Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Pharmacology > Exam 2 Body Defenses and Endocrine Pharmacology > Flashcards

Exam 2 Body Defenses and Endocrine Pharmacology Flashcards

1
Q

chemical mediator of inflammation
protein present in an inactive form in plasma and mast cells; increases vascular permeability and causes pain. effects are similar to histamine, broken down by ACE.

A

Bradykinin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

chemical mediator of inflammation
series of at least 20 proteins that combine in a cascade fashion to neutralize or destroy an antigen; stimulates histamine release by mast cells, causes cell lysis

A

complement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

chemical mediator of inflammation

stored and released by mast cells; causes vasodilation; smooth muscle constriction; tissue swelling; and itching

A

histamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

chemical mediator of inflammation
lipids stored and released by mast cells; effects are similar to those of histamine; synthesized from arachidonic acid; responsible for some symptoms of asthma and allergies

A

leukotrienes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

chemical mediator of inflammation
lipid present in most tissues and stored and released by mast cells; increase capillary permeability, attract WBCs to the site of inflammation, cause pain, and induce fever; aspirin inhibits their synthesis; some are available as medications

A

prostaglandins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

tinnitus, deafness, urticaria, nausea, vomiting, confusion, drowsiness, prolonged bleeding time, dyspepsia, stomach pain

A

Common adverse effects of Salicylates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

bronchospasm, anaphylactic shock, laryngeal edema, hemolytic anemia, salicylism, angioedema, Reye’s Syndrome, metabolic acidosis, severe GI bleeding, hepatotoxicity

A

Severe Adverse Reactions of Salicylates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

back pain, peripheral edema, abdominal pain, dyspepsia, flatulence, dizziness, headache, insomnia, HTN

Increased risk of cardiovascular events, acute renal failure

A

adverse effects of celecoxib (Celebrex)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

COX2 Inhibitor, NSAID, anti-inflammatory

A

celecoxib (Celebrex)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

epigastric pain, abdominal pain

Hepatotoxicity, acute renal failure, GI Bleeding

A

adverse effects of acetaminophen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

dyspepsia, dizziness, headache, drowsiness, tinnitus, rash, pruritus, increased liver enzymes, prolonged bleeding time, edema, nausea, vomiting, occult blood loss

Peptic ulcer, GI Bleeding, anaphylactic reactions with bronchospasm, blood dyscrasias, renal impairment, MI, HF, hepatotoxicity

A

adverse effects of ibuprofen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

benefit of selectively blocking COX2 and not COX1

A

The selective inhibition of COX2 produces the analgesic, anti-inflammatory, and anti-pyretic effects typical of oter NSAIDS, but without causing platelet aggregation or GI Bleeding.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What should NSAIDs be taken with to decrease GI upset?

A

food or milk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which drug should not be given to children under 19 years old or within two-three weeks of the varicella Vaccine?

A

aspirin or salicylates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which patients should refrain from drinking alcohol?

A

Those taking acetaminphen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Adverse effects of Immunostimulant:
flulike symptoms, rash, anemia, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, confusion, dyspnea

Cardiac arrest, hypotension, tachycardia, thrombocytopenia, oliguria, anuria, PE, capillary leak syndrome

A

aldesleukin (Proleukin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Adverse effects of Immunostimulant:
flulike symptoms, dysuria, hematuria, anemia, lymphadenopathy

Thrombocytopenia, cystitis, UTI, disseminated mycobacteria

A

bacillus Calmette-Guerin (BCG) vaccine (TheraCys, Tice)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Adverse effects of Immunostimulant:
flulike symptoms, myalgia, fatigue, headache, anorexia, diarrhea

Myelosuppression, thrombocytopenia, neutropenia, suicide ideation, anaphylaxis, hepatotoxicity

A

interferons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Identical to endogenous IL-2
initiates a series of actions thatactivate IFNs, TNF, and other ILs.
Promotes proliferation of both B and T cells, macrophages, NK cells which in turn increase the body’s ability to fight cancer cells

A

aldesleukin (Proleukin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Dexamethasone is the overdose treatment

A

aldesleukin (Proleukin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

treats patients with superficial bladder cancer

A

TheraCys

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

used to stimulate immunity against Mycobacterium tuberculosis

A

Tice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Adverse Effects of which immunosuppressant:
Hirsutism, tremor, nausea, vomiting

HTN, MI, **nephrotoxicity, hyperkalemia, seizures, paresthesia, hepatoxicity

Avoid sun exposure

A

cyclosporine (Gengraf, Neoral, Sandimmune)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

calcineurin inhibitor, thus diminishing T and B cell activity and suppressing the immune response

A

cyclosporine (Gengraf, Neoral, Sandimmune)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

preferred drug for transplant rejection

A

cyclosporine (Gengraf, Neoral, Sandimmune)

calcineurin inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

adverse effects of which immunosuppressant?
nausea, vomiting, anorexia

severe nausea and vomiting, bone marrow suppression, thrombocytopenia, serious infections, malignancy, anaphylaxis *Hematologic disease *Hepatic impairment

A

azathioprine (Azasan, Imuran)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

prophylaxis for kidney rejection

A

azathioprine (Azasan, Imuran)

Cytotoxic Agent and antimetabolite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

local reactions at the injection site (pain, erythema, myalgia), flu like symptoms (malaise, fever, chills) headache, dizziness

Anaphylaxis, HTN, infections, thrombocytopenia, leukopenia, renal impairment (basiliximab), PE (muromonab-CD3 and antithymocyte globulin), herpes simplex or cytomegalovirus infections (muromonab-CD3)

A

adverse effects of antibodies (immunosuppressants)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

suppress proliferating B and T cells

A

cytotoxic agents and antimetabolites (azathioprine)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

cortocosteriods used for transplant rejection

A

prednisone and methylprednisolone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

osteoporosis, cataract formation, mental status changes, fluid and salt retention, HTN, hyperglycemia, obesity, and renal atrophy

A

Long term adverse effects of corticosteriods

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

avoid grapefruit juice when taking which immunosuppressant?

A

cyclosporine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

which vaccine type stimulates a response from both B and T cells?

A

Attentuated (live) virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

polio, measles, mumps, rubella, varicella

A

attenuated (live) virus vaccines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

salk polio, flu, rabies, hep A

A

Inactivated (killed) virus vaccines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

tetanus, diphtheria

A

Toxiod vaccines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

hep B

A

recombinant technology vaccine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Which vaccine is risky for someone with an active infection?

A

attenuated (live)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Which vaccine type does not confer life long immunity?

A

inactivated (killed)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Which vaccine requires large amounts of antigen?

A

toxoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

patients who are immunosuppressed; pregnant; cancer & HIV

A

contraindications for vaccines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

hypersecretion of cortocosteriods

A

cushings syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

hyposecretion of cortisosteriods

A

addisons disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

how to treat hyposecretion of parathyroid?

A

vid D and calcium supplements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Hyposecretion of ADH

A

diabetes insipidus

46
Q

treatment of diabetes insipidus

A

vasopressin or desmopressin

47
Q

ADH comes from which gland?

A

pituitary

48
Q

GH comes from which gland?

A

pituitary

49
Q

treatment of SIADH

A

conivaptan (Viprostol) and tolvaptan (samsca)

50
Q

treatment for hyposecretion of GH–> small stature

A

somatropin (Genotropin)

51
Q

treatment for hypersecretion of GH –>acromegaly

A

octreotide (Sandostatin)

52
Q

hypersecretion of thyroid gland

A

graves disease

53
Q

graves disease treatment

A

PTU (propylthiouracil) and I-131

54
Q

hyposecretion of thyroid gland

A

myxedema (adults)

cretinism (children)

55
Q

treatment of myxedema and cretinism

A

thyroid hormone and levothyroxine (T4)

56
Q

stimulation of corticosteriods

A

CRH in hypothalamus
ACTH in pituitary
target organ adrenal cortex

57
Q

stimulates the release of estrogen and ovarian follicle development in females and increases sperm production in males

A

GnRH in hypothalamus
FSH pituitary
target organ: ovaries or testes

58
Q

triggers ovulation and secretion of estrogen and progesterone in females, increases testosterone secretion in males

A

LH from pituitary

target organ: ovaries or testes

59
Q

Stimulates pigmentation

A

MSH (melanocye stimulating hormone) from pituitary

target organ: skin

60
Q

stimulates release of thyroid hormone

A

TRH (thyrotropin releasing hormone) hypothalamus
THS (thyroid stimulation hormone) pituitary
target organ: thyroid

61
Q

regulates growth and development of bones, muscles, cartilage, organs, general body metabolism

A

GHIH/GHRH hypothalamus
GH from pituitary
target organ: most body cells

62
Q

regulates lactation

A

PIH (prolactin inhibiting hormone)/PRH hypothalamus
Prolactin in pituitary
target organ: mammary glands

63
Q

tremor, pallor, nausea, vomiting, water retention, intoxication

Angina, acute MI, gangrene, anaphylaxis, cardiac arrest

A

adverse effects of vasopressin

hypothalamic and pituitary agent

64
Q

pain at injection site, hyperglycemia, arthralgia, myalgia, abdominal pain, otitis media, headache, bronchitis, hypothyroidism, HTN, flulike symptoms

Severe respiratory impairment with obese patients with Prader Willi syndrome, diabetes, pancreatitis, scoliosis or the spine, papilledema, intracranial tumor

A

somatropin adverse effects

hypothalamic and pituitary agent

65
Q

headache, nasal congestion or irritation, nausea

water intoxication, coma, thromboembolic disorder, hyponatremia

A

desmopressin adverse effects

hypothalamic and pituitary agent

66
Q

nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, headache, flushing, injection site pain, cholelithiasis

dysrhythmia, worsening heart failure, sinus bradycardia

A

octreotide (Sandostatin) adverse effects

hypothalamic and pituitary agent

67
Q

dietary suggestion for patients receiving growth hormone therapy

A

increase fluid intake and eat small, high calorie, nutrient dense meals rather than large infrequent meals

68
Q

What is the best time of day to administer GH?

A

with the evening meal to mimic the body’s natural rhythms

69
Q

what triggers the release of ADH from the posterior pituitary gland?

A

as water is lost, the osmolality, or concentration of the blood, increases and the hypothalamus directs the posterior pituitary to release ADH.

hypotension, decreased fluid volume, dehydration, pain, nausea, and vomiting

70
Q

High blood glucose triggers the pancreas to release ___ and the liver _____ glycogen while the cells take up glucose from the blood. As a result, blood glucose ___

A

pancreas releases INSULIN
liver PRODUCES glycogen
blood glucose FALLS

71
Q

Low blood glucose triggers the pancreas to release _____ and the liver _____ glycogen which causes the blood glucose to ________

A

pancreas releases GLUCAGON
liver BREAKS DOWN glycogen
blood glucose RISES

72
Q

antihypoglycemic agent

A

glucagon

73
Q

used to treat hypoglycemic emergencies in patients with diabetes who are unconscious or unable to eat or drink a sweetened bevereage

A

glucagon (GlucaGen)

74
Q

GlucaGen is NOT effective in patients who experience hypoglycemia due to _____ because their glycogen stores are depleted

A

Starvation

75
Q

more rapid onset insulin

A

Humalog

76
Q

more prolonged duration of action insulin

A

Lantus

77
Q

why must insulin be given as an injection

A

the GI tract destroys insulin

78
Q

what is the primary adverse effect of insulin therapy?

A

overtreatment: insulin may remove too much glucose from blood, resulting in hypoglycemia.

79
Q

patient is pale, cool, skin is moist, blood glucose is less than 50mg/dL and symptoms occur suddenly

A

symptoms of hypoglycemia that differentiate from DKA

80
Q

which hormones elevate blood glucose levels?

A

epi, cortisol, and glucagon

81
Q

Which insulin cannot be mixed with any other insulin?

A

Lantus (insulin glargine) and Insulin detemir (Levemir)

both are long-acting insulins

82
Q

which insulin is intermediate acting?

onset 1-2 h, peak 6-14h, duration 16-24h

A

isophane insulin suspension (NPH, Humilin N)

83
Q

Which insulin is short acting?

onset 30-60 min, peak 1-5h, duration 6-10h

A

Insulin Regular (Humilin R, Novolin R)

84
Q

How long before a meal should you give short-acting Humilin R or Novolin R (insulin regular)?

A

30-60 min before meal

85
Q

How long before a meal should you give rapid acting insulin lispro (Humalog) or insulin glulisine (Apidra)?

A

15 min before or immediately after a meal

86
Q

signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia

A

nausea, paleness, sweating, diaphoresis, tremors, irritability, headache, light-headedness, anxiety, decreased LOC

87
Q

signs and symptoms of hyperglycemia

A

flushed, dry skin, polyuria, polyphagia, polydipsia, drowsiness, glycosuria, ketonuria, acetone-breath

88
Q

preferred drug for managing type 2 diabetes bc of its effectiveness and safety

A

Biguanides (Metformin-Glucophage)

89
Q

with which oral antidiabetic agent is alcohol consumption contraindicated completely?

A

sulfonylureas (Glyburide)

90
Q

which oral antidiabetic agent may cause hepatic toxicity?

A

sulfonylureas

91
Q

which oral antidiabetic may cause lactic acidosis?

A

biguanides (Metformin-Glucophage)

92
Q

With which two oral antidiabetic agents is hypoglycemia most likely to occur?

A

sulfonylureas or meglitinides

93
Q

Which oral antidiabetic agent should you monitor for edema, blood pressure, and lung sounds (s/s of worsening HF)?

A

Thiazolidinediones

94
Q

Normal T3 serum test

A

80-200 ng/dL
decreased–>hypothyroid
increased–> hyperthyroid

95
Q

normal T3 uptake

A

25-35% relative percentage uptake
No change hypothyroid
increased hyperthyroid

96
Q

Free T4

A

1.0-2.3 ng/dL
decreased-hypothyroid
increased hyperthyroid

97
Q

Total T4 (radioimmunoassay)

A

5-12 mcg/dL
decreased- hypothyroid
increased hyperthyroid

98
Q

TSH (Serum)

A

0.35-5.5 microinternational units/mL
INCREASED hypothyroid
DECREASED hyperthyroid

99
Q

tachycardia, hyperthermia, tachypnea, hypercalcemia, hyperglycemia, metabolic acidosis, cardiovascular collapse: cardiogenic shock, hypovolemia, arrythmias, depressed LOC, emotional lability, psychosis, tremors, restlessness

A

Thyroid Storm

100
Q

bradycardia, hypothermia, hypoventilation, hyponatremia, hypoglycemia, respiratory and metabolic acidosis, cardiovascular collapse: decreased vascular tone, depressed LOC, seizures/coma, hyporeflexia

A

Myxedema Coma

101
Q

weight loss, headache, tremors, nervousness, heat intolerance, irritability, sweating, insomnia, mentrual irregularities

Dysrhythmias, hypertension, palpitations, angina

A

adverse effects of hypothyroid medication: Levothyroxine (Levothroid, Synthroid, Levoxyl)

102
Q

Which foods should patients on thyroid replacement therapy avoid?

A

foods containing iodine: soy sauce, tofu, yogurt, milk, strawberries, eggs

103
Q

when should thyroid replacement therapy be administered daily

A

same time every morning

104
Q

Which endocrine system drug may cause agranulocytosis?

A

Antithyroid drugs

105
Q

What teaching is important to patients treated with radioactive iodine?

A

limit contact with family to 1 h per day per person until the treatment day is over. Young children and pregnant women should avoid contact all together.

106
Q

do you take antithyroid drugs with or without food?

A

with food

107
Q

do you take thyroid replacement drugs with or without food?

A

either 1 h before a meal or 4 h after a meal

108
Q

corticosteriod use by mothers at risk for preterm labor

A

giving corticosteriods to mothers at risk of preterm labor helps to develop the baby’s lungs and reduces the chance for serious complications such as infact respiratory distress syndrome if the baby is born premature.

109
Q

mood swings, weight gain, acne, facila flushing, nausea, insomnia, sodium and fluid retention, impaired wound healing, mentrual abnormalities

Peptic ulcer, hypocalcemia, osteoporosis, loss of muscle mass, decreased growth in children, possible masking of infections

A

adverse effects of corticosteriods

110
Q

Which endocrine system drug should be tapered off?

A

corticosteriods-adrenal insufficiency and crisis may occur with profound hypotension, tachycardia, and other adverse effects if the drug is stopped abruptly

111
Q

What time of day should you take corticosteriods?

A

same time every morning with food

112
Q

preferred drug for Cushing Syndrome

A

antifungal drug ketoconazole (Nizoral)

Pharmacology (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions