Exam 2 Questions Flashcards

1
Q

What effect does lipocortin (lipomodulin) have?

A

inhibits inflammatory pathway by blocking PLA2, enzyme inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

How do steroids reduce inflammation?

A

leads to production of lipocortin which inhibits PLA2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What two end products of the arachidonate pathway have antagonistic effects?

A

PGI2 (clot prevention) and TXA2 (aggregation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Where do the substrates of the arachidonate pathway come from?

A

phospholipid bilayer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

A dose of 650 mg of ASA would be effective for what?

A

anti-inflammation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which has a higher bioavailability, LMWH or Heparin?

A

LMWH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which class of drugs is know for causing pruritus and flushing?

A

Opioids (Hydrocodone & Tramadol)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which mediator is reduced by steroids that induces fever?

A

prostaglandins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which drug is a leukotriene inhibitor?

A

Montelukast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which drug is an anticholinergic?

A

Tramadol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which drug is a prophylactic for migraine therapy?

A

Tropiramate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What effect doe beta blockers have with Advair Diskus due to the presence of Salmeterol?

A

antagonistic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which drug mechanism is to break disulfide bonds?

A

Acetylcysteine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Cyanosis is a side effect of which drug?

A

Sildanafil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which drug creates methemoglobinemia when interacting with topical lidocaine?

A

Acetaminophen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What drug do the effects of Salmeterol imitate?

A

Albuterol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which drug is contraindicated by a sulfonamide allergy?

A

Celecoxib

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What inflammatory mediators have antagonistic effects?

A

TXA2 and PGI2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What inflammatory mediators cause fever reduction?

A

prostaglandins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What inflammatory mediator is responsible for pain?

A

PGE2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What drug is indicated for migraine therapy prophylaxis?

A

Topiramate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the maximum dose that hydroxychloroquine can reach before causing renal toxicity?

A

1000 g

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What effects does ASA have that Acetaminophen does not?

A

anti-platelet & anti-inflammatory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

How does sildenafil affect blood?

A

affects the platelet phosphodiesterase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What adverse effects are unique about Monteleukast?

A

flu-like symptoms and rash

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What class of drugs can cause pruitis and flushing?

A

opioids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

If a patient shows signs of a stroke, what drug might they be taking that could be causing the stroke?

A

Celecoxib

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

If the patient has a hollenplast plaque (cholesterol), what drug did they take?

A

Warfarin

cholesterol embolism is an adverse effect

29
Q

What drug enhances antithrombin effects with the 3a receptor?

A

Enoxaparin

30
Q

What drug can cause a cataract?

A

Fluticasone

31
Q

What is the effect of increased levels of acetaminophen?

A

hepatotoxicity and nephrotoxicity

32
Q

What drug can cause nystagmus and diplopia?

A

Topiramate

33
Q

What drugs can cause glaucoma?

A

Fluticasone, Mometasone

Topiramate–> causes angle closure glaucoma

34
Q

What drug can cause viral infection and a nosebleed?

A

Mometasone

35
Q

What drug do you give to short episode asthmatics?

A

Beta-2 agonists

36
Q

What is the effect on cGMP by Sildenafil?

A

increase in cGMP

37
Q

Which drug is injected subcutaneously?

A

Enoxaparin

38
Q

What quality of Rivaroxaban makes it slightly advantageous over Enoxaparin?

A

oral dosing

39
Q

What drug was previously used as rat poisoning

A

Warfarin (Coumadin)

40
Q

Which drug had a lawsuit about excessive bleeding and does not have an antidote?

A

Rivaroxaban

41
Q

What is the most popular anti-coagulant taken orally?

A

Warfarin (Coumadin)

42
Q

What is a safe dosing of chloroquine?

43
Q

What is the mechanism of Warfarin (Coumadin)?

A

inhibition of epoxide reductase, blocking the reduction of Vitamin K

44
Q

What clotting factor unites the extrinsic and intrinsic pathways?

45
Q

What drug can cause serotonin syndrome?

46
Q

What drug would you not give someone with elevated intracranial pressure?

A

Vicodin (Hydrocodone)

47
Q

What is the life span of a platelet and how long would you expect the irreversible effects of Clopidogrel to last?

48
Q

How does ASA effect the bleeding time?

49
Q

What biogenic amine does Sumatriptan target and how does it effect it?

A

increases serotonin levels

50
Q

What is the most adequate therapy and first choice for persistent asthma?

51
Q

Which two drugs are prodrugs?

A

ASA and Clopidogrel

52
Q

What percent of patients that get Reye’s syndrome due to ASA result in mortality?

A

35% mortality

53
Q

What symptoms are associated with Reye’s syndrome?

A

liver degeneration, encephalopathy, GI disturbances

54
Q

Which NSAID is safe to take during pregnancy?

A

acetaminophen

55
Q

Which drug is indicated for acetaminophen overdose?

A

Acetylcystiene

56
Q

Which drug is indicated for opioid overdose?

57
Q

Which drug is indicated for malaria treatment?

A

Hydroxychloroquine

58
Q

What is the mechanism of Adalimumab?

A

inhibits TNF-alpha

59
Q

What percentage of the respiratory drug actually makes it to the lungs when taken orally through an inhaler?

60
Q

Which phosphodiesterase is involved in ocular phototransduction?

61
Q

How many times less likely is Sildenafil to effect PDE3 than PDE5?

A

700 times less

62
Q

Which drug is an antibody analog?

A

Adalimumab

63
Q

Which drug causes Bull’s eye maculopathy?

A

Hydroxychloroquine

64
Q

How does Sildenafil cause bleeding?

A

inhibit platelete phosphodiesterase

65
Q

Which drug mechanism is to accelerate the effect of antithrombin to inhibit Factor Xa?

A

Enoxaparin

66
Q

Which drug is weakly sympathomimetic?

67
Q

What should Abciximab be given in conjunction with?

A

ASA or heparin

68
Q

What drug is indicated to prevent cardiac ischemic complications?

69
Q

What is the mechanism of Abciximab?

A

bing to GP IIb/IIa receptor to inhibit platelet aggregation and bind to virtonectin receptor on vessel wall