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RUSVM SAM II > Exam 2 Neoplasia > Flashcards

Exam 2 Neoplasia Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following is the most common rib tumor in dogs and accounts for 73% of all rib tumors?

a. Chondrosarcoma
b. Fibrosarcoma
c. Osteosarcoma
d. Lymphosarcoma

A

c. Osteosarcoma

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2
Q

True/False: Chest wall tumors are rare in cats.

A

True

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3
Q

What is the second most common chest wall tumor in dogs?

A

Chondrosarcoma

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4
Q

What is the treatment of choice for a chest wall tumor?

a. Chemotherapy alone
b. Radiation and chemotherapy
c. En block excision with radiation therapy
d. En block excision with chest wall reconstruction

A

d. En block excision with chest wall reconstruction

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5
Q

True/False: Ajunctive chemotherapy is recommended for dogs with rib CSA along with en block excision with chest wall reconstruction.

A

False

**recommended for dogs with OSA

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6
Q

What is the treatment of choice for dogs with CSA?

a. Chest wall reconstruction with adjunctive chemotherapy
b. Chest wall resection with diaphragmatic advancement
c. Check wall reconstruction alone
d. Chemotherapy alone

A

b. Chest wall resection with diaphragmatic advancement

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7
Q

What is a diaphragmantic reconstruction?

A

Advancing cranially and suture free diaphragm to caudal aspect of cut ribs

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8
Q

What is the most common presenting clinical sign seen in a cat with lung tumors?

a. Respiratory signs
b. Exercise intolerance
c. Lameness
d. Non-productive coughing

A

c. Lameness

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9
Q

Which of the following are the majority of primary lung tumors in dogs?

a. SCC
b. Bronchial ACA
c. Broncoalveolar ACA
d. None of the above

A

c. Broncoalveolar ACA

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10
Q

Where is the most common site of metastasis of lung tumors in cats?

A

Weight bearing digits and 3rd phalanx (lung digit syndrome)

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11
Q

What is the most common lung tumor in cats?

a. Bronchoalveolar ACA
b. Histiocytic sarcoma
c. Bronchial ACA
d. Squamous cell carcinoma

A

c. Bronchial ACA

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12
Q

True/False: Carcinomas are classifed by their location

A

True

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13
Q

What are the 3 main radiographic presentations in cat with lung tumors?

A
  • Mixed bronchoalveolar pattern
  • Ill defined alveolar mass
  • Pulmonary mass with cavitation
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14
Q

True/False: The cranial lung lobes are the ones that are most commonly affected in dogs and cats with lung tumors.

A

False

**caudal lung lobes

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15
Q

What is the most essential tool for staging animals with lung tumors?

a. Radiographs
b. MRI
c. CT
d. Transthoracic FNA

A

c. CT

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16
Q

True/False: Rads are essential when determining TBLN enlargement.

A

False –> CT is most accurate

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17
Q

What is the first thing that should be done before amputating a cats digit(s)?

A

Take chest radiographs

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18
Q

Which of the following treatments should be performed for a small lung tumor identified on CT?

a. Median sternotomy
b. Lateral thoracotomy
c. Complete lobectomy
d. Partial lobectomy

A

b. Lateral thoracotomy

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19
Q

Which of the following prognostic variables for dogs is false?

a. Peripheral tumors are easier to excise
b. Coughing indicates a larger and more extensive tumor
c. Tumor <10cm is better
d. No clinical signs at the time of diagnosis indicates a better prognosis

A

c. Tumor <10cm is better

**< 5cm

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20
Q

True/False: Histologyic grade is the most important prognostic variable in cats.

A

True

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21
Q

A poorly differentiated lung tumor in cats has an MST of ___ months vs. a well differentiated tumor has an MST of ___ months.

A

Poorly: 2.5 months
Well: 23 months

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22
Q

Which of the follwoing dog breeds are most susceptible to histiocytic sarcomas?

a. Rotweilers
b. Dobermans
c. Golden Retrievers
d. Bernese Mountain

A

d. Bernese Mountain

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23
Q

Which of the following is true regarding histiocytic sarcomas?

a. Can be generalized only
b. Its a benign tumor of antigen presenting dendritic cell origin
c. Golden retrievers are the most common breed to have this
d. Surgical removal with adjunctive CCNU

A

d. Surgical removal with adjunctive CCNU

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24
Q

What is the most common presenting complaint in a patient that has a thymoma?

a. Hypercalcemia
b. Myasthenia gravis
c. Anemia
d. Polymyositis

A

b. Myasthenia gravis

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25
Q

True/False: The presence of pleural effusion is more common in dogs and its a negative prognostic factor for lung tumors.

A

False

**more common in cats

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26
Q

Which of the following is false regarding cranial mediastinal tumors?

a. Commonly seen in dogs that are 9 years old and cats that are 10 years old
b. Clinical signs are related to the mass-effect in the thorax
c. It commonly invades into the caudal vena cava causing edema to the head, neck and forelimbs
d. 67% of thymomas are PNS

A

c. It commonly invades into the caudal vena cava causing edema to the head, neck and forelimbs

**cranial vena cava

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27
Q

True/False: Thymomas are much more common than LSA.

A

False

**LSA> Thymoma

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28
Q

Which of the following is true regarding diganosis of thymomas?

a. CBC/CHEM show remarkable anemia and hypercalcemia
b. US shows the mass effect in the cranial mediastinum
c. Flow cytometry is not necessary to send out
d. Cytology will show a large number of small mature lymphocytes and intermittent mast cells

A

d. Cytology will show a large number of small mature lymphocytes and intermittent mast cells

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29
Q

What percentage in cats are thymomas non-invasive?

A

50-100%

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30
Q

____ is the gold standard treatment for thymomas?

A

Surgery

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31
Q

Which of the following can be done if surgery can’t be performed or as an adjunct to surgery for a thymoma?

a. Chemotherapy
b. Radiation therapy
c. Medical management for myasthenia gravis
d. Management of megaesophagus

A

b. Radiation therapy

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32
Q

Which of the following is not a negative factor in a dog with a thymoma?

a. Younger dog
b. Megaesophagus present
c. Lymphocytic rich tumor
d. Cystic thymoma

A

d. Cystic thymoma

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33
Q

What is the MST in a dog with thymoma surgery? What is the MST in a dog with radiation therapy alone?

A

Sx excision MST = 790 days

Radiation MST = 248 days

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34
Q

What is the MST in a cat with thymoma surgery? What is the MST in a cat with radiation therapy alone?

A

Sx MST = 1,825 days (5 years)

Radiation MST = 720 days (2 years)

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35
Q

What is the fourth most common site of neoplasia in dogs and cats?

a. Gastric tumors
b. Esophageal tumors
c. Oral tumors
d. Intestinal tumors

A

c. Oral tumors

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36
Q

What are the big 3 oral tumors dogs can get?

A

Melanoma
SCC
Fibrosarcoma

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37
Q

What are the big 2 oral tumors cats can get?

A

SCC

Fibrosarcoma

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38
Q

Which of the following is a benign variant of oral tumors seen in dogs?

a. OSA
b. Epulides
c. Eosinophilic granuloma complex
d. LSA

A

b. Epulides

**its an odontogenic tumor

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39
Q

Which of the following would be the best technique for an oral tumor that is proliferative?

a. Cytology
b. Incisional biopsy
c. Shave biopsy
d. Excisional biopsy

A

c. Shave biopsy

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40
Q

True/False: You never want to biopsy an oral mass through the lip.

A

True

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41
Q

What is the preferred method for diagnosing an oral tumor?

a. Dental radiographs
b. FNA and cytology
c. Cross sectional imaging
d. None of the above

A

c. Cross sectional imaging

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42
Q

What percentage of oral tumors metastasize to the mandibular LN’s?

A

55%

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43
Q

Which of the following is false regarding malignant melanoma?

a. Surgery results in complete local control in these cases
b. They’re usually black but they can be amelantoic
c. Abdominal US is recommended as well as full body CT since its highly malignant
d. IHC is usually done to detect Melan A

A

a. Surgery results in complete local control in these cases

**results in local control in 75% of cases but biggest point of failure is systemic mets

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44
Q

Which of the following is commonly seen in goldens and labs that are 7-8 years old and can often appear as a low grade but biologically is a high grade variant?

a. Malignant melanoma
b. Fibrosarcoma
c. Squamous cell carcinoma
d. Histiocytic sarcoma

A

b. Fibrosarcoma

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45
Q

Where are SCC commonly found in cats?

A

Sublingual site

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46
Q

True/False: Recurrent disease after surgery tends to be the biggest point of failure in dogs with fibrosarcoma.

A

True

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47
Q

Where do odontogenic tumors arise from?

A

Periodontal ligament

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48
Q

What is the MST with surgery in a dog with OSA of the chest wall?

a. 240 days
b. 120 days
c. 300 days
d. 1080 days

A

b. 120 days

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49
Q

What is the MST in a dog who had surgery and chemo for an OSA chest wall tumor?

a. 240 days
b. 120 days
c. 300 days
d. 1080 days

A

a. 240 days

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50
Q

What is the MST in a dog with a CSA chest wall tumor?

A

300-1080 days

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51
Q

Which of the following is seen in the rostral mandible of dogs and rare in cats and needs very aggressive local surgery for control?

a. Acanthomatous ameloblastomas
b. Peripheral odontogenic fibroma
c. Feline inductive Odontogenic Tumor
d. Esophageal tumor

A

a. Acanthomatous ameloblastomas

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52
Q

True/False: The more rostral the oral tumor the easier to excise and the better the prognosis.

A

True

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53
Q

What is the gold standard treatment for oral tumors except peripheral odontogenic fibromas?

A

Aggressive surgical excision

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54
Q

True/False: Chemotherapy is used for high maliganacies like melanoma

A

False

**melanoma won’t respond

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55
Q

Which of the following is not a positive prognostic indicator for oral tumors?

a. Smaller tumors
b. Histologically complete resection
c. Tumor cranial to K9 teeth
d. No evidence of preoperative metastasis

A

c. Tumor cranial to K9 teeth

**rostral location, tumor CAUDAL to K9

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56
Q

Which of the following commonly causes sarcomas of the esophagus?

a. Helicobacter
b. Clostridium
c. Spirocerca Lupi
d. None of the above

A

c. Spirocerca Lupi

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57
Q

What is the most common esophageal tumor in female cats and usually located in the middle 1/3 of the esophagus just caudal to the thoracic inlet?

a. Leiomyosarcoma
b. Leiomyoma
c. Squamous cell carcinoma
d. Osteosarcoma

A

c. Squamous cell carcinoma

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58
Q

What diagnostic tool is preferred because biopsies can be procured?

a. Radiographs
b. Esophagoscopy
c. Ultrasound
d. Endoscopy

A

b. Esophagoscopy

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59
Q

What is the preferred treatment of esophgeal tumors?

a. Surgery
b. Chemotherapy
c. Radiation
d. None of the above

A

a. Surgery

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60
Q

If an esophageal mass is secondary to S. Lupi granuloma treat with ____>

A

Doramectin

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61
Q

Which of the following is false regarding gastric tumors?

a. Its commonly seen in male Belgian shepherds and Chows
b. The tumor is mainly asymptomatic until it becomes large enough to affect outflow
c. Vomiting is the most common clinical sign more than anorexia
d. Helicobacter can play a role in the development of the infection

A

c. Vomiting is the most common clinical sign more than anorexia

**anorexia more common than vomiting

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62
Q

Which of the following is the big 1 differential diagnosis of cats with gastric tumors?

a. Leiomyosarcoma
b. Adenocarcinoma
c. Lymphoma
d. Leiomyoma

A

c. Lymphoma

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63
Q

What are the big 2 differential diagnosis in dogs with gastric tumors?

A

Adenocarcinoma

Leiomyosarcoma

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64
Q

What is the second most common benign gastric tumor in dogs?

A

Leiomyoma

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65
Q

Which of the following is false regarding gastric adenocarcinomas?

a. Makes up 70-80% of gastric neoplasms in dogs
b. Commonly found within the pyloric antrum/lesser curvature of the stomach
c. There is a high metastatic rate of 57%
d. Creates lesions that are referred to as leather bottle

A

c. There is a high metastatic rate of 57%

**metastatic rate of 74%

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66
Q

What is the preferred diganostic technique to detect gastric tumors?

a. Abdominal US
b. Cytology
c. Endoscopy
d. Radiographs

A

c. Endoscopy

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67
Q

Which of the following is true regaring intestinal tumors?

a. Commonly seen in older Collie’s and GSD males
b. Small intestine tumors are more common than large intestine tumors in dogs
c. Large intestine tumors are more common than small intestine tumors in cats
d. All the above are true

A

a. Commonly seen in older Collie’s and GSD males

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68
Q

Which diagnostic tool does not allow access to the jejunum and proximal ileum?

A

Endoscopy

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69
Q

What are the big 3 differential diagnosis for intestinal tumors in dogs?

A
  1. LSA
  2. ACA
  3. Leiomyosarcoma
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70
Q

True/False: Small intestine tumors are more common than large intestine tumors in cats

A

True

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71
Q

Which of the following is false regarding LSA tumors in dogs?

a. Majority are T cell origin and multifocal in distributition
b. Overall MST is 201-280 days
c. Dogs that failed to achieve a remission is a negative pronostic idication
d. Dogs that had diarrhea at initial presentation had a negative prognostic indication

A

b. Overall MST is 201-280 days

**MST = 77 days (R = 6 - 700 days)

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72
Q

True/False: Large intestine tumors are more common than small intestine tumors in dogs

A

True

73
Q

What are the big 3 differntial diagnosis associated with intestinal tumors in cats?

A
  1. LSA
  2. ACA
  3. MCT
74
Q

Which of the following is false regarding intestinal tumor treatments?

a. 4-8 cm margin procurement are necessary
b. Mesenteric and regional LN’s should be assessed
c. Exploratory laprotomy with surgical excision via intestinal resection and anastomosis except with LSA
d. All the above are true

A

d. All the above are true

75
Q

True/False: Endoscopic biopsy in cats misdiagnosed LSA as IBD in 70% of cases.

A

True

76
Q

The majority of feline intestinal ACA are advanced with ___% metastatic rate at diagnosis.

A

72%

77
Q

Which of the following is false regarding MCT intestinal tumors?

a. Solitary intestinal MCT in cats without metastasis may have prolonged survival following complete surgical excision
b. Its a really bad disease in dogs with 100% metastatic rate
c. Dogs have a poor prongosis and most of them die or have to be euthanized soon after diagnosis
d. All the above are true

A

c. Dogs have a poor prongosis and most of them die or have to be euthanized soon after diagnosis

**cats

78
Q

Where do Gastroinestinal stromal tumor (GIST’s) originate from?

A

Intestinal cells of Cajal (pacemaker cells of GIT)

79
Q

True/False: GIST’s have a predilection for the colon.

A

False

**cecum

80
Q

Which of the following is false regarding GIST’s?

a. Express kit (CD 14) on IHC
b. MST = 37.4 months if they survive PO
c. They die of septic peritonitis PO b/c masses rupture before diagnosis
d. MST is 11.6 months

A

a. Express kit (CD 14) on IHC

**express c-kit (CD 117) on IHC

81
Q

Which of the following oral tumors does not involve bone?

a. Odontogenic tumors
b. Feline inductive odontogenic tumor
c. Peripheral odontogenic fibroma
d. All the above involve bone

A

c. Peripheral odontogenic fibroma

**no bone involvement

82
Q

85% of bone tumors in dogs are ___.

A

OSA

83
Q

Which of the following is a common dog breed of OSA?

a. Dobermans
b. German shepards
c. Greyhounds
d. Labs
e. Golden Retriever

A

c. Greyhounds

**as well as Rotties, Great danes, and Scottish deerhounds

84
Q

Which of the following is false regarding OSA?

a. Large to giant breed dogs >40kg are at risk
b. Assocaited with bimodal distribution
c. Localized limb swelling and lameness is more common in the pelvic limbs
d. 1 in 4 early (<1 year) gonadectomized rotties have a lifetime risk

A

c. Localized limb swelling and lameness is more common in the pelvic limbs

**forelimbs 2x more affected than pelvic limbs

85
Q

The ____ is the most common site to see OSA and ____ is the 2nd most common site.

A

Distal radius - most common
Proximal humerus - 2nd most common

**away from the elbow towards the knee

86
Q

Which region of bone does OSA favor development in?

a. Epiphyseal
b. Diaphyseal
c. Metaphyseal
d. I don’t know

A

c. Metaphyseal

87
Q

Which is the most common type of OSA out of endosteal, periosteal and parosteal?

A

Endosteal

88
Q

Which of the following is true regarding OSA diagnostic algorithm?

a. Low ALP = Bad
b. Can’t assess the locoregional LN so we need cytopathology
c. 90% micrometastasis at dx but <15% of dogs have clinically detectable metastasis at time of initial dx
d. Only one radiographic veiw is needed of the affected limb
e. Bone to bone mets are not common so we don’t need to compare full body rads with nuclear scintigraphy

A

c. 90% micrometastasis at dx but <15% of dogs have clinically detectable

89
Q

What is Codman’s triangle?

A

Periosteal lifting caused by subperiosteal hemorrhage

90
Q

Which of the following is not a common characteristic of OSA?

a. Can cross between joints
b. Cortical lysis
c. Periosteal proliferation with extension into soft tissue
d. Lack distinct border between normal and abnormal

A

a. Can cross between joints

**does not cross between joints because cartilage provides a barrier with collagenase inhibition

91
Q

True/False: Biopsy is preferred over FNA/cytology in OSA cases.

A

False

**FNA/cytology preferred over biopsy

92
Q

What are the names of the two bone biopsy techniques for OSA?

A

Jam Shedi

Michele trephine

93
Q

Which of the bone biopsy techniques has a much higher risk of pathologic fracture d/t large defects from biopsy?

A

Michele trephine

94
Q

True/False: A biopsy core should be taken from the center of the lesion to diagnose OSA.

A

True

**that’s where the neoplastic osteoblasts producing osteoids consistent with OSA are located

95
Q

Which of the following is false based on local control of OSA?

a. Limb amputation is gold standard for primary bone tumors
b. Coxofemoral disarticulation is recommended for pelvic limb involvement
c. En-block acetabulectomy or subtotal hemipelvectomy to achieve adequate tumor control
d. More aggressive surgery is needed for involvement in a distal femoral lesion

A

d. More aggressive surgery is needed for involvement in a distal femoral lesion

**proximal femoral lesion

96
Q

True/False: Pelvic limb amputees have more difficulty in keeping balance vs. thoracic limb amputees have more difficulty in gaining speed.

A

False

**other way around, thoracic limb harder to balance and pelvic limb harder to gain speed

97
Q

Which of the following is a contraindication for limb salvage?

a. Severe OSA
b. >50% of the diaphysis involved
c. Neurologic disease
d. Morbid obestiy

A

b. >50% of the diaphysis involved

98
Q

Which of the following is an anatomic site for limb salvage surgery?

a. Proximal ulna
b. Humerus
c. Distal radius
d. Femur

A

c. Distal radius

**as well as distal ulna, digit, metacarpus/tarsus, scapula

99
Q

What is used for reconstruction in a distal radius limb salvage procedure?

A

Endoprosthesis

100
Q

Which of the following is true regarding OSA limb salvage complications?

a. Complication rate for limb sparing surgery is <40%
b. Infection was seen in <30% of the cases and diagnosed 6 months after surgery
c. Infection is common in more than half of the cases and had a MST that was significantly greater with PO infection
d. Poor function in about 80% of these dogs

A

c. Infection is common in more than half of the cases and had a MST that was significantly greater with PO infection

101
Q

What is the most common complication of sterotactic radiosurgery in 36% of OSA cases?

A

Fracture of radiated bone

102
Q

What is the best site to perform sterotactic radiosurgery becasue of low a PO fracture rate?

A

Proximal humerus

103
Q

True/False: Adjunct chemotherapy is recommended in all cases of canine OSA.

A

True

104
Q

Which of the following adjunctive chemotherapy options for OSA is the safest/ most well tolerated and economically feasible?

a. Cisplatin
b. Carboplatin
c. Doxorubicin
d. All the above

A

b.Carboplatin

105
Q

Which of the following palliative therapteutic options of OSA inhibit osteoclastic bone resorption?

a. Pamidrone
b. Zoledronate
c. Bisphosphonates
d. Cisplatin

A

c. Bisphosphonates

106
Q

Which of the following can be used as palliative relief for hypertrophic osteopathy?

a. Radiation
b. Analgesia
c. Metastasectomy
d. Aminobisphosphonates

A

c. Metastasectomy

107
Q

What is the MST for palliative treatments of OSA?

a. 1-3 months
b. 4-6 months
c. 8-12 months
d. 4-10 months

A

a. 1-3 months

108
Q

What is the MST for surgery and chemotherapy treatments of OSA?

a. 1-3 months
b. 4-6 months
c. 8-12 months
d. 4-10 months

A

c. 8-12 months

109
Q

What is the MST for surgery alone of OSA?

a. 1-3 months
b. 4-6 months
c. 8-12 months
d. 4-10 months

A

b. 4-6 months

110
Q

Which of the following is a prognostic consideration of OSA?

a. >7 years <10 years
b. Dogs >40 kg have longer MST and DFI
c. Proximal humerus OSA have significantly longer DFI and MST
d. ALP > 110 U/L have a shorter MST

A

d. ALP > 110 U/L have a shorter MST

111
Q

Which of the following is false regarding feline OSA?

a. Less aggressive with slower growth
b. Metastasis is not as common as in canine
c. More commonly found in the metaphyseal areas of the thoracic limbs
d. MST of 24-49 months

A

c. More commonly found in the metaphyseal areas of the thoracic limbs

**diaphysis of the pelvic limbs more common

112
Q

True/False: Mast cell tumors are the most common cutaneous tumor in cats and second most common in dogs.

A

False

**most common in dogs and second most common in cats

113
Q

What is the most common cutaneous tumor in cats?

A

Basal cell tumor

114
Q

Which are the “B” dog breeds predisposed to mast cell tumors?

A

Boxers
Bull terrier
Boston terrier
Bulldog

115
Q

What cat breed is predisposed to mast cell tumors?

A

Siamese

116
Q

True/False: German shepherds are predisposed to mast cell tumros but get a lower grade/less aggressive variant.

A

False

**boxers and brachycephalic

117
Q

Which of the following is false regarding cutaneous MCT’s?

a. Commonly seen on the trunk and extremities in dogs and on the head/neck in cats
b. Can look and feel like many things especially lipomas
c. 20% of dogs have more than one on presentation and about 11-14% of cats have multiple
d. The systemic form is often referred to as mastocytosis

A

c. 20% of dogs have more than one on presentation and about 11-14% of cats have multiple

**11-14% dogs and 20% cats

118
Q

What is Darier’s sign?

A

With severe anaphylaxis and hypotension they can degranulate mast cells with erythema and swelling

119
Q

What percentrage of dogs with MCT have some evidence of GI ulceration at necropsy or endoscopy?

A

35-83%, 15% perforated ulcer

120
Q

Which of the following stimulate receptors on the gastric parietal cells to increase gastric secretion and can cause GI ulcers?

a. Heparin
b. Proteolytic enzymes
c. Serotonin
d. Histamine
e. Chemotactic factors

A

d. Histamine

121
Q

What H1 antagonists can be premedicated to control degranulation?

A

Diphenhydramine

122
Q

Which of the following is not an effect of degranulation and surgery?

a. Hypertension
b. Hypotension
c. Local hemorrhage
d. Delayed wound healing

A

a. Hypertension

123
Q

Which of the following cna casue delayed wound healing?

a. Heparin
b. Proteolytic enzymes
c. Serotonin
d. Histamine
e. Chemotactic factors

A

b. Proteolytic enzymes

124
Q

Which of the following can cause a local hemorrhage?

a. Heparin
b. Proteolytic enzymes
c. Serotonin
d. Histamine
e. Chemotactic factors

A

a. Heparin

125
Q

What are the only tests needed if there are no negative prognostic factors and amenable to wide excision of MCT’s?

A

Minimum database and Regional LN aspirates

126
Q

True/False: MCT’s have the potential to metastasize to the lungs so chest rads should be taken.

A

False

**rads only done if close to chest for intrathoracic LN

127
Q

If negative risk factors are present with MCT’s what should be done pre-op?

A

Abdominal ultrasound

128
Q

Which of the following is true regarding MCT’s in cats?

a. Histiocytic is more common than Mastocytic
b. Compact mastocytic are seen in 50-90% of cases and are benign
c. Diffuse (anaplastic) can be treated with low dose surgery
d. Histiocytic are seen in older siamese cats and can regress over 2-4 months

A

b. Compact mastocytic are seen in 50-90% of cases and are benign

129
Q

Which system uses grades I -III ranging from well differentiated to poorly differentiated fro MCT’s in dogs?

A

Patnaik 3 tier system

130
Q

True/False: Wide excisions are required for MCT in cats since most are compact mastocytic.

A

False

**not required

131
Q

What is the name of the system that is more simple and classifies MCT’s in dogs as high and low grade and is considered better than the Patnaik 3 tier system?

A

Kiupel 2- tier system

132
Q

True/False: Histiocytic MCT’s in young siamese cats can spontaneously regress over 4-24 months

A

True

133
Q

Which technique correctly predicts the histological grade in 94% MCT’s?

A

Cytograding

134
Q

Which of the following is false regarding Canine MCT treatments?

a. Wide excision for a localized skin tumor is the gold standard
b. Chemotherapy alone on a localized but non-resectable MCT has a high response but is short lived
c. Only 20-30% of unsuccessful excisions with recur unless its a grade II which has a 23% chance of recuring
d. Scar revision is the best bet for a disseminated disease with a local tumor

A

d. Scar revision is the best bet for a disseminated disease with a local tumor

**best bet for planned curative excision that wasnt’ successful

135
Q

True/False: We want to start with chemo in a disseminated disease with a local MCT tumor and measure the response before we do local excision/RT.

A

True

136
Q

Which drug are dogs with c-kit mutation more likely to respond to?

A

Palladia (TKI’s)

137
Q

What should be done that tests for mutation in kit in the higher risk dogs prior to starting chemotherapy?

A

Mast cell tumor panel

138
Q

Which of the following is true regarding MCT prognostic factors?

a. Confined to skin with no metastasis have a better prognosis than higher stage
b. Viceral, BM and SQ tumors are better
c. Brachycephalics and boxers have a better prognosis and less aggressive tumor

A

c. Brachycephalics and boxers have a better prognosis and less aggressive tumor

139
Q

Which of the folloiwng MCT locations have a better prognosis?

a. High grade subungual tumros
b. Preputial and scrotal
c. Visceral or BM
d. SQ
e. High grade oral/perioral (muzzle) tumors

A

d. SQ

140
Q

What is the most common tumor of the canine bladder? What is the most common non-neoplastic DDX?

A

Transitional cell carcinoma

Non-neoplastic DDX: polypoid cystitis

141
Q

What is the most common etiology of bladder neoplasia?

A

Topical insecticide and hyerbicide exposure

142
Q

True/False: Overweight female Scottish terriers are more at risk of developing bladder neoplasia.

A

True

143
Q

True/False: Limit exposure to law chemical, older flea/tick products and feeding veggies 3x/week to higher risk breeds acn decrease bladder neoplasia risks.

A

True

144
Q

What is the most common location for TCC in the bladder?

A

Trigone

**56% involve the urethra

145
Q

Which lymph nodes can you feel thickened on rectal palpation associated with TCC?

A

Urethra/ iliac LN

146
Q

What are the preferred diagnostic modalities for TCC?

A

Traumatic catheterization
Cystosonography
Cystoscopy with biopsy

147
Q

What can be used as a screening tool in at risk breeds with TCC even in the absence of clinical signs?

A

CADET BRAF Mutation Detection Assay

148
Q

What is the reason why surgical treatment is so difficult in patients with TCC?

A

Involvement of the trigone and the field effect

149
Q

Which of the following can be done following urethral stent placement for the treatment of obstructive carcinoma of the urethra in dogs?

a. Laser ablation
b. Partial cystectomy
c. Complete cystectomy
d. Palliative stenting

A

d. Palliative stenting

150
Q

Which NSAID should all dogs with TCC recieve?

A

Prioxicam

151
Q

What treatment has the best overall outcome in patients with TCC?

A

Surgery with chemotherapy

152
Q

What percentrage of mammary gland tumors are malignant in cats?

A

85-95%

153
Q

Which of the following is not a feline risk factor for mammary tumors?

a. Malignancy increases with age of about 7-14 years but seen in younger Siamese
b. Intact queens have a 7 fold higher risk of mammary cancer vs female spayed cats
c. OHE between 7-12 months have a 91% risk reduction of getting the tumor
d. OHE between 13-24 months have an 11% risk reduction

A

c. OHE between 7-12 months have a 91% risk reduction of getting the tumor

**should say before 6 months, 7-12 months have 86% risk reduction

154
Q

Which of the following is true regarding risk factors of mammary tumors in canine patients?

a. OHE prior to 1st estrus have a 5% lifetime risk of MGT’s
b. OHE prior to 2nd estrus have an 8% risk
c. OHE prior to 3rd estrus have a 50% risk
d. OHE in dogs over the age of 4 have a 0.5% risk of MGT’s

A

b. OHE prior to 2nd estrus have an 8% risk

155
Q

True/False: FNA/cytology of MGT have a high potential for false positive. If negative then excisional biopsy in dogs and incisional biopsy in cats.

A

False

**high potential for false NEGATIVE

156
Q

True/False: An OHE should always be performed concurrently when removing MGT’s.

A

True

157
Q

What surgical treatment is done in a dog with a single fixed lump >1 cm?

a. Single lumpectomy
b. Masectomy
c. Regional masectomy
d. Staged bilateral mastectomy

A

b. Masectomy

158
Q

What is the preferred surgical treatment in a cat with a MGT?

a. Simple lumpectomy
b. Single session bilateral radical mastectomy
c. Regional masectomy
d. Staged bilateral masectomy

A

b. Single session bilateral radical mastectomy

** with excision of axillary and inguinal LN’s

159
Q

In mammary gland tumors ____ is very important in assessing risk for metastasis and need for adjunct treatment.

A

Size

160
Q

What is a reliable prognostic tool that can be used for clinical staging in dogs with MGT’s?

A

WHO staging system

161
Q

Which of the followign is false regarding vaginal tumors?

a. 83% of vaginal tumors are malignant and of smooth muscle origin
b. Leiomyosarcoma is the most common malignant tumor
c. Leiomyoma > fibroleiomyoma > fibroma
d. Benign tumors are generally hormone related and commonly seen in intact dogs at dx

A

a. 83% of vaginal tumors are malignant and of smooth muscle origin

**they’re benign

162
Q

Which of the following is false regarding canine testicular tumors?

a. Seminomas are the second most common and found within the germinal epithelium of the seminiferous tubules
b. Interstitial cell tumor are the most common
c. There is an 8.8x risk fo developing a seminoma and 16x risk of developing a Sertoli cell tumor in cryptorchids
d. Sertoli cell tumor is the least common and found within the sustentacular cells of the seminiferous tubules

A

c. There is an 8.8x risk fo developing a seminoma and 16x risk of developing a Sertoli cell tumor in cryptorchids

**16x risk of developing seminoma and 8.8x risk of developing Sertoli cell tumor in cryptorchid testicle

163
Q

What is the most common hematopoietic tumor?

A

Lymphoma

164
Q

What is false regarding lymphoma?

a. Lymphoblastic lymphoma are better than Lymphocytic lymphoma
b. Lymphoblastic lymphoma are worse than Lymphocytic lymphoma
c. 80-85% of canine lymphoma are multicentric (peripheral LN)
d. Most canine lymphomas are B-cell derivatives

A

a. Lymphoblastic lymphoma are better than Lymphocytic lymphoma

165
Q

Which of the following is false regarding feline lymphoma?

a. Alimentary/gastrointestinal form is the most common form
b. Mediastinal lymphoma is often assocaited with FIV
c. Commonly seen in Siamese cats and they ususally have substage B
d. They’re unable to compress their thorax with the mediastinal form

A

b. Mediastinal lymphoma is often assocaited with FIV

**FeLV

166
Q

Which substage are the majority of multicentric nodal lymphoma in healthy canines?

A

Substage a

167
Q

True/False: B cell is always better than T cell lymphoma

A

True

168
Q

What are the five common LN locations to see multicentric nodal lymphoma in dogs?

A
  1. Submandibular
  2. Prescapular
  3. Axillary
  4. Inguinal
  5. caudal superficial
169
Q

True/False: 50% of canines with mediastinal lymphoma have paraneoplastic hypercalcemia.

A

True

170
Q

Which diagnostic tool will help with prognosis and staging of lymphoma?

a. CBC/ CHM
b. Bone marrow aspirate
c. Radiographs and US
d. Cytology

A

b. Bone marrow aspirate

171
Q

Which diganostic tools are used for lymhoid phenotyping lymphoma?

A

Flow cytometry
Immunohistochemistry
Immunocytochemistry
PARR

172
Q

What is the most common protocol treatment for canine patients with lymphoma?

A

C- Cyclophosphamide
H- hydroxydanorubicin/ doxorubicin
O- oncovin/vincristine
P- prednisolone

173
Q

What agent can’t be used in west hihgland white terriers or other terrier breeds because it interferes with DNA synthesis and can predispose them to pulmonary fibrosis?

A

Rababfosadine (Tanovea)

174
Q

What is the best treatment in feline patietns with lymphoma?

A

Multi-agent chemo using COP

**no doxorubicin

175
Q

What can be used in cats with low grade small cell alimentary LSA?

a. Surgery
b. Chlorambucil and Prednisolone
c. Cyclophosphamide and Prednisolone
d. None of the above

A

b. Chlorambucil and Prednisolone

176
Q

Which of the following is true regarding relapse cases of LSA?

a. If relapse is in <2 months then use CHOP protocol
b. MDRI gene tests should be done after strating chemotherapy treatments
c. If relapse occurs >2 months after end of chemo use a re-induction of the previous chemotherapeutic protocol
d. If there is no response to chemotherapy then use CHOP protocol

A

c. If relapse occurs >2 months after end of chemo use a re-induction of the previous

177
Q

Which of the following is false regarding lymphoid leukemia?

a. Proliferation of neoplastic cells in bone marrow
b. Poor prognosis with Acute lymphoblastic leukemia
c. Chlorambucil and pred are highly effective for chronic lymphocytic leukemia
d. Cats are often FeLV positive with chronic lymphocytic leukemia

A

d. Cats are often FeLV positive with chronic lymphocytic leukemia

**acute lymphoblastic leukemia

178
Q

Which of the following is false regarding multiple myeloma?

a. Mostly bone marrow but can be skin and visceral organs in cats
b. Diagnosis is made with monoclonal gammopathy on elecrophoresis and osteoblastic lesions and fractures on rads
c. Treat with pred and melaphalan but careful with melaphalan because it can cause severe BM suppression
d. Can produce light chain protein (bence jones) or heavy chain protein (IgA or IgG)

A

b. Diagnosis is made with monoclonal gammopathy on elecrophoresis and osteoblastic lesions and fractures on rads

**osteolytic

RUSVM SAM II (4 decks)

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