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RUSVM SAM II > Exam 2 Derm > Flashcards

Exam 2 Derm Flashcards

1
Q

True/False: Secondary lesions initially erupt as the result of an underlying disease and then they quickly disappear.

A

False

**primary lesions

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2
Q

What is the most common skin disease in canine species that are presenting with severe alopecia and pruritis?

a. Fleas
b. Food allergies
c. Atopic dermatitis
d. Superficial bacterial pyoderma

A

a. Fleas

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3
Q

Which of the following is a primary skin lesion?

a. Epidermal collarette
b. Lichenification
c. Fissure
d. Macule
e. Callus

A

d. Macule

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4
Q

Which of the following is a secondary skin lesion?

a. Papule
b. Excoriation
c. Pustule
d. Wheal
e. Nodule

A

b. Excoriation

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5
Q

Which of the following can be both a primary or secondary skin lesion?

a. Callus
b. Scar
c. Follicular casts
d. Tumor
e. Patch

A

c. Follicular casts

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6
Q

Which of the following tests would be done for demodex?

a. Deep scrape
b. Superficial scrape
c. Hair pluck/trichogram
d. Tape test
e. Fecal float

A

a. Deep scrape

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7
Q

Which of the following tests would be done to diagnose malassezia?

a. Deep scrape
b. Superficial scrape
c. Hair pluck/trichogram
d. Acetate tape test
e. Fecal float

A

d. Acetate tape test

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8
Q

Which of the following would help in the diagnosis of ancylostoma?

a. Deep scrape
b. Superficial scrape
c. Hair pluck/trichogram
d. Acetate tape test
e. Fecal float

A

e. Fecal float

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9
Q

Which of the following is false regarding woods lamp?

a. Its a fungal test that can be used to detect M. canis
b. Can have false positives due to the keratin, soaps, dyes, and meds
c. Need to wait 5-10 minutes before using it
d. All the above are true

A

d. All the above are true

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10
Q

Which of the following tests is gold standard for identifying environmental allergens?

a. Serology allergy test
b. Culture and sensitivity
c. Intradermal allergy test
d. Skin biopsy
e. Fungal culture

A

c. Intradermal allergy test

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11
Q

True/False: A fungal culture should be done on all cats with skin diseases and dogs with inflammatory lesions.

A

True

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12
Q

Which of the following is false regarding allergy testing serology?

a. They rely on antigen specific antibody levels
b. They rely on antibody specific antigen levels
c. They are quick and have no outlay
d. No sedation or clipping is required for this test
e. They’re not reliable tests for food allergens

A

b. They rely on antibody specific antigen levels

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13
Q

What are the three causes of pruritis?

A

Allergens
Ectoparasites
Infections

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14
Q

If a dog is seen licking or chewing at his feet what would you think the cause of this is?

A

Food allergy or atopy

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15
Q

What would you think of if a dog is presenting with derm signs of the elbows and ears?

A

Sarcoptic mange

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16
Q

Which of the following is not considered a disease that is extremly pruritic?

a. Flea bite allergy
b. Scabies
c. Atopic dermatitis
d. Food allergy

A

c. Atopic dermatitis

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17
Q

What two things do you think of if the owner said the itching came first?

A

Allergies and scabies

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18
Q

What comes to your mind if the lesions came first?

A

Demodex and Dermatophytosis

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19
Q

Which of the following does not cause a type 1 HST reaction?

a. Flea allergy dermatitis
b. Atopic dermatits
c. Contact dermatitis
d. Food allergy dermatitis

A

c. Contact dermatitis

**type 4 HST reaction

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20
Q

A dog comes into the clinic presenting with lumbosacral alopecia with lichenification and hyper pigmentation. You suspect that he has flea allergy dermatitis since its the most common. Which of the following is false?

a. You can do an intradermal flea allergy test to confirm diagnosis using saline as the negative control and histamine for the positive control
b. Elevated serum flea allergen is specifc for IgE
c. To eradicate the flea you much use a knock down product, insect growth regulator and environmental control
d. Monthly use of advantage will kill the adults and prevent egg shedding
e. Monthly use of Revolution will kill the adults and prevent the development of eggs and larvae

A

e. Monthly use of Revolution will kill the adults and prevent the development of eggs and larvae

**kills adults and prevents hatching, Vectra 3D prevents eggs and larva development

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21
Q

Which of the following is a knock down product that will eradicate fleas?

a. Capstar
b. Revolution
c. Promeris
d. Frontline Plus
e. Vectra 3D

A

a. Capstar

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22
Q

How often should animals be treated if fleas are on in contact animals?

A

Treat every 4 weeks

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23
Q

What is the most common flea in cats and what do they present with?

A

Ctenocephalides felis and can present with miliary dermatitis

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24
Q

What can we use to treat moderate to severe cases of secondary bacterial or yeast infections assocaited with flea allergy dermatitis once the pyoderma is eliminated?

A

Prednisolone to reduce/stop the pruritis

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25
Q

True/False: Atopic dermatitis causes a type 2 hypersenstiivity reaction to aeroallergens

A

False

**type 1

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26
Q

What are the common locations that we will see atopic dermatitis?

A 
Paws
Face
Distal extremities
Elbows
Ventrum
Otitis externa
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27
Q

True/False: Antihistamines and essential fatty acids should be avoided 2 weeks before performing an intradermal allergy test

A

True

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28
Q

Which of the following is false regarding allergy specifc immunotherapy (ASIT) for atopic dermatitis?

a. We want to slowly increase the dose/ quantity of the allergen over time
b. Subcutaneous and sublingual immunotherapy are the two forms of allergy shots
c. There are not many side effects with these but its very expensive
d. Sublingual dose should be increased slowly and subcutaneous should be given twice daily

A

d. Sublingual dose should be increased slowly and subcutaneous should be given twice daily

**SQ increase dose and concentration slowly, Sublingual give twice a day

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29
Q

Which of the following symptomatic relief therapeutics have weak evidence for atopic dermatitis?

a. Oclacitinib
b. Cyclosporine A
c. Dermoscent
d. Clemastine
e. Cytopoint

A

d. Clemastine

**antihistamine

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30
Q

A 2 year old Golden retriever comes in presenting with pruritus and alopecia on on his elbows, ventral abdomen and around his eyes. Which of the following is the gold standard test for this dog to diagnose him?

a. Serum RAST test which detects high levels of serum IgG diagnosing flea allergy dermatitis
b. ELISA to detect high levels of IgE diagnosing food allergy
c. Intradermal allergen test which diagnosed him with atopic dermatitis
d. Intradermal allergen test dianogising him with food allergies

A

c. Intradermal allergen test which diagnosed him with atopic dermatitis

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31
Q

Which of the following is an anti-allergic and immunosuppressive that is very efefctive for atopy and better to give on an empty stomach?

a. Crisis buster
b. Cyclosporine A
c. Apoquel
d. Cytopoint
e. Oclacitinib

A

b. Cyclosporine A

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32
Q

A dog comes into your clinic and presents with generalized pruritis and alopecia. He appears very bloated and has some discomfort with abdominal palpation. He has been vomiting and had diarrhea the night before. What is at the top of your differential list?

a. Atopic dermatitis
b. Flea allergy dermatitis
c. Contact dermatitis
d. Food allergy dermatitis
e. None of the above

A

d. Food allergy dermatitis

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33
Q

Which of the following are cats more likely to show allergies to?

a. Corn
b. Rice
c. Chicken
d. Beef
e. Wheat

A

d. Beef

**along with dairy and fish products

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34
Q

60% of dogs are going to show allergies to all of the following except:

a. Lamb and soy
b. Dairy products
c. Wheat
d. Beef

A

a. Lamb and soy

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35
Q

True/False: The major allergens are water soluble glycoproteins and the most common antigen in dogs and cats is beef protein.

A

True

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36
Q

Normally the food allergen is prevented by passing through the intestinal wall/barrier by?

A

Innate immunity

IgA antibodies lining the mucous layer

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37
Q

Which of the following cells does not capture the antigens in a normal response to food antigens?

a. Macrophages
b. Dendritic cells
c. Neutrophils
d. M- cells
e. Enterocytes

A

c. Neutrophils

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38
Q

Th1 cells are activated by the ____ response and Th2 cells are activated by the ___ response.

A 
Th1  = cell mediated
Th2 = humoral
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39
Q

Which of the following is true regarding Type 4 HST?

a. Th2 cells produce IgE which bind to mast cells and release vasoactive amines
b. This is the most common type of hypersensitivity
c. Pruritis, hyperemia and angioedema are the most common clinical signs related to vasoactive amines
d. If its severe enough we can have a systemic reaction leading to respiratory distress
e. Th1 cells attract macrophages and result in a granulomatous reaction

A

e. Th1 cells attract macrophages and result in a granulomatous reaction

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40
Q

What is the order from most common to least common hypersensitivity skin disease?

a. Fleas, food, atopy
b. Atopy, fleas, food
c. Fleas, atopy, food
d, Food, atopy, fleas

A

c. Fleas, atopy, food

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41
Q

Which of the following is not a common clinical sign in a type 1 HST due to the vasoactive amines?

a. Pruritis
b. Hypertension
c. Hyperemia
d. Angioedema
e. GIT signs

A

b. Hypertension

**if severe it causes hypotension

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42
Q

True/False: Food allergies are nonseasonal but may be worse in the summer because of the humidity which cause seconday infections.

A

True

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43
Q

Which of the following is the correct order from most common to least common of hypersensitivity skin diseases in a dog <6 months?

a. Fleas, food, atopy
b. Atopy, fleas, food
c. Fleas, atopy, food
d, Food, atopy, fleas

A

a. Fleas, food, atopy

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44
Q

Which of the following is not a common location for localized lesions in dogs with food allergies?

a. Muzzle
b. Axillae
c. Pinnae
d. Distal limbs
e. Interdigital spaces of paws

A

c. Pinnae

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45
Q

What are the most common places to see localized lesions in cats with food allergies?

A

Head/face
Pinnae
Neck

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46
Q

What is the only way to diagnose a food allergy condition?

A

Positive response to an elimination diet

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47
Q

True/False: Intradermal skin testing can be used to diangose food allergies.

A

False

**very inaccurate

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48
Q

Which of the following is false regarding treatment of food allergies?

a. The best diet is a homemade novel diet free of additives
b. Low allergy commercial diets consist of novel proteins and a carbohydrate source
c. Tofu and borwn rice combo seem to be the least allergenic
d. Larger particles can’t bind to the respective IgE particle on mast cells which prevents degranulation

A

d. Larger particles can’t bind to the respective IgE particle on mast cells which prevents degranulation

**smaller particles

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49
Q

True/False: The smaller the particls for hydrolyzed protein diets the less antigenic they become.

A

True

50
Q

The size of the particle in a hydrolyzed protein diet should be less than ___ daltons.

A

<10,000

51
Q

What is added to hydrolyzed protein diet to make the food more palatable?

A

Fat

52
Q

What type of hypersensitivity reaction is contact dermatitis?

A

Type 4 HST

53
Q

True/False: Contact dermatits is easily treated with steroids.

A

False

**poorly steroid responsive

54
Q

Which of the following ectoparasites has a positive pinnal pedal reflex?

a. Demodex canis
b. Cheyletiella
c. Lice
d. Sarcoptes
e. Chiggers

A

d. Sarcoptes

55
Q

A 4 month old lab comes into your clinic with several well cricumscribed erythematous non-pruritic areas of alopecia on the face and forelimbs. Which of the following is at the top of your diagnosis list?

a. Localized demodex canis
b. Generalized demodex canis
c. Sarcoptes mange
d. Chiggers
e. Cheyletiella

A

a. Localized demodex canis

56
Q

Which of the following is zoonotic?

a. Demodex canis
b. Cheyletiella
c. Lice
d. Uncinaria
e. Chiggers

A

b. Cheyletiella

57
Q

Which of the following is false regarding sarcoptic mange?

a. Caused by sarcopes sabei var canis which is very contagious and zoonotic
b. Commonly affect the hocks, elbows, pinnal margins, ventral abdomen and chest
c. They don’t respond well to treatment
d. They’re easily found on superficial scrapes and fecal floats

A

d. They’re easily found on superficial scrapes and fecal floats

**hard to find on superficial scraping, take at least 6 superficial scrapes from different sites

58
Q

What are the two hookworms that commonly cause dermatitis?

A

Ancylostoma spp.

Uncinaria spp.

59
Q

True/False: Chiggers are hard to treat but easy to prevent.

A

False

**hard to prevent, easy to treat

60
Q

Is demodecosis diagnosed by a superficial or a deep skin scrape?

A

Deep skin scrape

61
Q

Which of the following is false regarding treatment of localized demodecosis?

a. Mild disase heals spontaneously within 6-8 weeks
b. Amitraz is recommended to use if treatment is deemed necessary
c. There is no evidence that treating a local infection prevents a generalized one
d. We want to do monthly follow ups to determine if there are signs of generalized demodex

A

b. Amitraz is recommended to use if treatment is deemed necessary

**no recommended because it encourages mite resistance

62
Q

Where does chiggers take residence in cats?

A

Inside the ears

63
Q

Which of the following causes parasitic folliculitis and is a normal inhabitant of the skin?

a. Demodex canis
b. Demodex cati
c. Sarcoptes
d. Chiggers

A

a. Demodex canis

64
Q

Which of the following look like paprika becuase of their red color?

a. Sarcoptes
b. Demodex
c. Cheyletiellosis
d. Lice
e. Chiggers

A

e. Chiggers

65
Q

Which of the following is true regarding generalized demodecosis?

a. Treatment is short term and not labor intesive for owners
b. There is no need to do follow up scrapes or keep count of the mites
c. 30-50% of dogs <1 year will heal spontaneously
d. We always want to manage superficial pyodermas aggressively

A

c. 30-50% of dogs <1 year will heal spontaneously

66
Q

What is the most widely acceptable treatment for a generalized demodecosis?

A

Amitraz (Triatix)

67
Q

True/False: We always want to avoid steroids when considering treatment for generalized demodex

A

True

68
Q

What would you use on a pyoderma with oily seborrhea or comedones?

A

Benzoyl peroxide

69
Q

Which of the following is true regarding Chlorhexidine?

a. Its a keratolytic agent that casues more drying
b. Its a degreasing agent that causes follicular flushing
c. Contains 1-5% antimicrobials
d. Used for dry seborrhea or normal skin/coat

A

d. Used for dry seborrhea or normal skin/coat

70
Q

What topical cream can be used against several bacteria including Pseudomonas?

A

Topical sulfonamide

71
Q

Which of the following is not a 1st tier for emperic therapy for pyodermas?

a. Cephalexin
b. Erythromycin
c. Amoxicillin
d. Clindamycin
e. Clauvulanic acid

A

b. Erythromycin

72
Q

Which of the following is true regarding Benzoyl peroxide?

a. Used with pyoderma with dry seborrhea or normal skin/coat
b. Used with pyodermas with oily seborrhea or comedones
c. Less drying agent
d. Doesn’t have any follicular flushing activity

A

b. Used with pyodermas with oily seborrhea or comedones

73
Q

How long beyong resolution are you supposed to treat a superficial and deep pyoderma for?

A

Superficial: 1 week beyond resolution
Deep: 2 weeks beyond resolution

74
Q

What is the most common bacteria found with superficial pyodermas?

A

Staph pseudintermedius

75
Q

What are the most common causes of folliculitis?

A

Bacteria
Demodex
Dermatophyte

76
Q

A dog comes in and presents to you with painful, erythematous crusts around the lips. You diagnose him with mucocutaneous pyoderma. Which of the following would be the most appropriate treatment for this dog?

a. Do nothing it will spontaneously go away
b. Clip and clean the area and apply Mupirocin (Bactroban)
c. It will resolve on its own but you can apply antibiotic cream to the area to help
d. Apply long term clindamycin to the affected area
e. Apply antibiotics for 21-28 days and continue to use 1 week after resolution

A

b. Clip and clean the area and apply Mupirocin (Bactroban)

77
Q

Pyotraumatic dermatitis (hotspots) is secondary to what underlying dermatitis?

a. Atopic dermatitis
b. Flea allergy dermatits
c. Contact dermatitis
d. Food allergy dermatits

A

b. Flea allergy dermatits

78
Q

A 4 month old puppy comes into the clinic underweight and full of internal parasites. He has vesicles and non follicular pustules on his belly. What is the most likely disease associated with these lesions and how can it be treated?

a. Impetigo treat with antibacterial shampoos and topical Abx washes/ creams
b. Intertrigo that can be treated with topical hygiene
c. Intertrigo that can be treated with antibacterial shampoos and topical Abx washes/creams
d. Impetigo that can be treated wtih topical hygiene

A

a. Impetigo treat with antibacterial shampoos and topical Abx washes/ creams

79
Q

How do you treat superficial pyoderma?

A

21-28 days of antibiotics that are continued 1 week past resolution

80
Q

A dog presents with excessive scaling and patchy focal areas of alopecia. Tiny pustules with the hair shaft protruding from the center are also noted. What is at the top of your diagnosis list?

a. Deep pyoderma
b. Superficial pyoderma
c. Impetigo
d. Intertrigo

A

b. Superficial pyoderma

81
Q

Which of the following would we see an infection followign trauma and penetrating wounds that takes a long time to from a draining tract?

a. Actinomyces
b. Nocardia
c. Malassezia
d. Mycobacterium

A

Actinomyces

82
Q

Which of the following is a rare gram positive filamentous aerobic bacteria?

a. Actinomyces
b. Nocardia
c. Malassezia
d. Mycobacterium

A

b. Nocardia

83
Q

Which of the following produces thick yellow foul smelling exudates with sulfphur granules?

a. Actinomyces
b. Nocardia
c. Malassezia
d. Mycobacterium

A

a. Actinomyces

84
Q

A german shephard comes into your clinic presenting with thin painful blacked skin. He has pustules and ulcers on his rump and thorax. Which of the following is at the top of your differnetial list?

a. Deep pyoderma
b. Superficial pyoderma
c. Impetigo
d. Intertrigo

A

a. Deep pyoderma

85
Q

A bulldog comes into your clinic and you noted that he was scratching his face a lot. When you went to examine his face you notice that his skin folds smelled really bad and were moist. Which of the following is at the top of you diagnosis list?

a. Deep pyoderma
b. Superficial pyoderma
c. Impetigo
d. Intertrigo

A

d. Intertrigo

86
Q

A bull terrier walks into your clinic with clusters of ulcers and necrohemorrhagic purulent abscesses on his hocks, elbows, and ventral abdomen. When you palpated his feet he welped with pain. Which of the following diseases do you think this bull terrier has?

a. Deep pyoderma
b. Superficial pyoderma
c. Impetigo
d. Intertrigo

A

a. Deep pyoderma

87
Q

Which of the following is not seen with intertrigo?

a. Shar pei with infection in their body folds
b. Spaniels with infection in their lips
c. Bulldogs with infection of the facial folds, tail and vulva
d. Boston terriers with infection in their tail and vulva

A

d. Boston terriers with infection in their tail and vulva

88
Q

What malassezia is assocaited with dogs and which is assocaited with cats?

A

Dogs- Malassezia pachydermatitis

Cats - M. Sympodialis and globosa

89
Q

Which of the following breeds have a predilection for malassezia dermatitis?

a. Golden retrievers
b. West highland white terriers
c. Dobermans
d. Laboradors
e. English bulldogs

A

b. West highland white terriers

90
Q

Which of the following is false regarding malassezia dermatits?

a. We want to make sure we check the ears and folds for infection
b. Ketoconazole can be used both topically and systemically
c. Topical treatments should be used 2-3 times a week
d. paronychia, pruritus, erythema and malodor are all common clinical signs
e. All the above are true

A

e. All the above are true

91
Q

Which of the following is not a common agent to cause dermatophytosis?

a. Microsporum canis
b. M. gypseum
c. M. pachydermatitis
d. Trichophyton metagraphytes

A

c. M. pachydermatitis

92
Q

All of the following are zoonotic except:

a. Sarcoptic mange
b. Cheyletiellosis
c. Demodex canis
d. Dermatophytosis

A

c. Demodex canis

93
Q

Which of the following are not systemic treatments used for dermatophytosis?

a. Griseofulvin
b. Clindamycin
c. Ketoconazole
d. Itraconazole

A

b. Clindamycin

94
Q

Which of the following would fluoresce with a wood’s lamp?

a. Demodex
b. Dermatophytosis
c. Malassezia
d. Impetigo

A

b. Dermatophytosis

95
Q

What are the most common skin conditions in cats?

A

Fleas and ringworm

96
Q

True/False: In cats we don’t often see any fleas due to grooming of the cat.

A

True

97
Q

What are the three presentations of eosinophilic granuloma complex?

A

Indolent ulcers
Eosinophilic plaques
Collagenolytic granuloma

98
Q

Which of the following is a non-painful and non-pruritic dish shaped ulcer located on the upper lip of cats?

a. Indolent ulcer
b. Eosinophilic pique
c. Collagenolytic granuloma
d. Atypical eosinophilic granuloma

A

a. Indolent ulcer

99
Q

Which of the followign is a non-painful and non-pruritic raised nodular firm yellow-pink lesion on the caudal hindlimbs or abdomen of cats?

a. Indolent ulcer
b. Eosinophilic pique
c. Collagenolytic granuloma
d. Atypical eosinophilic granuloma

A

c. Collagenolytic granuloma

100
Q

Which of the following causes hyperketatosis and ulceratoin of the paws and papular erosions and crusting over the bridge of the nose and ear pinna?

a. Indolent ulcer
b. Eosinophilic pique
c. Collagenolytic granuloma
d. Atypical eosinophilic granuloma

A

d. Atypical eosinophilic granuloma

101
Q

Which of the following causes non-painful and non-pruritic well circumscribed linear lesions on the chin?

a. Indolent ulcer
b. Eosinophilic pique
c. Collagenolytic granuloma
d. Atypical eosinophilic granuloma

A

c. Collagenolytic granuloma

102
Q

Which drugs can be used to treat eosinophilic granuloma complex (EGC)?

A

Prednisolone and Cyclosporine A

103
Q

Which of the following is a predisposing cause of otitis externa?

a. Solar dermatits
b. Yeast
c. Stenosis
d. Parasites
e. Food allergies

A

c. Stenosis

104
Q

What is the first line topical treatment of otitis externa?

A

Neomycin-polymixin

105
Q

Which of the following can be used for otitis externa cleaning if the pars tensa is intact?

a. Saline
b. Docusate sodium
c. Gentamycin
d. Baytril

A

b. Docusate sodium

106
Q

Which of the following is matched incorrectly regarding discharge color seen on otoscopic exam?

a. Coffee color: mites
b. Brown: Staph/yeast
c. Yellow: gram positive bacteria
d. Oily yellow tan: grandular disorder, HST reaction

A

c. Yellow: gram positive bacteria

**gram negative

107
Q

The major antigen in pemphigus foliaceus is ___ and the major antigen in pemphigus vulgaris is ____.

A

Foliaceus: Desmoglein 1
Vulgaris: Desmoglein 3

108
Q

What is the most common immune mediated condition seen in dogs that are <5 years of age and causes pustular dermatitis, nasal depigmentation and crusting aorund the face, ears, feet, pawpads and groin?

a. Pemphigus erythematous
b. Pemphigus foliaceus
c. Pemphigus vulgaris
d. Bullous pemphigoid

A

b. Pemphigus foliaceus

109
Q

Which of the following is the benign form of foliaceous commonly seen on the face and ears with oozing, crusts and scale as well as nose depigments?

a. Pemphigus erythematous
b. Pemphigus foliaceus
c. Pemphigus vulgaris
d. Bullous pemphigoid

A

a. Pemphigus erythematous

110
Q

Which of the following causes anorexia, fever and depression in a dog with erosive to ulcerative lesions in the oral cavity that causes halitosis and excessive salivation?

a. Pemphigus erythematous
b. Pemphigus foliaceus
c. Pemphigus vulgaris
d. Bullous pemphigoid

A

c. Pemphigus vulgaris

111
Q

Which of hte following requires high dose of oral pred and azathioprine (dogs) or chlorambucil (cats)?

a. Pemphigus erythematous
b. Pemphigus foliaceus
c. Pemphigus vulgaris
d. Bullous pemphigoid

A

c. Pemphigus vulgaris

112
Q

Which of the following does not predispose animals to bullous pemphigoid?

a. Cyclosporine A
b. Penicillin
c. Sulfonamides
d. Furosemide

A

a. Cyclosporine A

113
Q

True/False: Discoid lupus erythematosus is predominated by T cells and systemic lupus erythematosus is predominated by B cells

A

True

114
Q

Which of the following does not cause depigmentation of the nose?

a. Discoid lupus erythematosus
b. Systemic lupus erythematosus
c. Pemphigus erythematosus
d. Pemphigus foliaceus

A

b. Systemic lupus erythematosus

115
Q

Which of the following is assocaited with hydropic degeneration?

a. Erythema multiforme
b. Vasculitis
c. Discoid lupus
d. Pemphigus erythematosus

A

a. Erythema multiforme

116
Q

What do you use to treat vasculitis?

A

Pentoxifylline

117
Q

Which of the followign is false regarding fly bite dermatitis/ myiasis?

a. Mosquito bite causes a HST reaction in cats around the face leading to an eosinophilic granuloma complex
b. Cobylobia anthrophaga is attracted to the smell of urine and can cause a painful red nodule around the ears and lips
c. Biting flies cause mechanical injury around the ears and lips
d. Maggot infestations commonly affect the tail base and ventral abdomen

A

b. Cobylobia anthrophaga is attracted to the smell of urine and can cause a painful red nodule around the ears and lips

**affect the tail base and ventral abdomen

118
Q

Which of the following is not a breed associated with zinc responsive dermatosis?

a. Husky
b. Poodles
c. Malamute
d. Bull terriers

A

b. Poodles

119
Q

Which of the following commonly cause folllicular cats and partial alopecia on the ear margins of dachshunds?

a. Sebaceous adenines
b. Primary idiopathic seborrhea
c. Comedo syndrome
d. Ear margin dermatosis
e. Superficial necrolytic dermatitis

A

d. Ear margin dermatosis

120
Q

What is the most common nail disorder in cats?

A

Idiopathic lupoid onychodystrophy

RUSVM SAM II (4 decks)

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