Exam 2 - Parasites and Viruses Flashcards

1
Q

parasite definition

A

an organism that lives in or on an organism of another species and benefits by deriving nutrients at the other’s expense

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2
Q

ectoparasites

A

arthropods like scabies, lice

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3
Q

endoparasites

A

protozoa, helminths

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4
Q

definitive host definition

A

a host in which the parasite reaches sexual maturity and undergoes reproduction

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5
Q

intermediate definition

A

a host in which the parasite undergoes larval development but does not reach sexual maturity

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6
Q

vector definition

A

living transmitters of disease involved in essential steps of parasitic life cycle

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7
Q

reservoir definition

A

an ecological system in which an infectious agent survives indefinitely and is a source of parasites in the environment. Includes all component host populations, including that of any intermediate host or vector

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8
Q

lice aka

A

pediculus

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9
Q

pediculus capitis spread

A

direct contact

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10
Q

pediculus pubis/humanus spread

A

sexual contact with pubic hair, body lice

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11
Q

pediculus treatment

A

Lindane, permethrin lotion/shampoo, wash bedding in heat

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12
Q

scabies aka

A

sarcoptes scabei

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13
Q

what are scabies

A

microscopic mites that are spread via direct, prolonged skin-skin contact and reproduce on the skin and then burrow

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14
Q

scabies ssx

A

bumps appearing in a row, often between finger webbing. Pruritic, worse at night

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15
Q

scabies tx

A

permethrin

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16
Q

2 types of free-living amoeba

A

acanthamoeba, naegleria fowleri

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17
Q

acanthamoeba mechanism

A

enters body through cuts, wounds, nostrils

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18
Q

where is acanthamoeba found

A

soil, fresh/brackish/seawater

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19
Q

acanthamoeba risk factor

A

contact lenses

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20
Q

what does acanthamoeba cause

A

rare but severe infections of eye, skin, CNS (keratitis and granulomatous encephalitis - fatal)

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21
Q

what does naegleria fowleri cause

A

rare and fatal brain infection

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22
Q

where is n. fowleri found

A

warm freshwater lakes, rivers, hotsprings, soil (thermophilic)

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23
Q

n. fowleri mechanism

A

enters body through nostrils

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24
Q

protozoa characteristics

A

opportunistic pathogens, eukaryotes, unicellular, mobile, complex lifecycles

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25
Q

GI/GU protozoa examples

A

giardia, entamoeba, cryptosporidium, trichomonas

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26
Q

CNS protozoa examples

A

toxoplasma, trypanosomiasis, naegleria fowleri

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27
Q

blood protozoa examples

A

malaria, babesia

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28
Q

malaria pathogen species

A

plasmodium

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29
Q

malaria vector

A

female anopheles mosquito

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30
Q

malaria ssx

A

paroxysmal fever, chills, rigors, muscle aches, malaise, N/V

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31
Q

malaria diagnosis

A

thick and thin blood smears

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32
Q

plasmodium falciparum diagnosis

A

ring forms on thick and thin blood smears

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33
Q

malignant tertian malaria

A

p falciparum

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34
Q

quartan malaria

A

p malariae

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35
Q

benign tertian malaria

A

p ovale, p vivax

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36
Q

which plasmodium is not found in Africa

A

p vivax

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37
Q

which plasmodium is global

A

p falciparum

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38
Q

which plasmodium has short incubation period

A

p falciparum

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39
Q

which plasmodium has a long incubation period

A

p malariae

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40
Q

which plasmodia have intermediate incubation period

A

p ovale, p vivax

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41
Q

which plasmodia have latent liver phase

A

p ovale, p vivax

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42
Q

which plasmodium infects all ages of RBCs

A

p falciparum

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43
Q

which plasmodium is affected by duffy antigen

A

p vivax

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44
Q

p falciparum sequelae

A

cerebral malaria, blackwater fever

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45
Q

cerebral malaria ssx

A

AMS, seizures, capillary plugging due to accumulations of pigment and shizont sequestration

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46
Q

blackwater fever ssx

A

intravascular hemolysis with rapid destruction of infected with RBCs

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47
Q

severe malaria tx

A

quinine

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48
Q

malaria blood schizonticides

A

chloroquine, quinine, mefloquine, doxycycline

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49
Q

malaria tissue schizonticides

A

primaquine, atovaquone-proguanil

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50
Q

malaria blood schizonticides kill

A

trophozoite in RBC

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51
Q

malaria tissue schizonticides kill

A

dormant hypnozoites in liver

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52
Q

what is needed to prevent relapse in ovale and vivax malaria

A

a tissue schizonticide

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53
Q

problem with chloroquine for malaria treatment

A

in some regions, falciparum/vivax are resistant

54
Q

quinine side effects

A

arrhythmia, hemolysis in G6PD deficiency

55
Q

chloroquine side effects

A

GI toxicity, itching, retinal toxicity

56
Q

artemesinin group uses

A

first line treatment for falciparum in combation with another blood schizonticide

57
Q

mefloquine uses

A

second line tx for falciparum, vivax

58
Q

mefloquine ADEs

A

neuropsych

59
Q

atovaquone-proguanil side effects

A

GI toxicity

60
Q

chagas disease pathogen and vector

A

trypanosoma cruzii, reduviig bug

61
Q

African sleeping sickness pathogen and vector

A

trypanosoma brucei, tsetse fly

62
Q

acute chagas disease ssx

A

chagoma at inoculation site, fever, chills, malaise, myalgia, lymphadenopathy, arrhythmia, meningoencephalitis

63
Q

chronic chagas disease ssx

A

dilated cardiomyopathy, megacolon, megaesophagus

64
Q

african sleeping sickness early symptoms

A

recurring fever, headache, joint pain

65
Q

african sleeping sickness ssx after months

A

fever, lymphadenopathy, confusion, numbness, difficulty sleeping

66
Q

african sleeping sickness ssx after months-years

A

somnolence, headache, confusion, coma

67
Q

acute chagas disease diagnosis

A

peripheral blood smear with trypomastigote

68
Q

chronic chagas disease dx

A

serology, biopsy of infected origin

69
Q

chagas disease treatment

A

benznidazole, nifurtimox (not easily available in US)

70
Q

Leishmaniasis pathogens

A

L. donovani, L. brasiliensis

71
Q

leishmaniasis vector

A

sand fly

72
Q

L. donovani ssx

A

fever, hepatosplenomegaly, pancytopenia

73
Q

L. brasiliensis ssx

A

mucosal leishmaniosis, cutaneous lesions

74
Q

l. donovani dx

A

bone marrow biopsy or spleen aspirate for macrophages with intracellular amastigotes

75
Q

l. brasiliensis dx

A

skin biopsy, culture, PCR

76
Q

leishmaniasis tx

A

amphotericin B, miltefosine

77
Q

babesiosis vector and intermediate host

A

deer tick and rodents

78
Q

babesioisis geopgraphy

A

NE US/upper midwest

79
Q

babesiosis diagnosis

A

thick/thin peripheral blood smears with tetrad formation (Maltese cross) seen.

80
Q

babesiosis ssx

A

fever, myalgia, fatigue, hepatosplenomegaly, anemia

81
Q

mild babesiosis tx

A

azithromycin and atovaquone

82
Q

severe babesiosis tx

A

clindamycin and quinine

83
Q

toxoplasmosis mechanism

A

fecal oral from cat litter box

84
Q

acute toxoplasmosis ssx

A

asymptomatic or mono-like illness

85
Q

reactivation toxoplasmosis ssx

A

headache, confusion, seizures, ring-enhancing lesion noted on brain CT/MRI

86
Q

congenital toxoplasmosis ssx

A

hydrocephalus, intracranial calcifications, chorioretinitis

87
Q

toxoplasmosis diagnosis

A

serology

88
Q

treatment of toxoplasmosis in immunocompromise

A

pyrimethamine

89
Q

types of helminths

A

trematodes, cestodes, nematodes

90
Q

what are trematodes

A

flat worms and flukes

91
Q

common liver fluke aka

A

fasciola hepatica

92
Q

trematode picked up via fresh water and snails

A

schistosoma japonicum

93
Q

what are cestodes

A

tapeworms

94
Q

human tapeworm aka

A

taenia solium

95
Q

tapeworm causing hydatid cysts in liver

A

echinococcus granulosus

96
Q

what are nematodes

A

roundworms

97
Q

roundworm causing skin penetration

A

strongyloides stercoralis

98
Q

pinworm aka

A

enterobius vermicularis

99
Q

schistosomiasis transmission

A

infected person releases trematode eggs in urine/stool, which then contaminate fresh water. Eggs hatch and infect snails and replicate. Snails release larvae into water that then penetrate human skin

100
Q

schistosomiasis syndromes

A

swimmer’s itch, katayama fever, long-term

101
Q

katayama fever

A

systemic hypersensitivity to schistosoma antigens 1-2 months post exposure: Fever, chills, cough, urticaria, angioedema, hepatosplenomegaly

102
Q

long-term schistosomiasis

A

periportal fibrosis, portal htn, hematuria, bladder cancer

103
Q

schistosomiasis diagnosis

A

O&P, urine

104
Q

schistosomiasis tx

A

praziquantel

105
Q

pinworm size

A

1/4-1/2 inch long

106
Q

pinworm mechanism

A

oral-fecal (can breathe in their eggs)

107
Q

pinworm ssx

A

anal itching at night

108
Q

pinworm diagnosis

A

scotch-tape prep with microscope

109
Q

pinworm treatment

A

albendazole, wash bedding in hot water

110
Q

what is tropism in viruses

A

the tendency of viruses to infect specific cells

111
Q

what is capsid

A

environmentally stable viral protein shell released from cell by lysis

112
Q

what roles do membrane glycopeptides play in virology

A

strain ID, targets for neutralizing antibodies, act as viral attachment proteins, determine virulence and host tropism

113
Q

what is the viral envelope

A

environmentally labile host cell membrane

114
Q

forms a chronic viral infection can take

A

silent or subclinical lifelong infection, latent phase prior to disease, reactivation causing acute disease, chronic disease with relapses/exacerbations, cancers

115
Q

common pharyngitis viruses

A

adenovirus, coxsackievirus

116
Q

common ocular viruses

A

herpes simplex, adenovirus

117
Q

common meningitis viruses

A

enteroviruses, HSV II

118
Q

mechanism of monoclonal antibodies for viral infections

A

block viral attachment or fusion/uncoating

119
Q

oseltamivir uses

A

treatment and exposure prophylaxis for influenza

120
Q

acyclovir uses

A

treatment and exposure prophylaxis for HSV, herpes zoster, varicella zoster

121
Q

oseltamivir route

A

PO

122
Q

acyclovir route

A

PO, IV, topical

123
Q

valacyclovir route

A

PO

124
Q

valacyclovir uses

A

herpes zoster infections, genital herpes

125
Q

viral serology

A

detection of antibodies developed against virus

126
Q

viral serology advantages and disadvantages

A

can detect acute and past infection but cannot detect early infection due to delay to develop antibodies

127
Q

viral culture

A

detection of cytopathic effects of viruses on cells

128
Q

viral culture advantages, disadvantages, uses

A

inexpensive but time consuming, best used during the emergence of new viruses

129
Q

detection of viral antigens advantages, disadvantages, uses

A

expensive, rapid, and specific but lack sensitivity. Best used when rapid diagnosis is needed

130
Q

viral molecular detection

A

nucleic acid amplification

131
Q

viral molecular detection advantages, disadvantages, and uses

A

high sensitivity and specificity but expensive and must know the specific target. Best used when accurate diagnosis is necessary