increases the angle of a joint

A

Extensor muscle

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21
Q

What is the term for a muscle that produces a similar action?

A

agonist (synergist)

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22
Q

What is the term for a muscle that produces an opposite action?

A

antagonist muscle

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23
Q

Reciprocal Innervation

A

responsible for opposite effects on agonist/antagonist muscles
Ex: extensor relaxes as flexor contracts

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24
Q

Homonymous Muscle

A

muscle that contains sensory receptors which initiates a reflex response

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25
Q

What are the two types of LMNs?

A

alpha motor neurons
gamma motor neurons

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26
Q

What do alpha motor neurons innervate?

A

extrafusal muscle fibers

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27
Q

What do gamma motor neurons innervate?

A

intrafusal muscle fibers (muscle spindle)

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28
Q

(T/F) Gamma motor neurons are tonically active.

A

True

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29
Q

Why are gamma motor neurons tonically active?

A

maintain tone/sensitivity in extrafusal muscle
= greater “gain” and discharge on extrafusal fibers

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30
Q

What is the function of the Myotatic Reflex?

A

maintain muscle contraction to maintain posture
muscle contracts when stimulated to “maintain load”

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31
Q

Explain the Golgi Tendon Organ Reflex

A

stimulation/tension in the tendon causes a reflex relaxation of a muscle if load is too heavy (drop load)

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32
Q

What is the function of the Golgi Tendon Organ Reflex?

A

protective | spreads out load

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33
Q

Explain process of Flexion-Crossed Extension Reflex

A

if you step on noxious stimuli:
-flex limb that stepped (inhibit extensor via inhibitory interneuron)
-extend opposite limb (inhibit flexor via inhibitory interneuron)

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34
Q

Explain process of Corneal Reflex

A

Nociceptors on cornea
Opthalmic nerve
Synapses in brain stem
CN VII (facial) induces blink
Skeletal muscle closes eyelid

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35
Q

What are Renshaw cells?

A

inhibitory interneurons in spinal cord to mediate negative feedback and connect to alpha motor neurons

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36
Q

Function of Renshaw cells (3)

A
  1. regulate motor neuron excitability
  2. stabilize alpha motor neuron firing rates
  3. limit duration of motor activity
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37
Q

What 2 things are Renshaw cells excited by?

A

-Collateral projections from motor neurons
-Descending pathways from UMNs

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38
Q

Function of ANS

A

control of visceral function

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39
Q

Homeostasis

A

maintain constant internal environment

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40
Q

Rheostasis

A

controlled level of parameter that varies with need

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41
Q

What two cells are in the efferent path of the ANS?

A

preganglionic cells
postganglionic cells

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42
Q

What modifies ANS outflow?

A

interoreceptors (chemoreceptors + baroreceptors)

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43
Q

Where is sympathetic nervous system located?

A

thoracolumbar

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44
Q

Where are the preganglionic cell bodies in the SNS located?

A

IML (intermediolateral nucleus)

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45
Q

Where do the preganglionic neurons of SNS exit?

A

exit ventral roots

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46
Q

Where are the SNS postganglionic cell bodies located?

A

chain or prevertebral ganglia

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47
Q

Where are the SNS postganglionic fibers located?

A

innervate target organs

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48
Q

Effects of SNS:
eye | heart | vessels | GI | salivary | sweat glands | metabolism

A

dilate pupils
increase HR | increase force contraction
constrict vessels
decrease GI motility/secretion
decrease salivary secretion
increase sweat secretion
increase BG, O2 consumption, energy utilization

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49
Q

What is the main way to stop norepinephrine activity?

A

reuptake

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50
Q

What neurotransmitter is in most postganglionic sympathetic nerves?

A

Norepinephrine

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51
Q

What two NTs make up the catecholamines?

A

epinephrine & norepinephrine

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52
Q

What produces catecholamines (E/NE)?

A

chromaffin cells

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53
Q

What are catecholamines (NE/E) secreted by?

A

adrenal gland

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54
Q

When catecholamines (E/NE) are secreted into the blood stream, which receptors are activated?

A

alpha + beta adrenergic receptors

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55
Q

What are catecholamine receptors called?

A

GPCR (g-protein coupled receptors)

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56
Q

A-adrenergic receptors bind NE + E, but have greater affinity for (NE/E).

A

norepinephrine

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57
Q

Where are A-adrenergic receptors located?

A

smooth muscles

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58
Q

A1 adrenergic receptors (location + function)

A

location: blood vessels
cause vasoconstriction

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59
Q

What is the agonist for A1 adrenergic receptors?

A

phenylephrine

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60
Q

What are the 2 antagonists for A1 adrenergic receptors?

A

phentolamine
phenoxybenzamine

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61
Q

A2 adrenergic receptors

A

Location: presynaptic terminals
dampen/control NT release

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62
Q

B-adrenergic receptors bind to NE + E, but have greater affinity for (NE/E).

A

epinephrine

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63
Q

B1 adrenergic receptors

A

location: heart
function: increase HR / contractility

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64
Q

B2 adrenergic receptors

A

Location: lungs/vasculature
Function: bronchodilation/vasodilation

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65
Q

B3 adrenergic receptors

A

Location: fat cells
Function: break down/glycolysis

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66
Q

What is the agonist for B1 adrenergic receptors?

A

doputamine

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67
Q

What is the antagonist for B1 adrenergic receptors?

A

atenolol

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68
Q

What is the non-selective agonist for B-adrenergic receptors?

A

isoproterenol

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69
Q

What is the non-selective antagonist for B-adrenergic receptors?

A

propranolol

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70
Q

Location of PSNS

A

craniosacral

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71
Q

Where are PSNS preganglionic cell bodies located?

A

cranial nerve nuclei
or
sacral spinal cord

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72
Q

Where do preganglionic axons exit in PSNS?

A

CNs (facial, glossopharyngeal, vagus)
OR
spinal cord via sacral + ventral roots

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73
Q

Where are the PSNS postganglionic cell bodies located?

A

terminal ganglia (close or within target)

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74
Q

PSNS has very (long/short) postganglionic fibers.

A

short

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75
Q

Effects of the PSNS:
eye | heart | GI | salivary

A

eye: constrict pupil
heart: decrease HR/force of contraction
GI tract: increase motility/secretion
Salivary glands: increase amount, decrease viscosity

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76
Q

What NT is part of the PSNS? SNS?

A

PSNS- acetylcholine
SNS- catecholamines (NE/E)

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77
Q

What stops Acetylcholine from effecting?

A

Acetylcholinesterase (degrades/stops Ach)

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78
Q

What are the two receptor types for Acetylcholine?

A

Nicotinic receptor
Muscarinic receptor

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79
Q

Nicotinic receptors

A

ligand-gated ion channel
rapid-acting

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80
Q

N1 (nicotinic) receptor

A

Location: NMJ (somatic)

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81
Q

N2 (nicotinic) receptor

A

Location: ANS ganglia on postganglionic autonomic neurons (SNS + PSNS)

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82
Q

What is the antagonist for N1 receptor?

A

curare
tubocurarine

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83
Q

What is the antagonist for N2 receptor?

A

hexamethonium

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84
Q

What is the agonist for nicotinic receptors?

A

nicotine

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85
Q

Muscarinic receptors are (faster/slower) acting than nicotinic receptors.

A

slower

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86
Q

GPCR are a type of (nicotinic/muscarinic) receptor

A

muscarinic

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87
Q

M1, M3, M5 (muscarinic) receptors

A

stimulatory
affect gut/glands

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88
Q

M2 receptors (muscarinic)

A

inhibitory
Location: heart
Function: decreases HR

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89
Q

What are the two agonists for muscarinic receptors?

A

muscarine
pilocarpine

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90
Q

What is the antagonist for muscarinic receptors?

A

atropine

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91
Q

What does SNS do to the pupil?

A

contracts radial muscles of iris
= dilation of pupil

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92
Q

What does the PSNS do to the pupil?

A

contracts circular muscles of iris
= constriction of pupil

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93
Q

Pupillary Light Reflex- sensory receptor

A

RGC (photosensitive retinal ganglion cell)

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94
Q

Pupillary Light Reflex- afferent nerve

A

CN III (oculomotor)

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95
Q

Pupillary Light Reflex- integration

A

multiple synapses in midbrain & crosses over

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96
Q

Pupillary Light Reflex- efferent neurons

A

ganglionic PSNS fibers synapse on ciliary ganglionic PSNS fibers

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97
Q

Pupillary Light Reflex- effect/target tissue

A

iris sphincter = pupillary constriction

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98
Q

(T/F) Both eyes constrict is one senses constriction b/c of the cross-over.

A

True

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99
Q

What is dysautonomia?

A

lack of PSNS drive

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100
Q

What is the cause of dysautonomia?

A

degeneration of neurons in autonomic ganglia (unknown cause)

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101
Q

How can you diagnose dysautonomia? (3)

A

Muscarinic agonist in eye –> hypersensitive pupil constriction

Atropine challenge (blocks PSNS) –> up HR normal dog, no change if diseased

Megaesophagus seen w/ barium rads

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102
Q

Treatment for Dysautonomia

A

feeding tube / feed while standing
IV fluids
artificial tears
humidify air
express bladder / drugs for bladder tone

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103
Q

Horse symptoms of Dysautonomia

A

difficulty swallowing
“grass sickness”

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104
Q

Dog symptoms of Dysautonomia

A

V+, D+, dilated pupils, trouble urinating, decreased tear production

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105
Q

What is micturition?

A

action of urinating

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106
Q

What 3 systems are required for micturition?

A

PSNS, SNS, somatic nervous system

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107
Q

What is the function of the detrusor muscle? Is it somatic or ANS controlled?

A

responsible for emptying bladder
controlled by ANS

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108
Q

What is internal urethral sphincter composed of? What is its function? What is it controlled by (ANS/somatic)?

A

composition: smooth muscle
function: maintain continence (store urine)
Controlled by ANS (SNS primary)

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109
Q

What is external urethral sphincter composition? Function? Control (ANS/somatic)?

A

Composition: striated muscle
Function: voluntary control
Controlled by somatic NS

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110
Q

What are the 3 sensory afferent nerves of the urinary tract?

A

Pelvic N
Hypogastric N
Pudendal N

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111
Q

Pelvic N is (PSNS/SNS/somatic)

A

PSNS

112
Q

Pelvic N innervates _____

A

Detrusor M

113
Q

What NT is released for pelvic N function

A

acetylcholine

114
Q

What does increased Pelvic N activity allow for?

A

emptying of bladder

115
Q

Hypogastric N is (PSNS/SNS/somatic)

A

SNS

116
Q

Where are the ganglia for Pelvic N located?

A

bladder wall

117
Q

Where are the ganglia for hypogastric N located?

A

caudal mesenteric ggl

118
Q

What muscles does the hypogastric N innervate?

A

detrusor + internal sphincter

119
Q

What two NT receptors are used by hypogastric N for bladder function?

A

alpha + beta adrenergic

120
Q

What does A1 adrenergic receptor do (urinary function)?

A

constricts internal sphincter

121
Q

What does B3 adrenergic receptor do (urinary)?

A

relax bladder

122
Q

What does increased activity of the hypogastric N cause?

A

relaxation of detrusor M + internal sphincter for urine storage

123
Q

Pudendal N is (PSNS/SNS/somatic)

A

somatic

124
Q

What muscle does the Pudendal N innervate?

A

external sphincter (urethralis M)

125
Q

What NT is used by Pudendal N

A

acetylcholine

126
Q

What occurs with increased activity to Pudendal N?

A

constrict external sphincter

127
Q

What kind of nerve fibers tell the brain about bladder fullness?

A

A-gamma nerve fibers

128
Q

What does the Pontine Storage Center do?

A

integrates our conscious control of sphincter (constricts external sphincter with filling)

129
Q

(PSNS/SNS) tone dominates during storage of urine.

A

SNS

130
Q

When urine is being stored, what occurs overall with 3 muscles

A

Detrusor M- relaxed
Internal sphincter- constricted
External sphincter- constricted

131
Q

What reflex pathway is activated during voiding of urine?

A

spinobulbar reflex pathway

132
Q

What does the pontine micturition center tell us?

A

awareness of how full the bladder is

133
Q

During voiding of urine, (PSNS/SNS) is activated and (PSNS/SNS) is inhibited.

A

PSNS activated (detrusor M contracts)
SNS inhibited (sphincters relax)

134
Q

What two NTs + receptors control voiding of urine?

A

M3 muscarinic - acetylcholine (PSNS)
B3 adrenergic - norepinephrine (SNS)

135
Q

Lower Motor Neuron Bladde is injury to: (sacral spinal cord / above sacral spinal cord)

A

sacral spinal cord

136
Q

Symptoms of Lower Motor Neuron Bladder Injury

A

-Reduced PSNS tone (flaccid, overdistension of bladder)
-Reduced somatic tone (incontinence)
-Unable to completely void urine

137
Q

Upper Motor Neuron Bladder is injury to: (sacral spinal cord / above sacral spinal cord)

A

above sacral spinal cord

138
Q

Symptoms of Upper Motor Neuron Bladder injury

A

-Normal PSNS tone (stiff, hard to express)
-Sustained external sphincter constriction
-Contract detrusor w/o relaxing sphincter

139
Q

What is Detrusor-Sphincter Dyssynergia?

A

when the Detrusor M is contracted w/o relaxing the sphincter (UMN bladder injury)

140
Q

Where is the Limbic System located?

A

borders hypothalamus

141
Q

What are the functions of the Limbic System?

A

control emotion and behavior
integrate emotion with visceral function (autonomic response)

142
Q

What are the 3 parts of the Limbic System?

A

Hippocampus
Amygdala
Hypothalamus

143
Q

What is the function of the Hippocampus?

A

learning & memory

144
Q

What is the function of the Amygdala?

A

emotions

145
Q

What are the 3 functions of the hypothalamus?

A

-maintain homeostasis
-regulate visceral motor activity
-neurosecretory (endocrine)

146
Q

What are some Hypothalamus lesion signs?

A

Rage
lethargy
reduced cardio stress responses
polydipsia
abnormal appetite
abnormal temp regulation

147
Q

What are some lesion signs for the Limbic System overall?

A

behavioral changes
docile / aggressiveness

148
Q

UMN Lesion Signs

A

spastic paresis/paralysis
increased tone
intact reflexes
disuse muscle atrophy

149
Q

LMN Lesion Signs

A

flaccid paresis/paralysis
decreased muscle tone
decreased/absent reflexes
severe muscle atrophy

150
Q

What is “general” proprioception

A

called general if it is unclear/unknown if it is conscious or unconscious

151
Q

What is the order of functional loss (1-4)

A

Proprioception –> Voluntary Motor –> Superficial Pain –> Deep Pain

152
Q

What should you notice for gait observation of stance (posture)?

A

extensor activation, flexor inhibition

153
Q

Which 2 tracts are responsible for stance (posture)?

A

vestibulospinal
pontine reticulospinal

154
Q

What is protraction (swing)?

A

flexor activation | extensor inhibition

155
Q

What two tracts are responsible for protraction of gait?

A

rubrospinal
medullary reticulospinal

156
Q

What does stride length refer to?

A

inter-step distance

157
Q

What is interlimb coordination?

A

spinal stepping circuits in spinal cord
pelvic –> thoracic limb

158
Q

What is cadence?

A

gait rhythm
regular-irregular
regular-irregular

159
Q

What 3 things can you recognize in abnormal gait?

A

Lameness
Ataxia
Weakness

160
Q

Definition of Lameness

A

short stride on affected limb, long stride on contralateral limb
associated with pain

161
Q

What kind of cadence of gait is present in lameness?

A

regular-irregular gait

162
Q

Explain Ataxia

A

delayed protraction, longer stride, abduct/adduct limb
shows problem with sensory info reaching CNS

163
Q

What are two types of ataxia?

A

vestibular
cerebellar

164
Q

Vestibular Ataxia

A

loss of orientation of head/eyes/neck/trunk/limb
loss of balance

165
Q

Which way will the head tilt in vestibular ataxia? What other sign is associated?

A

toward lesion
nystagmus

166
Q

Cerebellar Ataxia

A

delayed protraction
spasticity, intention tremors seen

167
Q

Hypermetria

A

“goose-stepping” of excessive flexion with forceful return (caused by loss of cerebellum influence on descending UMN pathway)

168
Q

Hypometria

A

under-reach or under-step
dysfunction of cerebellum

169
Q

Signs of LMN weakness

A

tire easily
difficulty supporting weight
wobbly gait

170
Q

UMN weakness

A

general proprioceptive ataxia
motor weakness
stiffness/spasticity

171
Q

Function of Basal Ganglia in Forebrain

A

modulate input from cerebral cortex, initiates movement

172
Q

Forebrain (cortical) Lesion Signs

A

gait normal
loss of contralateral interpretation
ipsilateral circling (toward lesion)
ignore opposite side of lesion / reaction deficits
seizures
(-/+) abnormal mentation

173
Q

Hindbrain Lesion Signs

A

+/- abnormal mentation
+/- vestibular signs
deficits to ipsilateral CN 5-12
ipsilateral hemi/tetraparesis
ipsilateral postural reaction deficits

174
Q

Circling- which way do they circle?

A

toward lesion

175
Q

Tight circles indicate (vestibular/forebrain) lesion, while wide circles indicate (vestibular/forebrain) lesion.

A

tight circle = vestibular
wide circle = forebrain

176
Q

Cerebellum Lesion Signs

A

mentation normal
cerebellar ataxia
intention tremor
menace deficit, normal vision

177
Q

What is abasia?

A

never learns to walk
occurs if problem with cerebellum (muscle memory)

178
Q

C1 to C5 lesion

A

UMN signs to thoracic + pelvic limbs

179
Q

C6 to T2 lesion

A

LMN signs to thoracic limbs
UMN signs to pelvic limbs

180
Q

T3 to L3 lesion

A

UMN to pelvic limbs only

181
Q

L4 to Ccy lesion

A

LMN to pelvic limb + tail

182
Q

LMN weakness signs (3)

A

RAT
reflexes (reduced/absent)
atrophy (rapid/severe)
tone (reduced/absent)

183
Q

What is term for the functional classification for unique functions of CNs for smell/taste?

A

Special Visceral Afferent (SVA)

184
Q

Which cranial nerves have parasympathetic preganglionic axons?

A

CN III, VII, IX, X

185
Q

CN I where are neuron cell bodies located?

A

olfactory epithelium

186
Q

What kind of neurons are in CN I?

A

Bipolar neurons

187
Q

What is the functional classification of the bipolar neurons of CN I?

A

Special Visceral Afferent (SVA)

188
Q

What are two types of CN I dysfunction?

A

anosmia
dysosmia

189
Q

Anosmia

A

loss of smell

190
Q

Dysosmia

A

alteration/distortion of smell

191
Q

Filum olfactoria

A

bundles of axons of bipolar neuron that make up CN I

192
Q

What 3 CNs are motor to the eye?

A

CN III (oculomotor)
CN IV (trochlear)
CN VI (abducens)

193
Q

Name the 4 types of muscles of the eye that CNs III/IV/VI are responsible for moving?

A

4 rectus muscles
2 oblique muscles
retractor bulbi muscle
levator palpebrae superioris

194
Q

Where does CN III originate?

A

interpeduncular fossa

195
Q

Pathway of CN III

A

interpeduncular fossa –> cavernous sinus –> orbital fissure –> orbit –> muscles

196
Q

Which muscles of the eye does CN III innervate?

A

medial, dorsal, ventral rectus Mm
ventral oblique M
levator palpebrae superioris M

197
Q

Name the two nuclei of CN III

A

Motor nucleus of oculomotor nerve
Parasympathetic nucleus of oculomotor nerve

198
Q

Name functional class of motor nucleus of oculomotor nerve

A

GSE

199
Q

Name functional class of parasympathetic nucleus of oculomotor nerve

A

GVE preganglionic neurons

200
Q

What is another term for the parasympathetic nucleus of oculomotor nerve?

A

Edinger-Westphal’s nucleus

201
Q

What ganglia is associated with CN III?

A

ciliary ganglion

202
Q

The ciliary ganglion of CN III is where axons of PSNS nucleus of oculomotor nerve synapse on:

A

sphincter of pupil + ciliary muscles of eye

203
Q

Where does CN IV originate?

A

dorsal surface of brainstem (ONLY CN that does)

204
Q

Where does CN IV decussate?

A

at rostral medullary velum

205
Q

Pathway of CN IV

A

transverse fissure –> cavernous sinus –> orbital fissure –> orbit –> muscle

206
Q

What muscle does CN IV innervate?

A

dorsal oblique M

207
Q

Nucleus + functional classification of CN IV

A

Motor nucleus of trochlear nerve
GSE

208
Q

Where does CN VI originate?

A

caudal edge of trapezoid body

209
Q

CN VI pathway

A

cavernous sinus –> orbital fissure –> orbit –> muscle

210
Q

What muscles does CN VI innervate?

A

lateral rectus M
retractor bulbi M

211
Q

What is the nucleus of CN VI? Functional classification?

A

Motor nucleus of abducens nerve
GSE

212
Q

What dysfunction occurs with CN III, IV, VI?

A

Strabismus

213
Q

Strabismus

A

abnormal deviation of eyeball

214
Q

What dysfunction only occurs with CN III?

A

mydriasis

215
Q

Mydriasis

A

abnormally dilated pupils

216
Q

Where does CN V originate?

A

rostral edge of trapezoid body

217
Q

What are the 3 branches of CN V (trigeminal)? SMM?

A

Ophthalmic- sensory
Maxillary- sensory
Mandibular- mixed

218
Q

Ophthalmic N pathway

A

cavernous sinus –> orbital fissure –> orbit –> eye, orbit, skin around eye

219
Q

Maxillary N pathway

A

round foramen –> rostral alar foramen –> upper face/teeth

220
Q

Mandibular N pathway

A

oval foramen –> lower face/teeth + mastication muscles

221
Q

List the muscles of mastication (innervated by Mandibular N)

A

temporalis
masseter
medial + lateral pterygoid
digatricus (rostral belly)

222
Q

Nucleus + Functional classification of CN V

A

Motor nucleus of trigeminal nerve
GSE

223
Q

What is the ganglion + functional classification of CN V?

A

Trigeminal ganglion
GSA

224
Q

What are the signs of dysfunction of CN V?

A

masticatory muscle atrophy
anesthesia or hypoalgesia

225
Q

Hypoalgesia

A

decreased sensitivity to painful stimuli

226
Q

Origin of CN VII (Facial)

A

lateral edge of trapezoid body

227
Q

CN VII pathway

A

internal acoustic meatus –> facial canal –> stylomastoid foramen

228
Q

What does CN VII innervate?

A

muscles of facial expression

229
Q

What nuclei are present in CN VII (facial)?

A

Motor nucleus of facial nerve
Parasympathetic nucleus of facial nerve

230
Q

What functional classification of motor nucleus of facial nerve?

A

GSE

231
Q

What is functional classification of parasympathetic nucleus of facial nerve?

A

GVE

232
Q

What 3 ganglia are part of Facial N (CN VII)

A

Geniculate ganglion
Mandibular/Sublingual ganglia
Pterygopalatine ganglion

233
Q

Which two functional classifications are geniculate ganglion of CN VII (facial)?

A

GSA + SVA (special visceral afferent for taste)

234
Q

What functional classification are mandibular/salivary ganglia of CN VII (facial)?

A

GVE postganglionnic neurons

235
Q

What functional classification is pterygopalatine ganglion of CN VII (facial)?

A

GVE postganglionic neurons

236
Q

Mandibular/sublingual ganglia leads to (lacrimal/salivary) glands.

A

Salivary glands

237
Q

Pterygopalatine ganglion leads to (lacrimal/salivary) glands.

A

Lacrimal gland

238
Q

What are two types of Facial N dysfunction?

A

Facial paralysis
Dry eye

239
Q

What is seen with “New” Facial Paralysis?

A

nose pulls away from lesion by contralateral muscles

240
Q

What is seen with “Old” Facial Paralysis?

A

muscle atrophy on ipsilateral side

241
Q

Why does dry eye occur with CN VII (facial) dysfunction?

A

no tear production b/c loss of parasympathetic from CN VII

242
Q

Which two CNs have combined motor nucleus called “Nucleus Ambiguus”?

A

Glossopharyngeal + Vagus

243
Q

Where does CN IX originate?

A

medulla oblongata

244
Q

CN IX pathway

A

jugular foramen –>
pharynx muscles
sensory to tongue root
sensory to carotid sinus / body

245
Q

What does CN IX innervate?

A

muscles of pharynx

246
Q

What are the two nuclei present in glossopharyngeal N?

A

Nucleus Ambiguus
Parasympathetic nucleus of glossopharyngeal nerve

247
Q

What class is nucleus ambiguus of CN IX?

A

GSE

248
Q

What class if parasympathetic nucleus of glossopharyngeal N?

A

GVE preganglionic neurons

249
Q

What ganglion is comes after parasympathetic nucleus of glossopharyngeal N in CN IX? Functional class?

A

otic ganglion
GVE postganglionic neurons

250
Q

What does the otic ganglion of CN IX lead to?

A

zygomatic + parotid salivary glands

251
Q

(T/F) Glossopharyngeal N has a sensory ganglion made of proximal + distal parts.

A

True

252
Q

What 3 functional classifications are present in sensory ganglia of glossopharyngeal nerve?

A

SVA (taste)
GVA (carotid sinus/carotid body)
GSA (sensation of tongue root)

253
Q

CN X originates (cranial/caudal) to glossopharyngeal N on medulla.

A

caudal

254
Q

Pathway of CN X

A

jugular foramen –>
muscles of pharynx/larynx
sensory to taste + general sensation
sensory to thoracic/abd viscera

255
Q

What does CN X innervate?

A

muscles of pharynx + larynx

256
Q

What two nuclei does CN X have?

A

Nucleus Ambiguus
Parasympathetic nucleus of vagus nerve

257
Q

What functional class is parasympathetic nucleus of vagus nerve?

A

GVE postganglionic neurons

258
Q

What are the functional classifications (3) of sensory ganglion of vagus N?

A

SVA (taste)
GVA (pharynx/thoracic/abd viscera)
GSA (sensation of skin/ear)

259
Q

What are 3 signs of dysfunction of Glossopharyngeal + Vagus N?

A

dysphagia
laryngeal paralysis
vagal indigestion (cattle)

260
Q

Dysphagia

A

difficulty swallowing

261
Q

Laryngeal Paralysis (Laryngeal Hemiplegia)

A

“roaring” noise and decreased airflow with exercise

262
Q

Vagal ingestion in cattle

A

musculature of ruminant stomach paralyzed –> bloat –> circulatory collapse/death

263
Q

What two branches come together to make up the Accessory N?

A

cranial roots (from medulla) + spinal root s (cervical spinal cord)

264
Q

CN XI (accessory) pathway

A

jugular foramen –> division of external / internal branch

265
Q

Internal branch of Accessory N joins _____ N and then forms _______ N.

A

Vagus N
Recurrent Laryngeal N

266
Q

The external branch of the Accessory N innervates…

A

muscles of the neck
(COTS)

267
Q

The cranial roots of the Accessory N cell bodies are in _________.

A

Nucleus Ambiguus

268
Q

The spinal roots of the Accessory N cell bodies are in _______.

A

motor nucleus of accessory nerve (in spinal cord)

269
Q

What is the one sign of CN XI dysfunction?

A

muscle atrophy

270
Q

Where does the Hypoglossal (CN XII) originate?

A

medulla oblongata (cranial to foramen magnum)

271
Q

Pathway of CN XII

A

medulla –> hypoglossal canal

272
Q

What does CN XII innervate?

A

all muscles of tongue

273
Q

What neuron is present in CN XII?

A

motor nucleus of hypoglossal nerve

274
Q

What is the functional class of motor nucleus of hypoglossal N?

A

GSE

275
Q

What is the one dysfunction seen of CN XII?

A

deviation of tongue

Neuroscience (4 decks)

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