Exam 2- Pet Nutrition, Hammond Flashcards

1
Q
Which of the following options do most consumers buy their pet's food from?
A) Grocery store
B) Mass merchandise
C) Farm and feed stores
D) Veterinary clinics
A

B

Mass>Grocery>FarmFeed> Vet Clinics

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2
Q
Which of the following market segment emphasizes low cost and has lower quality ingredients (increasing the mineral content and decreasing digestibility)?
A) Grocery brands
B) Specialty brands
C) Private label/Generic brands
D) Veterinary medical foods
A

C

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3
Q
Which of the following market segment includes national manufacturers whose foods emphasize palatability?
A) Grocery brands
B) Specialty brands
C) Private label/Generic brands
D) Veterinary medical foods
A

A

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4
Q
Which of the following market segment emphasizes ingredients and "optimal nutrition"? Some advertise a specific purpose/special need.
A) Grocery brands
B) Specialty brands
C) Private label/Generic brands
D) Veterinary medical foods
A

B

includes those from the pet store, vet clinic, and large-format retailers> national manufacturers

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5
Q

T/F: Veterinary medical foods advertise to treat/prevent dz.

A

False- no representations to treat/prevent dz

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6
Q
These foods contain 6-12% moisture, are economical, and are able to be fed free choice. 
A) Dry 
B) Soft-dry
C) Semi- moist
D) Moist foods
A

A

palatability varies

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7
Q

Which nutrient in dry foods requires a preservative or antioxidant additive in order to keep from going rancid?

A

Fat

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8
Q
These foods contain 25-40% moisture, are more expensive, generally palatable, and are also okay to be fed free choice?
A) Dry 
B) Soft-dry
C) Semi- moist
D) Moist foods
A

C

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9
Q

Why do we want to avoid semi-moist foods in diabetics?

A

Simple sugars are added in to retain moisture (humectant) > result in post prandial spike of glucose= BAD

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10
Q
These foods contain 10-20% moisture and are not recommended to be fed to diabetic dogs.
A) Dry 
B) Soft-dry
C) Semi- moist
D) Moist foods
A

B

Blend of soft-moist and dry food

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11
Q
These foods are 68-85% moisture, are expensive but palatable, and should not be fed free choice.
A) Dry 
B) Soft-dry
C) Semi- moist
D) Moist foods
A

D

growing market= frozen and refrigerated products

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12
Q

nutrients or foods added with the intention of improving a diet

A

Supplements

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13
Q

T/F: A dog/cat eating a nutritionally complete food can still benefit from nutritional supplements.

A

False- they are not needed

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14
Q

T/F: Food studies have shown that Ca/P levels and Vit A/D levels are often inadequate in foods sold commercially.

A

False- they were found to be well above the MDR

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15
Q

What is the issue with adding vegetable oil to an animal’s diet as a coat conditioner?

A

1 tsp/cup of dry food can increase the energy density by 40%= TOO MANY CALORIES> OBESITY

Rec humidify the house instead

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16
Q

Food items offered in small amounts as a reward, to demonstrate affection, and/ or for dental hygiene

A

Treats

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17
Q

T/F: Most owners do not give treats to their pets.

A

False- most do

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18
Q

What is an issue with using food to administer medications?

A

Added calories AND added Na to patients that should not have it such as those in CHF AND soft moist treats that have simple sugars shouldn’t be given to diabetics

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19
Q

Treats should be limited to

A

10% of the

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20
Q

Examples of unbalanced treats

A

Milk bones: Ca:P= 0.15:1 (not enough Ca)
Jerky treat: 6.9% NaCl= TOO MUCH NA esp for heart, kidney, liver failure pts
Cat treat= 1.7% P> bad for kidney failure

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21
Q

T/F: The nutrient profile of food on a dry matter basis includes, water, CHOs, protein, fat, minerals, and vitamins

A

False- not water

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22
Q

Convert a diet that is 75% moisture to dry matter.

Calculate the dry weight of the protein if it is listed as 10% protein as fed.

A

Dry Matter=100%- 75% water= 25% dry matter

Protein= (10% protein/ 25% dry matter)x100= 40% protein DMB

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23
Q

T/F: Majority of US pets are fed commercial dry and or moist foods.

A

True

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24
Q

Pet foods are classified by ____ content and _____

A

Moisture content and market segments

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25
Q

Which of the following is the best way to compare diets although many do not have this information published?
A) DMB
B) g/100 kcal
C) % ME

A

B

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26
Q

What do about 30% of clients consulting nutrition services request?

A

Evaluation of a home made diet

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27
Q

T/F: No matter what the size of the dog, commercial food diets are more expensive than homemade diets.

A

False- home made diets are always more expensive

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28
Q
Which of the following is not an issue with homemade diets?
A)Formulation errors
B) Preparation errors
C) Are nutritionally balanced
D) Lack of feeding trials
A

C

are often not balance

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29
Q

Term used to describe the different composition of a homemade diet at 1 month vs 6 months later because the owner changes the way they prepare the diet

A

Diet drift

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30
Q
Which of the following is incorrect regarding the common deficiencies of homemade diets?
A) Ca &/or trace mineral def
B) Vitamin def
C) Protein &/or fat def
D) EFA def
E) All of the above are correct
A

C- diets often contain excessive fat and protein

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31
Q
Which of the following nutrients is probably the most important to the cat that is often deficient in homemade diets?
A) Fat
B) Ca
C) Taurine
D) Fiber
A

C

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32
Q

What is the number one issue with commercially available raw food diets that are refrigerated, freeze dried, or frozen?

A

Pathogens can survive these conditions!

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33
Q

What does BARF stand for?

A

Biologically (or Billinghurst’s) appropriate raw food

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34
Q

Which of the following is false of a BARF diet?
A) It is composed of 60% raw/ meaty bones
B) Claims to be based on what type of food wild dogs would eat
C) Includes nutritionally completes meals at each feeding
D) Includes green veggies, offal, meat, eggs, meat, yogurt, legumes, grains, and food scraps

A

C–> it attempts to balance the diet overall rather than at each meal; would schedule a variety of meals over a 2-3 wk period

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35
Q

List 3 homemade raw diets

A

BARF diet, Ultimate diet by Shultze , Volhard diet

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36
Q

What is the issue with feeding cats a purely raw diet, such as only feeding rabbits?

A

TAURINE DEF–> taurine was found in the rabbit but not biologically available to the cat

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37
Q
Taurine availability is dependent upon:
A) Amount and quality 
B) Cooked vs raw
C) Other ingredients fed in the diet, such as fiber
D) Bacterial contamination
E)All of the above
A

E

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38
Q
Which of the following diets is based on an inverted food pyramid with a base of raw meat, organ meats and eggs w/ no grains or dairy allowed.
A) BARF diet
B) Volhard's diet
C) Shultze's ultimate diet
D)  Pyramid diet
A

C
the next largest portion is raw bones–> then raw vegetables –> the apex is composed of “extras” including kelp, alfalfa, EFA, and Vit C

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39
Q

What does the morning meal vs evening meal of Wendy Volhard’s diet consist of?

A
Morning= cereal, molasses, oil, egg, yogurt, and vitamins
Evening= raw beef. liver, greens, herbs, wheat bran, wheat germ, bone meal, garlic, yeast, and kelp
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40
Q
Which of the following diets recommends fasting once weekly?
A) BARF diet
B) Volhard's diet
C) Shultze's ultimate diet
D)  Pyramid diet
A

B

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41
Q
Which diet includes commercial grain &/or supplement meant to be fix in combo w/ raw meat?
A) Commercial raw food diets
B) Homemade complete raw diets
C) Combination raw food diet
D) All of the above
A

C

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42
Q

Veterinarians need to know The Food Enzyme Concept in order to be able to refute it when it is used as supportive evidence. Describe this concept

A

Set of beliefs including…

  • Enzymes are a “life force” and each person is given a limited supply at birth
  • Heat destroys enzymes found in food which leaves us short of digestive and metabolic enzymes
  • Enzyme def causes accelerated aging and predisposes us to dz
  • *Raw foods contain its own digestive enzymes –> “spares” the pancreas as it has a “limited supply of enzymes”
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43
Q
Which of the following is not a potential issue w/ feeding raw home-prepared diets?
A) Time consuming
B) Food safety concerns
C) Nutritional imbalances
D) GI FB and perfs
E) Dental issues
A

ALL ARE ISSUES
Ca:P is imbalanced
Tooth fractures are common
Bones can cause constipation
Salmonella, listeria, and campylobacter are commonly contaminates
Feces of dogs on the BARF diet often contained salmonella while dogs on commercial food did not have this pathogen in their feces–> WORRY ABOUT ZOONOSIS

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44
Q

T/F: Because they are commercially regulated, commercial raw diets do not have pathogens compared to homemade raw diets which commonly have pathogen contamination.

A

FALSE- commercial raw diets are also contaminated, specially w/ coliforms!–> compared to commercial dry foods which contain almost no detectable pathogens

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45
Q

T/F: Pig ears were found to contain salmonella, a zoonotic pathogen.

A

True

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46
Q

What is the issue with feeding growing, pregnant, or lactating dogs with a homemade diet in terms of the carbohydrate source?

A

These animals need carbohydrates! If the CHO source is not cooked then the animal cannot derive nutrition from it.

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47
Q

T/F: If your client is set on feeding a homemade diet, a vitamin/mineral supplement should be recommended.

A

True

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48
Q

What are the two enzymes present in raw food that supporters of the enzyme theory claim will be able spare pancreatic enzymes?

A

Cathepsin (won’t break down protein to AA)

Amylase

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49
Q

FDA’s role in food labels

A

have their own set of animal feed and petfood regulations that must be followed> all manufacturing facilities must be registered with the FDA and are open to inspection at any moment… not as detailed as AAFCO standards

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50
Q

AAFCO

A

Association of american feed control officials= private, non profit organization

  • publishes a set of model regulations
  • not an enforcement agency
  • Establishes the dog and cat nutrient profiles
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51
Q

Which panel contains the product name, designator, net weight display, and nutrition statement? Of these, what are the 3 most vital components?

A

Principle Display Panel

Product name, designator, net weight display

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52
Q

https://www.dollartree.com/assets/product_images_2016/styles/xlarge/158997.jpg Which panel is this image showing?

A

Principle display panel

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53
Q

What does it mean when the label says “beef”?
A) Recognizable by the pet
B) At least 10% (canned) or 25% (dry) total product by weight when made
C) At least 70% total product by weight when made
D) At least 3% total product by weight when made

A

C

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54
Q

What does it mean when the label says “beef dinner”?
A) Recognizable by the pet
B) At least 10% (canned) or 25% (dry) total product by weight when made
C) At least 70% total product by weight when made
D) At least 3% total product by weight when made

A

b

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55
Q

What does it mean when the label says “with beef”?
A) Recognizable by the pet
B) At least 10% (canned) or 25% (dry) total product by weight when made
C) At least 70% total product by weight when made
D) At least 3% total product by weight when made

A

D

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56
Q

What does it mean when the label says “beef flavor”?
A) Recognizable by the pet
B) At least 10% (canned) or 25% (dry) total product by weight when made
C) At least 70% total product by weight when made
D) At least 3% total product by weight when made

A

A

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57
Q

https://abs-images.aussiefarmers.com.au/unsafe/1000x/https://s3-ap-southeast-2.amazonaws.com/abs-afd-images/store/product/whiskas-1-years-ocean-fish-platter-loaf-cat-f-6899.jpg

Read the label. What choice describes the label best?

A) The ocean fish flavor is recognizable by the pet
B) At least 10% (canned) of the total product by weight when made is ocean fish
C) At least 70% total product by weight when made is ocean fish
D) At least 3% total product by weight when made is ocean fish

A

B

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58
Q

T/F: The nutrition statement found on the principal display panel is very useful to veterinarians.

A

False- AAFCO doesn’t require this, companies can write anything for the nutritional statement on the principal display panel

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59
Q

T/F: Under AAFCO’s regulations, if a food states that it is light/low calorie or lean/low fat it has to meet a defined number of calories and or % of crude fat.

A

TRUE

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60
Q

T/F: Saying that the ingredients are “natural” means that they are organic.

A

False- means that they are derived solely from plant, animal, or mined sources= no synthetic ingredients added

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61
Q

T/F: AAFCO has defined what human-grade ingredients means and has allowed manufacturers to print this on their label.

A

False- no approved definition, not allowed on the label

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62
Q
Which group has set standards for what it means to be organic?
A) FDA
B) AAFCO
C) USDA
D) All of the above
A

C

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63
Q

3 things that are of most importance to veterinarians that AAFCO requires producers to have on the principle display and information panel.

A

Designator (principle display panel)
Nutrition statement aka AAFCO statement (info panel)
Energy content as ME (info panel )

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64
Q

https://static1.squarespace.com/static/57a27c2e6b8f5befdec9844e/t/5952f0642e69cf024249ccd0/1498607722617/?format=300w
Which panel is this showing?

A

Information panel

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65
Q

The nutrient statement (aka AAFCO statement) must have at least 1 of the following 3 statements.

A
  • Nutritional adequacy statement ( ie meets needs for puppies; or intended for supplemental feeding; or use a directed by your vet)
  • Formulation method
  • Feeding trial protocol method
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66
Q
Which of the following dogs would most likely perform the best on an all life stages diet?
A) Senior dog
B) Juvenile dog
C) Puppy
D) All of the above
A

C= these diets are designed for growth

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67
Q
Which pet foods do not have a statement of adequacy?
A) Maintenance foods
B) Snacks/treats
C) Veterinary medical foods
D) all of the above
A

BC

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68
Q

AAFCO standards for maintenance food trials:
Minimum of __ dogs
Fed as sole source of nutrition for a minimum of __ weeks
Weighed weekly–> animal shouldn’t lose weight

A

8

26

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69
Q

T/F: The first ingredient listed is the most abundant in the diet.

A

False- ingredients are listed in order by weight when the food was made…not on a dry matter basis (chicken can weigh more but be mostly water)

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70
Q

Where does most of the Ca, and if glucosamine is listed, come from on the ingredient list?

A

Any meat “meal”= bone is included

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71
Q

What are the 4 components that are required to be listed on the guaranteed analysis? (which are min and which are max?)

A
CP= min
CFat= min
Cfiber= max
Moisture= max
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72
Q

T/F: The crude protein content provides an estimate of the protein quantity but nothing about its quality.

A

True

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73
Q

T/F: The assay used for crude fiber is more accurate for detecting 50% more fiber than the TDF method.

A

False- TDF is more accurate

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74
Q

If > ___% of the diet is water, the product name must include a modifier such as “in gravy, in sauce, in meat juices”.

A

78

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75
Q

What required label component is determined by feeding trial or is calculated using the modified Atwater formula?

A

Metabolizable energy

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76
Q

What are the units for ME?

A

kcal/___

kcal/cup, kcal/lb, kcal/cup

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77
Q

Most companies determine ME via which method? Why may this be an issue?

A

The Atwater formula; values may be falsely low

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78
Q
Which of the following terms on the label must list max and min crude fat levels?
A) Light, low calorie
B) Lean, low fat
C) Less or reduced calories/ fat
D) All of the above
A

B

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79
Q
Which of the following terms on the label are used when there is a limited amount of calories required and may be recommended if an owner would like to feed a larger volume of food and fewer calories?
A) Light, low calorie
B) Lean, low fat
C) Less or reduced calories/ fat
D) All of the above
A

A

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80
Q
Which of the following terms on the label are used as a percent in reduction of calories or fat compared to another product?
A) Light, low calorie
B) Lean, low fat
C) Less or reduced calories/ fat
D) All of the above
A

C

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81
Q

T/F: pet food labels are legal documents.

A

True

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82
Q

Any food constituent that helps support life

A

Nutrient

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83
Q
An indispensable nutrient, one that the body cannot synthesize 
A) Nonessential
B) Essential
C) Conditionally essential 
D) None of the above
A

B

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84
Q
A nutrient required during certain physiologic or pathologic conditions
A) Nonessential
B) Essential
C) Conditionally essential 
D) None of the above
A

C

Ex= lactose for neonates

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85
Q
A dispensable nutrient, one that the body can synthesize 
A) Nonessential
B) Essential
C) Conditionally essential 
D) None of the above
A

A

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86
Q

How is the carbohydrate content of foods determined with proximate/guaranteed analysis?

A

calculation- not accurate

=100- Water-CP-fat-CF-ash

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87
Q

List the formula for calculating CP

A

Nitrogen X 6.25

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88
Q

Nitrogen free extract is the ___ content

A

Carbohydrate

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89
Q

T/F: Guaranteed analysis usually undervalues protein and fat levels and overestimates fiber and water levels.

A

True

To correct for this…add 1.5% to protein and 1% to fat…subtract .7% from fiber and 4% from moisture content

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90
Q

When ash is not provided use ___% for canned foods and ___% for dry foods

A

2;6

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91
Q

*T/F: Proximate analysis is more accurate than average nutrient analysis.

A

False reverse

ANA gives Ca, Na, protein, fat, and TDF

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92
Q

Where can the average nutrient analysis NOT be found?
A) Product guides
B) Company websites
C) Obtained by contacting customer service
D) Listed on the label

A

D

93
Q

T/F: The energy content of food is usually listed as digestible E on livestock labels and metabolizable E on small animal food labels.

A

True

94
Q
What is digestible E?
A) Metabolizable E - Net E
B) Gross E-Fecal E
C) Gross E- Metabolizable 
D) None of the above
A

B

95
Q
What is metabolizable E?
A) Digestable E - Urinary E - Gaseous E
B) Gross E-Fecal E
C) Gross E- Metabolizable 
D) None of the above
A

A

96
Q

Which of the following is false of gross E?
A)= Digestible E + Fecal E
B) Found using a bomb calorimeter
C) Gross E= E the animal can use
D) GE is usually higher than atwater’s calculations

A

C

Gross energy does not mean the animal can derive this amount from the food, depends on bioavailability

97
Q
Energy for production, growth, lactation, wool production, egg production as well as for maintenance of metabolism
A) Digestible E
B) Gross E
C) Net E
D) Metabolizable E
A

C

98
Q

Calorimetry is the measurement of heat. Which type measures heat dissipation by physical methods.

A

Direct

99
Q

What type of calorimetry makes an inference of heat production from quantitative measurement of chemical by products of metabolism (O2 consumption, CO2 production)?

A

Indirect

100
Q

Why is direct calorimetry difficult to perform?

A

The patient must be relaxed and not moving

101
Q

Which of the following is false of indirect calorimetry?
A) Expensive
B) Animals must wear masks or sit in specialized cages
C) Preferred method
D) Can tell what specifically is being burned such as fats, proteins or CHOS
E) All of the above are true

A

E

102
Q

Which of the following is false of the RER?
A) Energy used by adult at rest in a thermoneutral environment
B) Supports activity, growth, or reproduction
C) Similar but not exactly the same as basal E requirement
D) Uses the ideal body weight, not the current weight if they are obese or under weight

A

B

103
Q

Which of the following is false of DER?
A) = RER x maintenance factor
B) Maintenance factor varies on species, age, environment, activity level
C) Represents an exact calculation for the food dose
D) All of the above are true

A

C

estimate

104
Q
What is digestible E?
A) Metabolizable E - Net E
B) Gross E-Fecal E
C) Gross E- Metabolizable 
D) None of the above
A

B

105
Q
What is metabolizable E?
A) Digestable E - Urinary E - Gaseous E
B) Gross E-Fecal E
C) Gross E- Metabolizable 
D) None of the above
A

A

106
Q

Which of the following is false of gross E?
A)= Digestible E + Fecal E
B) Found using a bomb calorimeter
C) Gross E= E the animal can use
D) GE is usually higher than atwater’s calculations

A

C

Gross energy does not mean the animal can derive this amount from the food, depends on bioavailability

107
Q

How can time-restricted meal feeding lead to bloat?

A

Animal eats the food as fast as possible to get more food to come out of the feeder

108
Q

Calorimetry is the measurement of heat. Which type measures heat dissipation by physical methods.

A

Direct

109
Q

What type of calorimetry makes an inference of heat production from quantitative measurement of chemical by products of metabolism (O2 consumption, CO2 production)?

A

Indirect

110
Q

Why is direct calorimetry difficult to perform?

A

The patient must be relaxed and not moving

111
Q

Which of the following is false of indirect calorimetry?
A) Expensive
B) Animals must wear masks or sit in specialized cages
C) Preferred method
D) Can tell what specifically is being burned such as fats, proteins or CHOS
E) All of the above are true

A

E

112
Q

Which of the following is false of the RER?
A) Energy used by adult at rest in a thermoneutral environment
B) Supports activity, growth, or reproduction
C) Similar but not exactly the same as basal E requirement
D) Uses the ideal body weight, not the current weight if they are obese or under weight

A

B

113
Q

Which of the following is false of DER?
A) = RER x maintenance factor
B) Maintenance factor varies on species, age, environment, activity level
C) Represents an exact calculation for the food dose
D) All of the above are true

A

C

estimate

114
Q
When should puppies be transitioned to adult food?
A) 50% of adult size
B) 60% of adult size
C) 80% of adult size
D) 90% of adult size
A

C

115
Q

*What is the complete and balanced diet concept?

A

Feeding enough food to meet the pt’s DER supplies all of the nutrient requirements of the patient

116
Q

Which of the following is false of food dosage determination?
A) It is recommended to use the manufacturer’s info
B) Or the guaranteed analysis can be used
C) Estimating is not a valid option
D) Lab analysis is too expensive

A

B- not accurate

117
Q

How can time-restricted meal feeding lead to bloat?

A

Animal eats the food as fast as possible to get more food to come out of the feeder

118
Q

T/F: Canis lupus (wolves) are the nearest ancestor of dogs and canis latrans (coyote) are close relatives

A

True

119
Q

T/F: Dogs have teeth adapted to eat animals and plants making them omnivores while cats are obligate carnivores.

A

True

120
Q

T/F: Genotype and phenotype cannot be changed by proper feeding.

A

False- phenotype (how the genotype is expressed physically) can be changed by nutrition…avoiding over feeding can prevent developmental diseases

121
Q

Why is using an ileal cannula to determine the digestibility of starch a better method than testing the feces?

A

Microbes in the LI could have digested some of the starch making it look as if the animal had digested more than it actually did.

122
Q

T/F: Cats can digest corn, rice, barley, and oats

A

False- this is dogs

123
Q
Of the following young animals, which as the highest protein requirement?
A) Rat
B) Dog
c) Fox
D) Cat
A

D
(animals don’t necessarily have to have proteins if they are being given the proper AA- but they get these AA from proteins)

124
Q
When should puppies be transitioned to adult food?
A) 50% of adult size
B) 60% of adult size
C) 80% of adult size
D) 90% of adult size
A

C

125
Q

Why do puppies need higher quality ingredients in their food? When does their GIT become fully mature?

A

The have smaller stomachs and can only consume so many ingredients.

Around 4 months

126
Q
The most important difference in nutrients of puppy vs adult food is:
A) Energy
B) Crude protein
C) Crude fiber
D) Trace minerals and vitamins
A

D

127
Q

Large/giant breeds of puppies should not be fed excess ___ in order to avoid developmental bone dz.

A

Ca2+ and calories

No more than 1.7% Ca and no more than 10% fat

128
Q

How can puppy hypoglycemia be avoided?

A

Feed 3-4 small meals per day

129
Q

Do large breed puppies require more energy dense food?

A

NO- they can be fed regular puppy food, they are just getting more of it (Complete and balanced theory)

130
Q

T/F: Genotype and phenotype cannot be changed by proper feeding.

A

False- phenotype (how the genotype is expressed physically) can be changed by nutrition…avoiding over feeding can prevent developmental diseases

131
Q

Which of the following is false of hypercalcitoninism?
A) Decreases osteoclast activity and increases osteoblast activity
B) Decreases bone remodeling
C) Increases bone/cartilage maturation
D) All of the above are true

A

C - decreases

132
Q

T/F: Excess protein is associated with skeletal diseases.

A

False

133
Q
Which of the following have been proven to be risk factors for developmental skeletal dz?
A) Protein
B) Fat
C) Ca
D) Fiber
A

BC

AAFCO recommends no more than 1.7% Ca

134
Q
Which of the following are non-dietary risk factors for obesity?
A) Breed/genetics
B) Gender and reproductive state
C) Age
D) Sedentary life style
E) All of the above
A

E

135
Q

T/F: Working dogs need additional protein in order to increase the energy density of their food.

A

False- fat= the only practical means of significantly increasing E density of a food

136
Q

Puppies should gain __-__ g/kg of adult weight/ day

A

2-4

137
Q

Puppies should begin to eat a growth/lactation food at __ wks of age

A

3

138
Q

When should puppies be weaned? Why this age?

A

6-7 weeks; so that they can bond with their owner

139
Q

T/F: Free-choice feeding of puppies is not recommended until 80-90% of adult size.

A

True

140
Q

Describe how the mom should be fed when trying to wean puppies.

A
Day before= little to no food
Weaning day= 1/4 DER
Next day= 1/2 DER
2nd day after= 3/4 DER
3rd day after= full DER
This method decreases the milk production so that they mother does not have engorged mammary glands which can lead to mastitis
141
Q

Why might it not be good to feed an all life stage diet to a geriatric dog?

A

This food may have excess nutrients not required by these dogs

142
Q

T/F: There is no scientifically established nutrient profile for senior dog foods.

A

True (either all life stages or adult dogs)

143
Q
Which of the following is the most common form of malnutrition?
A) Lack of nutrients
B) Obesity
C) Excess vitamin intake 
D) Emaciation
A

B

144
Q

This concept is based on the fact that animals have different nutritional requirements for growth, maintenance, repro.

A

Specific purpose

145
Q

This concept is based on the premise that one product satisfies all nutritional needs in all situations.

A

All purpose

146
Q

An extension of the specific purpose concept that is based on the premise that animals may have different nutritional requirements for prevention or avoidance of certain conditions …. hairball control, urinary tract health

A

Special needs pet food concept

147
Q

This foods can be sold in mass markets such as grocery stores. Most popular , generic, and private labels are based on this concept.
A) Specific purpose
B) All purpose
C) Special needs food

A

B

148
Q

Factors that encompass nutritional risk factors for dz treatment and prevention, also nutrients that are key to optimizing normal body processes such as growth, gestation, lactation, and work

A

Key nutritional factors, different for different animals and life stages
For example puppies: Energy density, protein, fat, Ca/P, Soluble CHOs, digestibility

149
Q

Which of the following should be considered in determining key nutritional factors and their target levels?
A) Patient’s life stage and physiologic state
B) Environment- Temp, housing, pet-to-pet competition
C) Nature of dzs or injury
D) Known losses of nutrients through skin, urine, GIT
E) Interactions of medications and nutrients if applicable

A

ALL

150
Q
Besides nutrients, what are other key nutritional factors to consider?
A) Food's influence on urinary pH
B) food's texture
C) Protein source
D) All of the above
A

D

151
Q

How can key nutritional factors be used in analyzing an animal’s diet?

A

Comparing the food’s key nutritional factors to the pet’s needs determines whether nutrient excesses or deficiencies exist

152
Q

T/F: In cats, food consumption is based on eating a large amount of food instead of small amounts of energy dense food.

A

False- eat 10-20 small meals per day of E dense food

153
Q

Do cats prefer their food to be cold (below room temp), room temp, or around their body temperature?

A

Body temp

154
Q

T/F: One theory explaining why cats more commonly get kidney disease is their lack of a big thirst mechanism.

A

True- this is why feeding wet food can be beneficial

155
Q

Which of the following is false of the hepatic deaminase and trasaminase activity of cats?
A) These enzymes are up and down regulated based on the amount of protein in the food
B) If cats do not have enough protein in the diet they will break it down from their own muscles
C) Cats do not up or down regulate these enzymes
D) None of the above

A

A

156
Q

Which of the following is false of a cat’s urea cycle?
A) The enzymes are not adaptive
B) The rate contributes to a decreased dietary protein requirement
C) Converts toxic ammonia into urea
D) Hyperammonemia will occur without arginine

A

B- INCREASED

157
Q

Which of the following is true of a cat’s dietary arginine requirement?
A) A cat can obtain sufficient arginine from milk and plants
B) Cats have an increased arginine requirement because they are unable to synthesize enough ornithine or citrulline in enterocytes
C) Arginine is low in animal protein sources
D) Arginine is not an essential AA

A

B

158
Q

Which of the following is false of a cat’s taurine requirement?
A) It is an essential amino acids found highest in the organs of animals
B) This should be added to a cat’s diet, especially in growth, gestation, and lactation
C) It functions to conjugate bile acids for microbes to breakdown and utilize
D) May not be biologically in raw diets
E) All of the above are true

A

E

159
Q
Which of the following are the sulfur- containing AA? (How are they excreted?)
A) Taurine
B) Cysteine
C) Arginine
D) Methionine
A

BD
In the urine
Cysteine= the reason for urine odor in tom cats
(gets converted to felinine and isovalthine–> urine)

160
Q

T/F: Methionine is a precursor of glutathione and cysteine is a limiting AA in vegetable protein sources.

A

False- reversed

161
Q

Why do cats have a higher requirement of glutathione (cysteine is a precursor)?

A

It protects hemoglobin, as well all know the cat has more disulfide bonds making it more prone to oxidative damage (heinz bodies)

162
Q

T/F: Cats can consume up to 65% of calories from lipids w/out negative effects.

A

True

163
Q

T/F: Cats do not tolerate short-chained triglycerides

A

false= medium chain
why we shouldn’t give them coconut oil–> hepatic lipidosis

However it may be beneficial in cats with IBD

164
Q

List the 4 EFA in cats.

A
Linoleic acid (18c n-6)
Arachidonic acid (20 c n-6) 
Eicosapentaenoic acid (20 c n-3) = EPA
Docosahexaenoic acid (22c n-3) = DHA
165
Q

T/F: Unlike dogs, cats have sweet taste buds.

A

false- dogs have them, cats don’t

166
Q

What is false of carbohydrate digestion in cats?
A) Only have 5% the pancreatic amylase activity of dogs but it is inducible
B) SI has low sucrase and lactase activity= non-adaptive sugar transporters
C) Foods with high sucrose can cause fructosemia and fructouria
D) All of the above are true

A

D
lactase activity is gone by 8-9 wks
B is significant because cats do not upregulate glucose transporters because of this= no spike in post prandial glucose

167
Q

What is the significance of cats lacking hepatic aldolase B?

A

cannot form glycogen

168
Q

T/F: Cats do not produce hexokinase.

A

False- –** they do not produce glucokinase at all **= this is responsible for efficient phosphorylation of glucose … cats must rely on hexokinase to phosphorylate glucose which is not as efficient

169
Q

Why do cats still need to be fed a normal CHO diet?

A

They still digest them just not as quickly as dogs, CHOs are digested slower bc there is less alpha amylase and absorbed slower bc no up regulation of sugar transporters= slow rise in blood glucose levels post-prandial

170
Q

Cats have a 4-5 fold increased requirement of thiamine (b1), niacin (b3), pyridoxine (B6) and folate (B9). Where is the best source for these?

A

Organ meat

171
Q

What is special about retinol metabolism in cats?

A

They lack dioxygynase meaning they cannot convert beta carotene to retinol… require preformed Vit A in the diet ; best source= liver

172
Q

T/F: The conversion of tryptophan to niacin in cats is minimal , which is why they require this preformed in the diet.

A

True

173
Q

Which species lacks the dermal conversion of 7-DHC to active vitamin D?

A

Cats

174
Q

Different forms of Mg in cats can cause acidic vs alkaline urine. Which causes alkaline urine and a good environment for struvites? (MgO or MgCl2)

A

MgO

175
Q

Kittens should gain __-__ g/ week.

A

50-100

176
Q

What age should kittens be weaned?

A

8-10 weeks

start feeding kitten food around 3 wks

177
Q

Which of the following is true of changes that take place after neutering?
A) Increased resting energy expenditure
B) Increased activity
C) Increased appetite that leads to increased food intake
D) all are true

A

C

178
Q

What is an issue with feeding kittens adult cat food?

A

Trace nutrients are different…
Vit A, AA, and Cu amounts are not high enough
Don’t need acidifying diets until adulthood

179
Q

Why may feeding wet food help cats lose/maintain weight?

A

Is less energy dense and cats tend to eat less because of water content–> buuuut they may lose satiation after 2-3 months and begin to eat more

180
Q

Is obesity or weight loss more a of an issue in geriatric cats?

A

Unlike dogs and humans- it is weight loss

181
Q

Deficiency of what nutrient in older cats leads to enteropathy and fat malabsorption leading to weight loss?

A

cobalamin (B12)

182
Q

Colbalamin (B12 )deficiency
CS-
Mechanism-

A

CS= anorexia, weight loss, pica, unkempt
Mechanism- pancreas activity is insuficient and it does not make enough intrinsic factor which is needed to absorb B12 –> give injections of b12

183
Q

Which is true of minerals in older cats?
A) Ca/P can be detrimental in excess due to kidney dz
B) Excessive wasting of potassium occurs with kidney dz
C) Both are true

A

c

184
Q

Which type of stone is more common in young cats? Old cats?

A

young= struvite; old= Ca oxalate

185
Q

Starch has __ bonds which can be broken down in the GIT of most mammals.

A

Alpha

broken down by alpha amylase

186
Q

Fiber has __ bonds which cannot be broken down in the mammalian GIT.

A

Beta

187
Q

Which of the following is incorrect regarding fiber?
A) It is of plant origin
B) Used as a substrate for microbes residing w/in the bowel
C) Can be broken down by alpha amylase
D) all are true

A

C

188
Q

Which of the following is true regarding crude fiber?
A) Required on pet food labels and is an accurate value
B) Measured using an assay developed for the wood pulp industry
C) Does not apply to feeds and forages
D) all are true

A

B is true
a= inaccurate
C= does apply to these

189
Q

T/F: TDF is a chemical method and a more complete detector of fiber.

A

true

190
Q
Which of the following is not a component of soluble fiber?
A) Pectin/Gums
B) Mucilages
C) Hemicellulose
D) Lignin
A

D
(C= sol and insol fiber components)
other insoluble components= cellulose, modified cellulose

191
Q
Which of the following is a source for soluble fiber?
A) Seed coats
B) Wheat bran
C) Oats and oat brain
D) all are soluble fiber sources
A

C (most cereal grains are insoluble fiber sources except oats)
other soluble fiber sources= legumes (beans/lentils) and psyllium husks

192
Q

What is the result of bacterial fermentation of fiber in the large intestine?

A

Production of gas and short chain fatty acids–> productive of an acidic environment= inhibition of pathogen growth, promotes water and electrolyte absorption

193
Q

List the short chain fatty acids produced by microbe digestion of fiber

A

Propionate
Butyrate
Acetate

194
Q

List the order from greatest to least energy derived from SCFA (dogs, bovine, equine)

A

Bovine (70-80%)>Equine (30%)> Dogs (<10%)

195
Q

Which of the following is false regarding rapidly fermented fibers?
A) Are water soluble and form viscous gels
B) Readily fermented in the LI
C) Do not tend to bind minerals and digestive enzymes
D) Slows nutrient absorption

A

C- tends to bind minerals (cations) and digestive enzymes

196
Q

Which of the following is false regarding slowly fermented fibers?
A) Are insoluble in water and do not form gels
B) Resistant to bacterial fermentation
C) Tend not to bind minerals and enzymes
D) Tend to increase nutrient absorption

A

D- slow nutrient absorption

197
Q

What are some of the limitations using the TDF method for fiber?
A) Does not detect all of the inulin
B) Does not detect raffinose and stachyose found in legumes
C) Is a more complete method than crude fiber in proximate analysis
D) All are limitations

A

A/B

198
Q

Give an example of a pure rapidly fermented fiber.

Give an example of a pure slowly fermented fiber.

A
rapid= pectin
slow= cellulose
199
Q

List the sources of fiber from greatest to least amount of dietary fiber.
Corn, peanut hulls. rice, soybean meal, soybean mill run,

A

Peanut hulls> Soybeal mill run> Soybean meal> Corn>Rice

200
Q

List the sources of dietary fiber from greatest to least amount of dietary fiber.
Beet pulp, guar gum, cellulose, pectin, pysllium husks

A

Cellulose> Guar gum> Pectin> Pysllium husks> Beet pulp

201
Q

What is the ingredient that polymerizes and gives the strange form in some foods such as Hills U/d?

A

Cooked starch

202
Q

Classifications for
low fiber
Moderate fiber
High fiber

A

low= < 1.5%
moderate= 15%
high=27% (weight loss diets)

203
Q

How does fiber function as a prebiotic?

A

Alters the microflora of the gut–> stimulates growth of good bacteria

204
Q

The following are dietary sources of fiber that can function as a prebiotic

A

Soybeans, inulin (FOS), raw oats, unrefined wheat and barley, oligosaccharides (FOS, MOS, XOS, GOS (found in legumes))–> complex CHOs)

205
Q

T/F: Fiber can be used in a patient with constipation that is dehydrated.

A

False- need to ensure patient is hydrated (especially cats), dogs can have their food soaked to ensure adequate water intake with the fiber

206
Q

Which of the following is false regarding using insoluble fiber to alleviate constipation?
A) Should be fed in multiple small meals
B) Increases stool density
C) Normalizes transit time by increasing fecal bulk
D) All are true

A

B- decreases stool density

207
Q

T/F: The fat that animals take in is altered and then stored in the body.

A

False- the fat that they take in is what they store

208
Q

What EFA is required by all mammals?

A

Linoleic acid and alpha-linolenic acid

209
Q

Unsaturated fatty acids are numbered based on the position of the first double bond.
n-3, n-6, or n-9. The liver cannot place a bond until n-7 meaning that the fatty acids that have a bond before n-7 must be taken in from the diet. This is why linoeic acid 18 c; n-6, and alpha linolenic acid (18 C, n-3) must be ingested.

A

Examples of fatty acids
Saturated= Palmitic acid
Monunsaturated= oleic acid
Polyunsaturated= linoleic, alpha-linolenic, arachidonic acid

210
Q

Biosynthesis of FA

A

Glucose/ AA are broken down to acetyl CoA which is used to form saturated FA, 16 or 18 C
These can be desaturated to form monunsaturated FA of n-7 and n-9 FA families with certain enzymes. These enzymes are active when eating a low fat, high CHO diet such as an herbivore’s diet. Dogs and cats have limited enzyme activity when consuming high fat diets and they directly use and store dietary FA….if a cat ingests rancid fat, they can stored rancid fat= steatitis

211
Q

Why is arachidonic acid essential to feed in the diet of cats but not dogs?

A

Dogs are able to synthesize arachidonic acid if linoelic acid is provided in the diet because it has the enzyme delta 6 desaturase

212
Q

What other FA does the cat require in the diet because it lacks delta 6 desaturase?

A

EPA and DHA (not known if EPA is provided whether or not DHA can be made)
Normally this can be made from alpha-linolenic acid

213
Q

What are sources of n-6 PUFA (linoleic acid)?

A

Corn oil, cottonseed oil, peanut/safflower/sunflower oil, olive/soybean/canola oil, primrose oil

214
Q

What are sources of n-3 PUFA ,specifically a-linolenic acid?

A

Flaxseed/inseed oil= main sources, canola oil, soybean oil

215
Q

Which source of n-3 PUFA contains EPA and DHA?

A

Fish oil, cold water fish and menhadel oil

216
Q

Which FA helps improved CNS development and the retina of the eye and should be provided in puppy food?

A

DHA

should at least have EHA in the diet to convert to DHA

217
Q
Which FA is found in phsopholipid cerimides and enhances cell adhesion and is need for an effective water barrier for the epidermis?
A) Alpha-linolenic acid
B) Arachidonic acid
C) Eicospentaenoic acid
D) Linoleic acid
E) Docosahexaenoic acid
A

D

18:2n-6

218
Q
Which FA may contribute to the epidermal water barrier and also provides a sparing effect of linoleic acid in dogs as they compete for the same enzyme?
A) Alpha-linolenic acid
B) Arachidonic acid
C) Eicospentaenoic acid
D) Linoleic acid
E) Docosahexaenoic acid
A

A

18:3n-3

219
Q
Which FA generally comprises 20-25% of total FA of he cell membrane phospholipids of the skin and other tissues?
A) Alpha-linolenic acid
B) Arachidonic acid
C) Eicospentaenoic acid
D) Linoleic acid
E) Docosahexaenoic acid
A

B

20:4n-6

220
Q
Which FA is a competitive substitute for AA and is said to have anti inflammatory effects?
A) Alpha-linolenic acid
B) Arachidonic acid
C) Eicospentaenoic acid
D) Linoleic acid
E) Docosahexaenoic acid
A

C

221
Q

When feeding fish oils, what is the minimum amount of time it takes to see anti inflammatory effects?

A

12 weeks

EPA and DHA

222
Q

CS of FA deficiency

A

Poor growth/weight gain, skin changes= matting, scaly skin, discoloration, increase in water loss; infertility and poor wound healing

223
Q

EHA is synthesized in response to:

A

Proinflammatory factors such as COX products= prostaglandins and thromboxanes and lipoxygenase products= leukotrienes

224
Q

Which of the following is false of physiology and metabolism of n-3 vs n-6 PUFA?
A) There is interconversion
B) There is a competitive equilibrium between the two
C) n-3 are more effective in inhibiting n-6 metabolism than vice versa
D) all are true

A

A

225
Q

Which FA are beneficial because they reduce immune reactivity by regulation production and function of cytokines?

A

n-3, specifically eicosanoids (EHA)

226
Q

what are potential side effects of increasing n-3 PUFA?

A

undesirable immune suppression when giving vaccines; increases the patients oxidative load= may have to Vit E for antioxidant function…if Vit E is decreased lymphocyte proliferation and cytokine production is adversely affected

227
Q

Are the following roles of FA functional or facilitative?

adding palatability/texture, provides dense calorie source, stored as E, promotes fat sol vitamin absoprtion

A

Facilitative

228
Q

Are the following roles of FA functional or facilitative?

cell regulation/metabolism, EFA requiremnet, some are conditionally essential, inflammatory response alteration

A

Functional