Exam 2 Review Flashcards

1
Q

The stem that carries out effector function of antibodies through interaction with cell-bound receptors and serum proteins

a. hinge region
b. κ
c. Fab
d. α
e. Fc

A

Fc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Provides flexibility to permit binding to different antigenic arrangements

a. hinge region
b. κ
c. Fab
d. α
e. Fc

A

hinge region

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

A heavy-chain isotype

a. hinge region
b. κ
c. Fab
d. α
e. Fc

A

α

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

The arms of the antibody that bind antigen

a. hinge region
b. κ
c. Fab
d. α
e. Fc

A

Fab

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

A light-chain isotype

a. hinge region
b. κ
c. Fab
d. α
e. Fc

A

κ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Derived from blood following vaccination with an antigen

a. hybridoma
b. myeloma
c. monoclonal antibody
d. antiserum
e. chimeric monoclonal antibody

A

antiserum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

A pure type of antibody synthesized by a single clone of cells

a. hybridoma
b. myeloma
c. monoclonal antibody
d. antiserum
e. chimeric monoclonal antibody

A

monoclonal antibody

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Immortalized cell line generated by fusing a B cell with a tumor cell

a. hybridoma
b. myeloma
c. monoclonal antibody
d. antiserum
e. chimeric monoclonal antibody

A

tumor cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

A tumor of plasma cells

a. hybridoma
b. myeloma
c. monoclonal antibody
d. antiserum
e. chimeric monoclonal antibody

A

myeloma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Engineered antibody containing mouse V regions and human C regions

a. hybridoma
b. myeloma
c. monoclonal antibody
d. antiserum
e. chimeric monoclonal antibody

A

chimeric monoclonal antibody

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

The rearrangement of V, D, and J segments to form an immunoglobulin

a. monoclonal antibody production
b. isotype switching
c. opsonization
d. somatic hypermutation
e. somatic recombination

A

somatic recombination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

The derivation of antibodies from a single clone of B lymphocytes that have identical antigen specificity

a. monoclonal antibody production
b. isotype switching
c. opsonization
d. somatic hypermutation
e. somatic recombination

A

monoclonal antibody production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Change of immunoglobulin class but preservation of antigen specificity

a. monoclonal antibody production
b. isotype switching
c. opsonization
d. somatic hypermutation
e. somatic recombination

A

isotype switching

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Nucleotide changes in variable regions of immunoglobulin genes affecting affinity for antigen

a. monoclonal antibody production
b. isotype switching
c. opsonization
d. somatic hypermutation
e. somatic recombination

A

somatic hypermutation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Enhancement of receptor-mediated phagocytosis of immunoglobulin-coated antigen

a. monoclonal antibody production
b. isotype switching
c. opsonization
d. somatic hypermutation
e. somatic recombination

A

opsonization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

An intracellular, monomorphic MHC class I isotype whose function is unknown

a. HLA-A, HLA-B, HLA-C
b. HLA-E, HLA-G
c. HLA-F
d. HLA-DP, HLA-DQ, HLA-DR
e. HLA-DM, HLA-DO

A

HLA-F

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Form ligands for receptors on NK cells

a. HLA-A, HLA-B, HLA-C
b. HLA-E, HLA-G
c. HLA-F
d. HLA-DP, HLA-DQ, HLA-DR
e. HLA-DM, HLA-DO

A

a. HLA-A, HLA-B, HLA-C

b. HLA-E, HLA-G

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Participate in peptide loading of MHC class II molecules

a. HLA-A, HLA-B, HLA-C
b. HLA-E, HLA-G
c. HLA-F
d. HLA-DP, HLA-DQ, HLA-DR
e. HLA-DM, HLA-DO

A

HLA-DM, HLA-DO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Present antigen to CD4 T cells

a. HLA-A, HLA-B, HLA-C
b. HLA-E, HLA-G
c. HLA-F
d. HLA-DP, HLA-DQ, HLA-DR
e. HLA-DM, HLA-DO

A

HLA-DP, HLA-DQ, HLA-DR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Present antigen to CD8 T cells

a. HLA-A, HLA-B, HLA-C
b. HLA-E, HLA-G
c. HLA-F
d. HLA-DP, HLA-DQ, HLA-DR
e. HLA-DM, HLA-DO

A

HLA-A, HLA-B, HLA-C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Mechanism enabling extracellular antigens to bind to MHC class I molecules

a. MHC restriction
b. cross-presentation
c. heterozygote advantage
d. balancing selection
e. interallelic conversion

A

cross-presentation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Evolutionary maintenance of divergent MHC molecule phenotypes

a. MHC restriction
b. cross-presentation
c. heterozygote advantage
d. balancing selection
e. interallelic conversion

A

balancing selection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Recognition of peptide antigen by a given T-cell receptor when bound to a particular MHC allotype

a. MHC restriction
b. cross-presentation
c. heterozygote advantage
d. balancing selection
e. interallelic conversion

A

MHC restriction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Mechanism used to increase polymorphisms of HLA class I and class II alleles involving homologous recombination between different alleles of the same gene

a. MHC restriction
b. cross-presentation
c. heterozygote advantage
d. balancing selection
e. interallelic conversion

A

interallelic conversion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Presentation of a wider range of peptides when MHC isotypes inherited from each parent are different

a. MHC restriction
b. cross-presentation
c. heterozygote advantage
d. balancing selection
e. interallelic conversion

A

heterozygote advantage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Positioned in the T-cell receptor α-chain locus between Vα and Jα gene segments

a. T-cell receptor δ-chain gene
b. CD3 complex
c. T-cell receptor β-chain gene
d. CD4
e. T-cell receptor γ-chain gene

A

T-cell receptor δ-chain gene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Made up of γ, δ and ε components

a. T-cell receptor δ-chain gene
b. CD3 complex
c. T-cell receptor β-chain gene
d. CD4
e. T-cell receptor γ-chain gene

A

CD3 complex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Located on chromosome 7

a. T-cell receptor δ-chain gene
b. CD3 complex
c. T-cell receptor β-chain gene
d. CD4
e. T-cell receptor γ-chain gene

A

T-cell receptor β-chain gene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Counterpart to the T-cell receptor α-chain gene

a. T-cell receptor δ-chain gene
b. CD3 complex
c. T-cell receptor β-chain gene
d. CD4
e. T-cell receptor γ-chain gene

A

T-cell receptor γ-chain gene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Four extracellular domains

a. T-cell receptor δ-chain gene
b. CD3 complex
c. T-cell receptor β-chain gene
d. CD4
e. T-cell receptor γ-chain gene

A

CD4

31
Q

A chaperone that directs empty MHC class I molecules to the inside of the cell

a. cathepsin S
b. HLA-DM
c. endoplasmic reticulum aminopeptidase (ERAP)
d. receptor-mediated endocytosis
e. ERp57
f. HLA-G
g. HLA-F

A

HLA-F

32
Q

Activated by acidification in phagolysosomes

a. cathepsin S
b. HLA-DM
c. endoplasmic reticulum aminopeptidase (ERAP)
d. receptor-mediated endocytosis
e. ERp57
f. HLA-G
g. HLA-F

A

cathepsin S

33
Q

A thiol-reductase in the peptide-loading complex

a. cathepsin S
b. HLA-DM
c. endoplasmic reticulum aminopeptidase (ERAP)
d. receptor-mediated endocytosis
e. ERp57
f. HLA-G
g. HLA-F

A

ERp57

34
Q

Removes class II-associated invariant-chain peptide (CLIP)

a. cathepsin S
b. HLA-DM
c. endoplasmic reticulum aminopeptidase (ERAP)
d. receptor-mediated endocytosis
e. ERp57
f. HLA-G
g. HLA-F

A

HLA-DM

35
Q

Internalization of immunoglobulin:antigen complexes by B cells

a. cathepsin S
b. HLA-DM
c. endoplasmic reticulum aminopeptidase (ERAP)
d. receptor-mediated endocytosis
e. ERp57
f. HLA-G
g. HLA-F

A

receptor-mediated endocytosis

36
Q

Expressed only by extravillous trophoblasts

a. cathepsin S
b. HLA-DM
c. endoplasmic reticulum aminopeptidase (ERAP)
d. receptor-mediated endocytosis
e. ERp57
f. HLA-G
g. HLA-F

A

HLA-G

37
Q

Trims peptides to fit MHC class I molecules

a. cathepsin S
b. HLA-DM
c. endoplasmic reticulum aminopeptidase (ERAP)
d. receptor-mediated endocytosis
e. ERp57
f. HLA-G
g. HLA-F

A

endoplasmic reticulum aminopeptidase (ERAP)

38
Q

An individual with a genetic defect that results in a lack of somatic recombination between V, D, and J segments would be unable to rearrange either immunoglobulin or T-cell receptor genes somatically. There would be a severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID) owing to the absence of mature B cells and T cells.

A

True

39
Q

The rejoining and repair of DNA during the recombination process leads to additional variation in sequence at the junctions between the rearranged gene segments. This is called junctional diversity and contributes considerably to the final diversity of immunoglobulin specificities. Two sources of junctional diversity are introduced: P (palindromic) and N (nontemplated) nucleotides. P nucleotides are generated through endonuclease activity and repair around a hairpin loop at the ends of the gene segments to be joined. N nucleotides are nucleotides added at random at the junctions by terminal deoxynucleotidyl transferase (TdT) activity.

A

True

40
Q

Igalpha and Igbeta proteins are highly variable, because they interact directly with antigen. Igalpha and Igbeta perform specific signaling functions, which require particular amino acid sequences and also have evolved a sequence and structure that enable them to interact with all the different immunoglobulin isotypes. Extensive variation in Igalpha and/or Igbeta could therefore compromise their interaction with immunoglobulins and their signal transduction capabilities.

A

False

41
Q

Linear epitopes are epitopes in proteins that comprise a contiguous amino acid sequence. They are also called continuous epitopes. In contrast, a conformational epitope is formed by amino acids that are brought together as a result of protein folding and are not adjacent in the protein sequence. Conformational epitopes are also known as discontinuous epitopes.

A

True

42
Q

The third hypervariable region (CDR2) is the most variable site in an immunoglobulin V region. It differs in its composition between the lightchain and heavy-chain V regions. CDR2 of the light chain is composed mainly of the coding joint between the V and J segments, which is formed during somatic recombination, with junctional diversity being generated by the addition of P and N nucleotides. CDR2 of the heavy chain is composed mainly of the D gene segment plus its coding joints with a V gene segment on one side and a J gene segment on the other. P and N nucleotides are also added to these joints during recombination. In addition, the D gene segment sequences differ between immunoglobulins.

A

False

43
Q

MHC class II molecules are made up of two chains called _______, whose function is to bind peptides and present them to _______ T cells.

a. alpha and beta; CD4
b. alpha and beta2-microglobulin; CD4
c. alpha and beta; CD8
d. alpha and beta2-microglobulin; CD8
e. alpha and beta; gamma:delta T cells

A

alpha and beta; CD4

44
Q

Which of the following best describes the function of tapasin?

a. Tapasin is an antagonist of HLA-DM and causes more significant increases in MHC class I than MHC class II on the cell surface.
b. Tapasin is a lectin that binds to sugar residues on MHC class I molecules, T-cell receptors, and immunoglobulins and retains them in the ER until their subunits have adopted the correct conformation.
c. Tapasin is a thiol-reductase that protects the disulfide bonds of MHC class I molecules.
d. Tapasin participates in peptide editing by trimming the amino terminus of peptides to ensure that the fit between peptide and MHC class II molecules is appropriate.
e. Tapasin is a bridging protein that binds to both TAP and MHC class I molecules and facilitates the selection of peptides that bind tightly to MHC class I molecules.

A

Tapasin is a bridging protein that binds to both TAP and MHC class I molecules and facilitates the selection of peptides that bind tightly to MHC class I molecules.

45
Q

Production by the patient of antibodies against therapeutic mouse monoclonal antibodies is the major limitation for their use in humans. These human anti-antibodies are directed against the _____ of the mouse antibody.

a. V regions
b. D regions
c. C regions
d. J regions
e. MC regions

A

C regions

46
Q

The five isotypes of immunoglobulin differ from each other in their _____.

a. light-chain constant regions
b. heavy-chain constant regions
c. light-chain variable regions
d. heavy-chain variable regions
e. heavy-chain variable and constant regions

A

heavy-chain constant regions

47
Q

T-cell receptors interact not only with peptide anchored in the peptide-binding groove of MHC molecules, but also with ____________________.

a. anchor residues
b. peptide-binding motif
c. variable amino acid residues on alpha helices of the MHC molecule
d. beta2-microglobulin
e. invariant chain

A

variable amino acid residues on alpha helices of the MHC molecule

48
Q

Which is the most likely reason that HIV-infected people with heterozygous HLA loci have a delayed progression to AIDS compared with patients who are homozygous at one or more HLA loci?

a. The greater number of HLA alleles provides a wider variety of HLA molecules for presenting HIV-derived peptides to CD8 T cells even if HIV mutates during the course of infection.
b. Heterozygotes have more opportunity for interallelic conversion and can therefore express larger numbers of MHC alleles.
c. Directional selection mechanisms favor heterozygotes and provide selective advantage to pathogen exposure.
d. As heterozygosity increases, so does the concentration of alloantibodies in the serum, some of which cross-react with and neutralize HIV.
e. The lower number of HLA alleles provides a wider variety of HLA molecules for presenting HIV-derived peptides to CD8 T cells even if HIV mutates during the course of infection.

A

The greater number of HLA alleles provides a wider variety of HLA molecules for presenting HIV-derived peptides to CD8 T cells even if HIV mutates during the course of infection.

49
Q

Unlike B cells, T cells do not engage in any of the following processes except _______________.

a. alternative splicing to produce a secreted form of the T-cell receptor
b. alternative splicing to produce different isoforms of the T-cell receptor
c. isotype switching
d. somatic hypermutation
e. somatic recombination

A

somatic recombination

50
Q

Which of the following determines the isotype of an immunoglobulin?

a. the composition of the hypervariable regions
b. whether the immunoglobulin is membrane-bound or secreted
c. its light chain
d. its heavy chain
e. the composition of the cytoplasmic tails of Ig? and Ig?

A

its heavy chain

51
Q

Which of the following describes the sequence of events involved in the processing of peptides that will be presented as antigen with MHC class II?

a. protease activity -> removal of CLIP from MHC class II -> binding of peptide to MHC class II -> endocytosis -> plasma membrane
b. endocytosis -> protease activity -> removal of CLIP from MHC class II -> binding of peptide to MHC class II -> plasma membrane
c. removal of CLIP from MHC class II -> binding of peptide to MHC class II -> protease activity -> endocytosis -> plasma membrane
d. binding of peptide to MHC class II -> endocytosis -> removal of CLIP from MHC class II -> protease activity -> plasma membrane
e. plasma membrane -> endocytosis -> protease activity -> removal of CLIP from MHC class II -> binding of peptide to MHC class II

A

endocytosis -> protease activity -> removal of CLIP from MHC class II -> binding of peptide to MHC class II -> plasma membrane

52
Q

The CDR3 loops of the T-cell receptor contact the _______.

a. side chains of amino acids in the middle of the peptide
b. co-receptors CD4 or CD8
c. membrane-proximal domains of the MHC molecule
d. constant regions of antibody molecules
e. alpha helices of the MHC molecule

A

side chains of amino acids in the middle of the peptide

53
Q

Gene rearrangement by somatic recombination involves recombination signal sequences (RSSs) that flank V, D, and J segments and are recognized by the enzymes involved in cutting and rejoining the gene segments. An RSS is composed of a conserved nonamer sequence and heptamer sequence separated by a spacer region. There are two types of RSS, one with a spacer of 12 bp and one with a spacer of 23 bp. To ensure that segments are brought together in the right order, an RSS with a 12-bp spacer is always brought together with one with a 23-bp spacer. This is called the 12/23 rule. This ensures that in the heavy-chain locus, V rearranges to DJ and not directly to J or another V, and in the light-chain locus, V rearranges to J and not to another V.

A

True

54
Q

The immunoglobulin heavy-chain gene consists of _______ segments, whereas the immunoglobulin light-chain gene consists of _______ segments.

a. kappa; lambda
b. VDJ; VJ
c. VJ; VDJ
d. P; N
e. RAG-1; RAG-2

A

VDJ; VJ

55
Q

How many complementarity-determining regions contribute to the antigen-binding site in an intact T-cell receptor?

a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 6
e. 12

A

6

56
Q

On the heavy-chain immunoglobulin gene locus, recombination signal sequences flank _______ of the V segment, _______ of the D segment, and _______ of the J segment.

a. the 5-prime side; both sides; the 3-prime side
b. the 5-prime side; the 5-prime side, the 5-prime side
c. the 3-prime side; both sides; the 3-prime side
d. both sides; both sides; both sides
e. the 3-prime side; both sides; the 5-prime side

A

the 3-prime side; both sides; the 5-prime side

57
Q

Of the following HLA-chain loci, which one exhibits the highest degree of polymorphism?

a. HLA-A
b. HLA-B
c. HLA-C
d. HLA-DP
e. HLA-DR

A

HLA-B

58
Q

Which of the following statements regarding T-cell receptor recognition of antigen is correct?

a. alpha:beta T-cell receptors recognize antigen only as a peptide bound to an MHC molecule.
b. alpha:beta T-cell receptors recognize antigens in their native form.
c. alpha:beta T-cell receptors, like B-cell immunoglobulins, can recognize carbohydrate, lipid, and protein antigens.
d. Antigen processing occurs in extracellular spaces.
e. Like alpha:beta T cells, gamma:delta T cells are also restricted to the recognition of antigens presented by MHC molecules.

A

alpha:beta T-cell receptors recognize antigen only as a peptide bound to an MHC molecule.

59
Q

Which of the following characteristics is common to both T-cell receptors and immunoglobulins?

a. Somatic recombination of V, D, and J segments is responsible for the diversity of antigen-binding sites.
b. Somatic hypermutation changes the affinity of antigen-binding sites and contributes to further diversification.
c. Class switching enables a change in effector function.
d. The antigen receptor is composed of two identical heavy chains and two identical light chains.
e. Carbohydrate, lipid, and protein antigens are recognized and stimulate a response.

A

Somatic recombination of V, D, and J segments is responsible for the diversity of antigen-binding sites.

60
Q

Naive B cells express IgM and IgD simultaneously through a mechanism involving alternative ways of processing the RNA transcript before translation. A primary transcript containing leader (L), V, D, J, Cmu, and Cdelta is produced first. This transcript contains two distinct polyadenylation signal sequences, one following the Cmu exons (pA1) and the other following the Cdelta exons (pA2). Processing results in the removal of either Cmu or Cdelta exons (plus introns) through alternative splicing. The resulting mRNAs, which encode either Cmu or Cdelta, are polyadenylated at the pA1 or pA2 site, respectively.

A

True

61
Q

The primary reason for transplant rejections is due to differences in _____ between donor and recipient.

a. CD3
b. MHC molecules
c. T-cell receptor alpha chains
d. gamma:delta T cells
e. beta2-microblobulin

A

MHC molecules

62
Q

The process used to produce either surface or secreted forms of the immunoglobulin heavy chain is called __________________.

a. alternative RNA processing
b. isotype switching
c. somatic recombination
d. somatic hypermutation
e. opsonization

A

alternative RNA processing

63
Q

The antigen-recognition site of T-cell receptors is formed by the association of which of the following domains?

a. Valpha and Calpha
b. Vbeta and Cbeta
c. Calpha and Cbeta
d. Valpha and Cbeta
e. Valpha and Vbeta

A

Valpha and Vbeta

64
Q

In reference to the interaction between T-cell receptors and their corresponding ligands, which of the following statements is correct?

a. The organization of the T-cell receptor antigen-binding site is distinct from the antigen-binding site of immunoglobulins.
b. The orientation between T-cell receptors and MHC class I molecules is different from that of MHC class II molecules.
c. The CDR3 loops of the T-cell receptor alpha and beta chains form the periphery of the binding site making contact with the alpha helices of the MHC molecule.
d. The most variable part of the T-cell receptor is composed of the CDR3 loops of both the alpha and beta chains.
e. The most constant part of the T-cell receptor is composed of the CDR3 loops of both the alpha and beta chains.

A

The most variable part of the T-cell receptor is composed of the CDR3 loops of both the alpha and beta chains.

65
Q

If viewing the three-dimensional structure of a T-cell receptor from the side, with the T-cell membrane at the bottom and the receptor pointing upwards, which of the following is inconsistent with experimental data?

a. The highly variable CDR loops are located across the top surface.
b. The membrane-proximal domains consist of Calpha and Cbeta.
c. The portion that makes physical contact with the ligand comprises Vbeta and Cbeta, the domains farthest from the T-cell membrane.
d. The transmembrane regions span the plasma membrane of the T cell.
e. The cytoplasmic tails of the T-cell receptor alpha and beta chains are very short

A

The portion that makes physical contact with the ligand comprises Vbeta and Cbeta, the domains farthest from the T-cell membrane.

66
Q

Identify which of the following statements is true regarding the transporter associated with antigen processing (TAP).

a. TAP is a homodimer composed of two identical subunits.
b. TAP transports proteasome-derived peptides from the cytosol directly to the lumen of the Golgi apparatus.
c. TAP is an ATP-dependent, membrane-bound transporter.
d. Peptides transported by TAP bind preferentially to MHC class II molecules.
e. TAP deficiency causes a type of bare lymphocytes syndrome resulting in severely depleted levels of MHC class II molecules on the surface of antigen-presenting cells.

A

TAP is an ATP-dependent, membrane-bound transporter.

67
Q

Which of the following is mismatched?
Answers: a. peptide-binding motif: combination of anchor residues in a peptide capable of binding a particular MHC haplotype
b. MHC restriction: specificity of T-cell receptor for a particular peptide:MHC molecule complex
c. balancing selection: maintenance of variety of MHC isoforms in a population
d. directional selection: replacement of older MHC isoforms with newer variants
e. interallelic conversion: recombination between two different genes in the same family

A

interallelic conversion: recombination between two different genes in the same family

68
Q

Which of the following describes the sequence of events involved in processing of peptides that will be presented as antigen with MHC class I?

a. plasma membrane -> TAP1/2 -> proteasome -> MHC class I -> endoplasmic reticulum
b. TAP1/2 -> proteasome -> MHC class I -> endoplasmic reticulum -> plasma membrane
c. proteasome -> TAP1/2 -> MHC class I -> endoplasmic reticulum -> plasma membrane
d. proteasome -> TAP1/2 -> endoplasmic reticulum -> MHC class I -> plasma membrane
e. endoplasmic reticulum -> proteasome -> MHC class I -> TAP1/2 -> plasma membrane

A

proteasome -> TAP1/2 -> MHC class I -> endoplasmic reticulum -> plasma membrane

69
Q

Which of the following is/are not encoded on chromosome 6 in the HLA complex?

a. beta2-microglobulin and invariant chain
b. HLA-G alpha chain
c. TAP-1
d. tapasin
e. HLA-DR alpha chain

A

beta2-microglobulin and invariant chain

70
Q

Neutralizing antibodies _________________________.

a. interfere with antigen degradation
b. facilitate uptake of antigen through Fc regions
c. stimulate complement activation
d. inhibit interaction of antigen with human cell surfaces
e. sensitize mast cells and basophils

A

inhibit interaction of antigen with human cell surfaces

71
Q

Which immunoglobulin is transported most efficiently across mucosal epithelium?

a. IgA
b. IgD
c. IgE
d. IgG
e. IgM

A

IgA

72
Q

The rejoining and repair of DNA during the recombination process leads to additional variation in sequence at the junctions between the rearranged gene segments. This is called junctional diversity and contributes considerably to the final diversity of immunoglobulin specificities. Two sources of junctional diversity are introduced: P (palindromic) and N (nontemplated) nucleotides. P nucleotides are generated through endonuclease activity and repair around a hairpin loop at the ends of the gene segments to be joined. N nucleotides are nucleotides added at random at the junctions by terminal deoxynucleotidyl transferase (TdT) activity.

A

True

73
Q

Which of the following is not a component of V(D)J recombinase?

a. Artemis
b. Terminal deoxynucleotidyl transferase
c. RAG-1/RAG-2
d. DNA ligase IV
e. DNA-dependent protein kinase and the associated Ku protein

A

Terminal deoxynucleotidyl transferase