Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Thompson class fall 2015 > Exam 2: Week 5 Wednesday (medications) > Flashcards

Exam 2: Week 5 Wednesday (medications) Flashcards

1
Q

Definition of Pharmacotherapeutics

A

area of pharmacology that refers to the use of specific drugs to prevent, treat, or diagnose a disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Definition of Pharmacokinetics

A

the study of how the body deals with the drug in terms of the way it is absorbed, distributed, and eliminated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Definition of Pharmacodynamics

A

the analysis of what the drug does to the body, including the mechanism by which the drug exerts its effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Definition of Pharmacogenetics

A

the branch of pharmacology concerned with the effect of genetic factors on reactions to drugs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the difference between a chemical name and a generic name?

A
  • Chemical name refers to specific compound’s structure (typically long and cumbersome)
  • Generic name tends to be shorter and often derived from chemical name.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Two alternative ways the generic name can be thought of

A
  • official
  • nonproprietary
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

List of steps for having a drug approved

A
  1. Animal studies
  2. Human Clinical Trials phase I
  3. Human Clinical Trials phase II
  4. Human Clinical Trials phase III

*Postmarketing surveillance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is bioequivalence?

A

If 2 products are said to be bioequivalent it means that they would be expected to be, for all intents and purposes, the same.

*This does not always occur and sometimes people react differently to a generic drug compared to brand name drug.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

When referring to a medication, what is the ideal drug name to use?

A

generic

Brand (or Trade) names can often be confusing and sound like other drugs used for very different purposes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Something to ask or check if patient complains of not feeling quite right or having increased side effects to their medication

A

Did they change their medication from brand name to generic.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What does Human Clinical Trials Phase I typically involve?

A

Usually a small group of healthy volunteers (20-80 people)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What does Human Clinical Trials Phase II typically involve?

A

Usually a small group of people with the targeted pathology (200-300 people)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What does Human Clinical Trials Phase III typically involve?

A

Usually a much larger group of people with the targeted pathology (several hundred - several thousand people)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Common drug that gets expedited through the drug approval process

A

flu vaccine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is postmarketing Surveillance?

A

drug is monitored for side effects after released.

If substantial or severe adverse effects reported, drug can be pulled off the market

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is a black box warning?

A
  • strictest warning in the labeling of prescription drugs by FDA
  • when there is reasonable evidence of an association of a serious hazard with the drug.

EX: Clindamycin- antibiotic that flushes out all of intestinal flora

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is an orphan drug?

A
  • a drug that remains commercially undeveloped owing to limited potential for profitability.
  • Usually under 200,00 people in the US with that disease.
  • Because there is limited demand, FDA will fund production of orphan drug.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Off label medication?

A

approved medications used for something other than their intended indications.

Ex; Neurotin- anti-seizure medication also used to treat pain and has been used as an anti-psychotic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Who assumes liability for off label medication?

A

prescribing doctor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

benefits and disadvantages of OTC meds

A

Benefits

  • Do not need to see a doctor to get them
  • safety is reasonable- typically reduced in half to accommodate for consumer error
  • clinical effectiveness proven dosage

Disadvantages

  • Dr. not there to tell consumer how to use them
  • insurance typically does not pay for OTC meds leading to potentially more out of pocket cost
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Why would a physician need a DEA license?

A

Augments prescription writing privileges to include schedled medications.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are schedule I drugs?

A

drugs with highest potential for abuse and not used for therapeutic use

Ex: LSD, heroin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are schedule II drugs?

A

drugs approved for specific therapeutic purposes but still have high potential for abuse and addiction

Ex: morphine, fentanyl

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are schedule III drugs?

A

drugs have mild to moderate risk for physical and/or psychological dependence

Ex: anabolic steroids, codeine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are schedule IV drugs?

A

drugs supposedly have lower potential for abuse and dependence

Ex: phenobarbitol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What are schedule V drugs?

A

drugs with lowest risk for dependence and abuse

Ex: some cough medications, antidiarrheal preparations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is a dose-response curve?

A

provides info about the dosage range over which the drug is effective, as well as the peak response that can be expected from that drug.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the threshold dose and where is it located on the dose-response curve?

A
  • min dose of drug that will produce a detectable degree of any given effect
  • At the very beginning of the curve
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the ceiling effect and where is it located on the dose-response curve?

A
  • point at which there is no further increase in the response to a drug- maximal efficacy of drug is reached.
  • located at highest point and end point of dose-response curve.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the median effective dose?

A

a dose that produces the desired effect in 50% of a population.

31
Q

What is the median toxic dose?

A

dose at which 50% of population exhibits adverse effects important

Ex: used when prescribing cancer medication and balancing out hurt vs harm to cells.

32
Q

What is the peak level?

A

highest serum level of drug in a pt based on a dosing schedule

33
Q

What is potency of a drug?

A

related to the dose that produces a given response in a specific amplitude refers to the fact that less of the compound is required to produce a given response.

34
Q

What is meant by the efficacy of a drug?

A

the capacity for beneficial change (or therapeutic effect) of a given medication

35
Q

What is affinity and why do I care?

A
  • Dr. Thompson clarified in her email that affinity played a role how agonists and antagonists work.
  • The definition in chemistry is the tendency of two substances to form strong or weak chemical bonds forming molecules or complexes.
36
Q

What is therapeutic index?

A
  • index calculates therapeutic effect
  • provides a measure of drug safety
  • formula is median toxic dose (TD) divided by the median effective dose (ED)
37
Q

Is it better to have a lower therapeutic index?

A

No.

The lower the index, typically the riskier the drug

38
Q

Two primary routes of for drug administration

A
  1. enteral
  2. parenteral
39
Q

The “sub” routes of enteral administration

A
  1. oral
  2. sublingual (under tongue)
  3. buccal (between cheek and gums)
  4. rectal
40
Q

The “sub” routes of parenteral administration

A
  1. inhalation
  2. intraveneous injection
  3. intra-arterial injection
  4. subcutaneous injection
  5. intramuscular injection
  6. intrathecal injection (spinal-subarachnoid space)
  7. topical
  8. transdermal (incldes iontophoresis)
41
Q

True or false: a drug may not be approved until it is tested on the general public

A

False

FDA approves after 3rd phase of human clinical trials are successfully completed

42
Q

True or False: Expedited review takes 7-9 years

A

False

That is how long a normal review typically takes

43
Q

True or False: Practitioners need to get special permission to use off-label

A

False

Hwever, they are assuming the risk

44
Q

What is the risk of taking a generic drug?

A

bioequivalence

45
Q

What 2 factors predict the therapeutic effect?

A
  1. therapeutic index
  2. type of drug
46
Q

What 2 organs play a major role in medication administered orally and why?

A
  1. liver- has first pass effect in which much of the drug is metabolized
  2. kidneys- she didn’t explain this, but I wonder if it’s because the kidneys clean the blood?
47
Q

How does medication enter liver?

A

through portal vein

48
Q

Why is medication not just given sublingual or buccal to avoid the negative impact of the liver and kidneys?

A

Some medication molecules are too large and cannot be effectively absorbed through those tissues

49
Q

Advantages and disadvantages of oral medication adminstration

A

Advantages

  1. easy
  2. safe
  3. convienent

Disadvantages

  1. limited or erractic absorption of some drugs
  2. chance of first pass inactivation in liver
50
Q

Examples of oral medications

A

analgesics like advil, sedative-hypnotics such as Xanax, ect…

51
Q

Advantages (2), disadvantages (1), and an example of sublingual adminstration medication

A

Advantages

  1. rapid onset
  2. not subject to the first pass inactvation

Disadvantages

  1. drugs must be easily absorbed by oral mucosa

Example: nitroglycerin

52
Q

Advantages (2), disadvantages (2), and an example of rectal adminstration medication

A

Advantages

  1. alternative to oral route
  2. local effect on local tissues

Disadvantages

  1. poor or incomplete absorption
  2. chance of rectal irritation

Example: laxitives and other suppositories

53
Q

Advantages (3), disadvantages (2), and example of inhalation adminstration medication

A

Advantages

  1. rapid onset
  2. direct application for respiratory disorders
  3. large surface area for systemic absorption

Disadvantages

  1. chance for tissue irriation
  2. patient complaince sometimes a problem

Example: general anesthetics suh as nitrous oxide, anti-asthmatic agents

54
Q

Advantages (2), disadvantages (1), and an example of injection adminstration medication

A

Advantages

  1. provides more direct administration to target tissues
  2. rapid onset

Disadvantages

  1. chance of infection if sterility is not maintained

Example: insulin, antibiotics, anti-cancer drugs such as depo-provera, and narcotic analgesics such as morphine

55
Q

Advantages (1), disadvantages (1), and an example of topical adminstration medication

A

Advantage

  • local effects on surface of skin

Disadvantage

  • only effective in treating outer layers of skin

​Example: antibiotic ointments, antifungal creams such as lotramin

56
Q

Advantages (2), disadvantages (1), and an example of transdermal adminstration medication

A

Advantages

  1. introducing drug into body without breaking the skin
  2. can provide steady, prolonged delivery via medicated patch

Disadvantage

  1. drug must be able to pass through dermal layers intact

Example: nitroglycerin, motion sickness medications , drugs used with phonophoresis and iontophoresis

57
Q

What is bioavailibility?

A

The extent to which the drug reaches the systemic circulation

Ex: 100 mg of Drug X is taken orally, but only 50 mg of Drug X makes it into systemic circulation

58
Q

What is something that can go wrong with bioavailiblity of a drug?

A

It can build up in the system and there are higher levels of the drug than desired in systemic circulation

59
Q

What type of tissue do drug tend to be stored in and and why?

A

Adipose tissue

Due to low blood circulation and metabolic rate

60
Q

A second location where drugs can be stored

A

Drugs can bind to receptors and stick around in bone matrix .

Examples given in class were lead and tetracyclines doing this very thing. Tetracycline can build up in teeth andyellow them

61
Q

Advantages of time release controlled medications

A
  • lower (potency usually) and slower
  • provide therapeutic sustained levels
  • Ex: anti-parkinson meds
62
Q

What are pro-drugs?

A

pharmacologically inactive medications that are metabolized into an active form within the body. Instead of administering a drug directly, a prodrug might be used instead to improve how a medicine is absorbed, distributed, metabolized, and excreted

Ex: fecal implant to restore natural flora in gut

63
Q

What is biotransformation?

A

drug metabolism

chemical changes that take place in the drug following administration.

64
Q

What is clearance of a drug?

A
  • organ’s and tissue’s ability to eliminate the drug (systemic clearance)
  • single organ or tissue’s ability to eliminate a drug
65
Q

What is the half-life of a drug and why does it matter?

A
  • the amount of time required for 50% of the drug remaining in the body to be eliminated
  • important in describing the duration of activity of the compound
  • factors into how well a drug will metabolize down to zero and how it will behave.
66
Q

Factors (7) that may affect drug metabolism when considering prescribing drugs for an individual

A
  1. genetics- ex: prescence or absence of enzymes in a person’s genetic make-up
  2. Disease- ex: structural and funcational damage to organs
  3. Drug Interactions- ex: what medications is the person taking and what type of interactions will the medications have
  4. Age- ex: medications can affect elderly and young very different than a normal healthy adult
  5. Diet- ex: a person’s diet can affet how a drug is absorbed and metabolized
  6. Sex- ex: Men and women have different hormones and this can affect how drugs are metabolized
  7. Other- ex: occupational hazzards/exposure, weight, smoking, ect…
67
Q

What is affinity?

A

the mutual attraction between a drug and a specific cellular receptor

68
Q

What is an agonist?

A
  • a drug that binds to a receptor and causes some change in cell function
  • an agonist has affinity and efficacy
69
Q

What is an antagonist?

A
  • block an action
  • also have affinity
  • not considered to have efficacy
  • Thompson described as attaching to cell and play defense by blocking agonist
  • used beta-blockers as an example
70
Q

Competitive vs. Noncompetitive antagonist

A

Competitive antagonist

  • has equal opportunity to compete for receptor as the agonist
  • whichever concentration of the competitive antagonist or agonist is higher wins the receptor battle

Non-competitive antagonist

  • form strong and essentially permanent bonds to the receptor.
  • have strong affinity for receptor or actually form irreversible covalent bonds to reeptor
71
Q

What is a mixed agonist- antagonist?

A

Medication has both agonist and antagonist properties

Ex: Tamoxifin- given to women after surgery for a breast cancer. Acts as antagonist because it blocks the effect of estrogen on breast tissue from developing new tumors. Acts as an agonist to stimulate estrogen receptors on bone to prevent osteoporosis.

72
Q

What is a partial agonist?

A
  • does not evoke max response compared to strong agonist
  • may have high affinity, but low efficacy (due to piss poor attempt at activating receptor)
73
Q

What is an inverse agonist?

A

binds to receptor as a normal agonist, but has the exact opposite reaction as a normal agonist (unlike an antagonist which would just block what the normal agonist was trying to do)

aka:the story of MaryBeth’s life

Thompson class fall 2015 (12 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions