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anatomy 1 > exam 3 > Flashcards

exam 3 Flashcards

1
Q

myiosin-actin interactions: 1: relaxed muscle: ___ is blocked from binding to ____; strands of ____ cover binding sites

A

myosin, actin, tropomyosin

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2
Q

myiosin-actin interactions: 2: _____ binding to troponin moves _____ away from myosin-binding sites

A

calcium, tropomyosin

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3
Q

myiosin-actin interactions: 3: ____ head can now bind to ____

A

myosin, actin

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4
Q

myiosin-actin interactions: 4: _____ ____ begins

A

muscle contraction begins

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5
Q

sliding filament mechanism 1: ____ attach to ___ filaments at both ends of sarcomere

A

myosin heads, thin, sarcomere

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6
Q

sliding filament mechanism 2: ___ filaments pulled towards ____ of sarcomere

A

thin, center

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7
Q

sliding filament mechanism 3: ____ come closer together and sarcomere ____

A

z discs, shorten

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8
Q

excitation-contraction coupling-summary 1: after ____ reaches muscle fiber, Ach is released and binds to ___ triggering the generation of an ____ ____by muscle fiber. this stimulates the ___ to release calcium ions into sarcomere

A

nerve impulse, Ach, AchR, action potential, sarcoplasmic reticulum, sarcomere

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9
Q

excitation-contraction coupling-summary 2: calcium ions bind to ____-___ and allow ___ to expose the ___ binding sites

A

troponin-tropomyosin, actin, myosin

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10
Q

excitation-contraction coupling-summary 3: ATP hydrolysis: reorients and ___ the ___ head

A

energizes, myosin

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11
Q

excitation-contraction coupling-summary 4: formation of ____-___: myosin heads latch onto ____ on ___ on the __ filament

A

cross bridges, binding site, actin, thin

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12
Q

excitation-contraction coupling-summary 5: power stroke: ___ rotates, sliding __ filaments towards ___ of sarcomere

A

cross bridge, thin, center

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13
Q

excitation-contraction coupling-summary 5: detachment of myosin from ___: as next ATP binds to myosin head, head ____; contraction cycle repeats as long as __ and ___ level is sufficiently high; continuing cycles apply force that ___ sarcomere

A

actin, detaches, ATP, Ca2+, shorten

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14
Q

role of calcium in excitation-contraction coupling: increase _____contraction decrease ____ contraction

A

starts, stops

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15
Q

rigor mortis

A

after death, cellular membranes become leaky, Ca leaks out of sarcoplasmic reticulum, ATP ceases after breathing and cross bridges can not detach, muscle stays contracted for about 24 hours

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16
Q

muscular atrophy

A

wasting of muscles, decrease in size of muscle fibers due to loss of myofibrils

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17
Q

denervation atrophy

A

nerve supply disrupted, muscle fiber replaced by fibrous tissue

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18
Q

muscular hypertrophy increase in ___ of muscle fiber, can result from ______

A

diameter, forceful muscular activity

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19
Q

exercise induced muscle damage

A

torn sarcolemma, damaged myofibrils

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20
Q

nerve and blood supply: most nerves penetrating a muscle are accompanied by ___, 1-2 ____ and ____

A

arteries, veins, capillaries

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21
Q

neurons that stimulate skeletal muscle to contract

A

somatic motor neurons

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22
Q

motor neuron axons extend from ___ to ____

A

brain/spinal cord, group of muscle fibers

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23
Q

the ___ of a motor neuron typically branches many times

A

axon

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24
Q

synapse between somatic motor neuron and skeletal muscle fiber

A

neuromuscular junction

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25
Q

site of communication between somatic motor neuron and muscle fiber

A

somatic neuromuscular junction

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26
Q

gap that separates 2 cells

A

synaptic cleft

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27
Q

chemical released by motor neuron

A

neurotransmitter

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28
Q

sacs at presynaptic terminal/synaptic end bulb containing ACH

A

synaptic vesicles

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29
Q

region of muscle cell membrane opposite the synaptic end bulbs, contain Ach receptors

A

motor end plate

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30
Q

events at neuro-muscular junction: _____ elicit a muscle action potential

A

nerve impulse

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31
Q

events at neuro-muscular junction 1: release of Ach: nerve impulse causes synaptic vesicles to release ___ into ______

A

Ach, synaptic cleft

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32
Q

events at neuro-muscular junction 2: activation of ach receptor: binding of ___ to the receptor on the motor end plate opens ____ allowing flow of ___ to enter muscle cell

A

Ach, ion channel, Na+

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33
Q

events at neuro-muscular junction 3: production of muscle AP; Na inflow makes inside more ___, trigger _____; AP travels along __ tubules then propagates to SR to release ____

A

positive, muscle AP, T, Ca2+

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34
Q

events at neuro-muscular junction 4: termination of ach activity; ___ effects only last ____ because it is rapidly broken down by ______

A

briefly, rapidly, AchE

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35
Q

botulinum toxin: produced by

A

bacterium clostridium botulinum

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36
Q

botulinum toxin: blocks release ___ from synaptic vesicles

A

Ach

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37
Q

botulinum toxin can come from

A

improperly canned foods

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38
Q

tiny amount of botulinum toxin can cause

A

death by paralyzing respiratory muscles

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39
Q

botulinum toxin is used as ___

A

botox

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40
Q

curare: _____ used by South American Indians on arrows

A

plant poison

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41
Q

curare: ___ paralysis by blocking ___ receptors

A

muscle paralysis, Ach

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42
Q

derivitives of curare used during surgery to

A

relax skeletal muscles

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43
Q

anti-cholinesterase: slow actions of ____ and removal of ____

A

acetylcholinesterase, Ach

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44
Q

anti-cholinesterase: ____ muscle contractions

A

strengthen

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45
Q

anti-cholinesterase: neostigmine: treatment for ____, antidote for _____

A

myasthenia graves, curare poisoning

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46
Q

muscle metabolism: large amount of ATP needed to power ____, pump ___ back into ___

A

concentration cycle, Ca2+, SR

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47
Q

ATP inside muscle fibers powers concentration for only a few ____

A

seconds

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48
Q

3 ways to produce ATP

A

creatine phosphate, anaerobic cellular respiration, aerobic cellular respiration

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49
Q

direct phosphorlyation

A

creatine phosphate

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50
Q

creatine phosphate stores _____

A

high energy P

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51
Q

creatine transfers high energy phosphate group to ____ generating new ____

A

ADP, ATP

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52
Q

1 creatine > __ ATP molecule

A

1

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53
Q

creatine provides enough energy for ~___ sec of contration

A

15

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54
Q

anaerobic respiration uses ___ to generate __ when creatine is depletes

A

glucose, ATP

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55
Q

anaerobic respiration does not require

A

O2

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56
Q

anaerobic respiration glycolysis: ___>___ acid and produces 2 ATP molecules

A

glucose, pyruvic

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57
Q

anaerobic respiration if O2 levels low: pyruvic acid converted to ____ acid

A

lactid

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58
Q

anaerobic respiration energy for ___-___ seconds of muscle activity

A

40-60

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59
Q

aerobic respiration 1: glycolysis: ___>___ acid

A

glycose, pyruvic

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60
Q

aerobic respiration 2: ___ acid enters _____: oxidized»___,___,___

A

pyruvic, mitochondria, ATP, CO2, H2O

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61
Q

1 molecule glucose> ___ molecules ATP

A

32-36

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62
Q

aerobic respiration oxygen sources

A

myoglobin, hemoglobin

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63
Q

aerobic respiration good for ____activities

A

prolonged

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64
Q

inability to contract after prolonged activity

A

muscle fatigue

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65
Q

factors of muscle fatigue: insufficient ____, inadequate Ca, depletion of ___, insufficient O2, depletion of __ and ___, build up of ____ acid

A

acetylcholine, creatine, glycogen and nutrients, lactic

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66
Q

oxygen consumption after exercise: after exercise, heavy breathing continues and oxygen consumption remains ___ resting level

A

above

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67
Q

added extra oxygen taken unto body after exercise

A

oxygen debt

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68
Q

oxygen debt used to

A

restore muscle cells

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69
Q

oxygen debt reconverts lactic acid into ___ and ___

A

glucose, glycogen

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70
Q

___ of muscle contraction varies

A

tension

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71
Q

tension depends on _____ size: #/size of muscle ____ stimulated

A

motor unit, fibers

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72
Q

bulky muscles=___strength

A

greater

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73
Q

tension depends on _____ length: amount of ____ before contraction

A

sarcomere, stretch

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74
Q

tension depends on _____ of stimulation: rate at which ____ arrive

A

frequency/strength, nerve impulses

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75
Q

motor neuron and the muscle fiber it stimulates

A

motor unit

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76
Q

the ___ of a motor neuron branches to innervate different muscle fibers

A

axon

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77
Q

motor units control ____ and ____ movements

A

precise and gross

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78
Q

small motor units control

A

small movements, voice production, eye movement

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79
Q

large motor units control

A

strong muscles, arms, legs

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80
Q

sarcomere length/degree of muscle stretch _____ contraction

A

optimal

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81
Q

shortened muscle fiber

A

fewer myosin heads make contact with filaments

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82
Q

brief contraction of muscle fibers in response to a single action potential

A

twitch contraction

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83
Q

in a twitch contraction the muscle __then ___ in 20 to 200 msec

A

contract, relax

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84
Q

3 phases of twitch contraction

A

latent, contraction, relaxation

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85
Q

twitch contraction: latent

A

brief delay

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86
Q

twitch contraction: contraction

A

Ca, sliding mechanism

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87
Q

twitch contraction: relaxation

A

Ca, myosin actin

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88
Q

muscle contraction/tension controlled also by ____, ____

A

frequency, strength

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89
Q

brief contraction in response to single AP

A

titanic contraction

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90
Q

multiple twitches, multiple stimuli occurring before muscle has completely relaxed

A

unfused, incomplete, tetanus

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91
Q

no twitching, stimulation increased rate, stimulated before relaxation begins

A

fused, complete tetanus

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92
Q

stronger stimulus determines

A

recruitment of more motor units

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93
Q

sub-threshold stimulus strength

A

no motor unit activity

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94
Q

threshold stimulus strength

A

muscle contracts

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95
Q

maximal stimulus strength

A

strongest stimulus that increases force

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96
Q

muscle tone

A

small amount of tension due to weak contractions

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97
Q

tone is always present at

A

rest

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98
Q

tone: motor units alternatively ___ and ____

A

active, inactive

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99
Q

tone keeps skeletal muscles ___

A

firm

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100
Q

smooth muscle in blood vessels maintain

A

blood pressure

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101
Q

flaccid muscle

A

motor neurons damaged, development

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102
Q

types of muscle contraction

A

isometric, isotonic

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103
Q

isometric contraction: muscle does not change ____

A

length

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104
Q

isometric contraction: tension generated ____ to move objects

A

not enough

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105
Q

isometric contraction: important for maintaining ____ and _______

A

posture, holding objects

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106
Q

isometric contraction have no ____

A

movement

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107
Q

isotonic contraction: muscle changes ____

A

length

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108
Q

isotonic contraction: tension developed _____

A

remain constant

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109
Q

isotonic contraction used for ____ and _____

A

body movement, moving object

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110
Q

muscle fibers vary in their content of

A

myoglobin

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111
Q

red muscle fibers, ___ myoglobin, mitochondria, blood capillaries

A

increase

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112
Q

white muscle fibers ___myoglobin, capillaries, mitochondria,

A

lower

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113
Q

red/white fibers determine

A

speed of contraction, how quickly they fatigue

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114
Q

depending on how they generate ATP, muscle fibers can be

A

oxidative, glycolytic

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115
Q

oxidative

A

O2, aerobic pathway used to generate ATP

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116
Q

glycolytic

A

rely on anaerobic glycolysis

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117
Q

muscle fibers can be classified into (4)

A

slow oxidative fibers, fast glycolytic fibers, fast oxidative glycolytic fibers

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118
Q

slow oxidative (SO) color

A

dark red

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119
Q

SO generate atp by

A

cellular respiration

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120
Q

least powerful type of muscle fiber

A

SO

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121
Q

muscle fiber resistant to fatigue

A

SO

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122
Q

fast glycolytic fibers (FG) generate atp by

A

anaerobic glycolysis

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123
Q

largest muscle fiber in diamater

A

FG

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124
Q

muscle fiber producing most powerful contractions

A

FG

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125
Q

FG color

A

white

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126
Q

FG fibers contract ____

A

strong, quick

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127
Q

FG fatigue ____

A

quickly

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128
Q

FG used in ____ movements of ___ duration

A

intense anaerobic, short

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129
Q

SO used for ____ contraction for ___ hours

A

prolonged, sustained, many

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130
Q

SO used for maintaining ____, ____, ____ activities

A

posture, aerobic, endurance type

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131
Q

fast oxidative glycolytic fibers (FOG) contain large amounts of

A

myoglobin, blood capillaries

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132
Q

FOG color

A

pink,red

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133
Q

FOG generate atp by

A

aerobic cellular respiration and anaerobic capillaries

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134
Q

FOG moderately _____ to fatigue

A

high resistance

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135
Q

FAG ____ speed of contraction

A

intermediate

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136
Q

FAG used for activities such as

A

walking, moderately sprinting

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137
Q

most muscles are a mixture of

A

all 3 types of muscle fibers

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138
Q

proportions of muscle fiber type vary, depending on

A

action, training, genetics

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139
Q

postural muscles higher in ___ fibers

A

SO

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140
Q

shoulders and arms higher ___ fibers

A

FG

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141
Q

leg muscles higher in ___ fibers

A

SO, FOG

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142
Q

exercise: ratios of FG/SO ___ determined

A

genetically

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143
Q

individuals with increased FG proportion excel in

A

intense activities

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144
Q

individuals with increased SO proportion excel in

A

endurance activities

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145
Q

_____ can induce changes in muscle fibers

A

type of exercise

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146
Q

anaerobic transform some ___ to ___, do not increase muscle ___

A

FG, FOG, mass

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147
Q

exercises that require short bursts of strength, increase ____ size

A

FG

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148
Q

muscle enlargement

A

hypertrophy

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149
Q

hypertrophy due to

A

increased synthesis of thick and thin filaments

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150
Q

anabolic steroids

A

increase muscle size

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151
Q

steroid damaging effects

A

liver cancer, kidney damage, heart disease, stunted growth, mood swings, aggression

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152
Q

steroid effects in females

A

atrophy of breast and uterus, sterility, facial hair growth

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153
Q

steroid effects in males

A

reduced testosterone, atrophy of testis, sterility, baldness

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154
Q

cardiac muscle has specialized

A

intercalated discs

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155
Q

intercalated discs

A

connect ends of cardiac muscle fibers to one another

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156
Q

cardiac muscle tissue stimulated by

A

autorhythmic muscle fibers

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157
Q

smooth muscle tissue action potentials spread through

A

fibers by gap junctions

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158
Q

cardiac muscle action potential spread from

A

one cardiac muscle fiber to another

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159
Q

2 types smooth muscle

A

visceral, multi unit

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160
Q

visceral smooth muscle: gap junctions allow concentration of neighboring cells as ____ unit

A

single

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161
Q

visceral smooth muscle fibers stimulated by

A

various stimuli

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162
Q

multi unit smooth muscle location

A

walls large arteries and airways

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163
Q

multiunit smooth muscle rare _____

A

gap junction

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164
Q

multiunit smooth muscle structurally ____, rich _____

A

independent, nerve ending

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165
Q

visceral longitudinal layer

A

muscle fibers run parallel to long axis of organ to dilate and shorten the organ

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166
Q

visceral circular layer

A

fibers run around circumference to constrict lumen

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167
Q

smooth muscle sarcomere are not

A

arranged orderly

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168
Q

smooth muscle physiology: contraction takes ____ than skeletal

A

longer

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169
Q

smooth muscle is able to sustain _____ tone

A

long term muscle

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170
Q

smooth muscle: prolonged presence of Ca2+ in the cell provides for a state of

A

continued partial contraction

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171
Q

skeletal muscle has limited ___ abilities

A

regenerative

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172
Q

of skeletal muscle fibers is set ____

A

before birth

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173
Q

muscle fibers do NOT ____

A

divide

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174
Q

most skeletal muscle cells last

A

lifetime

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175
Q

satellite cells divide slowly and fuse with ____ fibers

A

slowly, existing

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176
Q

satellite cells assist in

A

muscle growth and repair

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177
Q

cardiac muscle can undergo hypertrophy in response to

A

increased workload

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178
Q

muscles of the body derived from

A

mesoderm

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179
Q

at birth, uncoordinated movements due to

A

reflexes

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180
Q

neuromuscular coordination develops in a ____ to ___ and ___ to ___ direction

A

head to toe, proximal to distal

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181
Q

formation of multinucleate skeletal muscle 1: ____ cells undergo division

A

embryonic mesoderm

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182
Q

formation of multinucleate skeletal muscle 2: several ____ fuse together to form myotube

A

myoblasts, myotube

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183
Q

formation of multinucleate skeletal muscle 3: ___ matures into skeletal muscle fibers

A

myotube, skeletal muscle fibers

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184
Q

smooth cardiac muscle: ___nucleated, no fusion of ____, but rather development of ___ early on

A

uni, myoblast, gap junctions

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185
Q

sarcopenia

A

gradual loss in muscle mass

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186
Q

_____ helps reverse sarcopenia

A

regular exercise

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187
Q

group of diseases with progressive degeneration of skeletal muscle

A

muscular dystrophy

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188
Q

Duchenne musclar dystrophy (DMD)

A

lack of protein dystrophin

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189
Q

DMD causes

A

inherited, sex linked, carried in females and expressed in males

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190
Q

most people with DMD die in their early 20s due to

A

respiratory failure

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191
Q

myasthenia gravis

A

autoimmune disease with damage to neuromuscular junction

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192
Q

myasthenia gravis

A

autoimmune disease with damage to neuromuscular junction

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193
Q

myasthenia gravis symptoms

A

weak muscles of face, head, chewing problems, talking

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194
Q

fibromyalgia

A

painful non articular rheumatoid disorder

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195
Q

fibromyalgia affects ____ of muscles, tendons, ligaments

A

fibrous CT

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196
Q

fibromyalgia symptoms

A

pain with gentle pressure, stiffness of muscle, tendons, fatigue, poor sleep

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197
Q

fibromyalgia treatments

A

stress reduction exercise, heat, pain meds, anti-depressants

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198
Q

spasm/cramp

A

sudden involuntary contraction of single muscle in large group

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199
Q

spasm/cramp happens from

A

inadequate blood flow, dehydration, overuse, low electrolytes, injury

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200
Q

tick

A

involuntary spasmodic twitching of voluntary muscle (eyelid, facial)

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201
Q

tremor

A

rhythmic, involuntary contraction that produces quivering/shaking

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202
Q

most cells rely on ___ and ___ to move and find oxygen and nutrients and eliminate CO2 and waste

A

interstitial fluid, blood

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203
Q

interstitial fluid around

A

body cells

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204
Q

interstitial fluid constantly renewed by

A

blood

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205
Q

O2 and nutrients diffuse from blood to ____ and from here to ____; vise versa for CO2 and waste

A

interstitial fluid, cells

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206
Q

blood is ___ tissue

A

liquid

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207
Q

general function of blood

A

homeostasis

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208
Q

blood transportation

A

gases, nutrients, hormones, waste

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209
Q

blood regulation

A

pH, body temp

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210
Q

blood protection

A

clotting- prevent excessive blood loss
WBC-protect from infection

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211
Q

blood plasma

A

liquid ECM

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212
Q

blood plasma __% water, __% solute

A

90, 10

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213
Q

lood plasma volume

A

5L

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214
Q

blood plasma pH and temp

A

7.4, 30 C (100 F)

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215
Q

plasma proteins

A

albumin, fibrogen, antibodies

216
Q

formed elements

A

cells, fragments

217
Q

RBC also known as

A

erythrocytes

218
Q

RBC lack

A

nucleus and organelles

219
Q

hematocrit

A

% blood volume occupied by RBC

220
Q

hematocrit normal %

A

~40

221
Q

only “complete” blood cell

A

WBC

222
Q

WBC contains ___ and ___ leukocytes

A

granular, agranular

223
Q

most formed elements only last

A

a few days

224
Q

do blood cells divide

A

no

225
Q

blood cells continuously renewed by ___ in ____

A

cell division, red bone marrow

226
Q

hemopoiesis

A

WBC # regulated in response to invading pathogens/antigens

227
Q

pluripotent stem cells develop into

A

many different types of cells

228
Q

cells enter blood stream through

A

sinusoids

229
Q

sinusoids

A

leaky capillaries in red bone marrow

230
Q

lymphoid progenitor cells

A

lymphocytes

231
Q

myeloid progenitor cells

A

RBC, platelets, monocytes, neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils

232
Q

homeopoietic growth factors

A

regulate differentiation and proliferation

233
Q

erythropoietin (EPO, ___)–>platelets–> treat _______

A

kidneys, low RBC conditions

234
Q

cytokines produced by

A

blood cells

235
Q

cytokines function

A

regulate immune response

236
Q

GM-CFU stimulate

A

WBC formation in cancer patients undergoing chemo

237
Q

___ RBC/uL

A

5 million

238
Q

RBC function

A

transport O2, contain hemoglobin

239
Q

hemoglobin

A

oxygen carrying protein

240
Q

___ new RBC per second

A

2 mil

241
Q

RBC anatomy: ____ disc: ___ surface area

A

bi concave, increase

242
Q

RBC anatomy: lack ___ and other ____: cannot ____

A

nucleus, organelles, reproduce

243
Q

RBC anatomy: ___ antigens in plasma membrane: responsible for ___ and ___ blood groups

A

glycolipid, ABO, Rh

244
Q

globin

A

globular protein, 4 polypeptide chains each with heme group

245
Q

(heme) iron ion combine reversibly with one oxygen molecule

A

oxyhemoglobin

246
Q

(heme) when O2 is released

A

doxyhemoglobin

247
Q

heme transports

A

all oxygen and 2% CO2

248
Q

1 Fe+ –> _____ O2 molecule

A

1, 1

249
Q

1 hemoglobin–>transport __ O2 molecules

A

1, 4

250
Q

erythropoiesis makes

A

red blood cells

251
Q

hemopoiesis makes

A

all blood cells

252
Q

erythropoietin

A

mechanism for regulating erythropoiesis

253
Q

red blood cell lifespan

A

120

254
Q

ruptured RBC destroyed in

A

spleen and liver

255
Q

breakdown products recycled: heme splits from ___

A

heme, globin

256
Q

___ amino acid reused

A

globin

257
Q

heme>___, ends as yellow pigment ___ in urine or brown ___ in feces

A

bilirubin, urobilin, stercobilin

258
Q

anemia

A

decrease in ability of blood to carry O2

259
Q

anemia symptoms

A

fatigue, pale skin

260
Q

anemia types: insufficient # RBC

A

hemorrhagic anemia, hemolytic anemia

261
Q

anemia types: low hemoglobin content: iron deficiency

A

most common type, menstruation, pregnancy, athletes

262
Q

anemia types: pernicious anemia

A

deficiency in vit b12

263
Q

anemia types: abnormal hemoglobin: thalassemia/sickle cell anemia

A

hereditary, one of the global chains is absent

264
Q

sickle cell anemia genetic disease with ____/___ hemoglobin

A

abnormal/mutated

265
Q

sickle cell anemia: mutation

A

change of one amino acid that makes the hemoglobin stiff, gives sickle shape

266
Q

sickle cell anemia: o2 content ___ than normal

A

lower

267
Q

sickle cell anemia: ___ rupture easily

A

RBC

268
Q

sickle cell anemia: ___ cannot keep pace with hemolysis

A

erythropoiesis

269
Q

sickle cell anemia: common in ___ areas

A

malaria

270
Q

sickle cell anemia symptoms

A

fatigue, bone and abdominal pain, breathlessness

271
Q

emigration of WBC: when body is attacked by

A

pathogens

272
Q

emigration of WBC: many WBC leave ___

A

bloodstream

273
Q

emigration of WBC: roll along ____, stick to and squeeze between ____

A

endothelium, endothelial cells

274
Q

in tissues, WBC move through

A

ameboid motion

275
Q

positive chemotaxis

A

follow trail of chemicals produced by damaged cells or other WBC

276
Q

Never Let Monkeys Eat Bananas

A

Neutrophils, Lymphocytes, Monocytes, Eosinophils, Basophils

277
Q

neutrophils

A

most abundant, active phagocytes

278
Q

esinophils

A

granules release enzymes kill parasitic worms, role in allergies and asthma

279
Q

basophils

A

rare, granules release inflammatory histamine: intensify inflammatory reaction, involved in hypersensitivity

280
Q

monocytes

A

largest WBC, pirate to tissues where they differentiate into macrophages

281
Q

lymphocytes

A

large nucleus

282
Q

major soldiers of immune system

A

lymphocytes

283
Q

lymphocytes recognize ___, abundant in _____

A

pathogens, lymphoid tissues

284
Q

b cells

A

give rise to plasma cells

285
Q

B cells destroy

A

bacteria, viruses

286
Q

T cells

A

attack directly virus-infected cells, transplanted cells, cancer cells

287
Q

natural killer cells: ___ response

A

rapid

288
Q

natural killer cells

A

attack directly virus-infected, transplanted cells, cancer cells

289
Q

larges leukocyte

A

monocyte

290
Q

monosite nucleus shape

A

U-kidney

291
Q

monocyte leave blood stream, enter ___, differentiate into ____

A

tissues, macrophages

292
Q

monocyte functions

A

immune, active phagocytes, defense against viruses and bacteria

293
Q

platlets/thrombocytes ___ cells

A

not

294
Q

platelets are ___ fragments of very large cell, ____

A

cytoplasmic, megakaryocytes

295
Q

formation of platelets: ____ splinter into fragments

A

megakaryocytes

296
Q

each platelet fragment is enclosed by

A

plasma membrane

297
Q

platelet function

A

clotting, stop blood

298
Q

platelet life span

A

5-10 days

299
Q

coagulation

A

blood clotting

300
Q

coagulation: exposed to air, ____ and forms ___

A

thickens, gel

301
Q

serum

A

straw-colored liquid plasma minus clotting proteins

302
Q

clot

A

gel network of protein fibers

303
Q

clot protein fibers called

A

fibrin

304
Q

blood clotting, coagulation or thrombogenesis: series of

A

enzymatic reations

305
Q

clotting factoers

A

Ca2+, inactive enzymes, vit K

306
Q

events of hemostasis 1: vascular spasm

A

vasoconstriction-smooth muscle contracts

307
Q

events of hemostasis 2: platelet plug formation

A

platelets stick to damaged blood vessel, platelet aggregates, attract more

308
Q

events of hemostasis 3: blood clotting/coagulation

A

platelet plug reinforced by fibrin thread

309
Q

2 pathways of coagulation

A

extrinsic/intrinsic, common

310
Q

extrinsic or intrinsic pathways

A

clotting factors I-XII lead to prothrobinase

311
Q

common pathway

A

formation of fibrin, clot threads, cells trapped in clot

312
Q

once healing has occurred ___ removes the clot

A

fibrinolysis

313
Q

plasminogen and tPA enzymes

A

when activates, dissolve clot

314
Q

factors that inhibit clotting: asprin

A

inhibit vasoconstriction and platelet aggregation in patienrs with cardiovascular disorders

315
Q

factors that inhibit clotting: thrombolitic agents

A

tPA tissue plasminogen activator, dissolve blood clots, restore circulation

316
Q

factors that inhibit clotting: heparin warfarinn

A

dialysis, open heart surgery

317
Q

factors that inhibit clotting: EDTA

A

remove Ca, prevent clotting of donated blood

318
Q

most common treatment for heart.blood vessel disorders

A

aspirin, tPA treatment

319
Q

thrombosis

A

bloot clots too easily

320
Q

hemorrhage

A

blood takes too long to clot

321
Q

hemophilia

A

hereditary bleeding disorder; due to deficiency of clotting factor

322
Q

antigen

A

genetically determined glycoprotein

323
Q

antibody

A

against specific agglutinogen

324
Q

agglutinate

A

clumping of RBC

325
Q

blood group based on ___ or ___ of various antigen

A

presence, absence

326
Q

substance the body perceives as foreign

A

antigen

327
Q

blood transfusion needed when

A

> 30% of blood loss

328
Q

blood transfusion often done to

A

restore O2 carrying capacity

329
Q

collected blood is immediately mixed with

A

anti-coagulant

330
Q

type A blood: antigen ___ and anti__ antibody

A

A, B

331
Q

type B blood: antigen ___ and anti__ antibody

A

B, A

332
Q

type AB blood antigen ___ and ___ ; neither anti__ or anti__ antibodies

A

A, B, A, B

333
Q

universal blood recipient

A

AB

334
Q

type O blood: neither __ or ___ antigens; anti__ and anti__ antibodies

A

A, B, A, B

335
Q

universal donor

A

O

336
Q

packed RBC lack

A

plasma containing antibodies

337
Q

whole blood consists of

A

RBC, WBC, platelets, other components

338
Q

whole blood can only be given to someone with ____ type

A

exact same

339
Q

blood type: + or -

A

lack or express Rh antigen

340
Q

Rh- person produces anti__ antibodies against ___ transfused blood

A

Rh, Rh+

341
Q

(rh) takes __ events to lead to sufficient antibodies to cause hemolysis

A

2

342
Q

hemolysis

A

incompatibility between blood types

343
Q

when an Rh- mother has a Rh+ children, the ___ child will be affected

A

second

344
Q

hemophilia

A

genetic disease different blood clotting factors

345
Q

hemophilia affects

A

males

346
Q

hemophilia treatment

A

blood plasma transfusion

347
Q

mono caused by

A

epstein barr virus

348
Q

mono: excessive # of

A

granulocyte WBC

349
Q

mono symptoms

A

tireness, sore throat, low grade fever

350
Q

leukemia

A

cancer of red bone marrow

351
Q

lukemia: ___ multiply rapidly

A

WBC

352
Q

lukemia: accumulation of

A

immature/abnormal WBC

353
Q

lukemia symptoms

A

reduced hemoglobin, infections, abnormal blood clotting

354
Q

lukemia cause

A

DNA mutations

355
Q

lukemia risk factors

A

radiation, chemo, genetics

356
Q

lukemia treatment

A

chemo, radiation, bone marrow transplant, blood transfusion

357
Q

mediastinum

A

sternum to vertebral column, first rib to diaphragm

358
Q

heart location

A

mediastinum

359
Q

___ of the heart is on the left side of the midline

A

2/3

360
Q

heart size

A

similar to fist

361
Q

heart apex

A

tip of left ventricle

362
Q

heart base

A

posterior surface atria

363
Q

heart right boarder faces

A

right lung

364
Q

heart left boarder faces

A

left lung

365
Q

pericardium

A

double walled sac surrounding and protecting the heart, 3 membranes

366
Q

fibrous pericardium

A

outer, tough

367
Q

serous parietal pericardium

A

fused with fibrous pericardium

368
Q

serous visceral pericardium

A

inner, epicardium

369
Q

pericardial cavity/fluid

A

between parietal and visceral, fluid reduce friction

370
Q

epicardium

A

visceral layer of serous pericardium, ct

371
Q

myocardium

A

95% of heart- cardiac muscle

372
Q

layer of heart that contracts

A

myocardium

373
Q

endocardium

A

smooth epithelial lining chambers of heart, valves and continuous with lining of large blood vessels

374
Q

chambers of heart

A

2 atria 2 ventricle

375
Q

2 atria: receiving chambers

A

receive venous blood, R and L

376
Q

2 ventricles: pumping chambers

A

pumping atrial blood out of heart

377
Q

2 auricles

A

wrinkled, ear like structures increase capacity of atria

378
Q

sulci

A

groove on surface, contain coronary blood vessels

379
Q

right atrium __ walls

A

thin

380
Q

right atrium receives blood from 3 veins

A

superior vena cava, inferior vena cava, coronary sinus

381
Q

coronary sinus

A

collect blood from myocardium

382
Q

internal septum

A

separate right and left atrium

383
Q

fossa ovalis

A

remnant of foramen ovule that closes after birth

384
Q

ricupsid valve

A

separate RA from RV, allows blood to flow from Ra to Rv

385
Q

forms anterior surface of heart

A

right ventricle

386
Q

right ventricle anatomy

A

trabecular carne, tricuspid valce, interventricular sptum

387
Q

trabecular carnae

A

muscular ridges of cardiac muscle fiber

388
Q

tricuspid valve: cups connected to ____, connected to ____

A

chord tendinae, papillary muscles

389
Q

interventricular septum

A

separate 2 ventricles

390
Q

blood flow: leaves through ____ into ____ then to R+L _____

A

pulmonary valve, pulmonary trunk, pulmonary arteries

391
Q

separates LA from LV

A

bicuspid (mitral) valve

392
Q

LV receives blood from ___ through ___

A

lungs, pulmonary veins

393
Q

LV passes blood through ____ ____ into LV

A

bicupsid valve

394
Q

thickest heart chamber

A

left ventricle

395
Q

left ventricle forms ___

A

apex

396
Q

LV contains ___carnae, chordae ___

A

trabecular, tendonae

397
Q

trabeculae carnae and chordae tendonae anchor the cusps of ___ to _____

A

BCV, papillary muscles

398
Q

blood passes through ____ into ascending aorta

A

aortic valve

399
Q

some blood flows from aorta into ____ ____

A

coronary arteries

400
Q

during fetal life _____ closes after birth

A

ductus arteriosus

401
Q

ductus arteriosus remnant

A

ligamentum arteriosum

402
Q

___ ____ ____ deliver blood under less pressure to ventricles

A

thin walled atria

403
Q

RV pumps to

A

lungs

404
Q

___ to ___ has a shorter distance

A

RV, lungs

405
Q

LV pumps to

A

entire body

406
Q

___ to ___ has longer distance

A

LV, body

407
Q

fibrous skeleton

A

4 dense CT rings that surround valves

408
Q

fibrous skeleton fuses with

A

itself and inter-ventricular septum

409
Q

fibrous skeleton separates

A

atria from ventricles

410
Q

fibrous skeleton: structural foundation to ____, prevent ____, point of insertion for _____

A

heart valves, over stretching of valves, muscle bundles

411
Q

valves open and close in response to ____ ___ as heart contracts and relaxes

A

pressure changes

412
Q

each valve ensures the _____ of blood by opening to let through and closing to ____

A

one way flow, backflow

413
Q

atrio-ventricular valves

A

tricupsid, bicupsid

414
Q

when ___ contract and ___ relax, AV valves open cusps project into ___

A

atria, ventricles, ventricles

415
Q

when ___ relax and ___ contract, pressure drives cusps upward

A

atria, ventricles

416
Q

semilunar valves

A

aortic, pulmonary veins

417
Q

valves open when pressure in ____ exceeds pressure in ____

A

ventricle, arteries

418
Q

as ____ relax, blood fills valve cups, ___ them

A

ventricles, close

419
Q

no valves in ___ to atria

A

entrance

420
Q

two circuits arranged in series

A

systemic and pulmonary

421
Q

systemic and pulmonary circulation: output of one becomes ___ of other

A

input

422
Q

systemic: __side

A

left

423
Q

systemic receives blood from

A

lungs

424
Q

systemic: eject blood into ___, then ___, ____

A

aorta, arteries, arterioles

425
Q

systemic: gas and nutrient exchange in systemic ____ throughout body

A

capillaries

426
Q

systemic valves and veins lead back to

A

RA

427
Q

pulmonary __ side

A

right

428
Q

pulmonary receive blood from

A

systemic

429
Q

pulmonary eject blood into ____ then ____

A

pulmonary trunk, pulmonary arteries

430
Q

pulmonary gas exchange in

A

pulmonary capillaries

431
Q

pulmonary veins take blood to

A

LA

432
Q

blood comes into ___ from body, moves into ___ and is pushed to ___ to lungs

A

atrium, ventricles, arteries

433
Q

after picking up O, blood travels back to heart through ___ into ___ to ___ and out to body tissues through ___

A

veins, atrium, LV, artery

434
Q

____ has its own network of blood cells

A

myocardium

435
Q

deliver oxygen-rich blood branching from ascending aorta

A

coronary arteries

436
Q

junction between atrial branches supplying same region

A

atrium

437
Q

collateral circuits

A

alternate blood routes provided by coronary circulation

438
Q

coronary veins collect ____ blood in ____

A

CO2 rich, coronary sinus

439
Q

coronary veins empty into

A

right atrium

440
Q

coronary arteries vulnerable to

A

arteriosclerosis

441
Q

arteriosclerosis

A

hardening of arteries due to fats and cholesterol plaque

442
Q

____ to heart will lead to angina or myocardial infarction

A

inadequate supply

443
Q

angina

A

chest pain

444
Q

myocardial infarction

A

heart attack

445
Q

cardiac muscle tissue and conduction system: usually ___ nucleus

A

1

446
Q

cardiac muscle tissue and conduction system: ____ and ____ gives stairlike appearance

A

branching, intercalated disks

447
Q

cardiac muscle tissue and conduction system: ____ connect fibers

A

intercalated discs

448
Q

____ allow synchronized contraction of heart muscle

A

intercalated discs

449
Q

cardiac muscle tissue and conduction system: ___ hold fibers together

A

desmosomes

450
Q

cardiac muscle tissue and conduction system: ____ allow ions to pass from cell to cell

A

gap junctions

451
Q

cardiac muscle tissue and conduction system: gap junction fibers are ____ connected

A

electricly

452
Q

each skeletal muscle fiber must be stimulated by a ____ in order to contract

A

nerve ending

453
Q

some cardiac muscles are self-_____

A

excitable

454
Q

skeletal muscles: all cells within a motor unit contract ____

A

simultaneously

455
Q

cardiac: ____ impulses to the rest of the heart

A

initiate/trasmit

456
Q

skeletal: impulse does not spread from

A

cell to cell

457
Q

cardiac: the entrie heart contracts as a ____ unit

A

single contractile

458
Q

resting membrane potential: caused by a different in _____ between extracellular and intraceullular compartment

A

electrical c…

459
Q

___(charge) ions intracellular: anion proteins

A

negative

460
Q

____ (charge) ions extracellular: Na

A

positive

461
Q

___ cells have a resting membrane potential

A

all

462
Q

cardiac myocytes have a ___ resting membrane potential

A

negative

463
Q

sequence of rapid events that decrease and eventually reverse the membrane potential

A

action potential

464
Q

reverse membrande potential

A

depolarization

465
Q

restore membrane potenital to resting state

A

repolarization

466
Q

all or none principle

A

if a stimulus reaches threashold, an AP is geneerated and is always the same size

467
Q

“cardiac pacemaker”

A

sets heart beat, sinoatrial nose

468
Q

sinoatrial node located

A

right atrium wall

469
Q

atrioventricular node locaded

A

base of RA wall

470
Q

backs up SA node

A

AV node

471
Q

atrioventricular bundle or

A

bundle of his

472
Q

bundle of his located

A

along interventricular septum

473
Q

purkinje fibers located

A

along ventricular walls

474
Q

____ initiates heartbeat

A

SA node

475
Q

SA node: _____ trigger heart contraction

A

excitatory impulses

476
Q

SA node: heart continues to beat when ___ cut

A

nerves

477
Q

SA: ____impulses>___>diffuse through heart

A

excitatory, AV

478
Q

SA: the “____” of the heart

A

pulse

479
Q

SA: average heart pulse

A

100bpm

480
Q

SA:pulse of heart has unstable

A

resting potential

481
Q

SA:pulse of heart unstable resting potential causes

A

spontaneous depolarizations and AP

482
Q

SA:nerve impulses from ___ nervous system and ___ modify timing and strength of each heartbeat

A

autonomic, heart rate

483
Q

if SA node fails, ___ takes over

A

AV node

484
Q

SA node fail can be corrected by

A

artificial pacemaker

485
Q

unlike autorhytmic fibers, contractile fibers have ___resting potential

A

stable

486
Q

tile fibers have ___ spontaneous depolarization

A

no

487
Q

stages of action potential: 1 ___

A

depolarization

488
Q

depolarization triggered by

A

AP from neighboring fibers

489
Q

depolarization: ___ flows inside cell

A

Na+

490
Q

stages of action potential: 2 ___

A

plateau

491
Q

maintained depolarization

A

plateau

492
Q

maintained depolarization

A

plateau

493
Q

plateau: opening of ___ slows Ca2+ channels

A

voltage gates

494
Q

plateau: Ca2+ slowly moves from ____ into ____

A

interstitial fluid, cytosol

495
Q

stages of action potential: 3 ___

A

repolarization

496
Q

recovery of resting membrane potential

A

repolarization

497
Q

repolarization: outflow of ___

A

K+

498
Q

second contraction can not be triggeres

A

refractory period

499
Q

refractory period lasts ___ than contraction

A

longer

500
Q

____ can not occur in cardiac muscle

A

tetanus

501
Q

tetanus occur in cardiac then blood flow would

A

cease

502
Q

ATP in cardiac mostly through

A

aerobic cellular respiration

503
Q

ATP in cardiac: very sensitive to lack of

A

oxygen

504
Q

electrocardiogram composites

A

record of AP produced by all heart muscle fibers

505
Q

ECG diagnoses

A

abnormal heart rate, arrhythmias, damage of heart muscle

506
Q

P wave

A

atrial depolarization

507
Q

QRS waves

A

ventricular depolarization

508
Q

T waves

A

ventricular repolarization

509
Q

systole

A

contraction

510
Q

diastole

A

relaxation

511
Q

action potentials arise in ___ node, spreads to ___ contractile fibers: __ wave leads to _____ contraction

A

SA, atrial, P, atrial

512
Q

AP enter ___ bundle and ___ fibers: ___complex leads to ____ contraction

A

AV, purkinje, QRS, ventricular

513
Q

repolarization of ventricular fibers: ___ wave, ventricular _____

A

T, relaxation

514
Q

in each cardiac cycle, ___ and ___ alternately contract and relax

A

atria, ventricles

515
Q

during ___ systole, ventricles are relaxed and fill with blood

A

atrial

516
Q

during ___ systole, atria are relaxed and fill with blood

A

ventricle

517
Q

faster ___, shorter relaxation period

A

heart bea

518
Q

blood flows according to

A

changed in pressure

519
Q

blood flows from ___ to ___ pressure

A

higher, lower

520
Q

end systolic volume: ____: contraction forces blood ______

A

systole, out of heart

521
Q

end diastolic volume: ____: relaxation forces blood ____

A

diastole, into heart

522
Q

bradycardia

A

heart beats too slow

523
Q

trachycardia

A

heart beats too quickly

524
Q

ausculation

A

sound of heartbeat

525
Q

sound of heart beat

A

blood turbulence caused by closing of heart valves

526
Q

4 heart sounds in each cardiac cycle

A

s1, s2, s3, s4

527
Q

only 2 sounds loud enough to be heard

A

s1, s2

528
Q

lub

A

av valve close, s1

529
Q

dup

A

SL valves close, s2

530
Q

cardiac output

A

volume of blood pumped out each min

531
Q

cardiac output depends on

A

demand

532
Q

function of stroke volume and heart rate, equation

A

CO=stroke volume x heart rate

533
Q

cardiac output normal rate

A

5L/min

534
Q

stroke volume

A

volume of blood pumped by one ventricle with each beat

535
Q

stroke volume in typical resting male

A

20mL/beat

anatomy 1 (3 decks)

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