Exam #2 (Abnormal Psych) Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following is not a likely area of the brain circuit responsible for unipolar depression?
A. Hippocampus
B. Amygdala
C. Cerebellum
D. Brodmann Area

A

C. Cerebellum
(Research on the brain circuit responsible for unipolar depression has shown that the prefrontal cortex, hippocampus, amygdala, and Brodmann Area 25 (subgenual cingulate). Abnormal activity within these brain areas, as well as abnormal neurotransmitter activity, has been shown to lead to symptoms of unipolar depression.)

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2
Q

What is the difference between cyclothymic disorder and disruptive mood dysregulation disorder?
A. Cyclothymic disorder is diagnosed only in children, while DMDD is not
B. Cyclothymic disorder involves significant mood swings, while DMDD involves severe temper outbursts
C. DMDD has several empirically supported treatments, while cyclothymic disorder does not
D.DMDD is a mild form of bipolar disorder, while cyclothymic disorder involves severe temper outbursts

A

B. Cyclothymic disorder involves significant mood swings, while DMDD involves severe temper outbursts.
(Cyclothymic disorder is when an individual experiences significant mood swings over a period of at least 2 years, with normal moods lasting from days to weeks. It is known as chronic, milder version of bipolar disorder. High moods are hypomania, while low moods have consistent symptoms with depression, but do not last as long as depressive episodes to be diagnosed as unipolar depression.
Disruptive Mood Dysregulation Disorder involves severe temper outbursts with underlying persistent angry or irritable mood, occurring 3 or more times a week. Lasting at least 12 months, between temper outbursts, patient had persistent irritable mood. Onset is usually before age 10 but cannot be diagnosed before age 6 or after age 18.)

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3
Q

What are mixed episodes?
A. Individuals swing between manic and depressive symptoms over a short period of time, sometimes over the course of a day.
B. Individuals experience consistent depressed mood for at least 2 years, with no history of manic episodes
C. An individual experiences both major depressive disorders and persistent depressive disorder
D. An individual experiences reduced interest or pleasure in almost all activities that typically produce pleasure for them

A

A. Individuals swing between manic and depressive symptoms over a short period of time, sometimes over the course of a day
(Unlike individuals with bipolar 1 diagnosis that alternate between manic and depressive episodes that last weeks or months, individuals that experience mixed episodes swing between manic and depressive symptoms in a short period of time)

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4
Q

What is the difference between bipolar I and bipolar II disorders?
A. Bipolar I individuals experience only hypomanic episodes; Bipolar II individuals experience only manic episodes
B. Bipolar I individuals experience manic episodes; Bipolar II individuals experience hypomanic and depressive episodes
C. Bipolar I individuals experience only depressive episodes; Bipolar II individuals experience only manic episodes
D. Bipolar I individuals experience hypomanic and depressive episodes; Bipolar II individuals experience only manic episodes

A

B. Bipolar I individuals experience manic episodes; Bipolar II individuals experience hypomanic and depressive episodes
(Bipolar I diagnosis requires an individual to experience at least one manic episode. Although a history of major depressive episodes is not required, many patients do experience them. Bipolar II diagnosis requires an individual to experience at least 1 hypomanic episode and at least 1 major depressive episode)

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5
Q

What percentage of individuals will experience a bipolar disorder at some point in their life?
A. 2%
B. 4%
C. 6%
D. 8%

A

B. 4%
(Worldwide, 1-2.6% of adults have bipolar disorder at any given time. 4% of individuals will experience a bipolar disorder at some point in their life (equal between men and women). Those with bipolar disorders are more likely to experience the greatest functional impairment (compared to those with unipolar depression). 82.9% serious impairment; 17.1% moderate impairment.

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6
Q

What is considered rapid cycling?
A. Experiencing 4 or more mood episodes within a one-year period
B. Intense mood swings that take place over the course of a day
C. Decreased need for sleep while engaging in increased activity for at least 2 weeks
D. Talking and moving rapidly

A

A. Experiencing 4 or more mood episodes within a one-year period
(Rapid cycling classification is reach when those with bipolar disorders have four or more episodes within a one-year period. These episodes are more likely to be depressive episodes, which typically last longer)

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7
Q

Although other neurotransmitters may be involved, research has shown that __ serotonin and __ norepinephrine may be responsible for depression.
A. low; high
B. high; low
C. high; high
D. low; low

A

D. low; low
(The permissive theory about mood disorders states that low serotonin activity may lead to the generation of a mood disorder. Norepinephrine activity along with low serotonin activity defines which mood disorder will develop.)
Low serotonin + low norepinephrine = depression
Low serotonin + high norepinephrine = mania

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8
Q

According to Seligman, depression is caused
A. by maladaptive attitudes, errors in thinking, and automatic thoughts.
B. when people question themselves on events that were out of their control
C. when people believe that they have no control over their life and are responsible for their own helpless state
D. by large reductions in positive life rewards

A

C. When people believe that they have no control over their life and are responsible for their own helpless state
(Seligman’s theory of learned helplessness states that depression occurs whenever a person believed that they have no control over their live and believe that they are the cause of their helpless state. This has been revised by others to the attribution-helplessness theory, which states that depression occurs when people, faced with events beyond their control, question themselves, People that attribute it to themselves (internal cause) are more likely to have depression, and people that attribute it to unstable (external) causes are less likely to have depression.

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9
Q

Which of the following is not part of Beck’s cognitive therapy?
A. Cognitive triad
B. Errors in thinking
C. Maladaptive attitudes
D. Social rewards

A

D. Social rewards
(Beck theorized that there four interrelated cognitive components that, together, produce unipolar depression.
Maladaptive Attitudes
Cognitive Triad - Individuals repeatedly interpret their experiences, themselves, and their future in negative ways.
Errors in Thinking - Arbitrary inferences; minimization of a positive outlook and magnification of a negative outlook.
Automatic Thoughts - Unpleasant thoughts that occur often that suggest inadequacy and hopelessness.)

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10
Q

Mania results from improper transport of ions, resulting in neurons that do what?
A. Fail to fire.
B. Fire too easily.
C. Die off.
D. Fire constantly.

A

B. Fire too easily
(When a neuron is at rest, sodium ions are highly concentrated on the outside of the cell membrane. When a neuron is stimulated by an incoming message, sodium ions travel from the outside of the cell to the inside, causing the neuron to “fire”. Following the firing of the neuron, potassium ions move from the inside of the cell to the outside of the neuron to help return it to its resting state. Functioning normally, ions must travel back and forth between both sides of the membrane.
Research suggests that improper transport of ions across the cell membrane may cause neurons to fire to easily, which leads to mania, or to fail to fire when they stimulated, leading to depression.)

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11
Q

Which of the following is not used as mood-stabilizing drug?
A. Latuda (lurasidone)
B. Zyprexa (olanzapine)
C. Lamictal (lamotrigine)
D. Wellbutrin (bupropion)

A

D. Wellbutrin (Bupropion)
(Besides lithium, which is very effective in treating bipolar disorders but difficult to use, other drugs have been used as mood stabilizing drugs.
Combination drugs are both a mood stabilizer and an antidepressant.
**Lamictal is an anticonvulsant but is chemically unrelated to other anticonvulsants (broader spectrum).)

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12
Q

What is adjunctive psychotherapy?
A. Combination of mood stabilizing drugs.
B. Combination of psychotherapies.
C. Combination of mood stabilizing drugs and psychotherapy.
D. Combination of psychotherapy and brain stimulation treatments.

A

C. Combination of mood stabilizing drugs and psychotherapy
(By itself, psychotherapy or medication alone is rarely effective for people with bipolar disorders. However, adjunctive therapy (a combination of drug therapy and psychotherapy), is much more useful for those with bipolar disorders.
How is it useful?
Management of medications or improving compliance with medical treatment.
Improving social skills and relationships.
Education for patients and their families.
Assist in solving social and occupational problems that the illness has caused.
Provide social support, decrease feelings of isolation.
What is the result?
Reduces hospitalizations.
Improves social functioning.
Increases ability to obtain and hold a job.)

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13
Q

Esketamine is a drug that increases _ production, which leads to new neural connections and pathways that can lead to positive thoughts, feelings, and behaviors.
A. glutamate
B. norepinephrine
C. dopamine
D. serotonin

A

A. glutamate
(A nasal spray derivative of ketamine, when esketamine is combined with an oral antidepressant, it can offer relief for those who are medication resistant. Effects can be felt within hours, reducing depression symptoms, and decreasing suicidal ideation.)

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14
Q

Death _ are those that intend to end their lives because they believe that the process of death is already underway.
A. seekers
B. darers
C. initiators
D. ignorers

A

C. initiators
(Death seekers are those that clearly intend to end their lives.
Death initiators are those that intend to end their lives because they believe that the process of death is already happening.
Death ignorers are those that believe that ending their lives will not mean the end of their existence.
Death darers are those that have ambivalent feelings about death, which is shown in the act itself.)

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15
Q

Which of the following is NOT a treatment goal after a suicide attempt?
A. Reducing psychological pain.
B. Development of better stress management techniques.
C. Learning avoidance techniques.
D. Achieving a non-suicidal state of mind and a sense of hope.

A

C. Learning avoidance techniques
(Therapy goals after a suicide attempt include keeping the patient alive, reducing their psychological pain, achieving a non-suicidal state of mind, achieving a sense of hope, and developing better ways for the patient to manage their stress.)

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16
Q

The _ nervous system activates our body’s “fight-or-flight” response, while the _ nervous system returns the body’s processes back to normal.
A. parasympathetic; sympathetic
B. central; parasympathetic
C. sympathetic; parasympathetic
D. endocrine; central

A

C. sympathetic; parasympathetic
(Part of the autonomic nervous system, the parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous system work together to control the involuntary activities of our organs.)

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17
Q

_ is a person’s general level of anxiety, while _ is situation and/or threat dependent.
A. Panic disorder; depression
B. Trait anxiety; state anxiety
C. Generalized anxiety disorder; panic disorder
D. State anxiety; trait anxiety

A

B. Trait anxiety; state anxiety
(A person’s general level of anxiety is known as trait anxiety because it seems to be a characteristic approach that an individual brings into events within their lives. Displayed in our everyday lives in a person’s everyday routine. This biological based or genetically predetermined.
State anxiety is how a person reacts to situations that they perceive as threatening, which varies from person to person. Induced by a situation rather than a daily basis.)

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18
Q

In the HPA pathway, the hypothalamus signals the pituitary gland, which in turn stimulates the adrenal cortex to release what stress hormone?
A. Cortisol
B. Insulin
C. Endorphins
D. Serotonin

A

A. Cortisol
(When a person is faced by stressors, the hypothalamus releases corticotrophin releasing hormone, which is transported by blood stream and signals the pituitary gland to secrete adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH). This then stimulates the adrenal cortex, triggering the release of corticosteroids, a group of stress hormones that includes cortisol.)

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19
Q

Abnormal _ activity in the _ is believed to explain panic disorder.
A. serotonin; amygdala
B. GABA; BNST
C. dopamine; hippocampus
D. norepinephrine; locus coeruleus

A

D. norepinephrine; locus coeruleus
(Initial theories about panic disorder involved abnormal norepinephrine activity in the locus coeruleus, which is part of the panic circuit. The panic circuit includes the amygdala, hippocampus, ventromedial nucleus of the hypothalamus, central grey matter, and the locus coeruleus. Hyperactivity within this circuit may be inherited.)

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20
Q

Which of the following is NOT one of the four types of specific phobias?
A. Animals
B. Heights
C. Blood/injection/injury
D. Situational

A

B. Heights
(The four types of specific phobias are animals, natural environment, blood/injection/injury, and situational. Heights would fall under the situational subtype.)

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21
Q

Mower’s 2-factor model of phobia onset includes _.
A. classical and operant conditioning
B. systematic desensitization and operant conditioning
C. flooding and modeling
D. systematic desensitization and classical conditioning

A

A. Classical and operant conditioning
(Early research studies for classical conditioning (Little Albert) and modeling (Bandura and Rosenthal) indicates that fear can be conditioned, but others say that the disorder is not ordinarily acquired through conditioning/modeling.

Mowrer’s two-factor behavioral model of phobias states that a combination of classical and operant conditioning lead to the development of phobias.

The joint biobehavioral etiological theory states the same, but that certain individuals appear to be biologically programmed to be more hypersensitive or responsive to fear triggers.)

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22
Q

_ are a type of antidepressant that inhibits the brain’s reuptake process, which allows for serotonin and norepinephrine to remain in the synapses longer, increasing stimulation of receiving neurons. However, this type of drug produces significant side effects.
A. MAOIs
B. Serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors
C. Tricyclics
D. Esketamine

A

C. Tricyclics
(SSRIs: Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors stop or delay the brain from reabsorbing serotonin, meaning there will be more available for use.
SNRIs: Serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors stop or delay the brain from reabsorbing both serotonin and norepinephrine, meaning that there will be more available for use.
Tricyclics: Same process as SNRIs but produces significant side effects. Easier for a patient to relapse if drug therapy is ended too quickly.
MAOIs: Monoamine oxidase inhibitors prevent the enzyme monoamine oxidase from removing norepinephrine, serotonin, and dopamine in the brain, making these more available for use. Significant side effects, several dietary restrictions, and interactions.)

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23
Q

Which of the following is NOT a stage of General Adaption Syndrome?
A. Exhaustion
B. Resistance
C. Calming effect
D. Positive adjustment

A

C. Calming effect
( Stage 1: Alarm Reaction (characterized by heightened sympathetic activity, fight-or-flight reaction)
Stage 2: Resistance (endocrine and sympathetic nervous system responses remain high)
Stage 3: Exhaustion (characterized by lowered resistance, increased parasympathetic activity, and physical deterioration.)

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24
Q

Which area of the brain plays a large role in anxiety responses?
A. Locus coeruleus
B. Cingulate cortex
C. Orbitofrontal cortex
D. Bed nucleus of the stria terminalis (BNST)

A

D. Bed nucleus of the stria terminals (BNST)
(The BNST is a diverse cluster of neuronal nuclei located within the ventral forebrain. It is interconnected within the hyperactive fear circuit, which also includes the prefrontal cortex, anterior cingulate cortex, insula, and the amygdala. Within this circuit, GABA is important.)

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25
Q

What is the difference between obsessions and compulsions?
A. Obsessions are thoughts that feel both intrusive and foreign, while compulsions are behaviors or acts that feel mandatory/unstoppable.
B. Compulsions are thoughts that feel both intrusive and foreign, while obsessions are behaviors or acts that feel mandatory/unstoppable.
C. Obsessions involve cleaning and checking, while compulsions involve destruction.
D. Ignoring compulsions triggers anxiety, while ignoring obsessions reduces anxiety.

A

A. Obsessions are thoughts that feel both intrusive and foreign, while compulsions are behaviors or acts that feel mandatory/unstoppable.
(Obsessions are thoughts that feel both intrusive and foreign and attempts to ignore or resist them triggers anxiety. Compulsions are voluntary behaviors or mental acts that feel to the person as though they are mandatory and unstoppable. Performing these behaviors reduces anxiety for a short time, and often turns in to rituals.)

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26
Q

Which of the following is not a basic theme of obsessions?
A. Sexuality
B. Touching/verbalizing
C. Dirt/germs
D. Religion

A

B. Touching/verbalizing
(Common Obsession Themes: Dirt/germs (contamination), violence and aggression (destruction), orderliness, religion, sexuality.
Common Compulsion Themes: Cleaning, checking, order/balance, touching/verbalizing/counting)

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27
Q

Which type of medication is most useful for those with anxiety disorders?
A. Mood stabilizers
B. Lithium
C. Anti-anxiety medications
D. Antidepressants

A

D. Antidepressants
(Antidepressant medications and their actions on serotonin/norepinephrine are thought to be more effective for long-term treatment of anxiety. Anti-anxiety medications are more frequently prescribed for short-term use and addictive.)

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28
Q

Commitment, challenge, and control are all traits that demonstrate _.
A. acculturation
B. psychological hardiness
C. eustress
D. positive adjustment

A

B. psychological hardiness
(Psychological hardiness is a cluster of stress-buffering techniques.
Commitment (full involvement in work and belief in what they are doing)
Challenge (viewed change as normal and as opportunities for growth and achievement)
Control (believe they have the power to effect change in their lives to increase reward and avoid/decrease punishment)
These factors can help protect a person from the negative effects of stress and can also help account for the development of stress and trauma disorders.)

29
Q

What percentage of people are affected by PTSD at some point in their lives?
A. 2-3%
B. 7-9%
C. 14-16%
D. 20-25%

A

B. 7-9%
(Most people who experience a traumatic event will not develop PTSD?)

30
Q

Amy was a victim of assault. For months after, she experienced persistent negative beliefs, diminished interest in activities she enjoyed before the accident, and a constant, distorted sense of blame. What type of symptoms is Amy experiencing?
A. Intrusion symptoms
B. Alterations in cognition and mood
C. Avoidance
D. Alterations in arousal and reactivity

A

B. Alterations in cognition and mood
(For alterations in cognition and mood, at least 2 of the following are required for diagnosis:
Inability to recall key features of the traumatic event
Persistent/distorted negative beliefs and expectations
Persistent/distorted blaming of self or others for the traumatic event
Markedly diminished interest in pre-traumatic significant activities
Feeling alienated from others
Constricted affect.)

31
Q

Which of the following coping styles involves reducing the impact of a stressor by ignoring or escaping from it, rather than dealing with it directly?
A. Self-efficacy
B. Avoidant coping
C. Fight-or-flight
D. Active coping

A

B. Avoidant coping
(AKA emotion-focused coping. Involves ignoring the stressor rather than dealing with it directly. It is thought to reduce the impact of the stressor. Problem-focused (active) coping involves confronting the stressor directly.)

32
Q

Which is the LEAST common type of traumatic event that leads toward traumatic stress disorders?
A. Combat
B. Terrorism
C. Natural disasters
D. Sexual assault

A

C. Natural disasters
(The most common trauma that can lead toward a traumatic event involves motor vehicle accidents. 50% of women that experience a trauma most commonly involve sexual assault or child sexual abuse. 60% of men that experience a trauma most commonly involve motor vehicle accidents, physical assault, combat, natural disaster, or witnessing a death/injury.)

33
Q

Which of the following is NOT a goal of treatment for those with acute and posttraumatic stress disorders?
A. Return to constructive living
B. Ending lingering stress reactions
C. Avoidance of stressors
D. Gain a perspective on the painful experiences

A

C. Avoidance of stressors
(Treatment procedures may vary depending on the type of trauma, but all treatment approaches share the same basic goals: help survivors put an end to lingering stress reactions, promote gaining perspective on their traumatic experiences, and assist survivors in returning to constructive living.)

34
Q

Under the psychodynamic perspective, amnesia is usually a result of _, a conscious attempt to avoid recalling or thinking about an event.
A. isolation
B. repression
C. transference
D. avoidance

A

B. repression
(Freud believed that repression is automatic, and that the individual is not aware and does not control it. Repression occurs as a defensive process in which the ego protects itself against unacceptable unconscious thoughts.)

35
Q

The basic components to treating PSTD under the cognitive-behavioral approach are _ and _.
A. exposure; avoidance
B. exposure; extinction
C. extinction; hardiness
D. adjustment; extinction

A

B. exposure; extinction
(When using cognitive-behavioral therapy, the patient gradually and repeatedly re-experiences the anxiety associated with the traumatic event in a safe setting (exposure), allowing extinction to occur (through the re-experience without the negative consequences.)

36
Q

Anna was in a serious car accident but suffered no serious physical injuries. Immediately after the accident, she experienced increased levels of anxiety, depression, and overall arousal. These symptoms subsided 3 months later. What would Anna be diagnosed with?
A. Acute stress disorder (ASD)
B. PTSD acute
C. PSTD delayed
D. PTSD chronic

A

B. PTSD acute
(In order to receive the diagnosis of PTSD, symptoms must last longer than a month. The type of PTSD diagnosis depends on how long the symptoms last after that point.

PTSD Acute: Symptoms last less than 3 months.
PTSD Chronic: Symptoms last 3 months or longer.
PTSD Delayed: Symptoms do not appear immediately after the trauma event.)

37
Q

How many separate personality states must one have in order to be diagnosed with DID?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 5
D. 7

A

A. 2
(Each subpersonality has a unique set of behaviors, thoughts, and emotions. One of these subpersonalities appears more often than the others (primary/host personality). Women are thought to have as many as 15 subpersonalities, while men are thought to have as many as 8.)

38
Q

Which disorder involves false creation of physical or psychological symptoms in another person, even without any external rewards?
A. Depersonalization /derealization disorder
B. Factitious disorder imposed on self
C. Dissociative fugue
D. Factitious disorder imposed on another

A

D. Factitious disorder imposed on another
(An individual with factitious disorder imposed on another creates false physical or psychological symptoms in the victim, portraying them as ill, damaged, or hurt by using deceptive production of injury or disease. The precise causes of factitious disorder are not understood, and clinicians have been unable to develop dependably effective treatments for the disorder.)

39
Q

Those with _ typically recover without treatment, while those with _ usually do not.
A. dissociative amnesia; dissociative fugue
B. DID; dissociative amnesia
C. dissociative amnesia; DID
D. DID; depression

A

C. dissociative amnesia; DID
(Dissociative amnesia is most commonly of brief duration with a full recovery, with a very low risk of relapse. Although treatment usually is not used, some types of treatment for dissociative amnesia include hypnotic therapy, drug therapy, and psychodynamic therapy.
People with DID do not typically recover without treatment. Therapists help clients recognize the nature of their disorder fully, to recover gaps in their memory, and integrate their subpersonalities into one functional personality.)

40
Q

Which dissociative disorder involves no disturbance of memory?
A. DID
B. Dissociative amnesia
C. Depersonalization /derealization disorder
D. Dissociative fugue

A

C. Depersonalization/ derealization disorder
(DSM-5 categorizes this as a dissociative disorder, but not as one characterized by the memory difficulties in the other dissociative disorders. Unless depersonalization experiences become persistent, frequent, or cause distress and worry, it would not be diagnosed.)

41
Q

Dr. Sherry is treating a client who has PTSD; proposed treatments may include all EXCEPT
A. Virtual Reality Therapy
B. Recovered Memories Therapy
C. Exposure Therapy
D. EMDR

A

B. Recovered Memories Therapy

42
Q

Mood disorders are identified by
A. An intense change in mood
B. The presence and pattern of mood episodes
C. The cause of the mood changes
D. A change in sleep and appetite

A

B. The presence and pattern of mood episodes

43
Q

Black or African Americans have high rates of stress-related disorders which researchers attribute to
A. Overachievement stress
B. Culturally sanctioned unhealthy lifestyles
C. Stress due to racial discrimination and prejudice
D. Increased emotional reactivity and high anxiety sensitivity

A

C. Stress due to racial discrimination and prejudice

44
Q

Although she knows it’s irrational, Jackie fears leaving home alone, enclosed and open spaces, and crowds. She may have:
A. Obsessive Compulsive Disorder (OCD)
B. Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD)
C. Panic Disorder
D. Agoraphobia

A

D.Agoraphobia

45
Q

Kiley was diagnosed with Acute Stress Disorder and recovered within:
A. 2 years
B. 1 year
C. 6 months
D. 1 month

A

D. 1 month

46
Q

Victoria is in a manic episode and exhibits __, the most common type of delusion when manic.
A. Grandiose delusions
B. Paranoid delusions
C. Delusions of reference
D. Erotomanic delusions

A

A. Grandiose delusions

47
Q

Kayla has Panic Disorder. This interferes with her role as a college student mostly due to:
A. The long duration of her panic attacks
B. Frequent medical appointments due to worrying about being misdiagnosed
C. Constantly being in the alarm stage of the GAS
D. Avoidance of attending class to “prevent” panic attacks

A

D. Avoidance of attending class to “prevent” panic attacks

48
Q

Sabrina developed PTSD after she survived __, the most common trauma leading to PTSD in the U.S.
A. Combat
B. Sexual assault
C. A hurricane
D. A serious car accident

A

D. A serious car accident
(In the U.S.)

49
Q

All of the following mental illnesses increased in prevalence during COVID-19 EXCEPT:
A. Major depressive disorder
B. Generalized anxiety disorder
C. Bipolar I
D. PTSD

A

C. Bipolar I

50
Q

Arturo has generalized anxiety disorder which may result from a “hyperactive” fear brain circuit that includes all BUT:
A. Pineal gland
B. Amygdala
C. Anterior cingulate cortex
D. Prefrontal cortex

A

A. Pineal gland

51
Q

Therapist Sam has the following treatment goals for their PTSD client EXCEPT for:
A. Avoid reminders of trauma to minimize client distress
B. Help client overcome intense stress reactions
C. Promote client’s perspective on traumatic experiences
D. Assist client to return to constructive living

A

A. Avoid reminders of trauma to minimize client distress

52
Q

Psychiatrist Aaron Beck pioneered __ therapy for depression
A. Interpersonal
B. Exposure
C. Cognitive
D. Object relations

A

C. Cognitive

53
Q

Hilda has been struggling for the past 3 years with sadness, fatigue, low motivation and insomnia. She may have
A. Cyclothymic Disorder
B. Disruptive Mood Dysregulation Disorder
C. Persistent Depressive Disorder
D. Premenstrual Dysphoric Disorder

A

C. Persistent Depressive Disorder

54
Q

Greg’s PTSD symptoms of __ interferes with his closest relationships
A. Hypervigilance
B. Heightened arousal
C. Negative thoughts
D. Emotional numbess

A

D. Emotional numbess

55
Q

After being robbed at knifepoint, Pat has selective amnesia of the crime, meaning that the memory loss:
A. Is complete for the time period of the robbery
B. Is ongoing
C. Extends past the robbery back to her childhood
D. Is extensive but not complete for the time period of the robbery

A

D. Is extensive but not complete for the time period of the robbery

56
Q

11 year old Sydney has this depressive disorder which is notable for temper outbursts at school and home
A. Seasonal Affective Disorder
B. Dissociative Identity Disorder
C. Disruptive Mood Dysregulation Disorder
D. Premenstrual Dysphoric Disorder

A

C. Disruptive Mood Dysregulation Disorder

57
Q

_ is a new mood stabilizer for Bipolar Disorder that is a combination of Zyprexa and an opioid antagonist
A. Lithium (mood stabilizer)
B. Tegretol (anticonvulsant)
C. Luvox (antidepressant)
D. Lybalvi (antipsychotic)

A

D. Lybalvi (antipsychotic)

58
Q

Which is NOT a brain stimulation treatment for depression?
A. Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)
B. EDMR
C. Transcranial magnetic stimulation (TMS)
D. Vagus Nerve Stimulation (VNS)

A

B. EMDR

59
Q

The ion transportation theory of mood disorders highlights the roles of:
A. GABA and Dopamine
B. Adrenaline and Noradrenaline
C. Sodium and Potassium
D. Endorphins and Corticosteroids

A

C. Sodium and Potassium

60
Q

An effective treatment for specific phobias is:
A. Dialectical behavioral therapy
B. Object relations therapy
C. Systematic desensitization
D. Client centered therapy

A

C. Systematic desensitization

61
Q

To meet criteria for a major depressive episode, an individual must experience either low mood OR __.
A. Anhedonia
B. Loss of energy
C. Insomnia
D. Social withdrawal

A

A. Anhedonia

62
Q

Zoey is very anxious about being infected by deadly viruses and needs to wash her hands repeatedly. She may have:
A. Hoarding Disorder
B. Obsessive Compulsive Disorder
C. Excoriation Disorder
D. Trichotillomania

A

B. Obsessive Compulsive Disorder

63
Q

Which typically leads to the best treatment outcome for the depressive disorders?
A. Psychodynamic or insight-oriented therapy
B. Antidepressant medication or drug therapy
C. A combination of medication and client-centered (humanistic) therapy
D. A combination of medication & cognitive behavioral therapy

A

D. A combination of medication & cognitive behavioral therapy

64
Q

What’s the difference between Bipolar I and Bipolar II?
A. Bipolar I requires 1 manic and 1 major depressive disorder
B. Bipolar I requires at least 1 manic episode
C. Bipolar II requires 1 manic and 1 major depressive episode
D. Bipolar II requires at least 2 manic episodes

A

B. Bipolar I requires at least 1 manic episode

65
Q

What risk factor was linked to increased likelihood of suicidality during COVID-19?
A. Being an adult male
B. Loneliness
C. Cannabis/marijuana abuse
D. Domestic violence

A

B. Loneliness

66
Q

Helpful treatments for PTSD include all EXCEPT which of the following?
A. Exposure therapy
B. Eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EDMR)
C. Daily, chronic use of benzodiazepines (anti-anxiety meds)
D. Group therapy

A

C. Daily, chronic use of benzodiazepines (anti-anxiety meds)

67
Q

Which areas of the brain is NOT part of the hypothesized “brain circuit of panic”?
A. Amygdala
B. Locus Coeruleus
C. Hippocampus
D. Lateral ventricles

A

D. Lateral ventricles

68
Q

__ is a promising medication for medication-resistant severely depressed patients that boost production of __.
A. Strattera; dopamine
B. Esketamine; glutamate
C. Cymbalta; norepinephrine
D. Lexapro; serotonin

A

B. Esketamine; glutamate