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Pharmacy Practice VI > Exam 2 (Drugs 51 - 100) > Flashcards

Exam 2 (Drugs 51 - 100) Flashcards

1
Q

Venlafaxine HCl

A

Effexor (XR)

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2
Q

Potent inhibitor of neuronal 5-HT & NE reuptake

A

Venlafaxine

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3
Q

Do not begin within 14 days of D/C MAOI. Also, wait to start an MAOI until at least 7 days after D/C this drug.

A

Venlafaxine

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4
Q

ANTIDEPRESSANTS INCREASE SUICIDAL THOUGHTS AND ACTIONS IN SOME CHILDREN AND TEENAGERS

A

Venlafaxine, Mirtazapine, Paroxetine

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5
Q

Continued therapy of up to 2 weeks may be needed to show noticeable improvement

A

Venlafaxine

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6
Q

Clonidine HCl

A

Catapres (TTS)

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7
Q

Stimulates central alpha-adrenergic receptors resulting in inhibition of bulbar sympathetic cardioaccelerator and sympathetic vasoconstrictor centers

A

Clonidine

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8
Q

Dangerous increases in BP when used with beta-blockers and when either drug is D/C

A

Clonidine

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9
Q

Sudden cessation of therapy may produce severe HTN

A

Clonidine

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10
Q

Change transdermal skin sites with each application

A

Clonidine-TTS

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11
Q

Aripiprazole

A

Abilify

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12
Q

MOA is a combination of partial agonist activity at dopamine D2 and 5-HT1A receptors & antagonist activity at 5-HT2A receptors

A

Aripiprazole

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13
Q

CI IN PATIENTS WITH DEMENTIA-RELATED PSYCHOSIS

A

Aripiprazole

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14
Q

Rare cases of Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome (NMS) have occurred in patients taking this med

A

Aripiprazole

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15
Q

TARDIVE DYSKINESIA is a rare possibility in patients taking this drug

A

Aripiprazole

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16
Q

Use appropriate precautions against heat exposure and dehydration

A

Aripiprazole

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17
Q

Store oral solution in the refrigerator and use within 6 months of opening the bottle

A

Aripiprazole

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18
Q

Lisinopril with HCTZ

A

Zestoretic, Prinzide

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19
Q

Electrolyte disturbances may cause DIGITALIS-induced arrhythmias

A

Lisinopril w/HCTZ

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20
Q

CI in patients with a history of angioedema related to a previous treatment with an ACEI

A

Lisinopril w/HCTZ

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21
Q

Timing of dose is important bc of increased diuresis. Usually given in the early AM.

A

Lisinopril w/HCTZ, Spironolactone, Triamterene with HCTZ

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22
Q

Morphine Sulfate (extended release)

A

MS Contin

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23
Q

Produces analgesia by a central action on the central opiate receptors

A

Morphine sulfate

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24
Q

CI in patients with respiratory depression in the absence of resuscitative equipment, and in patients with acute or severe bronchial asthma. Also CI in any patient with a paralytic ileus.

A

Morphine sulfate

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25
Q

Fenofibrate

A

Tricor

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26
Q

Lowers total cholesterol, LDL, and triglycerides by activation of peroxisome proliferator activated receptor-a (PPARa).

A

Fenofibrate

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27
Q

Avoid use in conjunction with HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors as this can lead to serious AE’s (rhabdomyolysis)

A

Fenofibrate

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28
Q

CI in patients with hepatic or severe renal dysfunction, including primary biliary cirrhosis, in patients with unexplained persistent liver function abnormality, and in patients with preexisting gallbladder disease

A

Fenofibrate

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29
Q

Serious liver toxicity is a potential AE of this drug therapy

A

Fenofibrate

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30
Q

Promptly report RASH, MUSCLE PAIN, TENDERNESS, or WEAKNESS (signs of myositis)

A

Fenofibrate

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31
Q

Important to closely follow prescribed diet with this medication

A

Fenofibrate

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32
Q

Rosuvastatin Calcium

A

Crestor

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33
Q

Selective, competitive inhibitor of HMG-CoA reductase

A

Rosuvastatin, Pravastatin

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34
Q

CI in patients with active liver disease or with unexplained persistent elevations of serum transaminases and during pregnancy and lactation

A

Rosuvastatin, Pravastatin

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35
Q

Azithromycin Dihydrate

A

Zithromax & Zmax

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36
Q

A macrolide antibiotic that binds to the 50S ribosomal subunit of susceptible bacteria thereby suppressing protein synthesis

A

Azithromycin

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37
Q

Pseudomembranous colitis and secondary bacterial infections may occur with broad spectrum abx

A

Azithromycin

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38
Q

Do not use for complicated pneumonia, gonorrhea, or syphilis

A

Azithromycin

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39
Q

Do not take antacids within 1 hour of administration (slow drug absorption)

A

Azithromycin

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40
Q

Pravastatin Sodium

A

Pravachol

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41
Q

Grapefruit juice has little to no effect on plasma levels

A

Pravastatin

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42
Q

May cause optic nerve degeneration

A

Pravastatin

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43
Q

Avoid overexposure to sunlight due to possibility of photosensitivity. Use a sunscreen and wear appropriate clothing until the level of sensitivity is determined.

A

Pravastatin

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44
Q

Naproxen

A

Naprosyn

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45
Q

MOA probably due to inhibition of cyclooxygenase resulting in decreased biosynthesis of prostaglandins

A

Naproxen

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46
Q

NSAID’s may produce serious GI toxicity with or without warnings

A

Naproxen

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47
Q

May require up to 2 weeks to see noticeable improvement in arthritic conditions

A

Naproxen

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48
Q

Concurrent ingestion of alcohol may increase ulcerogenic effect

A

Naproxen

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49
Q

Tamsulosin HCl

A

Flomax

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50
Q

Selective alpha-adrenergic blocking agent for receptors found in the prostate (used in BPH). Blocking these receptors relaxes the prostate gland and bladder neck to result in increased urinary flow and a reduction in BPH symptoms.

A

Tamsulosin

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51
Q

Orthostatic hypotension may occur during therapy, therefore patients should be warned about possible syncope and dizziness

A

Tamsulosin

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52
Q

Take dose 1/2 hour following the same meal every day

A

Tamsulosin

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53
Q

Divalproex Sodium

A

Depakote (ER)

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54
Q

MOA thought to be related to increased brain levels of GABA

A

Divalproex

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55
Q

CI in patients with hepatic disease (hepatic failure resulting in fatalities has occurred in patients receiving this drug)

A

Divalproex

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56
Q

Capsules may be swallowed whole or the contents sprinkled over soft food and ingested without chewing

A

Divalproex

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57
Q

Donepezil HCl

A

Aricept

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58
Q

A reversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor that works centrally to increase the amount of acetylcholine available at cholinergic synapses

A

Donepezil

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59
Q

CI in patients with known hypersensitivity to the drug or piperidine derivatives

A

Donepezil

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60
Q

May be beneficial to D/C use prior to known anesthesia. May cause vagotonic effects on the heart therefore use caution in patients with sick sinus syndrome. May increase gastric acid secretion therefore use caution in patients prone to ulcers or GI bleeding

A

Donepezil

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61
Q

Take in the evening, just prior to retiring. May be taken with or without food

A

Donepezil

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62
Q

Ibuprofen

A

Motrin

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63
Q

Produces a reversible inhibition of cyclooxygenase which results in a decreased synthesis of prostaglandins

A

Ibuprofen

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64
Q

Not recommended in pregnancy due to the known effects of this class of drugs on the human fetal cardiovascular system (closure of the ductus arterioles)

A

Ibuprofen

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65
Q

Pregabalin

A

Lyrica

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66
Q

High binding affinity to the alpha(2)-delta site in CNS tissues

A

Pregabalin

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67
Q

When discontinuing therapy, taper gradually over a minimum of 1 week

A

Pregabalin

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68
Q

Peripheral edema has been reported, especially in patients also taking thiazolidinedione antidiabetic agents

A

Pregabalin

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69
Q

Oral solution must be used within 45 days of opening the stock container

A

Pregabalin

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70
Q

Lamotrigine

A

Lamictal (XR)

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71
Q

MOA unknown - may be due to inhibition of voltage-sensitive sodium channels, resulting in a stabilization of neuronal membranes and modulation of presynaptic transmitter release of excitatory amino acids (glutamate & aspartate)

A

Lamotrigine

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72
Q

Use with ORAL CONTRACEPTIVES may decrease the serum concentrations of the progestin component while significantly decreasing the serum concentration of this drug

A

Lamotrigine

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73
Q

Serious life-threatening rashes have been reported in association with the use of this drug. Rashes usually occur within the first two weeks of therapy and are more common in pediatric patients.

A

Lamotrigine

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74
Q

Chewable tablets may be chewed or dispersed in a teaspoonful of water or diluted fruit juice

A

Lamotrigine

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75
Q

Alendronate Sodium

A

Fosamax

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76
Q

Adheres to sites of bone resorption inhibiting osteoclast activity

A

Alendronate

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77
Q

As a general rule, do not administer any oral medication within 30 minutes of this drug

A

Alendronate

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78
Q

CI in patients with abnormalities of the esophagus which delay esophageal emptying such as stricture or achalasia, in patients who cannot sit upright or stand for at least 30 minutes, and in patients with hypocalcemia. Can cause severe local irritation of the upper GI mucosa

A

Alendronate

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79
Q

Must be swallowed with 6 - 8 ounces of plain water immediately upon arising for the day (at least 30 minutes before the first food, beverage, or medication for the day). Do not lie down for 30 minutes after swallowing the tablet and not until the first food of the day has been consumed.

A

Alendronate

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80
Q

Isosorbide mononitrate (antianginal)

A

Imdur

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81
Q

Acts by reduction of myocardial oxygen demand through the relaxation of vascular smooth muscle

A

Isosorbide

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82
Q

CI in patients who are hypersensitive to nitrates

A

Isosorbide

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83
Q

Use is not recommended in acute phase of MI or in those with congestive HF. Use with caution in patients with hypotension or volume depletion.

A

Isosorbide

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84
Q

Tolerance and physical dependence may occur after prolonged use

A

Isosorbide

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85
Q

Most common AE’s include headache (50%) and dizziness (10%)

A

Isosorbide

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86
Q

May cause dizziness, headache, or flushing. Headaches are a sign of drug effectiveness. Do not adjust dosage to treat headaches - use aspirin or APAP as needed.

A

Isosorbide

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87
Q

Spironolactone

A

Aldactone

88
Q

Works by competitive antagonism of aldosterone, primarily at the aldosterone-dependent Na+/K+ exchange sites in the distal convoluted renal tubule

A

Spironolactone

89
Q

CI in patients with anuria, acute renal insufficiency, significant impairment of renal function, hyperkalemia, and in patients hypersensitive to sulfonamides

A

Spironolactone

90
Q

Common AE’s include WEAKNESS, PARESTHESIA, MENTAL CONFUSION, DRY MOUTH, & MUSCLE CRAMPS

A

Spironolactone

91
Q

Losartan Potassium

A

Cozaar

92
Q

Blocks the vasoconstrictor and aldosterone-secreting effects of angiotensin II by selectively blocking the binding of angiotensin II to the AT1 receptor found in many tissues (ARB)

A

Losartan

93
Q

Glipizide

A

Glucotrol (XL)

94
Q

A sulfonylurea antidiabetic medication that stimulates insulin synthesis and release from beta cells in the pancreatic islets

A

Glipizide

95
Q

CI in juvenile, unstable (labile), or complicated DM as the sole therapy, in patients allergic to sulfa drugs, and in diabetic ketoacidosis with or without coma

A

Glipizide, Glyburide

96
Q

In patients with severe burns, infections, or trauma, this drug may need to be D/C and insulin given

A

Glipizide, Glyburide

97
Q

Mild hypoglycemic reactions (sweating, tremor, blurred vision, weakness, hunger, and confusion) may occur rarely and should be treated with oral glucose

A

Glipizide, Glyburide, Glimepiride

98
Q

Take 30 minutes prior to meals. Compliance with therapy is essential for optimum effect. Follow prescribed diet closely. Avoid excessive use of alcohol.

A

Glipizide

99
Q

Risperidone

A

Risperdal

100
Q

Thought to act by direct antagonism of dopamine (D2) and serotonin (5-HT2) receptors in the CNS

A

Risperidone

101
Q

CI IN PATIENTS WITH DEMENTIA-RELATED PSYCHOSIS. Antipsychotic drugs have produced a potentially fatal symptom complex called neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS). Do not dispense large quantities of this drug to suicidal patients.

A

Risperidone

102
Q

EXTRAPYRAMIDAL SYMPTOMS & TACHYCARDIA are two big AE’s of this drug

A

Risperidone

103
Q

May cause fainting with initial doses - use caution when getting up from a sitting or lying position. Solution is compatible with orange juice, coffee, and low-fat milk.

A

Risperidone

104
Q

M-Tab tablets must be used immediately after opening their blister. Do not try to push the tablet through the blister. Open with dry hands and do not try to split or store tablets after the blister is opened.

A

Risperidone

105
Q

Carisoprodol

A

Soma

106
Q

May work centrally in the spinal cord or the descending reticular formation to produce muscle relaxation. The metabolite is meprobamate.

A

Carisoprodol

107
Q

CI in acute intermittent porphyria (rare disease in which hemoglobin is abnormally metabolized)

A

Carisoprodol

108
Q

Ropinirole HCl (antiparkinson)

A

Requip (XL)

109
Q

A non-ergoline dopamine agonist with full intrinsic activity at the D2 & D3 dopamine receptor subtypes

A

Ropinirole

110
Q

Patients have reported sudden initiation of sleep without warning. This has occurred during normal activities of daily living, including the operation of vehicles.

A

Ropinirole

111
Q

Cigarette smoking decreases AUC by 38%. Inform the physician if planning to start or stop smoking

A

Ropinirole

112
Q

If being taken for Parkinson’s disease, do not stop therapy abruptly; treatment should be tapered over time

A

Ropinirole

113
Q

Diazepam

A

Valium

114
Q

Facilitates the inhibitory neurotransmitter action of GABA, which mediates both pre- and post-synaptic inhibition in all regions of the CNS

A

Diazepam

115
Q

CI in patients with myasthenia gravis, severe respiratory insufficiency, severe hepatic insufficiency, in sleep apnea, in children under the age of 6 months, in narrow-angle glaucoma, and in untreated open-angle glaucoma

A

Diazepam

116
Q

Oral concentrate must be diluted prior to use

A

Diazepam

117
Q

Allopurinol

A

Zyloprim

118
Q

Competitively inhibits xanthine oxidase which is the enzyme responsible for the conversion of hypoxanthine to xanthine to uric acid

A

Allopurinol

119
Q

Gout attacks may increase during initiation of therapy. Use colchicine or NSAIDs prophylactically

A

Allopurinol

120
Q

A sufficient fluid intake (to yield urine output of 2 liters per day) and the maintenance of a neutral to slightly alkaline urine are recommended to avoid the formation of xanthine calculi and to help prevent renal precipitation of urates in patients receiving concomitant uricosuric agents.

A

Allopurinol

121
Q

Compliance with therapy is essential. May take one or more weeks to reach maximum effectiveness. High fluid intake during therapy is beneficial to help prevent kidney stone formation.

A

Allopurinol

122
Q

Mirtazapine

A

Remeron

123
Q

Antagonist of central presynaptic alpha-2 adrenergic inhibitory auto receptors and heteroreceptors, an action that is postulated to result in an increase in central noradrenergic and serotonergic activity

A

Mirtazapine

124
Q

SolTabs must be used immediately upon opening individual tablet blisters

A

Mirtazapine

125
Q

Oxybutynin Chloride (oral) (urinary bladder modifier)

A

Ditropan (XL)

126
Q

Inhibits the muscarinic action of acetylcholine on smooth muscle. Blockage does not occur at skeletal neuromuscular junctions or autonomic ganglia. Relaxes bladder smooth muscle which decreases urgency, frequency, urinary leakage, and dysuria.

A

Oxybutynin

127
Q

CI in uncontrolled narrow-angle glaucoma, urinary retention, and gastric retention

A

Oxybutynin

128
Q

Heat prostration can occur in the presence of high environmental temperature. Avoid prolonged exposure to hot weather.

A

Oxybutynin

129
Q

The semipermeable membrane tablet shell of the extended-release tablets passes through the GI tract intact and may be found in the stool

A

Oxybutynin

130
Q

Pioglitazone HCl

A

Actos

131
Q

A thiazolidinedione antidiabetic agent that decreases insulin resistance by improving target cell response to insulin (requires presence of insulin)

A

Pioglitazone

132
Q

CI in patients with NYHA Class III or IV HF. Can exacerbate congestive HF. Because it requires insulin, do not use in T1DM

A

Pioglitazone

133
Q

Quarterly HbA1c testing should be performed

A

Pioglitazone

134
Q

Memantine HCl

A

Namenda (XR)

135
Q

Works as a low to moderate affinity uncompetitive (open-channel) NMDA receptor antagonist

A

Memantine

136
Q

Daily doses above 5 mg should be given BID and dose increases should not be made sooner than once a week

A

Memantine

137
Q

Metoclopramide HCl

A

Reglan

138
Q

MOA as an antiemetic is due to an inhibition of dopamine receptors which results in decreased nerve transmission from afferent nerves to the vomiting center and an increase in the vomiting center threshold

A

Metoclopramide

139
Q

MOA as a GI motility stimulant is thought to be caused by an imbalance between dopaminergic and cholinergic actions in the GI tract through inhibition of dopamine induced gastric smooth muscle relaxation

A

Metoclopramide

140
Q

CI in patients with pheochromocytoma, GI hemorrhage, mechanical obstruction or perforation, and in epilepsy. Do not use in patients receiving drugs that may cause EPS.

A

Metoclopramide

141
Q

AE’s include restlessness, drowsiness, tardive dyskinesia, and fatigue

A

Metoclopramide

142
Q

Take 30 minutes before meals (in order to achieve effects as a GI motility stimulant)

A

Metoclopramide

143
Q

Baclofen

A

Lioresal

144
Q

An analog of GABA, most likely works at the spinal cord level, reducing both the flexor and extensor spasms

A

Baclofen

145
Q

Do not D/C abruptly due to risk of hallucinations and seizures

A

Baclofen

146
Q

Phenylketonurics should be warned that orally-disintegrating tablets contain phenylalanine

A

Baclofen

147
Q

Folic Acid (Folacin, Pteroylglutamine Acid; Folate)

A

No brand name

148
Q

An important vitamin required for the synthesis of thymidylate, synthesis of purine nucleotides, and for maintenance of normal erythropoiesis. Deficiency can lead to megaloblastic anemias in adults and children & neural tube defects in unborn infants

A

Folic Acid

149
Q

CI in the treatment of pernicious anemia and other megaloblastic anemias where vitamin B12 is deficient

A

Folic Acid

150
Q

The US Public Health Services recommends the use of 0.4 mg of folic acid in women of childbearing age to reduce the incidence of neural tube defects.

A

Folic Acid

151
Q

Amoxicillin Trihydrate

A

Amoxil, Moxatag, Trimox

152
Q

Inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis via acylation of the transpeptidase enzyme

A

Amoxicillin

153
Q

Changes in GI flora may disrupt the absorption of oral contraceptives

A

Amoxicillin

154
Q

CI in patients hypersensitive to PCNs and/or cephalosporins. Incidence of cross-sensitivity is 5 - 16%

A

Amoxicillin

155
Q

AE’s are DIARRHEA, RASH, N/V, hives, itching

A

Amoxicillin

156
Q

Preferably taken on an empty stomach 1 hour before or 2 hours after meals with a full glass (240 mL) of water. Take at even intervals, preferably around the clock

A

Amoxicillin

157
Q

Keep suspension refrigerated. Discard after 14 days

A

Amoxicillin

158
Q

Amphetamine with Dextroamphetamine Salts

A

Adderall (XR)

159
Q

MOA in ADD is unknown. Causes CNS stimulation by a direct action on adrenergic receptors, releasing norepinephrine from storage sites

A

Adderall

160
Q

CI in advanced arteriosclerosis, CV disease, moderate HTN, hyperthyroidism, agitated states, glaucoma, and within 14 days of therapy with MAOI’s. Do not use in patients with known history of drug abuse.

A

Adderall

161
Q

Buspirone HCl

A

BuSpar

162
Q

Exact MOA is unknown - may be due to a number of changes in brain chemistry including 1) increasing the metabolism of NE in the locus ceruleus, 2) acting as a moderate presynaptic dopamine agonist, 3) acting as a serotonin agonist

A

Buspirone

163
Q

Because of this drug’s ability to bind to dopamine receptors, there is a possibility of dystonia, parkinsonism, and tardive dyskinesia occurring during therapy

A

Buspirone

164
Q

Glyburide

A

Micronase, Diabeta

165
Q

Stimulates insulin synthesis and release from beta cells in the pancreatic islets

A

Glyburide, Glimepiride

166
Q

Take with breakfast or the first main meal. Compliance with therapy is essential for optimum effect

A

Glyburide, Glimepiride

167
Q

Promethazine HCl

A

Phenergan

168
Q

Competitively inhibits histamine at the H1 receptor site causing a spasmolytic and decongestant effect

A

Promethazine

169
Q

CI in patients with hypersensitivity to other phenothiazines and in patients with lower respiratory tract symptoms (including asthma). CI in pediatric patients

A

Promethazine

170
Q

Levetiracetam

A

Keppra

171
Q

A pyrolidine derivative that is chemically unrelated to existing anti epileptic drugs. Inhibits burst firing in the hippocampus without affecting normal neuronal excitability

A

Levetiracetam

172
Q

No known clinically significant drug interactions exist

A

Levetiracetam

173
Q

Therapy should be withdrawn slowly to minimize the potential of triggering a seizure

A

Levetiracetam

174
Q

Could cause hostility and nervousness, in addition to somnolence, asthenia, infection, and dizziness

A

Levetiracetam

175
Q

Sulfamethoxazole with Trimethoprim

A

Bactrim, Septra

176
Q

________ blocks the production of tetrahydrofolic acid by inhibiting the enzyme dihydrofolate reductase. ________ inhibits bacterial synthesis of dihydrofolic acid by competitive antagonism of PABA

A

Bactrim

177
Q

CI in infants < 2 months of age, during pregnancy, in nursing mothers, in patients allergic to sulfa drugs, and in patients with megaloblastic anemia due to folate deficiency

A

Bactrim

178
Q

Increased sensitivity to sunlight, Stevens-Johnson Syndrome, N/V, DIARRHEA, dizziness, anorexia, and RASH

A

Bactrim

179
Q

Preferably taken on an empty stomach one hour before or two hours after meals with a full glass (240 mL) of water. Avoid prolonged exposure to sunlight.

A

Bactrim

180
Q

Pantoprazole Sodium

A

Protonix

181
Q

A PPI that suppresses the final step in gastric acid production by forming a covalent bond to two sites of the (H+, K+)-ATPase enzyme system at the secretory surface of the gastric parietal cell

A

Pantoprazole

182
Q

Antacids may be taken at the same time as this drug.

A

Pantoprazole

183
Q

Digoxin (inotropic agent)

A

Lanoxin, Lanoxicaps, Digitek

184
Q

Digitalis glycosides inhibit membrane bound Na+/K+ ATPase resulting in an increased intracellular Na+ concentration and a slightly decreased intracellular K+ concentration

A

Digoxin

185
Q

CI in patients with ventricular fibrillation

A

Digoxin

186
Q

AE’s include anorexia, N/V, gynecomastia, blurred vision, HA, and bradycardia

A

Digoxin

187
Q

Do not take any nonprescription cough or cold medicines, antacids, laxatives, or antidiarrheals without first consulting your pharmacist or physician

A

Digoxin

188
Q

Lidocaine (transdermal)

A

Lidoderm

189
Q

Exhibits neuronal membrane-stabilizing properties by combining with fast sodium channels during their inactive state to inhibit repolarization

A

Lidocaine

190
Q

CI in patients with a known hypersensitivity to local anesthetics of the amide type

A

Lidocaine

191
Q

Excessive dosing by using more than 3 patches per day or by using for longer than the recommended 12 hours may lead to increased absorption and high blood concentrations. Do not apply to broken or inflamed skin

A

Lidocaine

192
Q

The most common AE’s of this medication are topical in nature (erythema, bruising, edema, papules, vesicles, discoloration, burning, pruritis, dermatitis, petechia, blisters, and exfoliation)

A

Lidocaine

193
Q

Wash hands after the handling of this medication. If irritation or a burning sensation occurs during application, remove the patch and do not reapply until the irritation subsides. Do not use external heat sources such as electric blankets or heating pads. Do not leave patches on for more than 12 hours within a 24 hour period.

A

Lidocaine

194
Q

Tolterodine Tartrate

A

Detrol (LA)

195
Q

Competitive muscarinic receptor antagonist. Effects on the bladder include an increase in residual urine, reflecting an incomplete emptying of the bladder, and a decrease in detrusor pressure

A

Tolterodine

196
Q

CI in patients with urinary retention, gastric retention, uncontrolled narrow-angle glaucoma, or hypersensitivity to any ingredient

A

Tolterodine

197
Q

Most common AE’s include dry mouth, HA, dizziness, constipation, dyspepsia, and somnolence

A

Tolterodine

198
Q

Triamterene with HCTZ

A

Dyazide, Maxzide

199
Q

Inhibits the reabsorption of sodium in exchange for potassium at the distal renal tubule

A

Triamterene with HCTZ

200
Q

CI in patients with anuria, hyperkalemia, hypersensitivity to sulfonamide-derived drugs, or patients currently taking other potassium-sparing diuretics

A

Triamterene with HCTZ

201
Q

AE’s include dry mouth, MUSCLE CRAMPS, N/V, WEAKNESS, dizziness, orthostatic hypotension, GI distress including diarrhea and constipation, hyperglycemia, photosensitivity, impotence, RASH, and transient blurred vision

A

Triamterene with HCTZ

202
Q

Paroxetine HCl

A

Paxil (XR), Pexeva

203
Q

Highly selective inhibitor of neuronal serotonin uptake (SSRI)

A

Paroxetine

204
Q

Contact a physician if patient develops leg, foot, or hand swelling or has excessive thirst (drug may cause hyponatremia)

A

Paroxetine

205
Q

Do not take sooner than every 24 hours

A

Paroxetine

206
Q

Hydroxyzine HCl

A

Atarax

207
Q

Antagonizes the H1 (histamine) receptors in peripheral tissues. May also suppress histamine activity in the subcortical region of the CNS.

A

Hydroxyzine

208
Q

CI in early pregnancy. Use caution in nursing mothers and in patients taking CNS depressants

A

Hydroxyzine

209
Q

Dicyclomine HCl

A

Bentyl

210
Q

Causes inhibition of acetylcholine at postganglionic parasympathetic receptor sites in smooth muscle, secretory gland tissue, and to a lesser degree in the CNS.

A

Dicyclomine

211
Q

CI in patients with urinary tract or intestinal obstruction, intestinal atony, unstable CV status in acute hemorrhage, myasthenia gravis, severe ulcerative colitis, paralytic ileus, or glaucoma, and in infants

A

Dicyclomine

212
Q

Glimepiride

A

Amaryl

213
Q

Celecoxib

A

Celebrex

214
Q

Produces its anti-inflammatory, analgesic, and antipyretic effects by inhibiting prostaglandin synthesis through inhibition of cyclooxygenase-2 (COX-2)

A

Celecoxib

215
Q

CI in patients who have experienced asthma, urticaria, or allergic-type reactions after taking sulfonamides, aspirin, or NSAIDs. CI in treatment of preoperative pain in the setting of coronary artery bypass graft surgery. May cause an increased risk of serious CV thrombotic events, MI, and stroke

A

Celecoxib

216
Q

Promptly report any signs of ulcerations and bleeding (intense GI pain, dark stools) to a physician

A

Celecoxib

Pharmacy Practice VI (4 decks)

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