Exam 2 module 3 part 5 Flashcards

Skin and Wound Healing Ch 32

1
Q

What is skin integrity?

A

The preservation of all layers of the skin being intact.

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2
Q

What is a wound?

A

A disruption in the normal skin integrity.

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3
Q

How are skin integrity and wounds related?

A

They are opposites.

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4
Q

What factors affect skin integrity?

A

Factors include age and mobility.

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5
Q

What is the epidermis?

A

The outer portion of the skin.

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6
Q

How many layers does the epidermis have?

A

Four or five layers.

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7
Q

What is the stratum corneum?

A

The outermost layer of the epidermis composed of dead cells.

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8
Q

What is the function of the stratum corneum?

A

It restricts water loss and prevents fluids, pathogens, and chemicals from entering the body.

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9
Q

What is the stratum germinativum?

A

The innermost layer of the epidermis that produces new cells.

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10
Q

What are keratinocytes?

A

Protein-containing cells in the dermis that provide strength and elasticity to the skin.

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11
Q

What do melanocytes produce?

A

Melanin, a pigment that gives skin its color.

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12
Q

What is the function of Langerhans cells?

A

To phagocytize foreign material and trigger an immune response.

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13
Q

Where is the dermis located?

A

Below the epidermis and above the subcutaneous tissue.

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14
Q

What type of tissue is the dermis made of?

A

Irregular fibrous connective tissue.

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15
Q

What structures are found within the dermis?

A
  • Sweat glands
  • Sebaceous (oil) glands
  • Ceruminous (wax) glands
  • Hair and nail follicles
  • Sensory receptors
  • Elastin
  • Collagen
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16
Q

What is the subcutaneous tissue composed of?

A

Connective and adipose tissue.

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17
Q

What are the functions of the subcutaneous layer?

A
  • Provides insulation
  • Offers protection
  • Serves as a reserve of calories
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18
Q

What influences the distribution of subcutaneous tissue?

A
  • Sex hormones
  • Genetics
  • Age
  • Nutrition
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19
Q

True or False: Age does not affect skin integrity.

A

False

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20
Q

Fill in the blank: The _______ is the outermost layer of the epidermis.

A

stratum corneum

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21
Q

Fill in the blank: The _______ layer is composed primarily of connective and adipose tissue.

A

subcutaneous

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22
Q

What is vernix caseosa?

A

A creamy substance that protects an infant’s skin

Vernix caseosa varies in amount at birth

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23
Q

How does an infant’s skin differ from an adult’s skin?

A

Thinner and more permeable

This predisposes infants to skin breakdown, such as diaper rash

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24
Q

What developmental aspect of infants affects thermoregulation?

A

Underdeveloped subcutaneous layer and sweat glands

Infants must be swaddled to maintain body heat

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25
What happens to the skin texture of children as they age?
Becomes coarser due to exposure to sun and environmental elements ## Footnote Infants and young children initially have smooth skin
26
What hormonal changes occur during adolescence that affect skin?
Increased sex hormones lead to sebaceous and sweat gland activity ## Footnote This can result in perspiration, odor, and acne
27
What skin changes may occur in women due to high estrogen levels?
Softening of connective tissue, striae, and darkening of the skin ## Footnote Commonly seen on the face, areolae, nipples, vulva, and umbilicus
28
What skin condition affects up to 85% of older adults?
Xerosis ## Footnote Characterized by itchy, red, dry, scaly, cracked, or fissured skin
29
What happens to the dermal layer of older adults' skin?
Loses elasticity due to collagen changes ## Footnote This increases the risk of skin breakdown and prolongs wound healing
30
How does aging affect wound healing in older adults compared to young adults?
Regeneration of healthy skin and healing is significantly slower ## Footnote Chronic diseases in older adults can further interfere with healing
31
What are some chronic diseases that can interfere with skin healing?
* Diabetes * Liver dysfunction ## Footnote These conditions can predispose to infections and affect blood-clotting factor synthesis
32
What is a key risk factor for immobility-related pressure injury?
Inability to move independently or lack of sensation ## Footnote Pressure from the body weight can lead to skin tissue injury
33
List some conditions that increase the risk for immobility-related pressure injury.
* Paralysis * Extreme fatigue * High-risk pregnancy * Sedation * Casts * Traction * Altered sensory perception ## Footnote These conditions can prevent movement and increase pressure on the skin
34
What does skin condition reflect?
A person’s overall nutritional status ## Footnote Nutritional intake affects the skin.
35
What is essential to maintaining skin integrity?
Adequate intake of protein, cholesterol, calories, fluid, vitamin C, and minerals ## Footnote These nutrients contribute to skin health.
36
Why is protein important for the skin?
It maintains the skin, repairs minor defects, and preserves intravascular volume ## Footnote Adequate protein levels are critical for skin health.
37
What happens when protein levels decline?
* Skin injury is slow to heal * Minor defects cannot be repaired * Edema develops ## Footnote Fluid leaks from the vascular compartment of dependent areas.
38
How does edema affect the skin?
* Decreases skin elasticity * Interferes with oxygen diffusion * Prone to breakdown ## Footnote Edema is excess fluid in the tissues.
39
What is the consequence of low cholesterol levels?
Predisposes patients to skin breakdown and inhibits wound healing ## Footnote Low-fat tube feedings may lead to deficiencies.
40
What role do fats play in wound healing?
Provide fuel for wound healing and maintain a waterproof barrier in the stratum corneum ## Footnote Cholesterol, fatty acids, and linoleic acid are important.
41
What happens with inadequate calorie intake?
The body uses proteins for energy, making them unavailable for building and maintenance functions ## Footnote This leads to catabolism.
42
What are the effects of prolonged malnutrition?
* Weight loss * Loss of subcutaneous tissue * Muscle atrophy * Decreased padding between skin and bones ## Footnote This predisposes skin to pressure injuries.
43
Which nutrients are involved in collagen formation and maintenance?
* Vitamin C (ascorbic acid) * Zinc * Copper ## Footnote A deficiency can delay wound healing.
44
What can poor skin turgor indicate?
Dehydration ## Footnote Skin turgor reflects the hydration status of the skin.
45
What does edema result from?
Overhydration ## Footnote Both dehydrated and edematous skin are prone to injury.
46
What conditions make skin more prone to injury?
* Pressure * Shearing * Friction * Moisture ## Footnote Both dry and overhydrated skin are at risk.
47
What condition developed on the patient's bony prominences?
Pressure injury
48
What are the contributing factors for the development of pressure injury?
Immobility, friction, shear, postoperative drainage
49
What is the population targeted in the PICOT framework?
Malnourished adults
50
What is the intervention in the PICOT framework?
Nutritional supplements
51
What is the comparator in the PICOT framework?
Diet without supplements
52
What is the expected outcome of the intervention in the PICOT framework?
Improved (or faster) healing time
53
Fill in the blank: The PICOT framework includes Population, Intervention, Comparator, Outcome, and _______.
Time
54
What is diminished tactile sensation?
A reduced ability to sense touch, heat, and pressure in affected areas ## Footnote Patients with conditions like peripheral vascular disease, spinal cord injury, diabetes, cerebrovascular accident, trauma, or fractures often experience diminished tactile sensation.
55
What are the risks associated with diminished sensation?
Increased risk of skin breakdown, burns, unnoticed cuts or wounds, and inability to feel pressure ## Footnote Patients may not shift position to relieve pressure or notice constricting footwear or clothing.
56
How does impaired cognition affect pressure injury risk?
Increased risk due to lack of awareness of the need to reposition ## Footnote Conditions such as Alzheimer disease and dementia can lead to cognitive impairment.
57
What is impaired arterial circulation?
Restriction of activity, production of pain, and muscle atrophy due to reduced blood flow ## Footnote Impaired arterial circulation can result in thin tissue that may lead to tissue death.
58
What is impaired venous circulation?
Engorged tissues with high levels of metabolic waste, leading to edema, ulceration, and breakdown ## Footnote This occurs when blood flow back to the heart is inadequate.
59
What is the main cause of chronic wounds?
Circulatory impairment ## Footnote Both arterial and venous circulation issues interfere with tissue metabolism and delay wound healing.
60
Fill in the blank: Patients with diminished sensation are less able to sense a _______.
hot surface
61
True or False: Cognitive impairment can be easily recognized in patients.
False
62
What should caregivers do to help manage patients with impaired cognition?
Talk to families or caregivers and review the patient's health history ## Footnote This helps adjust the plan of care.
63
List some conditions that can lead to diminished tactile sensation.
* Peripheral vascular disease * Spinal cord injury * Diabetes * Cerebrovascular accident * Trauma * Fractures
64
What happens to tissue due to impaired venous circulation?
Tissue becomes engorged, susceptible to edema, ulceration, and breakdown
65
What are some effects of medications on skin integrity?
Medications can cause pruritus, dermatoses, photosensitivity, alopecia, or pigmentation changes ## Footnote These effects can impair skin integrity or delay healing.
66
How do blood pressure medications affect blood flow?
They decrease the amount of pressure required to occlude blood flow, creating a risk for ischemia ## Footnote Ischemia is insufficient blood supply to tissues.
67
What is the impact of anti-inflammatory medications on wound healing?
They inhibit wound healing ## Footnote Examples include over-the-counter NSAIDs and steroids like prednisone.
68
What is the effect of anticoagulants on tissue injury?
They can lead to extravasation of blood into subcutaneous tissue, causing hematomas ## Footnote Anticoagulants include heparin and warfarin.
69
Which class of medications delays wound healing due to toxicity?
Chemotherapeutic agents ## Footnote Methotrexate is an example.
70
What types of medications can increase sensitivity to sunlight?
Certain antibiotics, psychotherapeutic drugs, and chemotherapy agents ## Footnote This increases the risk for sunburn.
71
What severe skin condition can be triggered by certain antibiotics and psychotherapeutic drugs?
Stevens-Johnson syndrome ## Footnote This condition is characterized by severe rash and skin peeling.
72
Fill in the blank: Several herbal products, such as those containing lavender and tea tree oil, _______ but dry out the skin.
cleanse ## Footnote These products can cleanse the skin while also leading to dryness.
73
What is the effect of excessive exposure to moisture on the skin?
Leads to maceration and increases the likelihood of skin breakdown ## Footnote Maceration refers to the softening of the skin due to prolonged moisture exposure.
74
What are the most common sources of moisture that lead to skin damage?
Incontinence and fever ## Footnote Bowel incontinence is particularly troublesome due to the presence of digestive enzymes and microorganisms.
75
What is the consequence of bowel incontinence on the skin?
Can lead to excoriation, moisture-associated skin damage, dermatitis, pressure injury, and infection ## Footnote Excoriation refers to the denuding of superficial skin layers.
76
How does fever contribute to skin issues?
Leads to sweating and increases metabolic rate, raising tissue demand for oxygen ## Footnote Increased oxygen demand is especially problematic with circulatory impairment or pressure-induced tissue compression.
77
What does contamination of a wound refer to?
Presence of microorganisms in the wound ## Footnote All chronic wounds are considered contaminated.
78
What is colonization in the context of wound care?
Microorganisms increase in number but cause no harm ## Footnote Colonization can occur from surrounding skin, the external environment, and internal sources like the GI system.
79
What is critical colonization?
When bacteria begin to overwhelm the body’s defenses ## Footnote Signs include increased drainage, foul odor, color change of the wound bed, new tunneling, or absent/friable granulation tissue.
80
What does infection imply in wound care?
Microorganisms are causing harm by releasing toxins, invading tissues, and increasing metabolic demand ## Footnote Infection makes the skin more vulnerable to breakdown and impedes healing.
81
True or False: Infection in the skin can allow bacteria to access systemic circulation.
True ## Footnote If not controlled, bacteria can enter the bloodstream.
82
What risks are associated with tanning?
Increases the risk for skin cancer and drying the skin ## Footnote Tanning exposes the skin to ultraviolet radiation.
83
How can excessive skin cleansing affect the skin?
May impair skin integrity and lead to drying ## Footnote Frequent bathing and use of soap remove skin oils.
84
What are the consequences of insufficient skin cleansing?
Contributes to excessive oiliness, clogged sebaceous glands, and inadequate removal of microbes ## Footnote This can lead to infections on wounds or lesions.
85
How does regular exercise benefit the skin?
Improves circulation, necessary for skin integrity and wound healing ## Footnote Circulation is vital for delivering nutrients and oxygen to skin tissues.
86
What role does a nutritious diet play in skin health?
Provides nutrients needed to maintain skin integrity ## Footnote Nutrients are essential for skin repair and health.
87
How does smoking affect the skin?
Compromises oxygen supply, delays wound healing, and interferes with vitamin C absorption ## Footnote Vitamin C is necessary for collagen formation.
88
What risks do body piercings and tattoos pose?
Risk for infection and scarring ## Footnote Common complications include local inflammation, allergic reactions, and skin infections.
89
What are the common bacterial infections associated with body piercings?
Staphylococcus and Pseudomonas strains ## Footnote These bacteria are often found at or near the site of body piercings.
90
What systemic infection can result from unsterile tattooing conditions?
Hepatitis C ## Footnote Unsterile conditions can lead to serious infections.
91
What complications can arise from oral piercings?
Gingivitis, damage to teeth and gums, choking, difficulty eating, and changes in speech ## Footnote Oral piercings can lead to various oral health issues.
92
What can prolonged bleeding during tongue piercing indicate?
A punctured blood vessel ## Footnote Prolonged bleeding can be a serious complication.
93
What should patients do before getting a tattoo or piercing?
Become informed about the procedure and aftercare, and find reputable tattoo artists/piercers ## Footnote Knowledge and safety are key to minimizing risks.
94
What is a wound?
A disruption in the normal integrity of the skin ## Footnote Wounds may be intentional (surgical) or unintentional (cuts, pressure injuries)
95
How are wounds classified?
According to length of time and condition of the wound ## Footnote Factors include contamination and severity
96
What defines a closed wound?
No breaks in the skin ## Footnote Examples include contusions and tissue swelling from fractures
97
What is an open wound?
A break in the skin or mucous membranes ## Footnote Includes abrasions, lacerations, puncture wounds, and surgical incisions
98
What is a compound fracture?
A fracture that leads to an open wound caused by the projection of bone through the skin ## Footnote This type of injury can create significant complications
99
What are acute wounds?
Wounds expected to be of short duration that heal spontaneously ## Footnote They go through three phases: inflammation, proliferation, and maturation
100
What characterizes chronic wounds?
Wounds that exceed the expected length of recovery due to interrupted healing ## Footnote Examples include pressure injuries and diabetic ulcers
101
List factors that can stall the healing of chronic wounds.
* Infection * Continued trauma * Ischemia * Edema ## Footnote These factors can lead to prolonged recovery times
102
What are clean wounds?
Uninfected wounds with minimal inflammation ## Footnote They may be open or closed and do not involve certain tracts that harbor microorganisms
103
True or False: Clean wounds involve the gastrointestinal, respiratory, or genitourinary tracts.
False ## Footnote Clean wounds do not involve these systems, which frequently harbor microorganisms
104
Fill in the blank: Chronic wounds may linger for _______ or even years.
months ## Footnote Unless properly diagnosed and treated, chronic wounds can persist for long durations
105
What is an abrasion?
A scrape of the superficial layers of the skin; usually unintentional but may be performed intentionally for cosmetic purposes to smooth skin surfaces. ## Footnote Also see excoriation.
106
Define abscess.
A localized collection of pus resulting from invasion from a pyogenic bacterium or other pathogen; must be opened and drained to heal.
107
What is a contusion?
A closed wound caused by blunt trauma; may be referred to as a bruise or an ecchymosis.
108
Describe a crushing wound.
A wound caused by force leading to compression or disruption of tissues, often associated with fracture; usually minimal or no break in the skin.
109
What is an excoriation?
A superficial wound, usually self-inflicted due to excessive scratching or mechanical force.
110
What characterizes an incision?
An open, intentional wound caused by a sharp instrument.
111
Define laceration.
The skin or mucous membranes are torn open, resulting in a wound with jagged margins.
112
What is a penetrating wound?
An open wound in which the agent causing the wound lodges in body tissue.
113
Describe a puncture wound.
An open wound caused by a sharp object; often there is collapse of tissue around the entry point, making this wound prone to infection.
114
What is a tunnel wound?
A wound with entrance and exit sites.
115
What are clean-contaminated wounds?
Surgical incisions that enter the GI, respiratory, or genitourinary tracts with increased risk of infection but no obvious infection. ## Footnote These wounds are at risk due to their nature of entering areas that are normally not sterile.
116
What characterizes contaminated wounds?
Open, traumatic wounds or surgical incisions with a major break in asepsis and high risk of infection. ## Footnote Contaminated wounds often involve exposure to pathogens.
117
Define infected wounds.
Wounds with bacteria above 100,000 organisms per gram of tissue. ## Footnote Presence of beta-hemolytic streptococci in any number is also considered an infection.
118
List signs of wound infection.
* Erythema and swelling around the wound * Fever * Foul odor * Severe or increasing pain * Large amount of drainage * Warmth of the surrounding soft tissue ## Footnote These signs indicate potential complications in wound healing.
119
What is a major determinant of wound healing time?
Depth of the wound and location. ## Footnote Deeper wounds take longer to heal, and wounds in areas of pressure or movement heal slower.
120
How does circulation affect wound healing?
Wound healing is more difficult in areas of poor circulation, such as the feet in those with diabetes or congestive heart failure. ## Footnote Adequate blood flow is essential for healing.
121
What are superficial wounds?
Wounds that involve only the epidermal layer of the skin, usually due to friction, shearing, or burning. ## Footnote These wounds typically heal faster than deeper wounds.
122
Describe partial-thickness wounds.
Wounds that extend through the epidermis but not through the dermis. ## Footnote These wounds can be more complex than superficial wounds.
123
What are full-thickness wounds?
Wounds that extend into the subcutaneous tissue and beyond. ## Footnote The term 'penetrating' may be added if internal organs are involved.
124
What types of cells are involved in the wound healing process?
Epithelial cells, endothelial cells, inflammatory cells, platelets, fibroblasts ## Footnote Fibroblasts are cells in connective tissue that produce fibrin.
125
What is the primary function of fibroblasts in wound healing?
To produce fibrin ## Footnote Fibrin is essential for tissue repair and regeneration.
126
Does the wound healing process differ based on the type of injury or tissues involved?
No, the process is essentially the same regardless of the type of injury or tissues involved.
127
Fill in the blank: The wound healing process involves the migration of _______ into the wound.
cells
128
True or False: Wound healing is a uniform process across different types of injuries.
True
129
What is the role of platelets in the wound healing process?
To assist in tissue repair and regeneration
130
List the main cell types involved in the wound healing process.
* Epithelial cells * Endothelial cells * Inflammatory cells * Platelets * Fibroblasts
131
What do epithelial and endothelial cells contribute to during wound healing?
Tissue repair and regeneration
132
What is the primary cause of pressure injuries?
Pressure, shear, and friction resulting in tissue ischemia and injury ## Footnote Pressure injuries are often located over bony prominences and can lead to serious tissue damage.
133
What are the common characteristics of arterial ulcers?
Located over lower leg, especially ankles, toes, side of foot, and shin; appears 'punched out', small and round with smooth borders; wound base usually pale; shiny, thin, dry surrounding skin; cool to touch; loss of hair in surrounding area; delayed capillary refill time; very painful, especially at night and with increased activity ## Footnote Arterial ulcers are caused by inadequate circulation of oxygenated blood to the tissue.
134
Where are venous stasis ulcers typically located?
Around the inner ankle or in the lower part of the calf ## Footnote Venous stasis ulcers are caused by incompetent venous valves, deep vein obstruction, or inadequate calf.
135
What is a distinctive feature of the surrounding skin of arterial ulcers?
Shiny, thin, and dry; cool to touch ## Footnote This characteristic is due to inadequate blood flow and oxygenation.
136
True or False: The appearance of pressure injuries is uniform regardless of the stage.
False ## Footnote The appearance of pressure injuries varies depending on the stage or tissue layers involved.
137
Fill in the blank: Arterial ulcers are very painful, especially at _______ and with increased activity.
night
138
What are the common symptoms of venous stasis ulcers?
Reddened or brown surrounding skin; edematous ## Footnote These symptoms are due to fluid accumulation and poor circulation.
139
What is the wound base appearance of arterial ulcers?
Usually pale with or without necrotic tissue ## Footnote Necrotic tissue may be present if the ulcer is severe.
140
What causes arterial ulcers?
Inadequate circulation of oxygenated blood to the tissue ## Footnote This leads to tissue ischemia and subsequent damage.
141
What type of injury is characterized by tissue ischemia and injury due to pressure, shear, and friction?
Pressure injury
142
What causes venous stasis ulcers?
Incompetent venous valves, deep vein obstruction, or inadequate calf muscle function
143
Where are venous stasis ulcers usually located?
Around the inner ankle or in the lower part of the calf
144
What are the characteristics of the surrounding skin of venous stasis ulcers?
Reddened or brown and edematous
145
Describe the wound characteristics of venous stasis ulcers.
Usually shallow, with irregular wound margins
146
What does the wound bed of a venous stasis ulcer appear like?
Ruddy or beefy red and granular
147
What is the typical drainage level of venous stasis ulcers?
Moderate to heavy depending on the amount of edema
148
When does pain usually occur in patients with venous stasis ulcers?
With leg dependence and dressing changes
149
What causes a diabetic foot ulcer?
Narrowing of the arteries leading to reduced oxygenation to the feet ## Footnote This results in delayed wound healing and tissue necrosis.
150
What are common symptoms of a diabetic foot ulcer?
Often painless; may include drainage, swelling, redness, and ulceration ## Footnote Symptoms may vary but often include visible signs of ulceration.
151
Where do diabetic foot ulcers mainly occur?
On the plantar surfaces and toes (balls of the foot or underside of the toes) ## Footnote These areas are prone to pressure and injury.
152
True or False: Diabetic foot ulcers are highly susceptible to wound infection.
True ## Footnote This susceptibility is due to poor sensation, circulation, and immune protection.
153
Fill in the blank: Diabetic foot ulcers result in _______ due to poor sensation.
[wound infection] ## Footnote Poor sensation contributes to the inability to detect injuries.
154
What are the types of healing wounds may undergo?
Regeneration, primary intention, secondary intention, tertiary intention
155
What characterizes regenerative or epithelial healing?
Occurs when a wound affects only the epidermis and dermis; no scar forms; new epithelial and dermal cells form skin indistinguishable from intact skin ## Footnote Partial-thickness wounds heal by regeneration
156
Define primary intention healing.
Healing occurs with minimal or no tissue loss and well approximated edges; little scarring expected ## Footnote A clean surgical incision is an example of primary intention healing
157
What is the strength of a scar formed by primary intention healing compared to original tissue?
80% as strong
158
Fill in the blank: A clean surgical incision heals by _______.
primary intention
159
What is secondary intention healing?
Healing that occurs when a wound involves extensive tissue loss or should not be closed.
160
What prevents wound edges from approximating in secondary intention healing?
Extensive tissue loss.
161
When should a wound not be closed?
When there is an infection.
162
How does a wound heal in secondary intention?
It heals from the inner layer to the surface by filling in with granulation tissue.
163
What is granulation tissue?
A form of connective tissue with an abundant blood supply.
164
What appearance may healing epithelial tissue have in a wound?
Small pink or pearl-like areas.
165
True or False: Wounds that heal by secondary intention heal more quickly.
False.
166
What are the risks associated with wounds healing by secondary intention?
More prone to infection and develop more scar tissue.
167
Fill in the blank: Wounds that heal by secondary intention heal _______.
more slowly.
168
What is tertiary intention healing also known as?
Delayed primary closure ## Footnote Tertiary intention healing is a surgical technique used in wound management.
169
What occurs during tertiary intention healing?
Two surfaces of granulation tissue are brought together ## Footnote This technique is applied after a period of healing by secondary intention.
170
When is tertiary intention healing used?
When the wound is clean-contaminated or contaminated ## Footnote This approach is taken after initial healing by secondary intention.
171
What happens to the wound initially in tertiary intention healing?
It is allowed to heal by secondary intention ## Footnote This phase is crucial before assessing for closure.
172
What conditions must be met before closing a wound in tertiary intention healing?
No evidence of edema, infection, or foreign matter ## Footnote Ensuring these conditions helps reduce the risk of complications.
173
What technique is required during dressing changes for wounds healing by tertiary intention?
Strict aseptic technique ## Footnote This is necessary because these wounds are prone to infection.
174
How does scarring from tertiary intention healing compare to other healing types?
Less scarring than secondary but more than primary intention healing ## Footnote Understanding scarring outcomes is important for patient expectations.
175
What are the three stages of wound healing?
Inflammatory, proliferative, maturation
176
How long does the inflammatory phase last?
1 to 5 days
177
What are the two major processes in the inflammatory phase?
Hemostasis, inflammation
178
What happens during hemostasis?
Blood and plasma leak into the wound, vessels constrict, platelets aggregate, and a blood clot forms
179
What characterizes the inflammatory reaction?
Edema, erythema, pain, temperature elevation, migration of white blood cells
180
What role do macrophages play in the inflammatory phase?
Engulf bacteria (phagocytosis) and clear debris
181
What forms a scab on the wound surface?
Plasma proteins, fibrin, and debris
182
What is the main purpose of the scab?
Seals the wound and helps prevent microbial invasion
183
Fill in the blank: The inflammatory phase consists of _______ and inflammation.
[Hemostasis]
184
What is the Proliferative Phase in wound healing?
Occurs from days 5 to 21, where cells fill the wound defect and resurface the skin. ## Footnote This phase involves key processes like fibroblast migration and collagen formation.
185
What role do fibroblasts play in the Proliferative Phase?
Fibroblasts migrate to the wound and form collagen, adding strength to the healing wound. ## Footnote Fibroblasts are a type of connective tissue cell.
186
What is granulation tissue?
A tissue that forms during the Proliferative Phase, characterized by its ability to bleed readily and be easily damaged. ## Footnote Granulation tissue is vital for wound healing.
187
What process occurs as the clot or scab is dissolved?
Epithelial cells begin to grow into the wound from surrounding healthy tissue, sealing over the wound (epithelialization). ## Footnote Epithelialization is crucial for restoring skin integrity.
188
When does the Maturation Phase of wound healing begin?
It begins in the second or third week and continues even after the wound has closed. ## Footnote This phase is also known as remodeling.
189
What happens to collagen fibers during the Maturation Phase?
Initial collagen fibers are broken down and remodeled into an organized structure, such as scar tissue. ## Footnote This remodeling increases the tensile strength of the wound.
190
How long does the Maturation Phase last?
It lasts for 3 to 6 months after the wound has closed. ## Footnote This phase is important for the final strength of the healed tissue.
191
What are the two types of wound healing that may involve closure methods?
Primary and tertiary intention ## Footnote Wound healing by primary intention involves direct closure, while tertiary intention involves delayed closure.
192
What are adhesive strips used for in wound closure?
They are used for: * Closing superficial low-tension wounds * Closing the skin on wounds closed subcutaneously * Providing additional support after sutures or staples have been removed ## Footnote An example of adhesive strips is Steri-Strips.
193
Fill in the blank: Adhesive strips are used to close _______ wounds.
superficial low-tension
194
True or False: Adhesive strips can only be used on wounds that have not been sutured.
False ## Footnote Adhesive strips can also be used after sutures or staples have been removed.
195
What is one benefit of using adhesive strips on wounds that have been closed subcutaneously?
Aiding in healing and reducing scarring
196
What are adhesive strips used for?
Adhesive strips are often kept in place until they begin to separate from the skin on their own.
197
What is the traditional method for wound closure?
Sutures (stitches)
198
What do sutures create along the laceration or incision?
Small puncture wounds
199
What are the two types of sutures based on absorbency?
* Absorbent sutures * Nonabsorbent sutures
200
Where are absorbent sutures typically used?
Deep in the tissues, such as to close an organ or anastomose tissue.
201
What is a characteristic of absorbent sutures?
They gradually dissolve and do not need to be removed.
202
Where are nonabsorbent sutures placed?
In superficial tissues
203
What is required for nonabsorbent sutures after placement?
Removal, usually by the nurse.
204
Fill in the blank: Suturing creates ______ along the track of the laceration or incision.
small puncture wounds
205
True or False: Nonabsorbent sutures are made of material that dissolves.
False
206
What material are surgical staples made of?
Lightweight titanium
207
What is one advantage of using surgical staples over sutures?
Lower risk of infection and tissue reaction
208
What is a downside of using surgical staples?
Some wound edges are more difficult to align
209
What are the most common sites for wound stapling?
* Arms * Legs * Abdomen * Back * Scalp * Bowel
210
True or False: Wounds on the hands, feet, neck, or face should be stapled.
False
211
What type of wounds is surgical glue safe for?
Clean, low-tension wounds
212
What is an ideal use of surgical glue?
Wound closure method for skin tears
213
What are collaborative treatments necessary for?
Wounds that will not heal despite aggressive care
214
Name three surgical options used for complicated wounds.
* Extensive débridement * Skin grafts * Flap techniques
215
What is hyperbaric oxygen therapy (HBOT)?
Administration of 100% oxygen under pressure to a wound site
216
What are the effects of hyperbaric oxygen therapy (HBOT) on wound healing?
* Increases oxygen concentration in tissue * Stimulates growth of new blood vessels * Enhances WBC action * Promotes development of fibroblasts
217
What does platelet-derived growth factor do in wound healing?
Augments the inflammatory phase and accelerates collagen formation
218
Fill in the blank: HBOT enhances _______ action in wound healing.
WBC
219
True or False: Flap techniques involve completely detaching tissue.
False
220
What is drainage that oozes from a wound or cavity called?
Exudate ## Footnote Exudate is composed of serum, fibrin, and leukocytes.
221
What is serous exudate and what does it consist of?
Watery in consistency and contains very little cellular matter; consists of serum ## Footnote Serum is the straw-colored fluid that separates out of blood when a clot is formed.
222
What type of exudate indicates damage to capillaries and is often seen with deep wounds?
Sanguineous exudate ## Footnote Fresh bleeding produces bright red drainage, while older, dried blood appears darker.
223
What is serosanguineous drainage?
A combination of bloody and serous drainage ## Footnote It is most commonly seen in new wounds.
224
What characterizes purulent exudate?
Thick, often malodorous drainage seen in infected wounds ## Footnote It contains pus, which is a protein-rich fluid filled with WBCs, bacteria, and cellular debris.
225
What type of bacteria commonly causes purulent exudate?
Pyogenic bacteria ## Footnote Examples include streptococci and staphylococci.
226
What color is pus typically, and what can change its color?
Normally yellow; can turn blue-green due to Pseudomonas aeruginosa ## Footnote Presence of this bacterium can cause a change in color.
227
What does purosanguineous exudate indicate?
Red-tinged pus ## Footnote It indicates that small vessels in the wound area have ruptured.
228
What are the phases of wound healing?
Inflammation, proliferation, maturation
229
What complications can interrupt the wound healing process?
* Hemorrhage * Infection * Dehiscence * Evisceration * Fistulas
230
What does hemorrhage imply?
Profuse or rapid loss of blood
231
What happens when a capillary network is interrupted?
Bleeding occurs
232
What is hemostasis?
Cessation of bleeding
233
How quickly does hemostasis usually occur after an injury?
Within minutes
234
What can delay hemostasis?
* Injury to large vessels * Clotting disorder * Anticoagulant therapy
235
What might indicate a problem if bleeding resumes after initial hemostasis?
* Slipped suture * Erosion of a blood vessel * Dislodged clot * Infection
236
When is the risk of hemorrhage greatest following surgery or injury?
In the first 24 to 48 hours
237
What are the indicators of internal bleeding?
Swelling of the affected body part, pain, and changes in vital signs (decreased blood pressure, elevated pulse) ## Footnote Internal bleeding refers to bleeding that cannot escape to the surface, leading to a hematoma.
238
What is a hematoma?
A red-blue collection of blood under the skin that forms due to bleeding that cannot escape to the surface ## Footnote A large hematoma can cause pressure on surrounding tissues.
239
How does a large hematoma affect surrounding tissues?
It causes pressure on surrounding tissues ## Footnote If located near a major artery or vein, it may impede blood flow.
240
What characterizes external hemorrhage?
Bloody drainage on dressings and in wound drainage devices ## Footnote External hemorrhage is relatively easy to recognize.
241
What happens during a brisk external hemorrhage?
Blood often pools underneath the patient as dressings become saturated ## Footnote It is important to look underneath the patient to assess the full extent of the bleeding.
242
How can microorganisms be introduced to a wound?
During an injury, during surgery, or after surgery ## Footnote It is important to maintain sterile techniques during surgical procedures to minimize this risk.
243
What is a key indicator to suspect an infection in a wound?
A wound fails to heal ## Footnote This can be a critical sign that the body is unable to recover from the injury due to infection.
244
List symptoms suggesting infection in a wound.
* Localized swelling * Redness * Heat * Pain * Fever (temperatures higher than 38°C [100.4°F]) * Foul-smelling or purulent drainage * A change in the color of drainage ## Footnote These symptoms can help healthcare providers assess the presence of an infection.
245
When do symptoms of infection typically occur in a contaminated or traumatic wound?
Within 2 to 3 days ## Footnote Early detection of these symptoms is crucial for effective treatment.
246
When do signs and symptoms of infection usually appear in a clean surgical wound?
Usually not until the fourth or fifth postoperative day ## Footnote Understanding the timeline of infection symptoms can aid in monitoring postoperative recovery.
247
What is dehiscence?
Rupture (separation) of one or more layers of a wound
248
When is wound dehiscence most likely to occur?
During the inflammatory phase of healing
249
What increases the risk of dehiscence after surgery?
Incisions that begin draining within 5 to 7 days
250
What are common causes of wound dehiscence? List at least three.
* Poor nutritional status * Inadequate closure of the muscles * Wound infection * Increased tension on the suture line * Obesity
251
Why are obese patients more likely to experience dehiscence?
Fatty tissue does not heal readily and increased tissue mass puts strain on the suture line
252
Which type of wounds are usually associated with dehiscence?
Abdominal wounds
253
What might patients report feeling during dehiscence?
A 'pop' or tear
254
What is a common nursing intervention for dehiscence?
Maintaining bedrest with the head of the bed elevated at 20° and the knees flexed
255
What should be done if dehiscence occurs?
Notify the provider of the dehiscence immediately
256
Fill in the blank: An immediate increase in _______ drainage often occurs with dehiscence.
serosanguineous
257
True or False: Wound infection is a common cause of wound dehiscence.
True
258
What activities can increase tension on the suture line, contributing to dehiscence?
* Coughing * Lifting an object * Sudden straining
259
What nursing intervention might be applied to prevent evisceration in cases of dehiscence?
Applying a binder, if necessary ## Footnote but if evisceration occurs DO NOT put a binder on a patient.
260
What is evisceration?
Total separation of the layers of a wound with internal viscera protruding through the incision ## Footnote Evisceration is considered a surgical emergency.
261
What should be done immediately in cases of evisceration?
Cover the wound with sterile towels or dressings soaked in sterile saline solution ## Footnote This prevents the organs from drying out and becoming contaminated with environmental bacteria.
262
What is dehiscence?
Separation of one or more layers of a wound ## Footnote Dehiscence is most common in the inflammatory phase of healing.
263
What is a fistula?
An abnormal passage connecting two body cavities or a cavity and the skin ## Footnote Fistulas are most common in the gastrointestinal and genitourinary tracts.
264
What position should a patient be in during evisceration?
Stay in bed with knees bent to minimize strain on the incision ## Footnote This positioning helps reduce pressure on the surgical site.
265
Should a binder be placed on a patient with evisceration?
No ## Footnote A binder can increase pressure on the wound.
266
What should be done after an evisceration occurs?
Notify the surgeon and prepare the patient for surgery ## Footnote Immediate surgical intervention is often required.
267
What is a fistula?
An abnormal passage connecting two body cavities or a cavity and the skin.
268
What often causes fistulas?
Infection or debris left in the wound.
269
What forms as a result of infection in the context of fistulas?
An abscess.
270
What happens to surrounding tissue when an abscess forms?
It breaks down, creating an abnormal passageway.
271
What can chronic drainage from a fistula lead to?
Skin breakdown and delayed wound healing.
272
What are the most common sites of fistula formation?
The GI and genitourinary tracts.
273
Fill in the blank: A fistula is an abnormal passage connecting two body cavities or a cavity and the _______.
skin.
274
True or False: Fistulas can only occur in the gastrointestinal tract.
False.
275
What is a chronic wound?
A chronic wound is one that has not healed within the expected time frame.
276
How long does it typically take for a wound to be considered chronic?
Wounds that do not heal within 2 to 4 weeks may be considered chronic.
277
What is a type of chronic wound?
Pressure injury is a type of chronic wound.
278
What factors contribute to pressure injury?
Factors include time, pressure, tissue tolerance, friction, shearing, moisture, nutrition, age, circulation, and underlying health status.
279
What does tissue tolerance depend on?
Tissue tolerance depends on friction, shearing, moisture, and nutrition.
280
What does time and pressure depend on?
Time and pressure depend on sensation and mobility.
281
Fill in the blank: A chronic wound is one that has not healed within the _______.
expected time frame.
282
True or False: All wounds that take longer than 2 weeks to heal are classified as chronic wounds.
False.
283
In semi fowlers position, where does pressure injry occur
over the bony prominences of Vertebrae, sacrum, pelvis, heels
284
lateral position, where pressure injury near
parietal and temporal bones, ear, shoulder, illium, greater trochanter, knee, malleolus
285
supine position, where pressure injury
back of head, scapulae, elbows, sacrum, heels
286
prone position, where pressure injury
cheek and ear, shoulder, breasts, genitalia, knees, toes
287
288
What is the primary focus of a physical assessment of skin integrity?
Skin inspection, mobility, and activity assessment
289
What areas should be routinely assessed for skin condition?
All areas of the body for skin color, integrity, temperature, texture, turgor, mobility, moisture, lesions, and hair distribution
290
What specific points should be checked for erythema, tenderness, or edema?
Pressure points
291
Why is it important to assess bony prominences in individuals 'at risk' for skin breakdown?
To prevent pressure injuries
292
Which garments should be included in the skin assessment?
Shoes, heel elevators, and antiembolism stockings
293
What is the risk for patients with some degree of immobility?
Higher risk for developing pressure injuries
294
What factors influence the frequency of wound assessments?
Condition of the wound, work setting, patient’s overall condition, underlying disease process, type of wound, and type of treatment
295
How often should wounds be assessed if providing wound care?
With every treatment
296
How should the location of a wound be described?
In anatomical terms
297
What is an example of describing a wound location?
A midsternal incision extending from the manubrium to the xiphoid process
298
What influences the rate of healing of wounds?
Location of the wound
299
True or False: Wounds in highly vascular regions heal slower than those in less vascular regions.
False
300
Fill in the blank: Wounds in highly vascular regions, such as the _______ or ________, heal more rapidly than wounds in less vascular regions.
[scalp], [hands]
301
Fill in the blank: Wounds in less vascular regions, such as the _______ or ________, heal more slowly.
[abdomen], [heel]
302
What happens to the skin when ischemia first occurs?
The skin over the area is pale and cool
303
What occurs when pressure is relieved from an ischemic area?
Vasodilation occurs, extra blood goes to the area, and the area flushes bright red (reactive hyperemia)
304
What does it indicate if the redness in an ischemic area does not disappear quickly?
Tissue damage has occurred
305
What are the first steps in skin care assessment?
Regular assessment of the skin for appearance, temperature, texture, and color
306
Why is adequate lighting important in skin assessment?
To detect subtle, early skin changes
307
What should be checked at pressure points?
Erythema, tenderness, or edema
308
What areas should be inspected for skin breakdown in patients with obesity?
Under breasts, in abdominal folds, and where there is skin-to-skin contact
309
What does the Braden scale assess?
Sensory perception, moisture, activity, mobility, nutrition, friction, and sheer Used for children.
310
How does the score on the Braden scale relate to pressure injury risk?
The lower the score, the more likely the patient will develop a pressure injury
311
What is the Braden Q scale used for?
For children
312
What does the Norton scale assess?
Risk based on the patient's physical condition, mental state, activity, mobility, and incontinence
313
How does the score on the Norton scale relate to pressure injury risk?
The lower the score, the higher the risk is for pressure injury
314
What does the PUSH tool measure?
The progression of a pressure injury
315
What factors are scored in the PUSH tool?
Surface area, exudate, and type of wound tissue
316
What happens to the PUSH score as the injured area heals?
The total score falls
317
What is the term for damage or risk associated with the outer layer of skin?
Impaired Skin Integrity ## Footnote Refers to conditions where the skin is damaged or at risk of damage.
318
What does 'Impaired Tissue Integrity' refer to?
Actual or Risk for damage to body tissues ## Footnote Indicates potential or existing damage to tissues in the body.
319
What is a potential complication that involves the invasion of pathogens?
Infection ## Footnote Can be either actual or a risk factor in wound care.
320
What is the term for physical suffering or discomfort experienced by an individual?
Pain ## Footnote A common concern in wound care management.
321
What psychological aspect may change due to a wound?
Altered Body Image ## Footnote Refers to how an individual perceives their physical self after a wound.
322
Which adjunctive wound care therapy involves the surgical removal of damaged tissue?
Surgery ## Footnote Includes procedures like excision, débridement, skin grafts, drains, and flaps.
323
What adjunctive therapy stimulates cellular growth and increases blood flow?
Electrical stimulation ## Footnote Promotes healing by encouraging fibroblast development and collagen formation.
324
What therapy uses high oxygen under pressure to accelerate healing?
Hyperbaric oxygen therapy (HBOT) ## Footnote Enhances white blood cell activity to improve healing.
325
What are naturally occurring proteins that promote cell growth and replication?
Tissue growth factors ## Footnote Important for chronic wound healing, especially in diabetic patients.
326
What type of therapy uses sound waves to stimulate tissue metabolism?
Ultrasound ## Footnote Aids in débridement and increases cell metabolism through vibration and heat.
327
What are bioengineered skin substitutes used for?
Temporary or permanent closure of partial- and full-thickness wounds ## Footnote Made from human epidermis, dermis, animal cells, or synthetic materials.
328
What substance enhances wound healing by improving circulation?
Nitric oxide ## Footnote Promotes fibroblast and collagen growth for skin and tissue repair.
329
What therapy uses irradiated maggots for precise débridement?
Maggot therapy ## Footnote Effective as it targets and consumes only necrotic tissue.
330
What is the primary focus for at-risk patients regarding pressure injury?
Prevention strategies ## Footnote Includes using visual cues to remind staff to implement these strategies.
331
How often should hospitalized patients be reassessed for pressure injuries?
Daily, at transfer or discharge, and if condition changes ## Footnote At-risk patients should be assessed every 8-12 hours.
332
What is the reassessment schedule for nursing home residents regarding pressure injuries?
Weekly for the first 4 weeks; then quarterly; or if condition deteriorates ## Footnote This schedule helps monitor ongoing risk.
333
How frequently should home patients be monitored for pressure injuries?
With every visit ## Footnote Ensures continuous assessment of their condition.
334
What should be done to manage moisture in incontinence care?
Provide gentle cleansing, apply moisture barrier cream, use absorbent products ## Footnote Consider pouching systems for persistent bowel incontinence.
335
What bathing considerations should be taken for diaphoretic patients?
They may need frequent bathing due to sweat irritation ## Footnote Older adults typically do not require daily bathing.
336
What technique should be used when bathing fragile skin?
Gently bathe with minimum force and friction ## Footnote Washcloths can be abrasive, so care is needed.
337
What type of soap should be used for bathing sensitive skin?
Mild, emollient cleansing soap ## Footnote Rinse thoroughly and gently pat the skin dry.
338
What is the purpose of using a barrier cream?
To prevent skin damage in adults at risk for pressure injury ## Footnote Especially for those with incontinent, edematous, or inflamed skin.
339
What should be avoided when massaging fragile skin?
Do not massage over bony prominences ## Footnote This can irritate the area and lead to tissue injury.
340
What are the requirements for linens in patient care?
Keep linens soft, clean, dry, and free from wrinkles ## Footnote Change them frequently to maintain skin integrity.
341
What is a hydrating dressing used for?
To reduce wound size using hydrocolloid or foam dressings. ## Footnote Refer to Procedure 32-8 for application details.
342
What is the purpose of negative-pressure wound therapy?
To create a vacuum that reduces edema, promotes granulation tissue formation, removes exudate and infectious material, and stimulates blood vessel growth. ## Footnote Refer to Procedure 32-6 for more information.
343
What is a silver dressing's role in wound care?
Acts as a barrier to bacteria, eliminates bacterial biofilms, and can reduce prophylactic antibiotic use. ## Footnote This helps in preventing antibiotic resistance.
344
How should a transparent dressing be applied?
Apply the clear film or drape free of wrinkles to create a seal for negative pressure. ## Footnote Refer to Procedure 32-7 for application guidelines.
345
What is the recommended angle for the head of the bed (HOB) to minimize pressure and shear?
Limit the angle to no more than 30°.
346
What devices should be used to support patients in bed?
Lift devices, drawsheets, heel and elbow protectors, sleeves, and stockings.
347
What should never be done when moving a patient up in bed?
Never drag a patient up in bed.
348
What types of surfaces are included in support surfaces?
Specialty mattresses, integrated bed systems, mattress overlays consisting of air, gel, foam, and water.
349
What is the function of pressure-redistributing devices?
To redistribute pressure and moisture to prevent bacterial growth on the skin.
350
What should be used to raise the heels off the bed?
Products specifically designed for that purpose; pillows may not be effective.
351
What type of devices should be avoided for pressure redistribution in chairs and wheelchairs?
Avoid donut-type devices.
352
What is the primary reason for frequent position changes in patients at risk for pressure injury?
To prevent tissue damage from ischemia ## Footnote Ischemia refers to insufficient blood supply to tissues, which can lead to tissue damage and pressure injuries.
353
How often should patients be turned to prevent pressure injuries?
At least every 2 hours ## Footnote More frequent turning is required for patients with fragile skin or little subcutaneous tissue.
354
What is the recommended turning frequency for chair-bound patients?
Every hour, with weight shifts every 15 minutes
355
What is the 'Rule of 30' for positioning?
Elevate the head of bed at a 30° angle or less; side-lying at a 30° angle ## Footnote This positioning helps avoid direct pressure on the trochanter.
356
List the key teaching points for preventing pressure injury for at-risk patients.
* Characteristics of healthy skin * Appearance of skin with unrelieved pressure * Skin protection and injury prevention * Skin care and hygiene
357
What factors indicate a patient is at risk for pressure injury related to nutrition?
* Rapid weight loss * Increased metabolic demands * Limited intake * Decreased serum albumin
358
What is the recommended daily caloric intake for patients at risk for pressure injury?
30-35 kcal/kg/day
359
What is the protein requirement for an undernourished patient with a wound?
2 g/kg
360
What dietary modifications may be necessary for frail patients?
Soft diet for patients who are frail or missing teeth
361
What supplemental nutritional methods may be used for patients with insufficient oral intake?
* Tube feeding * Parenteral nutrition * Dietary referral as needed
362
What are some techniques to optimize nutrition and hydration in at-risk patients?
* Monitor hydration status * Offer water when repositioning * Provide adequate calories and protein
363
True or False: It is essential to report skin changes to healthcare professionals.
True
364
Fill in the blank: It is important to use _______ devices to prevent pressure injuries.
[pressure-redistributing]
365
What is a key question to assess a patient's activity level during a focused skin and wound assessment?
What is your typical activity level? ## Footnote Understanding the patient's activity level can help identify risk factors for skin issues.
366
What should be asked regarding mobility aids in a skin and wound assessment?
Do you ever use a wheelchair or mobile device to get around? Do you require assistance to get out of bed or a chair? ## Footnote This assesses the patient's mobility and potential risk for skin breakdown.
367
What dietary information is important to gather during a skin assessment?
Tell me about your usual diet. ## Footnote Nutrition plays a crucial role in skin health and wound healing.
368
What information regarding hydration should be collected?
How much liquid do you drink each day? ## Footnote Adequate hydration is essential for skin integrity.
369
What symptom related to sensation should be assessed?
Do you have any areas of numbness and tingling? ## Footnote Numbness and tingling can indicate neurological issues that affect skin health.
370
What recent changes should be inquired about during a skin assessment?
Have you had any recent changes in your skin? ## Footnote Identifying changes can help in early detection of potential skin problems.
371
What specific questions should be asked about existing wounds?
Do you have any sores or open areas? If so, how long have you had the wound? ## Footnote Duration of a wound can indicate severity and need for intervention.
372
What question assesses the patient's history with wound healing?
Have you ever had difficulty with wound healing? ## Footnote Previous healing difficulties can indicate underlying issues.
373
What healthcare problems should the patient be asked about?
What kinds of healthcare problems have you been experiencing? ## Footnote Understanding broader health issues can inform skin and wound care.
374
What medication information is relevant during the assessment?
What medications - prescribed, herbal, or over the counter - are you taking? ## Footnote Some medications can affect skin integrity or wound healing.
375
What hygiene routine question is important in skin assessments?
What is your typical hygiene routine? ## Footnote Hygiene practices can directly impact skin health.
376
What question assesses incontinence issues?
Do you ever lose control of your bladder or bowels? ## Footnote Incontinence can lead to skin breakdown and wounds.
377
What lifestyle habit should be assessed during the skin assessment?
Do you smoke? ## Footnote Smoking can impair circulation and affect skin health.
378
What question gauges outdoor activity levels?
How much time do you spend outdoors? ## Footnote Sun exposure and outdoor activity can affect skin conditions.
379
What diabetes-related questions should be included in the assessment?
Do you have diabetes? If so, how often do you check your feet? How often do you see a podiatrist? What is your average blood sugar? ## Footnote Diabetes can significantly impact skin health and wound healing.
380
What characterizes a Stage 1 Pressure Injury?
Localized area of intact skin with nonblanchable redness ## Footnote Nonblanchable redness does not become pale under applied light pressure.
381
Where is a Stage 1 Pressure Injury typically located?
Usually over a bony prominence ## Footnote It is important to monitor areas over bony prominences for pressure injuries.
382
What are the possible sensations or conditions of the area affected by a Stage 1 Pressure Injury?
Painful, firm, soft, warmer or cooler compared to adjacent tissue ## Footnote These sensations may vary based on the individual and the severity of the injury.
383
How long does discoloration from a Stage 1 Pressure Injury remain after pressure is relieved?
More than 30 minutes ## Footnote This prolonged discoloration is a key indicator of a Stage 1 Pressure Injury.
384
In individuals with dark skin, how might a Stage 1 Pressure Injury differ in appearance?
May not have visible blanching and color may differ from surrounding area ## Footnote This makes detection of Stage 1 Pressure Injuries more challenging in dark-skinned individuals.
385
True or False: A Stage 1 Pressure Injury can be identified by maroon or purple discoloration.
False ## Footnote Stage 1 Pressure Injuries do not present with maroon or purple discoloration.
386
What characterizes a Stage 2 pressure injury?
Involves partial-thickness loss of dermis and is open but shallow with a red-pink wound bed. ## Footnote It does not include slough (necrotic tissue) or bruising.
387
What are the possible appearances of a Stage 2 pressure injury?
May be: * An intact or open/ruptured serum-filled blister * A shiny or dry shallow ulcer without slough or bruising ## Footnote The injury remains shallow and does not involve deeper tissue.
388
What types of damage should not be confused with Stage 2 pressure injury?
Do not mistake for: * Moisture-associated skin damage * Fungal infections ## Footnote These conditions can present similarly but are different from pressure injuries.
389
True or False: Stage 2 pressure injury can include sloughing.
False. ## Footnote Stage 2 pressure injury specifically does not involve sloughing.
390
What is the wound bed color of a Stage 2 pressure injury?
Red-pink. ## Footnote This color indicates healthy granulation tissue rather than necrotic tissue.
391
Fill in the blank: Stage 2 pressure injury does not involve _______.
sloughing or bruising. ## Footnote This distinction is crucial for accurate diagnosis.
392
What characterizes a Stage 3 Pressure Injury?
A deep crater with full-thickness skin loss and damage or necrosis of subcutaneous tissue. Adipose is visible. ## Footnote Full-thickness skin loss means that the injury extends through the epidermis and dermis into the subcutaneous tissue.
393
How deep can some Stage 3 pressure injuries be?
Extremely deep, especially in areas with significant adipose layers; may extend down to, but not through, underlying fascia. ## Footnote The depth can vary based on the location and amount of adipose tissue present.
394
What may be present in a Stage 3 Pressure Injury besides full-thickness skin loss?
Undermining of adjacent tissue may be present. ## Footnote Undermining refers to deeper-level damage under boggy superficial layers.
395
Is bone or tendon visible in a Stage 3 Pressure Injury?
No, bone/tendon is not visible or directly palpable.
396
What is a Stage 4 Pressure Injury?
Involves full-thickness skin loss with extensive destruction, tissue necrosis, or damage to muscle, bone, or support structures. ## Footnote Exposed bone/tendon is visible or directly palpable.
397
What types of necrotic tissue may be present in a Stage 4 Pressure Injury?
Slough or eschar (tan, black, or brown leathery necrotic tissue) may be present. ## Footnote Eschar refers to dead tissue that falls off from healthy skin.
398
What is the significance of the depth of a Stage 4 Pressure Injury?
The depth varies by location and can be shallow on areas like the bridge of the nose, ear, occiput, and malleolus due to lack of subcutaneous tissue. ## Footnote These areas are more prone to pressure injuries due to their anatomical structure.
399
What are common features observed in Stage 4 Pressure Injuries?
* Ebole (rolled edges) * Undermining * Sinus tracts (blind tracts underneath the epidermis) ## Footnote These features indicate the severity and complexity of the injury.
400
Can a Stage 4 Pressure Injury extend beyond the skin?
Yes, it can extend into muscle and supporting structures (e.g., fascia, tendon, or joint capsule). ## Footnote This extension complicates the healing process and may require advanced treatment.
401
How long does it typically take for a Stage 4 Pressure Injury to heal?
Often requires a full year to heal. ## Footnote Healing time can vary based on individual health factors and treatment approaches.
402
What is a long-term risk associated with healing from a Stage 4 Pressure Injury?
The site remains at risk for future injury because the scar tissue is not as strong as the original tissue. ## Footnote This highlights the importance of ongoing care and monitoring after healing.
403
What is Deep Tissue Pressure Injury (DTI)?
An area of skin that is intact but persistently discolored
404
What colors might characterize a DTI?
Purplish or deep red
405
What are common symptoms associated with DTI?
Painful, boggy, or have a blister
406
What often precedes the symptoms of DTI?
Pain and temperature change
407
What causes Deep Tissue Pressure Injury?
Damage of underlying soft tissue from pressure or shear
408
Why might DTI go unrecognized?
Findings can be subtle enough that often DTI is not recognized until after severe tissue damage has occurred
409
What might happen to a DTI if not treated optimally?
May heal or evolve further and become covered by thin eschar
410
What is a potential risk of a DTI developing further?
Rapidly exposing additional layers of tissue
411
In individuals with darker pigmentation, what is a challenge regarding DTI?
Discoloration might go undetected
412
What characterizes an unstageable pressure injury?
Involves full-thickness skin loss ## Footnote The depth cannot be determined until slough or eschar is removed.
413
What obscures the base of the wound in an unstageable pressure injury?
Slough or eschar ## Footnote Slough can be tan, yellow, gray, green, or brown; eschar can be tan, black, or brown.
414
What is stable eschar?
Dry, adherent, and intact without erythema or fluctuance ## Footnote It serves as the body's natural cover.
415
True or False: The depth of an unstageable pressure injury can be determined without removing slough or eschar.
False ## Footnote The depth cannot be assessed until the base of the wound is exposed.
416
Fill in the blank: An unstageable pressure injury cannot be classified until enough _______ is removed to expose the base of the wound.
slough and/or eschar
417
What should be assessed for all wounds?
Location, Size, Appearance, Drainage, Patient Responses ## Footnote These are the key categories for wound assessment.
418
How should the location of a wound be described?
In anatomical terms, e.g., a midsternal incision extending from the manubrium to the xiphoid process ## Footnote This helps provide clarity in communication regarding the wound's position.
419
What measurements should be taken for a wound?
Length and width in centimeters, depth with a sterile cotton-tipped applicator ## Footnote Use photo documentation to indicate dimensions, especially for irregular borders.
420
What types of wound appearance should be described?
Type of wound, color, condition of the wound bed, presence of necrosis, slough, eschar, and surrounding skin condition ## Footnote Detailed descriptions help in assessing healing and potential complications.
421
What indicates normal healing in a wound bed?
A beefy red, moist appearance ## Footnote This suggests that the wound is healing properly.
422
What should be observed in the surrounding skin of a wound?
Discoloration, hematoma, additional injury, maceration, tunneling, crepitus, blistering, erythema ## Footnote These observations can indicate complications or the severity of the wound.
423
What aspects should be assessed regarding drainage?
Color, consistency, amount, and odor ## Footnote Quantify drainage by weighing dressings before and after use.
424
What should be done if profuse bleeding occurs?
Apply direct pressure and call the physician if bleeding continues after 5 minutes ## Footnote Immediate action is crucial in managing severe bleeding.
425
When should a tetanus immunization be given?
If last immunization was 10 years ago or longer, wound is contaminated and last shot was over 5 years ago, or if uncertain about immunization history ## Footnote Tetanus shots are important for preventing infection in wounds.
426
What additional care might a deep bite wound require?
Additional observation and/or antibiotics ## Footnote Bite wounds are prone to infection and may need special attention.
427
What should be assessed regarding pain in wound care?
Level of pain, with severe pain requiring comprehensive evaluation ## Footnote Pain assessment is critical for appropriate management of wounds.
428
What chronic medical conditions could affect wound healing?
Diabetes, malnutrition, immunocompromise, bleeding disorders ## Footnote Patients with these conditions require ongoing evaluation due to impaired healing.
429
How does the location of a wound affect healing?
Wounds that can be stabilized heal more rapidly than those affected by constant movement ## Footnote Location can also indicate the wound's etiology.
430
Fill in the blank: A beefy red, moist appearance of a wound indicates _______.
healing ## Footnote This appearance is a positive sign in wound assessment.
431
What is the first step in assessing a wound?
Determine if it is an acute or chronic wound
432
What should be examined if the wound is sutured?
Closure, wound edges, tension, and stitch integrity
433
How should a wound be measured?
In a neutral position, measuring length, width, and depth in centimeters
434
What tool can be used to measure wound depth?
A sterile cotton-tip applicator
435
What is the purpose of serial photographs in wound assessment?
To document baseline and wound healing
436
What is undermining in wound assessment?
Separation in tissue type or plane at the wound edges
437
How can the location of undermining or tunneling be recorded?
Using the face of a clock as a guide
438
What condition may be indicated by skin discoloration surrounding a wound?
Hematoma or additional injury
439
What causes maceration in wound care?
Excessive moisture from pooled drainage on intact skin
440
What does crepitus indicate?
Gas trapped under the skin
441
What are signs that surrounding tissue is in jeopardy?
Erythema, swelling, or other signs of irritation
442
What is epiboly in wound assessment?
Closed or rolled wound edges
443
What does slough look like?
Soft, stringy, and pale yellow or gray moist necrotic tissue
444
What is eschar?
Dry necrotic tissue that appears thick, hard, and black or brown
445
Fill in the blank: Excessive moisture from pooled drainage can cause _______.
maceration
446
True or False: Epiboly indicates that epithelial cells have moved down and rolled under the wound edges.
True
447
What is assessed to understand the severity and treatment options of a wound?
The types of tissue and their amounts in the wound base ## Footnote Assessment of tissue types can indicate healing progress and necessary interventions.
448
What must be distinguished in wound assessment?
Viable (living) tissue from nonviable tissue ## Footnote This distinction is crucial for appropriate wound management.
449
How should different types of tissue in a wound bed be described?
By percentages, e.g., '80% granulation tissue, 20% necrotic' ## Footnote This method provides a clear picture of the wound composition.
450
What does granulation tissue indicate?
Evidence of healing ## Footnote Granulation tissue is a positive sign in wound healing.
451
What might a pale color or dry texture in a wound suggest?
A delay in healing ## Footnote These characteristics can signify complications in the healing process.
452
What is the impact of necrotic tissue on wound healing?
It will delay wound healing and should be removed ## Footnote The only exception is stable eschar on a heel that is not infected.
453
What should be determined regarding drainage in wound assessment?
Whether exudate is present and its characteristics ## Footnote Key characteristics include amount, color, consistency, and odor.
454
How should the amount of drainage be described?
None, light, moderate, or heavy ## Footnote Drainage amounts can vary by wound type.
455
What types of drainage color descriptions are used?
Serous, serosanguineous, sanguineous, purulent, or seropurulent ## Footnote These terms help in assessing the nature of the wound fluid.
456
What should be done before assessing the odor of a wound?
Clean the wound of all exudate or foreign material ## Footnote This ensures that the odor characteristics are accurately evaluated.
457
What can a change in odor indicate in wound assessment?
Fistula formation or bacterial contamination ## Footnote An example includes a previously odorless abdominal wound that begins to smell of bile or feces.
458
Fill in the blank: Necrotic tissue of any type will ______ wound healing.
delay ## Footnote This highlights the importance of addressing necrotic tissue promptly.
459
True or False: Venous stasis ulcers usually produce less drainage than arterial ulcers.
False ## Footnote Venous stasis ulcers typically produce more drainage.
460
What is the key concept in improving wound care?
Wound Healing ## Footnote Wound healing is a critical aspect of nursing care, particularly in managing various types of wounds.
461
What is essential for providing quality patient care in nursing?
Interprofessional collaboration ## Footnote Collaboration among healthcare professionals leads to improved patient outcomes and a stronger healthcare system.
462
Name three types of wounds that require a team approach for treatment.
* Diabetic foot ulcers * Venous stasis ulcers * Pressure injury ## Footnote These wounds often require specialized care and input from various healthcare professionals.
463
What characteristics are needed to create high-functioning interprofessional teams?
* Trust * Effective communication * Role clarity * Mutual respect ## Footnote These traits foster a collaborative environment that enhances patient care.
464
Who does the World Health Organization suggest as a leader of the wound care team?
Wound navigator ## Footnote The wound navigator acts as an advocate for patients and coordinates care among team members.
465
What is the role of a wound navigator?
To advocate for patients and collaborate with healthcare professionals ## Footnote The navigator focuses on patient needs and ensures a comprehensive care plan.
466
What does the wound navigator provide to each patient?
A list of care/service providers ## Footnote This list includes names and contact information for appropriate resources, aiding patient access to care.
467
Fill in the blank: Effective __________ is required for high-functioning interprofessional teams.
communication ## Footnote Effective communication is crucial for understanding roles and coordinating care.
468
True or False: The patient is central in the interprofessional team model.
True ## Footnote The model emphasizes care efforts based on patient needs and desires.
469
What practical challenges may need to be addressed within the context of a wound care team?
Various logistical and communication challenges ## Footnote Addressing these challenges is crucial for effective team functioning.
470
How can technology play a role in effective implementation of wound care teams?
By enhancing communication and information sharing ## Footnote Technology can streamline processes and improve patient outcomes in wound care.
471
What is slough?
Soft, moist, devitalized (necrotic) tissue; may be white, yellow, tan; may be stringy, loose, or adherent to bed. ## Footnote Débride the wound.
472
What characterizes eschar?
Necrotic tissue; dry, thick, leathery; may be black, brown, or gray depending on moisture level. ## Footnote Débride the wound.
473
Describe granulation tissue.
Pink to red moist tissue; made of new blood vessels, connective tissue, and fibroblasts; surface is granular or pebble-like. ## Footnote Cleanse, protect. Promote epithelialization (epithelial growth).
474
What does clean, nongranulating tissue indicate?
Absence of granulation tissue, but bed is pink, shiny, and smooth. ## Footnote Cleanse, protect. Promote growth of healthy tissue.
475
What is epithelial tissue in the context of wound healing?
Regenerating epidermis; may appear pink or pearly white as it crosses the wound bed; may begin as a ring around the wound or from epithelial cells lining hair follicles. ## Footnote Cleanse, protect.
476
What should you routinely ask your patients regarding wounds?
About pain or discomfort related to the wound or wound care.
477
What is a key point regarding patients' complaints of pain?
Always take seriously the patient’s complaint of pain, especially if there is a sudden increase.
478
Why is pain an important symptom to monitor in wound care?
Pain is often an early symptom of infection.
479
In immunocompromised patients, what may be the only symptom of infection?
Pain.
480
What should you do to assess a patient's nutritional status?
Screen and assess the nutritional status of each patient admitted with a pressure injury and whenever there is a change in the patient’s condition.
481
When may a referral to the dietitian be necessary?
If nutritional problems are present.
482
What is required for effective wound healing?
Sufficient calories.
483
What interventions may be involved in a nutritional plan for wound healing?
Adding oral supplemental meals, or even enteral or parenteral nutrition.
484
What assessments should be made for an untreated wound?
The same assessments as for a treated wound, plus additional assessments to determine immediate treatment needs.
485
What should you assess for in an untreated wound?
Bleeding, severe pain, numbness, or loss of movement below the wound.
486
What action should be taken if bleeding is profuse?
Apply direct pressure to the site.
487
What should be done if bleeding continues after applying pressure for 5 minutes?
Call the provider immediately.
488
What are signs that require immediate evaluation in an untreated wound?
Severe pain, numbness, or loss of movement below the wound.
489
What is a Tetanus-prone wound?
Wounds such as compound fractures, gunshot wounds, crush injuries, burns, punctures, foreign object injuries, and wounds contaminated with soil.
490
When should an immunization be given for tetanus?
If the last immunization was 10 or more years ago, if the wound is contaminated and the last immunization was over 5 years ago, or if it is uncertain when the last immunization was received.
491
Fill in the blank: Tetanus-prone wounds include _______.
compound fractures, gunshot wounds, crush injuries, burns, punctures, foreign object injuries, wounds contaminated with soil.
492
True or False: An immunization for tetanus is not needed if the last immunization was given less than 5 years ago and the wound is not contaminated.
True
493
What should be integrated with laboratory data?
History and physical assessment findings
494
What are the common laboratory assessments related to skin integrity?
* Protein levels * Complete blood count * Erythrocyte sedimentation rate * Glucose * Thyroid levels * Iron levels * Coagulation studies * Wound cultures
495
What may indicate the need for a wound culture?
* Local or systemic signs of infection * Suddenly elevated glucose levels * Pain in a neuropathic extremity * Lack of healing after 2 weeks in a clean wound
496
What are the methods to obtain a wound culture?
* Swab * Aspiration * Tissue biopsy
497
What is the most common method to obtain a culture?
Swab
498
True or False: Swab specimens are not accurate in representing bacteria counts biopsied from a wound.
False
499
When should swab cultures be used as an alternative to biopsy?
When antibiotic-resistant bacteria is not suspected
500
What does needle aspiration involve?
Insertion of a needle into the tissue to aspirate tissue fluid
501
What is a risk associated with needle aspiration?
Inadvertent needle damage to tissue and underlying structures
502
What is considered the 'gold standard' for culturing a chronic wound?
Tissue biopsy
503
What are the risks associated with tissue biopsy?
* Risk of sepsis * Causes pain * Disrupts the wound bed * May cause delayed healing
504
Fill in the blank: The most accurate method for culturing a chronic wound is _______.
[tissue biopsy]
505
What does a normal leukocyte (WBC) count range from?
5,000–10,000/mm3
506
What may an increase in white blood cells (WBCs) indicate in relation to wounds?
Potential infection
507
What can a low WBC count indicate regarding wound healing?
Delayed wound healing
508
What are leukocytes responsible for at the wound site?
Inflammatory reaction, phagocytosis of bacteria and debris, creation of antibodies
509
What are the normal serum protein and serum albumin levels?
Serum protein: 6.0–8.0 g/dL; Serum albumin: 3.4–4.8 g/dL
510
What does low serum levels indicate regarding nutritional status?
Limited nutritional stores that delay wound healing or increase risk for pressure injury
511
How are serum protein and albumin levels related?
Closely related but fluctuate slowly
512
What is a more accurate measure of a patient’s immediate protein stores?
Prealbumin level
513
Fill in the blank: A low WBC count may ______ wound healing.
Delay
514
True or False: Serum protein levels fluctuate rapidly.
False
515
What is the erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)?
A test that indicates whether red blood cells stick together, become heavier, and settle at the bottom of a laboratory tube when held vertically. ## Footnote ESR is used to assess the presence of inflammation or necrotic processes in the body.
516
What is the normal ESR range for individuals less than 50 years old?
0–15 mm/hr ## Footnote The ESR range varies with age.
517
What is the normal ESR range for individuals older than 50 years old?
0–20 mm/hr ## Footnote Normal ESR values can increase with age.
518
True or False: An increased ESR indicates normal blood protein levels.
False ## Footnote An increased ESR indicates altered blood proteins due to inflammation or necrosis.
519
Fill in the blank: The ESR test is influenced by the presence of an _______ and necrotic process.
inflammatory ## Footnote The test reflects changes in blood proteins due to inflammation.
520
What does aPTT stand for?
Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time
521
What factors can cause variations in aPTT results?
Equipment and reagents used
522
What are the critical values for aPTT?
Greater than 70 seconds or less than 53 seconds
523
What can prolonged coagulation times result in?
Excessive blood loss or ongoing bleeding in the wound bed
524
What problems can shortened coagulation times increase the risk for?
* Blood clot formation problems * Deep vein thrombosis * Pulmonary embolus * Stroke
525
What is Prothrombin time?
Clotting time
526
What are the critical values for Prothrombin time?
Greater than 20 seconds (uncoagulated) or three times normal control (anticoagulated)
527
What factors can alter coagulation?
Anticoagulant medications, concurrent illness, trauma, reaction to transfusions
528
What is the International normalized ratio (INR)?
A standardized test to evaluate clotting times, considered the gold standard ## Footnote The INR is crucial for monitoring patients on anticoagulation therapy.
529
What is the INR value for patients not receiving anticoagulation therapy?
Less than 2.0 ## Footnote This indicates normal clotting function in patients not on anticoagulants.
530
What is the INR range for patients receiving coagulation therapy?
2.0–3.0 ## Footnote This range is generally therapeutic for patients on anticoagulants.
531
True or False: The INR is used to monitor blood clotting times.
True ## Footnote The INR helps assess the effectiveness of anticoagulation therapy.
532
What is the purpose of wound cultures?
To determine the types of bacteria present in the wound
533
How can cultures be obtained?
By swab, aspiration, or tissue biopsy
534
True or False: A positive culture always indicates an infection.
False
535
What does a positive culture in chronic wounds indicate?
Colonization with bacteria
536
What does it mean if wound cultures are negative?
No growth of pathogens
537
What is the significance of a tissue biopsy?
It is used to examine tissue samples for the presence of pathogens or abnormalities. ## Footnote Tissue biopsies are crucial in diagnosing diseases, including infections and cancers.
538
What does a negative biopsy result indicate?
No growth of pathogens. ## Footnote A negative result suggests that there are no infectious agents present in the sampled tissue.
539
What is the threshold for bacteria count to consider wounds infected?
Exceeds 100,000 organisms per gram of tissue. ## Footnote This threshold helps in determining whether a wound requires treatment for infection.
540
What is the exception to the bacteria count rule for infection?
The presence of beta-hemolytic streptococci in any number indicates infection. ## Footnote This specific type of bacteria is pathogenic even in low quantities.
541
Who must perform the initial assessment of a wound?
The RN ## Footnote Ongoing evaluation of a wound also requires the RN.
542
What task can be delegated to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) regarding wound care?
Inspection of the skin for evidence of skin breakdown ## Footnote UAP should notify the RN of redness, tissue warmth, or drainage.
543
What instructions must be given to UAP for turning and positioning a patient?
Provide times for turning and specific positioning instructions ## Footnote A turning chart at the bedside can be helpful.
544
What do turning and movement prevent in patients?
Tissue damage from ischemia ## Footnote This is crucial for preventing pressure injury.
545
What nursing diagnosis is appropriate for patients at risk for skin breakdown?
Risk for Impaired Skin Integrity ## Footnote This applies to patients with risk factors like immobility and incontinence.
546
What are some risk factors for skin breakdown?
* Immobility * Incontinence * Extremes of age * Impaired circulation * Impaired sensation * Undernutrition * Emaciation ## Footnote Use a risk assessment tool to identify these patients.
547
Fill in the blank: A risk assessment tool that can be used is the _______.
[Norton or Braden scale] ## Footnote These tools help assess the risk for skin breakdown.
548
What does sensory perception refer to in the context of the Braden Scale?
Ability to respond meaningfully to pressure-related discomfort
549
What does moisture refer to in the Braden Scale?
Degree to which skin is exposed to moisture
550
What does activity refer to in the Braden Scale?
Degree of physical activity
551
What does mobility refer to in the Braden Scale?
Ability to change and control body position
552
What does nutrition refer to in the Braden Scale?
Usual food intake pattern
553
What does friction and shear refer to in the Braden Scale?
Factors contributing to skin breakdown due to movement
554
What is the scoring for completely limited sensory perception?
Unresponsive to painful stimuli due to diminished level of consciousness or sedation
555
What score indicates constant moisture in the Braden Scale?
Skin is kept moist almost constantly by perspiration, urine, etc.
556
What does 'bedfast' indicate in the Braden Scale?
Confined to bed
557
What does 'completely immobile' signify in the Braden Scale?
Does not make even slight changes in body or extremity position without assistance
558
What does 'very poor' nutrition status indicate?
Never eats a complete meal and rarely eats more than ½ of any food offered
559
Fill in the blank: A person who requires moderate to maximum assistance in moving is considered a _______.
Problem
560
What is the score for 'very limited' sensory perception?
Responds only to painful stimuli, cannot communicate discomfort except by moaning
561
What does 'very moist' indicate in the context of the Braden Scale?
Skin is often, but not always moist, requiring linen change at least once a shift
562
What does 'chairfast' mean?
Ability to walk severely limited or non-existent, must be assisted into chair or wheelchair
563
What does 'probably inadequate' nutrition status indicate?
Rarely eats a complete meal, generally eats only about ½ of any food offered
564
Fill in the blank: A person who moves feebly or requires minimum assistance is considered a _______.
Potential Problem
565
What is the definition of 'slightly limited' sensory perception?
Responds to verbal commands but cannot always communicate discomfort
566
What does 'occasionally moist' mean?
Skin is occasionally moist, requiring an extra linen change approximately once a day
567
What does 'walks occasionally' indicate?
Walks occasionally during the day, but for very short distances
568
What does 'adequate' nutrition status signify?
Eats over half of most meals, takes a total of 4 servings of protein per day
569
True or False: A person who moves independently in bed and in a chair has no apparent problems.
True
570
What does 'no impairment' mean in the context of the Braden Scale?
Responds to verbal commands and has no sensory deficit limiting ability to feel pain
571
What does 'rarely moist' indicate?
Skin is usually dry, linen only requires changing at routine intervals
572
What does 'walks frequently' indicate?
Walks outside room at least twice a day and inside room at least once every two hours during waking hours
573
What does 'no limitation' refer to in the Braden Scale?
Makes major and frequent changes in position without assistance
574
What does 'excellent' nutrition status indicate?
Eats most of every meal, never refuses a meal, and usually eats a total of 4 or more servings of protein
575
What is the purpose of the Norton Scale?
To assess patients' risk for pressure ulcers ## Footnote The Norton Scale evaluates physical condition, mental condition, activity, mobility, and incontinence.
576
What score indicates a liability to pressure ulcers on the Norton Scale?
Scores of 14 or less ## Footnote Scores below 12 indicate a very high risk for developing pressure ulcers.
577
List the five criteria used in the Norton Scale.
* Physical Condition * Mental Condition * Activity * Mobility * Incontinence ## Footnote Each criterion is scored, and the total score determines the risk level.
578
What is the maximum score on the Norton Scale?
20 ## Footnote This score represents the best possible outcome for patient risk assessment.
579
True or False: A score of less than 12 on the Norton Scale indicates a very high risk for pressure ulcers.
True ## Footnote Scores below 12 suggest a significant risk for patients.
580
Fill in the blank: The Norton Scale assesses risk for pressure ulcers based on _______.
[five criteria] ## Footnote These criteria include physical condition, mental condition, activity, mobility, and incontinence.
581
What does a 'Poor' physical condition score indicate on the Norton Scale?
A score of 2 ## Footnote This indicates a significant concern for the patient's overall health status.
582
What does the 'Apathetic' mental condition score represent on the Norton Scale?
A score of 3 ## Footnote This score reflects a patient's reduced engagement or responsiveness.
583
What is the score for 'Chair-bound' activity level on the Norton Scale?
2 ## Footnote This indicates limited mobility and increased risk for pressure ulcers.
584
What is considered 'Doubly incontinent' on the Norton Scale?
A score of 1 ## Footnote This status significantly increases the risk for pressure ulcers.
585
What is the lowest possible score on the Norton Scale?
5 ## Footnote This score indicates a very high risk for pressure ulcers.
586
What is the diagnosis for patients with damage to the epidermis or dermis?
Impaired Skin Integrity ## Footnote Appropriate for patients with superficial wounds or stage 1 or 2 pressure injury.
587
What is the appropriate diagnosis for patients with wounds extending into subcutaneous tissue, muscle, or bone?
Impaired Tissue Integrity ## Footnote Used for patients with deep wounds or stage 3 or 4 pressure injury.
588
What diagnosis is suitable for patients with Impaired Skin Integrity who are at risk for delayed healing?
Risk for Impaired Tissue Integrity ## Footnote Example: A patient with a stage 1 pressure injury at risk for progression due to age, nutritional state, and presence of another wound.
589
What nursing diagnosis is appropriate if the patient has a traumatic wound or is immunosuppressed?
Risk for Infection ## Footnote Also consider if the patient is undernourished or immobile.
590
What diagnosis may be used for patients experiencing discomfort from a wound?
Pain ## Footnote This includes discomfort from treatments required to heal the wound.
591
What nursing diagnosis should be considered if a patient is experiencing distress about a wound?
Disturbed Body Image ## Footnote Important to consider even if the patient is expected to make a complete recovery or if disfigurement is expected.
592
What are some examples of NIC standardized interventions for skin and tissue integrity problems?
* Bedrest Care * Infection Protection * Pressure Injury Prevention * Pressure Management * Skin Surveillance * Nutrition Management * Positioning * Wound Care * Wound Irrigation * Specific nursing activities directed at maintaining skin integrity or healing wounds.
593
What is the focus of specific nursing activities related to wound care?
Preventing and treating pressure injury and other chronic wounds, providing wound care, and applying heat and cold therapies.
594
Who is involved in the multidisciplinary team for care planning of a patient with a chronic wound?
* Dietitians * Infection control specialists * Wound specialists
595
What is essential to consider when assessing a patient with a diabetic foot ulcer?
All pressure must be taken off the area to prevent trauma to healing tissues.
596
What should be selected for a diabetic foot ulcer patient in addition to offloading pressure?
The appropriate dressing and a special shoe made for patients with neuropathy.
597
What do patients with a venous stasis ulcer typically wear?
Compression garments such as elastic hose, stockings, or multilayer compression wraps.
598
What is the purpose of compression garments for venous stasis ulcers?
They provide continuous pressure to the veins, improving venous return and helping the ulcer to heal.
599
Before applying elastic compression, what should be checked regarding the limb?
Ensure the limb is not increasing in size due to edema.
600
What condition must be ruled out before applying compression to the lower extremities?
Lower extremity arterial disease.
601
True or False: Lower extremity arterial disease can compromise arterial circulation and should be ruled out before applying compression.
True
602
What is the primary purpose of cleansing wounds?
To remove exudate, slough, foreign materials, and microorganisms from the wound ## Footnote This promotes healthy tissue healing.
603
When should a wound be cleaned?
Initially and with each dressing change ## Footnote This ensures ongoing cleanliness and promotes healing.
604
How should a wound be cleansed?
Gently pat the surface with gauze soaked with saline or other prescribed wound cleanser ## Footnote Care should be taken not to disrupt granulation tissue.
605
What characteristics should the ideal wound cleansing solution have?
Isotonic, easy to sterilize, inexpensive, available, non-irritating, and non-damaging to tissue ## Footnote It should not cause bleeding.
606
What are some examples of antiseptic solutions?
* Dakin solution * Acetic acid * Hydrogen peroxide * Povidone-iodine * Chlorhexidine * Alcohol ## Footnote These have been historically used to cleanse various types of wounds.
607
Why should some antiseptic solutions be avoided on healing tissue?
They can damage granulating tissue ## Footnote This can hinder the healing process.
608
Under what circumstances should antiseptic solutions be reserved?
* New wounds * Wounds that will not heal * Wounds where bacterial burden is more harmful than the solution ## Footnote This approach minimizes potential harm to healing tissue.
609
What is the nature of normal saline in wound cleansing?
Isotonic and safe for injured or healing tissue ## Footnote It cleanses most wounds effectively if used in sufficient amounts.
610
What should be noted about the use of normal saline after opening the container?
It should be used within 24 hours to avoid bacterial growth ## Footnote This ensures the solution remains safe for use.
611
What are the characteristics of sterile water and distilled water?
Clean, contain no additives, less expensive than normal saline ## Footnote Both are hypotonic and can cause fluid shifts to damaged cells.
612
What can occur when large volumes of sterile water are used on wounds?
Water toxicity to an open wound ## Footnote This is due to the hypotonic nature of sterile water.
613
Can potable tap water be used to cleanse wounds?
Yes, it is as effective as saline ## Footnote The decision to use tap water should consider the nature of the wound and the patient's condition.
614
What factors should influence the decision to use tap water for wound cleansing?
Nature and complexity of the wound, patient's general condition, presence of comorbid conditions, immunological status ## Footnote Examples of comorbid conditions include diabetes.
615
What type of water should be used instead of tap water for cleansing wounds?
Purified water ## Footnote This reduces the risk of microbial contamination from biofilm.
616
What is biofilm?
A coating of bacteria that adheres to a surface ## Footnote Biofilms form in hospital water delivery systems and impede wound healing.
617
How does biofilm affect wound healing?
Reduces the effectiveness of fibroblasts and antimicrobials ## Footnote This can lead to delayed healing and increased risk of infection.
618
What types of skin cleansers can be used for periwound skin?
Liquid or foam skin cleansers that are pH balanced ## Footnote These are not for use inside wounds.
619
What is the primary purpose of irrigation (lavage) in wound care?
To cleanse wounds by flushing debris and bacteria on the surface ## Footnote This includes hydrating the site and improving visual inspection of the wound.
620
Name two benefits of wound irrigation.
* Facilitates progression from the inflammatory to the proliferative phase of healing * Reduces infection by preventing premature surface healing ## Footnote This is particularly important over an infected area of a wound.
621
What is the most commonly used wound irrigation solution?
Normal saline ## Footnote Bacterial growth in saline may occur as soon as 24 hours after opening the saline bottle.
622
What types of solutions can be used for wound irrigation?
* Topical cleansers * Antiseptics * Antibiotics * Antifungals * Anesthetics * Analgesics ## Footnote These solutions serve to clean wounds, prevent or treat infection, and manage pain.
623
Fill in the blank: The irrigation solution should be _______ to prevent injury to healing tissue.
Isotonic
624
What are the characteristics an ideal irrigation solution should have? List at least three.
* Nonhemolytic * Nontoxic to healing tissue * Transparent ## Footnote Other characteristics include being inexpensive and warmed to room temperature.
625
True or False: Cytotoxic solutions can enhance wound healing.
False ## Footnote Cytotoxic solutions may impair wound healing.
626
What is a key consideration regarding the temperature of the irrigation solution?
It should be warmed to room temperature to prevent hypothermia.
627
Fill in the blank: An ideal irrigation solution should be _______ to allow visualization of the wound bed.
Transparent
628
What is the role of irrigation in improving wound healing?
Improves wound healing from the inside tissue layers to the skin surface.
629
What is a piston syringe used for?
Irrigation ## Footnote A larger, sterile, disposable syringe designed to minimize hand slippage.
630
Why is a bulb syringe not advised for irrigation?
Increases the risk of aspirating drainage and disrupting healing granulation tissue ## Footnote Bulb syringes can cause complications during wound care.
631
Name two types of commercial irrigation systems.
* Whirlpool agitators * Pulsed lavages ## Footnote These systems are used for delivering irrigation solutions effectively.
632
What is continuous irrigation?
An uninterrupted stream of irrigation solution to the wound’s surface ## Footnote This method is used for consistent wound care.
633
What is pulsed irrigation?
The intermittent delivery of irrigation solution ## Footnote This technique allows for more controlled irrigation.
634
What is the ideal irrigation pressure range?
4 psi to 15 psi ## Footnote This range is effective for removing debris without causing harm.
635
What type of syringe and gauge should be used to deliver irrigation solution at approximately 8 psi?
35-mL syringe attached to a 19-gauge angiocatheter ## Footnote This setup helps effectively manage wound care.
636
What risks are associated with pressures above 15 psi during irrigation?
* Driving bacteria into tissues * Causing mechanical damage to the wound * Dislodging healing granulation tissue ## Footnote High-pressure irrigation can lead to serious complications.
637
What is the pressure range for high-pressure irrigation systems?
35 psi to 70 psi ## Footnote These systems can cause complications in wound healing.
638
True or False: High-pressure irrigation systems can increase the risk of infection.
True ## Footnote They can drive bacteria deeper into the wound compartment.
639
What is the ideal volume of irrigation solution for cleansing a wound per centimeter of laceration?
50 to 100 mL ## Footnote This volume may vary based on the level of contamination and type of wound.
640
What additional irrigation volume consideration is necessary for highly contaminated wounds?
More irrigation volume is needed ## Footnote This ensures thorough cleansing of the wound.
641
What is the required irrigation volume for chemical burns?
More irrigation volume is needed ## Footnote Chemical burns can be particularly severe and require extensive flushing.
642
What personal protective equipment should be used during irrigation to prevent splattering?
Gowns, masks, and goggles ## Footnote These items help protect the healthcare provider from potential exposure.
643
What tool can be used at the end of the irrigating syringe to reduce splashing?
A plastic shield ## Footnote This is particularly useful for IV sites and other open areas.
644
When should sterile technique be used for wound irrigation?
For acute surgical wounds, wounds recently undergoing sharp débridement, or as prescribed by the provider ## Footnote Sterile technique minimizes infection risk.
645
What technique is primarily used for the majority of wound irrigations?
Clean technique ## Footnote This is sufficient for many types of wounds that are not severely contaminated.
646
What is the purpose of drains in wound care?
To allow fluid and exudate to exit and prevent excessive pressure from building up in the tissues.
647
During what procedure are drains usually placed?
During a surgical procedure.
648
What is a Penrose drain?
A flexible, flat latex tube placed in the wound bed, usually not sutured into place.
649
How is a Penrose drain typically secured?
With a clip or pin at the insertion site to prevent slipping.
650
What are Hemovac and Jackson-Pratt drains?
Drains attached to a collection device for fluid removal.
651
What does 'placed to suction' mean for a drainage device?
The device is compressed to create suction and facilitate the removal of drainage.
652
What should be done if a specific pressure is to be applied to a drain?
Connect the drain to wall suction as prescribed by the provider.
653
How should a nurse describe drain placement?
Using the drain’s position on a clock face with the patient’s head at the 12 o’clock position.
654
What is important to monitor regarding wound drains?
The amount and character of the drainage.
655
What should a nurse do if they suspect a drain is occluded?
Check the drain line for kinks and notify the provider if the problem persists.
656
True or False: Many drains are sutured in place.
False.
657
What should be done to maintain suction in a collection apparatus?
Empty the apparatus at a designated volume as it fills.
658
Fill in the blank: A _______ drain is a type of drain that is not typically sutured into place.
Penrose Flowers in a vase can be moved
659
What is the consequence of not emptying a drainage device regularly?
Suction pressure decreases.
660
Why is it necessary to label drains numerically?
To ensure consistent care by each caregiver.
661
What information should be recorded in nursing notes regarding drains?
The amount and character of the drainage.
662
What is débridement?
The removal of devitalized tissue or foreign material from a wound. ## Footnote It also involves removing senescent cells from the wound bed and edges.
663
What is the purpose of removing necrotic tissue from a wound?
To stimulate wound healing and prepare the wound bed for advanced therapies or biological agents. ## Footnote This includes the removal of exudate and infective material.
664
What should not be removed during débridement if the wound has poor circulation?
Eschar. ## Footnote This is critical to avoid further complications in the healing process.
665
What is a stable heel eschar?
A type of eschar that should be left alone during débridement. ## Footnote It indicates a stable condition that does not require intervention.
666
When is débridement not beneficial for a patient?
In cases where the patient is critically unstable or has a grave prognosis. ## Footnote This consideration is crucial for patient safety and care.
667
How many types of débridement are there?
Five types. ## Footnote These types include sharp (surgical), mechanical, enzymatic, autolytic, and biotherapy (maggot) therapy.
668
What is sharp débridement?
A type of débridement performed surgically. ## Footnote It involves the use of surgical instruments to remove tissue.
669
What is mechanical débridement?
A type of débridement that uses physical force to remove tissue. ## Footnote This can include methods like irrigation or wet-to-dry dressings.
670
What is enzymatic débridement?
A type of débridement that uses enzymes to break down necrotic tissue. ## Footnote This method is often applied topically.
671
What is autolytic débridement?
A type of débridement that relies on the body’s own mechanisms to remove dead tissue. ## Footnote This process is facilitated by moisture-retentive dressings.
672
What is biotherapy (maggot) therapy?
A type of débridement that uses live maggots to consume necrotic tissue. ## Footnote This method is effective in promoting healing in certain types of wounds.
673
What is sharp débridement?
The use of a sterile, sharp instrument, such as scalpel or scissors, to remove devitalized tissue.
674
What is the primary benefit of sharp débridement?
Provides an immediate improvement of the wound bed and preserves granulation tissue.
675
Who can perform sharp débridement?
A physician, nurse, or physical therapist with specialized training.
676
Where may sharp débridement be performed if extensive?
In the operating room.
677
What is often performed simultaneously with the débridement of stage 4 pressure injuries?
A bone biopsy.
678
What does a bone biopsy detect in the context of sharp débridement?
Osteomyelitis, extension of the infection into the bone.
679
Fill in the blank: Sharp débridement uses a _______ to remove devitalized tissue.
[sterile, sharp instrument]
680
True or False: Sharp débridement is only performed by physicians.
False
681
What is mechanical débridement?
Mechanical débridement may be performed via lavage, wet-to-damp dressings, or hydrotherapy.
682
Describe the wet-to-dry dressing method.
Coarse gauze moistened with normal saline packed into the wound, allowed to dry, and removed several times a day.
683
Why has the use of wet-to-dry dressings declined?
It causes pain and provides only nonselective débridement, removing both debris and healing granulation tissue.
684
What should be done to manage pain when using wet-to-dry dressings?
Medicate the patient beforehand with opioid analgesics.
685
How does rewetting the gauze affect the dressing change?
It aids in removal and decreases pain but may eliminate the débriding action.
686
What is hydrotherapy?
A vigorous form of nonselective débridement using a whirlpool for wounds with a large amount of nonviable tissue.
687
What are the general recommendations for hydrotherapy treatments?
Usually performed in the physical therapy department once or twice per day for 5 to 15 minutes.
688
What precautions should be taken during hydrotherapy?
Do not expose the wound directly to the water jets.
689
List the risks associated with hydrotherapy.
* Increased risk for periwound maceration * Contamination by waterborne infections * Cross-contamination * Vasodilation, increasing edema and congestion * Increased risk for burns in persons with diabetic neuropathies
690
True or False: Hydrotherapy is safe for all wound types.
False
691
Fill in the blank: The wet-to-dry dressing method allows the gauze to ______ before removal.
dry
692
What is the primary purpose of mechanical débridement?
To remove nonviable tissue from wounds.
693
What is enzymatic débridement?
Enzymatic débridement uses proteolytic agents to break down necrotic tissue without affecting viable tissue in the wound. ## Footnote It involves cleaning the wound with normal saline, applying a thin layer of cream, and covering with a moisture-retaining dressing.
694
How often can enzymatic débridement be performed?
Once or twice daily, depending on the product. ## Footnote It is important to apply the product only to devitalized tissue.
695
What is autolytic débridement?
Autolytic débridement (autolysis) is the use of an occlusive, moisture-retaining dressing and the body’s own enzymes and defense mechanisms to break down necrotic tissue. ## Footnote This process is slower but better tolerated than other techniques.
696
How often should the dressing for autolytic débridement be changed?
Every 72 hours, or sooner if drainage breakthrough occurs. ## Footnote The wound should be cleansed before applying a new dressing.
697
What color may the fluid collected under the dressing during autolytic débridement be?
Tan. ## Footnote Observing the fluid is part of the monitoring process.
698
What should be regularly observed for in autolytic débridement?
Signs of infection, such as an increase in pain or a foul odor. ## Footnote Regular observation is crucial for timely intervention.
699
Fill in the blank: Autolysis is contraindicated in the presence of _______.
infection or immunosuppression.
700
What is biotherapy (maggot) débridement therapy?
The use of medical-grade larvae of the greenbottle fly to dissolve dead and infected tissue from wounds ## Footnote The larvae secrete enzymes that break down dead tissue while neutralizing on healthy tissue.
701
How do maggot larvae affect dead tissue?
They secrete enzymes that break down dead tissue ## Footnote The enzymes are neutralized upon contact with normal tissue, protecting healthy areas.
702
What additional benefit do maggot larvae provide in wound care?
They digest bacteria from the wound ## Footnote This helps reduce infection and promotes healing.
703
What is a potential issue when using maggot therapy?
Containing the larvae within the dressing can be problematic ## Footnote Larvae are typically changed every 48 to 72 hours.
704
How should used maggots be disposed of?
Disposed of as biohazardous medical waste ## Footnote This is important for safety and infection control.
705
What emotional considerations should be taken into account with maggot therapy?
It can be emotionally disturbing to both patients and nurses ## Footnote Discussing this with the patient is essential.
706
What defines a physiological wound environment?
Maintains the right amount of moisture for cells to flourish ## Footnote This is crucial for healing.
707
What role do wound dressings play in moisture management?
Function as a barrier to water vapor loss ## Footnote They help prevent dehydration of body cells.
708
What factors should be considered when choosing a dressing?
Purpose, duration, change frequency, and removal ease ## Footnote These factors help ensure effective treatment.
709
What are the goals of the dressing of choice for a wound?
* Prevent drying of the wound bed * Absorb drainage * Keep surrounding tissue dry and intact * Protect from contamination and infection * Aid in hemostasis * Débride the wound * Eliminate dead space * Prevent heat loss * Splint the wound site * Provide comfort to the patient * Control odor * Minimize scarring ## Footnote Each of these goals contributes to effective wound management.
710
What are primary dressings?
Dressings placed in the wound bed that physically touch the wound
711
What is a secondary dressing?
A dressing that covers or holds a primary dressing in place
712
Can some dressings act as both primary and secondary dressings?
Yes, many dressings can touch the wound bed and secure themselves with adhesive
713
What is the importance of patient history and assessment in wound treatment?
Each wound must be treated and dressed individually based on patient history and assessment
714
Is there a single 'recipe' for healing a wound?
No, each wound must be treated individually
715
Should the newest dressing always be chosen for a wound?
No, the newest dressing is not necessarily the best for the wound being treated
716
What should guide the choice of dressing for a wound?
The needs of the wound and not the manufacturer's brand name
717
What should be performed every time a wound is assessed?
Ongoing reassessment of the dressing choice
718
What is the purpose of modifying dressings and treatments?
To adapt as the wound evolves
719
Fill in the blank: Gauze dressings are available in a variety of _______.
[shapes and forms]
720
True or False: IV sites are commonly dressed with transparent film dressings.
True
721
What are absorbent dressings made from?
Highly absorptive layers of fibers such as cellulose, cotton, or rayon ## Footnote May or may not have an adhesive border.
722
What types of wounds can absorbent dressings be used for?
Partial- or full-thickness wounds ## Footnote Used as a primary or secondary dressing to manage drainage.
723
What is the absorption capability of absorbent dressings?
Moderate to large amounts of drainage
724
When should absorbent dressings not be used?
To pack undermining wounds or if the wound is not draining ## Footnote Can dry out the wound bed and damage tissue.
725
What are alginates derived from?
Brown seaweed and kelp
726
In what forms are alginates available?
Pad or rope form
727
What is the absorbency level of alginates?
Very high absorbency (20–40 times their weight)
728
What do alginates promote in wound management?
A moist environment and facilitate autolytic débridement
729
What type of wounds are alginates ideal for?
Wounds that have depth, tracts, tunneling, or undermining
730
What happens when alginate comes in contact with exudate?
A nonadhesive gel is created ## Footnote Must irrigate this gel from the wound before placing the next dressing.
731
What should be considered regarding allergies when using alginates?
Allergy to antibiotic components, seaweed, or kelp
732
What are the two main types of antimicrobials mentioned?
Antibiotic and antifungal
733
In what forms are antimicrobials available?
Ointments, impregnated gauzes, pads, gels, foams, hydrocolloids, and alginates
734
What common elements do many antimicrobials contain?
Silver and iodine
735
What are the primary functions of antimicrobials in wound care?
Reduce exudate and prevent infection by reducing bacteria in the wound, promote collagen deposition
736
What is a potential allergy concern with antimicrobials?
Allergy to silver or iodine
737
What types of wounds can antimicrobials be used on?
Partial- or full-thickness wounds, malodorous wounds with little to large amounts of drainage, highly contaminated or infected wounds
738
What are the sources of collagens used in wound care?
Bovine (cow) or porcine (pig) sources
739
In what forms can collagens be made for wound care?
Sheets, pads, powders, and gels
740
What types of wounds can collagens be used with?
Partial- and full-thickness and contaminated or infected wounds
741
What is one key function of collagens in wound care?
Absorb exudate
742
How do collagens promote healing?
Promote a moist wound bed for healing
743
What do collagens stimulate in the wound bed?
Wounds to produce collagen fibers and granulation tissue
744
What should be checked before using porcine dressings?
Ensure the patient has no religious practices that would forbid this use
745
What is the range of wound exudate absorption for collagens?
Minimal to large
746
True or False: Collagens stick to the wound bed.
False
747
What is a notable feature of collagens in terms of application?
Easy to apply and remove
748
What are foams made from?
Semipermeable hydrophilic foam that forms an impermeable barrier over the wound
749
In what forms are foams available?
Wafers, rolls, and pillows
750
What types of coverings do foams have?
Film coverings; can be adhesive or nonadhesive
751
What type of wounds are foams absorbent for?
Wounds with moderate to heavy exudates
752
What is one thermal property of foams?
Thermal insulation
753
What environment do foams promote for wounds?
A moist environment
754
Do foams stick to the wound bed?
No, they do not stick to the wound bed
755
Can foams be used under compression?
Yes, they can be used under compression
756
What type of skin do foams protect?
Friable periwound skin
757
How can foams be shaped?
They can be shaped around body contours
758
With which other dressings may foams be used in combination?
Alginates or films
759
Should foams be used with wounds that have tunneling or tracts?
No, do not use with wounds that have tunneling or tracts
760
Are foams recommended for dry, desiccated wounds?
No, not recommended
761
What can happen if the dressing becomes oversaturated?
May macerate periwound skin
762
What is a visual limitation of foams?
Opaque, with inability to see wound bed for assessment
763
What is a risk associated with foams regarding bacterial invasion?
High probability of bacterial invasion
764
Foams are suitable for wounds with _______ exudates.
moderate to heavy
765
What is the simplest and most widely used type of dressing?
Gauze ## Footnote Gauze is a common choice for various wound care needs.
766
What are the primary functions of gauze dressings?
Cleansing and Protection ## Footnote Gauze dressings help to clean wounds and protect them from external contaminants.
767
What is a disadvantage of using gauze dressings?
Labor intensive ## Footnote Gauze dressings require careful management and frequent changes.
768
Gauze dressings are made of which types of fibers?
Woven and nonwoven fibers of cotton, rayon, polyester, or a combination ## Footnote These materials contribute to the absorbency and flexibility of the dressing.
769
What types of wounds are gauze dressings used for?
Packing large wounds, cavities, or tracts, deep or dirty wounds, or heavily draining wounds ## Footnote Their versatility makes them suitable for various wound types.
770
Gauze may be used in combination with which of the following?
Amorphous hydrogels, saline, or medications ## Footnote Combining gauze with these substances can enhance wound healing.
771
What are the two forms in which gauze can be packed?
Sterile or nonsterile ## Footnote This allows for flexibility based on the clinical situation.
772
What is a potential drawback of gauze dressings regarding moisture?
Does not ensure a moist wound environment ## Footnote Gauze can allow for fluid evaporation, which is not ideal for healing.
773
What can happen if gauze sticks to wound tissue?
It can damage new, regenerated cells with gauze removal ## Footnote This can impede the healing process.
774
What is required to avoid pressure or overpacking of a wound with gauze?
Gauze must be fluffed ## Footnote Proper application is crucial to prevent complications.
775
What factors determine the dressing change interval for gauze?
Amount of fluid saturation of the gauze ## Footnote Monitoring saturation helps maintain effective wound care.
776
Frequent dressing changes can disrupt the wound bed and cause what physiological condition?
Hypothermic (cold) wound ## Footnote This condition can impair cell growth for healing.
777
What are hydrocolloids?
Wafers, pastes, or powders that contain hydrophilic particles
778
How do hydrophilic particles in hydrocolloids interact with water?
They form a gel that keeps the wound moist
779
What protective benefits do hydrocolloids provide?
They provide a protective layer against friction, caustic agents, and bacteria and reduce pain
780
Are hydrocolloids the dressing of choice for wounds requiring frequent changes?
No
781
What is a characteristic appearance of hydrocolloids?
Opaque
782
What type of wounds are hydrocolloids ideal for?
Wounds with minimal exudates, such as partial-thickness wounds and stage 2 pressure injuries
783
What process do hydrocolloids promote in wound healing?
Autolysis
784
How do hydrocolloids adapt to the body?
They mold to the shape of the body, making them useful for difficult areas
785
What is a specific application of hydrocolloids around stomas?
To create an even surface on which to place the ostomy appliance
786
Do hydrocolloids require a secondary dressing?
No
787
When are hydrocolloids not recommended?
For wounds surrounded by friable or sensitive skin and for infected wounds
788
What can happen when exudate comes in contact with hydrocolloid material?
It can produce an odor that might be confused with a malodorous wound
789
What should be done before determining if a wound is malodorous?
Clean the wound bed first
790
Why should hydrocolloids not be used on wounds with tunneling or tracts?
These wounds must be packed and allowed to drain
791
Fill in the blank: Hydrocolloids should not be used on infected wounds because they are impermeable to ______, moisture, and bacteria.
oxygen
792
What is a potential risk of using hydrocolloids on wounds?
May facilitate the growth of anaerobic bacteria
793
What are hydrogels?
Sheets, granules, or gels with a high water content, creating a jelly-like consistency that does not adhere to the wound bed.
794
What is one of the main benefits of hydrogels in wound care?
Enhance epithelialization to promote a moist environment.
795
How do hydrogels affect the wound bed?
Rehydrate the wound bed.
796
What is another function of hydrogels in wound management?
Promote autolysis.
797
What texture do hydrogels have that contributes to patient comfort?
Soft, cooling texture.
798
What is a limitation of hydrogels?
Have limited absorptive capabilities (not practical for wounds with significant exudate).
799
What type of dressing is required when using hydrogels?
Require a secondary dressing.
800
What is one of the uses of hydrogels in necrotic wounds?
Soften slough or eschar.
801
What risk do hydrogels pose to periwound skin?
Easily macerate periwound skin due to high moisture content.
802
What are skin sealants made from?
Liquid transparent copolymer ## Footnote Skin sealants are specifically designed to provide a protective barrier on the skin.
803
What are the components of moisture barrier ointments?
Petrolatum, dimethicone, zinc-based products ## Footnote These components help protect the skin from exudate, moisture, urine, and feces.
804
How should skin sealants be applied?
Wiped or sprayed on skin ## Footnote They can be applied to protect the skin from wound exudate and moisture.
805
What is the primary purpose of moisture barrier ointments?
To protect skin from exudate, moisture, urine, and feces ## Footnote They serve as a protective layer for vulnerable skin.
806
When should skin sealants be used?
With each dressing change ## Footnote They are simple and fast to use, ensuring ongoing protection.
807
What do skin sealants protect the skin from?
Moisture, friction, skin stripping from adhesives ## Footnote They provide a barrier against various forms of skin injury.
808
True or False: Ointments improve the adhesion of wound dressings or tapes.
False ## Footnote Ointments can impair the adhesion of wound dressings or tapes.
809
Fill in the blank: Skin sealants provide a barrier of protection over vulnerable skin from the effects of _______.
moisture and mechanical and chemical skin injury ## Footnote This protective barrier is essential for maintaining skin integrity.
810
What are transparent films?
Clear and semipermeable materials ## Footnote Used in wound dressing to provide a moist environment.
811
What environment do transparent films promote?
A moist environment ## Footnote This helps in the healing process of wounds.
812
What happens to tissues if transparent films are used over draining wounds?
Tissues will become macerated ## Footnote This is due to excessive moisture retention.
813
What is a key characteristic of transparent films regarding oxygen?
Occlusive with oxygen permeability ## Footnote This allows for gas exchange while protecting the wound.
814
What process do transparent films promote?
Autolysis ## Footnote This is the body's own process of breaking down dead tissue.
815
Where are transparent films often used?
To dress IV sites ## Footnote They help prevent contamination and maintain a sterile environment.
816
What do transparent films prevent?
External bacterial contamination ## Footnote This is crucial for maintaining the integrity of the wound.
817
What advantage do transparent films offer in wound assessment?
Allow wound assessment without removing or disturbing the dressing ## Footnote This minimizes trauma to the wound during evaluations.
818
Can transparent films be placed over joints?
Yes, without inhibiting movement ## Footnote This makes them versatile for various body areas.
819
What should be avoided when using transparent films?
Do not use them on friable skin ## Footnote They adhere strongly and can cause further damage.
820
What factors influence the choice of securing a dressing?
Wound size, location, amount of drainage, frequency of dressing changes, patient’s activity level, type of dressings used
821
What is the most commonly used method to secure dressings?
Tape
822
What are the characteristics of adhesive tape?
Provides stability, tough, durable, leaves residue, can cause trauma to skin upon removal
823
What should be used to remove residue left by adhesive tape?
Commercial adhesive removers
824
What type of reactions can adhesives in tape cause?
Allergic skin reactions
825
Which tape is ideal for dressings over joints?
Foam tape
826
What types of tape are best for sensitive skin?
Nonallergenic tape, paper tape
827
What should be done before using tape on a patient?
Ask about history of tape allergies or irritation
828
How should tape be applied to a dressing?
Place strips of tape at the ends and space them evenly over the dressing
829
What types of tape should be used for fragile skin of older adults or infants?
Porous tapes, thin hydrocolloids, low-adhesion foam dressings, skin sealants
830
What is the purpose of Montgomery straps?
Decrease pulling and irritation of skin around a wound
831
How should Montgomery straps be applied?
Adhesive part to skin at ends and spaced intervals, lace cloth ties to secure dressing
832
When should the ties of Montgomery straps be changed?
Whenever they become soiled
833
What should be done with Montgomery straps after application?
Keep in place until they begin to loosen
834
What are Standard Precautions?
Infection control measures recommended by the CDC for all patients
835
What additional precautions should be followed for patients with open or draining wounds?
CDC Tier Two: Contact Level Precautions in addition to Standard Precautions
836
What is the purpose of Montgomery straps?
To secure a dressing that requires frequent changing
837
What should be done if a patient has an infection?
Place them in a private room or with a patient with the same organism
838
What is the most important aseptic measure?
Wash your hands frequently and thoroughly with soap and warm water
839
When should clean gloves be used in wound care?
When caring for the patient with a wound
840
What should be done after removing a soiled dressing?
Change gloves and wash hands before applying a clean dressing
841
Which wound should be treated first when a patient has multiple wounds?
The least contaminated wound
842
What technique should be used for sharp débridement?
Sterile technique with sterile instruments
843
What signs and symptoms should be monitored after sharp débridement?
Signs of sepsis (e.g., fever, tachycardia, hypotension, altered consciousness)
844
Who can perform sharp débridement?
Only specially trained providers
845
What type of dressings do acute wounds require?
Sterile dressings
846
What type of dressings do chronic wounds require?
Clean dressings, unless the patient is immunocompromised
847
How should contaminated dressings be disposed of?
In biohazard waste receptacles
848
What should be done with unused dressings if they become contaminated?
Discard them
849
Where should patient dressing supplies be stored?
In a clean and dry area
850
What should not be done with dressing supplies among patients?
Do not share supplies
851
What is the recommended practice for accessing dressing supplies?
Access only the number needed for the dressing change
852
What should be avoided when handling dressing supplies?
Touching the supply with gloves that have come in contact with the wound
853
What is the primary purpose of binders and bandages?
To hold a dressing in place, apply pressure to a wound, and support and immobilize an injured area ## Footnote This promotes healing and comfort.
854
What should be assessed before applying a bandage or binder?
The purpose of the application and the part being bandaged ## Footnote This ensures appropriate use and effectiveness.
855
What are binders typically used for?
To keep a wound closed or to immobilize a body part ## Footnote This aids in the healing process.
856
What materials are binders commonly made from?
Cloth or elasticized material ## Footnote They may fasten with straps, pins, or Velcro.
857
What is a triangular arm binder or sling used for?
To support the upper extremities ## Footnote Commercial slings are commonly available.
858
What is the function of a T-binder?
To secure dressings or pads in the perineal area ## Footnote It helps maintain cleanliness and protection.
859
What is an abdominal binder used for?
To provide support to the abdomen, especially after an incision or open wound ## Footnote It decreases the risk of dehiscence.
860
Fill in the blank: Binders may be used to keep a wound closed when there is danger of _______.
dehiscence
861
True or False: Binders are only used on small areas of the body.
False ## Footnote Binders are typically used on large areas of the body.
862
What is a bandage?
A cloth, gauze, or elastic covering that is wrapped in place
863
What are the common widths for bandages?
1.5 to 7.5 cm (0.5 to 3 in.)
864
When should a narrow bandage be used?
On small body parts, such as a finger
865
What are cloth bandages commonly used for?
As slings to immobilize an upper extremity or to hold large abdominal dressings in place
866
What is the most frequently used type of bandage?
Gauze
867
How does gauze conform to the body?
It readily conforms to the shape of the body
868
What can gauze be impregnated with?
Medications or plaster of Paris
869
What is the purpose of elastic bandages?
To apply pressure and give support
870
What is the most common form of elasticized bandage?
Ace bandages
871
What is a rolled bandage?
A continuous strip of material that you unroll as you apply it to a body part
872
What temperature range do temperature-sensitive nerve endings respond to?
15°C to 45°C (59°F to 113°F)
873
What factors affect the response to heat or cold therapy?
Area being treated, nature of the injury, duration of treatment, patient age, physical condition, and condition of the skin
874
What happens to thermal receptors after about 15 minutes of heat or cold application?
They adapt to the new temperature and the person notices it less
875
What should patients be cautioned against during heat or cold therapy?
Changing the temperature after adaptation occurs
876
Who are the least tolerant of heat and cold therapies?
The very young and the very old
877
What is a risk for patients with sensory impairment during heat or cold therapy?
Increased risk for injury due to inability to perceive temperature changes
878
Which body areas are very sensitive to temperature changes?
Highly vascular areas such as fingers, hand, face, and perineum
879
How does application to a large body surface area affect tolerance?
Decreases the patient’s tolerance of the treatment
880
How does intact skin compare to injured skin in tolerating heat and cold therapy?
Intact skin tolerates heat and cold therapy better
881
What is the purpose of local heat therapy?
To relieve stiffness and discomfort associated with musculoskeletal problems and for patients with wounds.
882
What physiological effect may occur when heat is applied to a large area of the body?
Vasodilatation may cause a drop in blood pressure and a feeling of faintness.
883
What are the mechanisms by which heat therapy increases blood flow?
Through vasodilatation, increased capillary permeability, and reduced blood viscosity.
884
How does increased blood flow benefit a wound?
It brings oxygen and white blood cells (WBCs) to the wound and aids in the healing process.
885
What are the two types of heat that may be used in heat therapy?
Moist heat and dry heat.
886
Fill in the blank: Moist heat can be applied in several forms, including _______.
washcloths, gauze compresses, soaks, and baths.
887
What should you avoid when warming moistened towels for heat therapy?
Do not microwave moistened towels to warm them.
888
Why should moistened towels not be microwaved?
It causes unequal heat distribution and may cause burns to the patient.
889
What is a gauze compress used for in heat therapy?
To apply moist heat when there are open areas on the skin.
890
What is the purpose of a soak in heat therapy?
To immerse the affected area, cleanse a wound, and remove encrusted material.
891
What is a sitz bath?
A type of bath that soaks the patient’s perineal area.
892
What type of heat applications can be used for dry heat therapy?
Electric heating pads, disposable hot packs, or hot water bags.
893
What caution should be taken when using heating pads?
Patients should place the heating pad over the body area and never lie on it.
894
What is an aquathermia pad?
A device that circulates water in the interior of the pad to create a constant temperature.
895
True or False: Moist heat therapy is less effective than dry heat therapy.
False.
896
What is a major advantage of electric heating pads?
Providing a constant temperature ## Footnote However, there is a high risk of burns associated with their use.
897
What are aquathermia pads used for?
Dry heat application ## Footnote Aquapads circulate water in the interior to create a constant temperature.
898
What are some alternatives to electric heating pads for heat application?
Disposable hot packs and hot water bags or bottles ## Footnote Hot water bags are common for home use but pose a burn risk in healthcare settings.
899
What are the effects of applying cold therapy?
Vasoconstriction and decreased capillary permeability ## Footnote Additional effects include local anesthesia, reduced cell metabolism, increased blood viscosity, and decreased muscle tension.
900
List some applications of cold therapy.
* Prevent or limit edema * Reduce inflammation and pain * Reduce oxygen requirements * Help control bleeding * Treat fevers * Treat musculoskeletal injuries * Prevent swelling after surgery ## Footnote Examples include using an ice bag on the perineum after childbirth or an ice collar after tonsillectomy.
901
What are some side effects of cold therapy?
* Elevated blood pressure * Shivering * Tissue damage ## Footnote Elevated blood pressure occurs due to vasoconstriction; shivering is a normal response to prolonged cold; tissue damage can result from impaired circulation.
902
Fill in the blank: Cold therapy can produce _______ that helps control bleeding.
Vasoconstriction
903
True or False: Hot water bags are widely used in healthcare agencies.
False ## Footnote Hot water bags are common for in-home use but are not recommended in healthcare settings due to burn risks.