Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

ANPS 020 > Exam 2 > Flashcards

Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Describe the major functions of the respiratory system

A

Exchange of gases between the atmosphere and the blood
Regulation of body pH to maintain homeostasis
Protection of body pH to maintain homeostasis
Protection from inhaled pathogens and irritating substances
Sense of smell
Vocalization, production of sound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Describe the parts of the respiratory system

A 
Upper Respiratory System:
-Nose and nasal cavity
-Paranasal sinuses
-Pharynx 
Lower Respiratory System:
-Larynx
-Trachea
-Bronchial Tree
-Alveoli
-Lungs
-Pleurae
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

four major respiratory processes

A

pulmonary ventilation
external respiration
gas transport
internap respiration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

pulmonary ventilation

A

(breathing)
Inspiration=air into the lungs
Expiration=air out of the lungs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

external respiration

A

oxygen (O2) moves from lungs to blood; Carbon dioxide (CO2) moves from blood to lungs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

gas transport

A

transport in blood-works with cardiovascular system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

internal respiration

A

O2 moves from blood to tissue; CO2 moves from tissue to blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Describe the respiratory mucosa

A

Mucosa: (or mucous membrane) lines the lumen of all organs that open to the outside of the body, such as respiratory system, digestive system, or urinary system. Consists of the epithelium and a loose areolar connective layer called the lamina propria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

how does the mucosa help “condition” air

A

The Respiratory System conditions the air by warming, humidifying, and filtering
Air needs to be 37 degrees celsius and 100% humidity when it hits the trachea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

external nose

A

the external nose is formed by:

  • frontal bone
  • nasal bones
  • maxillary bones
  • hyaline cartilages
  • -hyaline cartilages give noses their distinct shape and size
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

nose

A 
passageway for air
conditions air
first line of defense
respiratory mucosa
sneeze reflex
sense of smell
resonance of speech
nasolacrimal duct drains into nasal cavity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

anatomy of the nasal cavity

A

nasal cavity-conducts air from nasal vestibule to nasopharynx
first line of defense-cleans, warms, and humidifies air
nasal conchae-increase surface area of mucosa, “turbinate bones”
paranasal sinuses and nasolacrimal duct drain through small openings into nasal cavity
sneeze reflex, allergies triggered here
sense of smell-olfactory area at top of nasal cavity of cranial nerve 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

nasal cavity two types of mucous membrane

A

olfactory mucosa

respiratory mucosa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

olfactory mucosa

A

OM
lines the superior of nasal cavity (on superior concha) and contains olfactory neurons extending through cribriform plate of ethmoid bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

respiratory mucosa

A

pseudo stratified ciliated columnar epithelium with Goblet cells
-cilia move mucus toward the throat
-cilia paralyzed by smoke, become sluggish in cold weather
seromucous glands-mucus and lyzosyme (trap and kill bacteria)
watery mucus humidifies air
sensory nerve endings-sneeze reflex
highly vascular-warming the air, but also result in nosebleed
-filters, warms, and humidifies incoming; reclaims heat and moisture when exhaling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

paranasal sinuses

A

hollow spaces in the skull bones
these air-filled spaces lighten the weight of the skull and add resonance to speech
the spaces are lined by respiratory mucosa, watery mucus secretions drain into the nasal cavity
sinus headache when inflamed, drainage is blocked
frontal, ethmoid, sphenoid, and maxillary bones have sinuses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

pharynx

A

skeletal muscle tube connecting nasal cavity and mouth to esophagus-the “throat”; also directs air to lower respiratory system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

nasopharynx

A 
posterior to the nasal cavity
passage of air only
pseudo stratified ciliated epithelium
pharyngeal tonsil (adenoids)
pharyngotympanic (eustachian) tube
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

oropharynx

A

posterior to the oral cavity
passage of air and food
stratified squamous epithelium
palatine and lingual tonsils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

laryngopharynx

A

posterior to the larynx
passage of air and food
stratified squamous epithelium
food has “the right of way”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

conducting zone structures

A

warms, humidifies, and cleans air (passageways)-includes all the structures that deliver air to respiratory zone
the first 11 branches of the airway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

respiratory zone structures

A

specialized for gas exchange (alveoli)

the 12 branch of the airway until the alveoli (at the 24th branch)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

functions of the larynx

A 
provide a patent (open) airway (cartilaginous structure)
epiglottis directs food to esophagus and away from airway
voice production (vocal ligaments)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

larynx arrangement of cartilages

A

connected by membranes and ligaments (9 cartilages)
thyroid cartilage-edam’s apple
–larger in men after puberty (testosterone)
epiglottis
–elastic cartilage covered by mucosa (stratified squamous epithelium)
–during swallowing the epiglottis closes over opening of larynx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Describe the anatomy of the vocal cords and explain how sound is produced

A

Vestibular fold (false vocal cord): ridge of tissue, additional protection
Vocal fold (true focal cord): formed by vocal ligaments, vibrate when air moves across-only true vocal cords produce sound
Glottis=opening
Adduct ligaments: increases tension, higher pitch
Abduct ligaments: loosens tension, lowers pitch
Force of air movement: determines loudness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

muco-ciliary escalator

A

cleans the conducting zone
the pseudo stratified ciliated columnar epithelium traps particles in mucous layer, cilia move particles toward the pharynx where they will be swallowed
ciliated pseudo stratified columnar epithelium with goblet cells is considered the typical respiratory epithelium and is seen in the nasal cavity, nasopharynx, larynx, trachea, and larger bronchi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

trachea

A

conducts air from larynx to lungs
windpipe-air passageway from larynx to bronchi entering lungs
at lungs, divides into 2 main bronchi
supported by C-shaped rings of cartilage-complete cartilage front, open in back

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

carina

A

ridge of cartilage at bifurcation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

trachea wall consists of layers

A

layers of wall: mucosa (lines lumen), submucosa (cartilage and tracheal), adventitia
hyaline cartilage rings: keep airway open, allow flexibility of airway
tracheal muscle: smooth muscle, flexible wall when food in esophagus
contraction of trachealis:
-narrows passageway-block foreign objects
-increases force of air during coughing (>100 mph)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

heimleich maneuver

A

uses air from lungs to force object out-only if complete obstruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

trachealis

A

smooth muscle cell layer that controls trachea diameter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

how many times does the bronchial tree branch

A

23 times

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

describe the branching of the bronchial tree

A

The trachea branches into two primary or main bronchi: one to each lung
The right primary bronchus is wider, shorter, and more vertical
Carina-ridge of cartilage at branch point of main bronchi
Aspirated objects tend to end up in right lung
Secondary or lobar bronchi-to lobes of lung (3 to right lung, 2 to left lung)
Tertiary or segmental bronchi-to segments of lung
Bronchial tree branches about 23 times

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what changes are associated with the branching of the bronchial tree

A

Support structures change: from cartilage C rings in trachea, to irregular cartilage plates in bronchi-cartilage is lost completely by bronchioles. Elastic fibers in the walls increase
Epithelium type changes: gradual transition from ciliated pseudostratified columnar to columnar to cuboidal. Mucus secreting cells and cilia gradually decrease
Amount of smooth muscle increases in smaller airways: smooth muscle in walls of bronchioles allows changes in air flow resistance (bronchoconstriction, bronchodilation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

histology of bronchus of the bronchial tree

A

bronchus (bronchi): ciliated pseudo stratified epithelium with goblet cells; hyaline cartilage plates in wall for support, some smooth muscle and elastic fibers; smaller bronchi have less cartilage and more smooth muscle in wall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

histology of bronchioles of the bronchial tree

A

simple columnar to simple cuboidal epithelium, few goblet cells or cilia; smooth muscle and elastic fibers in walls instead of cartilage plates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

terminal bronchioles

A

the smallest bronchioles in the conducting zone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

respiratory zone

A

defined by the presence of thin-walled air sacs called alveoli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

respiratory bronchioles

A

where the first alveoli are seen

bronchioles start to have alveoli in walls so are part of respiratory zone (gas exchange starts to occur)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

alveolar ducts

A

straight areas with alveoli

gas exchange occurs across thin walls of alveoli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

alveolar sacs

A

clusters of alveoli

gas exchange occurs across thin walls of alveoli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

transition from conducting zone to respiratory zone

A

smooth muscle fibers in walls of bronchioles
elastic fibers surround the alveoli
thin walled alveoli allow gas exchange

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

alveolar pores

A

connect alveoli and allow air pressure to equalize

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

cell types in alveoli

A

type 1 alveolar cells
type 2 alveolar cells
alveolar macrophages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

type 1 alveolar cells

A

squamous cells form walls of alveoli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

type 2 alveolar cells

A

secrete surfactant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

alveolar macorphages

A

phagocytize debris, bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

surfactant

A

a detergent like compound that reduces surface tension in alveoli; essential to prevent alveolar collapse (respiratory distress syndrome)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

respiratory membrane

A
  1. 5 um thick barrier to gas exchange
    - type 1 alveolar cells
    - fused basal lamina
    - capillary endothelium
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

gross anatomy of the lungs

A

the lungs occupy a large part of the thoracic cavity bounded by the ribs, diaphragm, and mediastinum
each lung is surrounded by pleurae, or pleural sac within thoracic cavity
right lung has 3 lobes
left lung has 2 lobes and cardiac notch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

accessory structures critical for lung function

A 
thoracic cage, ribs and thoracic cavity-protection and mechanical support
respiratory muscles (skeletal muscle)-volume changes during pulmonary ventilation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

each lung is surrounded by a pleural sac or pleurae

A

the pleurae form a thin, double layered serosal sac surrounding the lungs
consits of the parietal pleura and visceral pleura. Between these two pleuras is the pleura cavity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

parietal pleura

A

cover thoracic wall, superior face of diaphragm, and lateral wall of the mediastinum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

visceral pleura

A

cover the external lung surface

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

pleura cavity

A

space between layers-filled with small amount of pleural fluid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

the lungs receive ___ pressure, ____ volume circulation

A

low; high

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

pulmonary arteries

A

bring low oxygen blood to lungs (blue)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

pulmonary veins

A

carry high oxygen blood away from lungs (red)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

who brings oxygenated blood to lungs?

A 
bronchial arteries (branches from thoracic aorta)-supply oxygenated blood to lung tissue such as walls of bronchi, bronchioles
*most venous blood returns to heart via pulmonary veins
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

pulmonary circuit

A

low pressure but high volume-ALL the body’s blood has to be oxygenated; lungs location of enzymes that act on substances carried in blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

what leads to the bronchopulmonary segments

A

tertiary bronchi

  • each bronchopulmonary segment is served by its own artery, vein, and tertiary bronchus
  • the segments are separated by connective tissue which makes it possible to surgically remove only damaged regions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

auscultation

A

using a stethoscope to listen to lung sound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

what degree of surface tension is there between the parietal an visceral layers and why is it important

A

there is a high degree of surface tension between the parietal and visceral layers which is important for the mechanics of breathing-when the thoracic cavity expands, lungs tend to follow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

what are the two phases of pulmonary ventilation

A

inspiration (inhalation): air flows into the lungs

expiration (exhalation): air flows out of the lungs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

atmospheric pressure (Patm)

A

pressure exerted by the air on the body
-at sea level, Patm=760 mmHg=1 atm
-by convention we consider Patm=0 mmHg, so we don’t have to consider altitude differences
-we really only care about pressure relationships not specific values
EX: +1 mmHg or -1 mmHg compared to Patm
*air will flow from an area of high pressure to an area of low pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

intrapulmonary pressure

A

(intra-alveolar)
Ppul
is the pressure in the alveoli
will oscillate with breathing, but always equalize to atmospheric pressure in between breaths

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

intrapleural pressure

A

Pip
the pressure in the pleural cavity
will oscillate with breathing, but always negative (-4 mmHg) to intrapulmonary pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

why is Pip negative?

A

balance between tendency of alveoli/lungs to collapse (elasticity, surface tension) and tendency of thoracic cavity to expand (elasticity of chest wall)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

transpulmonary pressure

A

Ppul-Pip

prevents lungs from collapsing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

pneumothorax

A

air in the pleural cavity

intrapleural pressure becomes equal to atmospheric pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

hemothorax

A

blood in the pleural cavity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

boyle’s law

A

the pressure of a gas within a container is inversely related to the volume of the container

  • if the volume of a container that contains a gas is reduced, the pressure increases. If the volume increases, the pressure decreases
  • pressure and volume are inversely related*
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

dalton’s law

A

the total pressure exerted by a mixture of gases is the sum of the pressures exerted by the individual gases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

henry’s law

A

when a gas is in contact with a liquid, the gas will dissolve in the liquid in proportion to its partial pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

pulmonary ventilation requires ____ change in the thoracic cavity

A

volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

during ___ the thoracic cavity (intrapulmonary volume) increases and pressure (Ppul) decreases

A

inspiration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

quiet inspiration

A

active process requiring energy-diaphragm contracts and lowers. External intercostal muscles contract-pulls ribs up and out. both actions increase thoracic volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

during ___ the thoracic cavity (intrapulmonary volume) decreases and pressure (Pull) increases

A

expiration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

quiet expiration

A

passive process-diaphragm and external intercostals relax-volume of the thoracic cavity decreases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

what is necessary to keep lungs inflated

A

Pip

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

quiet breathing

A

inhalation-diaphragm and external intercostals contract

exhalation-is passive; diaphragm and external intercostals relax, chest recoils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

forceful breathing

A

inhalation-diaphragm, external intercostals, sternocleidomastoid, scalenes, and serratus anterior all contract
exhalation-internal intercostals and abdominal muscles contract to compress thoracic cavity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

factors impacting efficiency of pulmonary ventilation

A

airway resistance
alveolar surface tension
lung compliance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

airway resistance

A

largely determined by airway diameter

  • bronchoconstriction-contraction of smooth muscle-parasympathetic NS, irritants, histamine (protective function)
  • bronchodilation-relaxation of smooth msucle-sympathetic NS-epinephrine, norepinephrine (fight and flight)
  • resistance can also be increased by mucus accumulation, infectious material or tumors
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

alveolar surface tension

A

thin fluid layer in alveoli creates surface tension and resistance to stretch (expansion)
surfactant reduces alveolar surface tension allowing for inflation
-premature babies-infant respiratory distress syndrome (IRDS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

lung compliance

A

the ability of the lungs to stretch (expand)

  • degree of alveolar surface tension-greater compliance with surfactant
  • distensibility of lung tissue
  • ability of chest wall to move
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

ventilation can be measured by

A

spirometry

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

what are the four volumes measured in spirography

A

tidal volume (TV)
inspiratory reserve volume (IRV)
expiratory reserve volume (ERV)
residual volume (RV)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

tidal volume (TV)

A

amount of air that moves into and out of lungs in quiet breathing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

inspiratory reserve volume (IRV)

A

the amount of air that can be inspired forcefully beyond the tidal volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

expiratory reserve volume (ERV)

A

the amount of air that can be expelled from the lungs after a normal tidal volume expiration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

residual volume (RV)

A

the amount of air that remains in the lungs, even after the most strenuous expiration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

inspiratory capacity (IC)

A

tidal volume (TV) and inspiratory reserve volume (IRV)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

functional residual capacity (FRC)

A

expiratory reserve volume (ERV) and residual volume (RV)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

vital capacity (VC)

A

inspiratory capacity (IC), tidal volume (TV), and expiratory reserve volume (ERV)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

total lung capacity

A

inspiratory reserve volume (IRV), tidal volume (TV), expiratory reserve volume (ERV), and residual volume (RV)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

why are respiratory volumes and capacities important

A

respiratory volumes and capcities measurements can be useful for evaluating loss in respiratory function and following preogression (or recovery) from respiratory disease.

  • can’t diagnose specific diseases
  • distinguishes between obstructive pulmonary diseases versus restrictive pulmonary diseases
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

obstructive pulmonary diseases

A

incrased airway resistance

  • chronic bronchitis, emphysema, asthma, cystic fibrosis
  • total lung capacity (TLC), functionsl residucal capacity (FRC), and residual volume (RV) may increase
  • lungs hyperinflate, hard to push air out
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

restrictive pulmonary diseases

A

involve reduced total lung capcity

  • tuberculosis, pneumonia, fibrosis (build up of CT scarring)
  • vital capacity (VC), total lung capacity (TLC), functional residual capacity (FRC), and residual volume (RV) decline
  • lung expansion is limited for various reasons
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

anatomical dead space

A

air that remains in conducting zone during ventilation

  • the volume of the conducting zone
  • air stuck in dead space doesn’t get to alveoli for gas exchange
  • around 150 mL in healthy person
  • so, for tidal volume (500 mL) only 350 mL are involved in alveolar ventilation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

rate and depth of breathing determine ___ of alveolar ventilation (and gas exchange)

A

efficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

minute ventilation

A

total amount of air that flows into or out of the respiratory tract in 1 minute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

alveolar ventilation

A

takes into accound air in dead space, so is better indication of how much fresh air reaches alveoli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

what type of breath is the most effective

A

slow, deep breaths ventilate the alveoli more effectively than rapid shallow breaths

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

dalton’s law of partial pressures

A

the total pressure exerted by a mixture of gases is the sum of the individual pressures exerted by each of the gases. the partial pressure of a gas will be proportional to its percent composition in the mixture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

what happens to partial pressures when air is humidified

A

when air is humidified, the partial pressure of water vapor increases, and the partial pressure of oxygen and carbon dioxide decreases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

external respiration occurs in the

A

lungs

-allows for the uptake of oxygen and unloading of carbon dioxide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

internal respiration occurs in the

A

tissues

109
Q

efficiency of external respiration depends on what 3 factors

A

partial pressure gradients and gas solubility
thinness and surface area of the respiratory membrane
ventilation-perfusion coupling

110
Q

external respiration partial pressure gradients and gas solubility

A

O2 and CO2 will move according to their gradients

  • O2 high in alveolus, low in pulmonary capillary
  • CO2 low in alveolus, high in pulmonary capillary
111
Q

external respiration thinness and surface area of the respiratory membrane

A

thinness and surface area available for exchange can be reduced by:
-edema (water in the lungs)-pneumonia
-emphysema-destruction of alveolar walls, congestive heart failure
-tumor
-mucus
-inflammation
can result in hypoxia (low oxygen in blood) and hypercapnia (high CO2 in blood)

112
Q

external respiration ventilation-perfusion coupling

A

blood flow (perfusion) is affected by PO2 levels. Perfusion is controlled by arteriole diameter: if PO2 high, arterioles dilate to pick up oxygen, if low, arterioles constrict
air flow or ventilation is affected by PCO2 levels. ventilation is controlled by bronchiole diameter: if PCO2 high, bronchioles dilate to blow off CO2
result: diversion of blood flow and air flow away from diseased areas of hte lung to healthier areas of the lung and therefore a better match of ventilation-perfusion coupling

113
Q

internal respiration partial pressure gradients and gas solubility

A

gases follow pressure gradients:

  • O2 high in systemic capillary, low in tissue cell
  • CO2 low in systemic capillary, high in tissue cell
114
Q

external respiration and internal respiration are driven by differences in gas pressure gradients

A

ER: blood leaving lungs will have a PO2=104 mmHg, PCO2=40 mmHg
IR: blood leaving tissues will have a PO2=40 mmHg, 45 mmHg

115
Q

oxygen is carried by ___ in RBCs

A

hemoglobin

116
Q

structure of hemoglobin

A

hemoglobin is madeup of 4 polypeptide subunits, each containing a heme group
the iron atom (Fe) in each heme group can bind to one oxygen molecule (O2)
each hemoglobin molecules can bind 4 oxygen molecules
if hemoglobin is fully saturated, it has four O2 molecules bound to it

117
Q

how is oxygen transported to the tissues

A

the majority of oxygen molecules (~98.5%) are transported from the lungs to the tissues by hemoglobin inside red blood cells
a small percentage is transported directly dissolved in plasma. O2 is not very soluble in water, so only ~1.5% of O2 is transported in plasma

118
Q

oxyhemoglobin

A

HbO2

hemoglobin with oxygen bound

119
Q

deoxyhemoglobin

A

HHb

hemoglobin that has released oxygen

120
Q

the oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve

A

describes how the partial pressure of oxygen in different tissues controls whether hemoglobin reversibly binds or releases oxygen
it shows how local PO2 controls loading and unloading from hemoglobin
hemoglobin exhibits cooperative binding
under normal restin conditions 98% of the hemoglobin in systemic arteries is fully saturated
as blood passes through capillary beds in the tissues, oxygen is delivered to cells and the hemoglobin is 75% saturated or partially saturated
-this means venous blood still is 75% saturated=venous return

121
Q

cooperative binding

A

each O2 binding increases the affinity for the next O2 molecule (sigmoid shape of the curve)-this means that both loading and unloading of O2 is efficient

122
Q

what does it mean when the oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve is shifted left

A

at a given partial pressure of O2, hemoglobin holds onto more of its O2=it is more saturated

123
Q

what does it mean when the oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve is shifted right

A

at a given partial pressure of O2, hemoglobin releases more of its O2=it is less saturated

124
Q

hemoglobin’s affinity for O2 is decreased in ___ pH and ___ PCO2

A

low; increased
both declining pH (more acidic) and increased PCO2 weaken the HbO2 bond: this is called the Bohr Effect and makes it possible for hemoglobin to release more O2 in the tissues, where it is needed during metabolic activity

125
Q

what is different about fetal hemoglobin

A

fetal hemoglobin has a greater affinity for oxygen-facilitating oxygen transfer across the placenta
-this makes it possible for fetal hemoglobin to “pick up” oxygen from maternal blood

126
Q

what is the difference of maternal blood

A

maternal blood may have a low PO2 when it arrives at the fetus
if maternal blood arrives at a PO2 of 40 mmHg it may be at 75% saturation for mom, but will provide 90% saturation for the fetus

127
Q

what are the three forms carbon dioxide is transported from cells to the lungs

A

1) dissolved in plasma (7-10%-smallest percentage)
2) chemically bound to hemoglobin (around 20%)
- CO2 is bound by hemoglobin and carried as carbaminohemoglobin (HbCO2)
- no direct competition with O2 for binding, but deoxygenated hemoglobin binds CO2 more readily than oxygenated hemoglobin
3) as bicarbonate ions in plasma (around 70%-the predominant method)
- CO2 rapidly binds to H2O in a reaction catalyzed by carbonic anhydrase forming carbonic acid (H2CO3). Carbonic acid is unstable and quickly dissociates into a hydrogen ion (H+) and a bicarbonate ion (HCO3-)
- H+ can bind to Hb triggering the Bohr effect: CO2 loading enhances O2 release
- bicarbonate moves to the blood via faclitated diffusion with Cl-=chloride shift

128
Q

carbon dioxide must be released at the lungs

A

1) CO2 diffuses from plasma-low PCO2 in lungs
2) CO2 rapidly dissociates from hemoglobin-low PCO2 in lungs
3) CO2 “released” from bicarbonate ions
- to release CO2 in the lungs we need to free CO2 from its “bicarbonate housing”
- bicarbonate reenters the RBC via another chloride shift and the carbonic anhydrase reaction is reversed

129
Q

bohr effect and haldane effect synergism

A

increased PCO2 causes more O2 to dissociate from hemoglobin=bohr effect
dissociation of O2 allows more CO2 to bind hemoglobin=haldane effect

130
Q

carbon monoxide (CO) poisoning

A

odorless colorless gas
risk factor in fires or malfunctioning heating systems
hemoglobin has 200X greater affinity for CO than O2
CO outcompetes O2 for heme binding side even at low levels
symptoms: confusion and throbbing headache
hyperbaric (high pressure) therapy or 100% oxygen therapy

131
Q

what cell types are effector cells of the autonomic nervous system

A

smooth muscle
cardiac muscle
gland cells

132
Q

regulation of respiratory system by the NS

A

glands: production and release of mucous in airways. parasympathetic stimulation increases mucous
smooth muscle in wall of airways: parasympathetic stimulation of muscarinic receptors narrows airways. sympathetic stimulation of beta-2 adrenergic receptors widens airways

133
Q

what muscles are involved in breathing

A

the muscles controlling inspiration and expiration are skeletal muscles under the control of the somatic nervous system (breathing is not automatic)

  • diaphragm is controled by lower motor neruons in C3-5 spinal cord forming the phrenic nerves
  • intercostal and accessory muscles of respiration are controlled by lower motor neurons in thoracic spinal cord
  • respiratory centers in the brainstem contain the upper motor neurons controlling the lower motor neurons
134
Q

ventral respiratory group

A

stimulates breathing-sets normal rate of breathing; overdose of morphine or alcohol inhibits VRG

135
Q

ventral respiratory group inspiration

A

inspiratory neurons fire in VRG and increase activity in the phrenic nerve (diaphragm) and intercostal nerve (external intercostal)

136
Q

ventral respiratory group expiration

A

epiratory neurons fire in the VRG and decrease activity in phrenic and intercostal nerve allowing muscle relaxation and lung recoil

137
Q

dorsal respiratory group

A

(DRG) is an integrating center receiving information from peripheral stretch and chemoreceptors modifying VRG neruon activity

138
Q

pontine respiratory group

A

“smooth” transitions between inspiration and expiration

-vocalization, sleep, exercise change pace of transitions

139
Q

what happens when the high cervical spinal cord is injured

A

injury to the high cervical spinal cord disrupts communication from the respiratory centers to the lower motor neurons in the cervical spinal cord
-injuries in C1-C3 spinal cord often result in death because breathing stops

140
Q

hypercapnia

A

rising PCO2 levels in the blood-indirecly stimulates respiratory centers to increase breathing rate

141
Q

hypocapnia

A

low PCO2 levels-can be a result of hyperventilation-if PCO2 too low-respiration is inhibited, apnea (no breathing)

142
Q

hyperventilation

A

if PCO2 too low, respiration inhibited, apnea can occur: swimmer blackouts
pH rises: alkalosis

143
Q

hypoventilation

A

shallow breathing
PCO2 too high
pH falls: acidosis

144
Q

CO2 is the most potent chemical signal influencing respiratory rate through ___ chemoreceptors

A

central

145
Q

___ chemoreceptors are most sensitive to PO2

A

chemoreceptors in the carotid body and aortic bodies are sensitive to arterial O2 levles
limited role during normal condition:
-increase sensitivity to PCO2 in low O2 conditions
-arterial PO2 must drop below 60 mmHg before ventilation stimulated
during periods of O2 starvation brainstem centers are depressed and peripheral signlas can ‘jump start’ ventilation

146
Q

eupnea

A

normal breathing

147
Q

apnea

A

no breathing

148
Q

dyspnea

A

labored breathing

149
Q

COPD

A

chronic obstructive pulmonary diseases
decreased ability to force air out of lungs
emphysema and chronic bronchitis are examples
common features include high history of smoking, dyspnea-difficult or labored breathing, coughing, pulmonary infections, and respiratory failure-hypoventilation, respiratory acidosis, hypoxemia

150
Q

asthma

A

asthma is a reversible obstructive disorder marked by acute epidoses
allergic asthma: inflammation of the airways (can become chronic), constriction of smooth muscle (bronchoconstriction), and increased mucus production
common clinical symptoms: dyspnea-difficult or labored breathing, coughing, wheezing, chest tightness
treatment: fast acting bronchofilators-contain beta adrenergic agonists and inhaled corticosteriods-decrease inflammation through immunosuppression

151
Q

pulmonary fibrosis

A

lung tissue becomes damaged and scarred
is a restrictive pulmonary disease that make it difficult to expand the lungs-vital capacity is decreased and ventilation is impaired
scarring and connective tissue in alveoli decrease lung compliance
can be caused by:
-environmental factors: exposure to toxins and pollutants
-cancer therapy
-medical conditions that cause scarring

152
Q

sleep apnea

A

very common, 2 types of sleep apnea, patients may have combination of both
temporary cessation of breathing durign sleep
may be more than 30X perminute
disrupts sleep patterns-excessive daytame sleepiness
consequences: susceptibility to accidents and chronic illness such as depression, hypertension, heart disease, stroke, diabetes
treatment: continuous positive airway pressure device (CPAP) and similar devices and lifestyle changes

153
Q

obstructive sleep apnea

A

collapse of upper airway
soft tissues of pharynx sag and obstruct airway
more common in men, worse with obsesity

154
Q

central sleep apnea

A

reduced drive from respiratory centers of brainstem (CNS)

made worse by opiate use, medication-assisted treatment of substance use disorder

155
Q

cystic fibrosis

A

genetic mutation
affects ion chennel that allows Cl- to exit cells
causes sticky mucus to accumulate in air passageways
bacterial infections, chronic inflammation, permanent tissue damage
treatment: mucus dissolving drugs, “clapping” chest and back to loosen mucus

156
Q

lung cancer

A

known to aggressively metastasize-early detection with surgical removal of affected area before metastasis provides best potential for cure

157
Q

major layers of the skin

A

epidermis and dermis (hypodermis is underneath)

158
Q

epidermis

A

keratinized stratified squamous epithelium resting on basement membrane; protective shield

159
Q

dermis

A

loose and dense irregular connective tissue; bulk of the skin

160
Q

hypodermis

A

loose connective and adipose tissue; anchors skin to muscle

161
Q

functions of the integumentary system

A

protection: mechanical trauma, invasion of pathogens, environmental hazards (UV radiation)
sensation: sensory receptors
thermoregulation: maintenane of internal body temperature through negative feedback loops
excretion: waste products (lactic acid, urea, metals) lost through sweat
vitamin D synthesis: UV light reaction with modified cholesterol to produce cholecalciferol

162
Q

cells of the epidermis

A

keratinocytes
melanocytes
dendritic (langerhans) cells
merkel (tactile) cells

163
Q

keratinocytes

A

production of keritin; desmosomes

164
Q

melanocytes

A

synthesize melanin

165
Q

dendritic (langerhans) cell

A

phagocytose foreign substances; activate immune system

166
Q

merkel (tactile) cells

A

sensory receptor for touch; associated with nerve ending

167
Q

stratum basale

A

basal layer; stratum germinativum

  • deepest layer attached to dermis
  • closest to blood supply
  • youngest keratinocytes
  • single row of stem cells continually dividing
  • 10-25% of cells are melancytes
168
Q

stratum spinosum

A 
prickly layer
several layers thick
system of intermediate filaments (pre-keratin) spanning cytosol and connecting to desmosomes
appear spiky under microscope-artifact
contains dendritic cells
169
Q

stratum granulosum

A

granular layer
1 to 5 cells thick
initiate keratinization-flatten, nuclei and orgenelles disintegrate (apoptosis)
prominent cytoplasmic granules
keratohyaline granules-help to form keratin
lamellar granules-contain water-resistant glycolipid (lipid)
epidermal water barrier
cut off from nutrients

170
Q

stratum lucidum

A

clear layer
thin translucent band
transition region between S. grulosum and s. corneum
indistinct boundaries between dead keratinocytes
tonofilaments-product of keratohyaline granules clings to intracellular keratin filaments generating parallel arrays
cut off from nutrients

171
Q

stratum corneum

A

horny layer
20-30 cell layers thick
anucleate keratinocytes
outermost layer-protect against abrasion and penetration
glycolipid from lamellar granules creates near waterproof layer
terminal cells are cornified (horny)-dandruff and dander
shed 50,000 cells per minute-40 pound in a lifetime!
callus formation-repeated pressure

172
Q

what are skin layers held together by

A

desmosomes and hemidesmosomes

173
Q

dermis layers

A

papillary layer and reticular layer

174
Q

papillary layer

A

20% of thickness
loose areolar connective tissue
dermal papillae-meissner corpuscle, free nerve endings, capillaries
blists

175
Q

reticular layer

A

80% of thickness
dense irregular conective tissue
-collagen and elastic fibers (straie-stretch marks)
blood vessels and accessory strucutres (sweat and sebaceous glands; pacinian corpuscle)

176
Q

epidermal ridges

A

friction ridges
in thick skin dermal papillae are arranged into dermal ridges
dermal ridges indent epidermis-epidermal ridges
enhanced grip strength
genetically determined-individual specific
sweat pores help generate the finger prints

177
Q

melanin

A

ranges from orange-red to black-providing pigment to keratinocytes
synthesized from tyrosine-increased by UV radiation
melanin absorbs UV radiation to protect keratinocyte DNA (shielding like an umbrella)
all humans contain same number of melanocytes, but vary in kind and amount produced

178
Q

carotene

A

accumulates in statum corneum of thick skin giving a yellow-orange pigment

179
Q

hemoglobin

A

crimson color of oxygenated blood

180
Q

skin appendages

A

nails
hair
glands (sweat glands, sebaceous glands)
all derived from the epithelium

181
Q

nails

A

scale-like modificatoins of the epidermis
hard keratin-cells do not flake off
nail matrix-nail growth
clinical indicator:
-yellow-tinge-respiratory or thyroid disorder
-thickened yellow-fungal infection
-concavity (spoon nail)-oron deficiency
-horizontal lines (Beau’s lines)-malnutrition

182
Q

hair

A 
pili-consists of dead, keratinized cells
hard keratin-cells do not flake off
hair shaft and hair root
3 concentric layers-medulla, cortex, cuticle
hair follicle
hair bulb-hair follicle receptor (touch)
arrector pili smooth msucle
183
Q

two types of sweat glands

A

eccrine sweat glands

aprocrine sweat glands

184
Q

eccrine sweat gladns

A 
more abundant
duct extends to a pore at skin surface
merocrine secretion of sweat
sweat is 99% water
-salts, waste, antibodies, dermcidin
sympathetic, regulation-forehead to toes
"cold-sweat"-emotional
185
Q

apocrine sweat glands

A 
axillary and anogenital
duct empty into hair follicle
merocrine secretion of sweat with fatty substances and proteins
bacteria on skin produce odor
sympathetic regulation-stress
human sexual scent glands
186
Q

skin is important in

A

regulating body heat (thermoregulation)

-hair, sweat glands, and blood vessels all contribute

187
Q

sebaceous glands

A 
oil galnds
secrete sebum
everywhere excepts palms and soles
holocrine secretion of sebum
sebum is an oily lubricant
-lubricatin, slow water loss, bactericidal
outgrowth of hair follicle
arrector pili contractions force sebum out
188
Q

erythema

A

redness

fever, hypertension, inflammation, allergy, embarrassment

189
Q

pallor

A

blanching/pale skin

anemia, low blood pressure, anger, fear, stress

190
Q

jaundice

A 
yellowing
liver disorder (bile accumulation in blood)
191
Q

bronzing

A

metallic appearance

addison’s disease (pituitary gland tumor)

192
Q

cyanosis

A

blue

low amount of hemoglobin and/or red blood cells

193
Q

burns

A

denature cell proteins and kill cells of the skin

rule of nines: predict complications and treatment

194
Q

ABCD rule

A

asymmetry: two sides of pigmented spot/mole do not match
borde irregularity: boarders of lesion exhibit indentations
color: pigmented spot contains several colors
diameter: spot is larger than 6 mm in diamter
evolution: changes with time

195
Q

skin is the ____ line of defense

A 
first line of defense
skin is a critical barrier between body and environment
-chemical barrier
-physical barrier
-biological barrier
196
Q

chemical barrier of skin

A

acid mantle-low pH of skin secretions
sweat (dermicidin), sebum (bacteriocide)
defensins
melanin-chemical sunscreen

197
Q

physical barrier of skin

A

bricks and mortar (dead keratinocytes and glycolipids)
water-resistance-preventing loss and entry
organic solvents and heavy metals can cross

198
Q

biological barrier of skin

A

dendritic cells
dermal macrophages
DNA converts UV radiation to heat

199
Q

intact skin epidermis

A

acid mantle of skin

keratin

200
Q

intact mucous membranes

A 
mucus
nasal hairs
cilia
gastric juice
acid mantle of vagina
lacrimation
urine
201
Q

protective chemicals

A

lysozyme
mucin
defensins
dermicidin

202
Q

lysozyme

A

saliva, rspiratory mucus, lacrimal glands

203
Q

mucin

A

forms mucus in digestive and respiratory pathways

204
Q

defensins

A

antimicrobial peptide

205
Q

dermicidin

A

toxic secretion

206
Q

leukocytes

A

white blood cells
primary cells responsible for the immune response
leukos: white
hytos: cell

207
Q

what are leukocytes

A

derived from hemotopoietic stem cells, which divide into myeloid and lymphoid stem cells

208
Q

lymphoid stem cells generate

A

lymphocytes

209
Q

myeloid stem cells generate

A

leukocytes

210
Q

granulocytes

A

neutrophil
eosinophil
basophil

211
Q

agranulocytes

A

lymphocyte (small)

monocyte

212
Q

chemotaxis

A

cell movement in an amoeboid fashion following a chemical gradient (movement up the gradient-positive chemotaxis)

213
Q

phagocytosis

A

the process of engulfing and ingesting a target pathogen

cells that perform this action are phagocytes-neutrophils and monocytes (macrophages)

214
Q

cytotoxic cells

A

attack an ddirectly kill pathogens

esoinophils (parasites) and some lymphocytes (NK cells and T cells)

215
Q

antigen-presenting cells

A

cells that display fragments of foreign proteins in thier cell surface
-macrophage/monocyte, lymphocyte (B cells), dendritic cells

216
Q

phagocytes can ingest ___

A

foreign pathogens by pathocytosis

217
Q

opsonization

A

coating pathogen with opsonins (complement proteins or antibodies)

218
Q

natural killer cells

A

are lymphocytes of the innate immune system
NK cells provide a rapid response to virus-injected cells and kill tumor cells
less picky about cellular targets compared to lymphocytes in adaptive immune system
induce cells to undergo apoptosis (programmed cell death), secrete interferons, perforin, and pro-inflammatory chemcials

219
Q

role of inflammation

A

attract immune cells and chemical mediators to site of injury
prevents the spread of damage-creating a physical barrier
promotes tissue repair-remove debris/pathogens

220
Q

cardinal signs of inflammation

A

redness, heat, swelling, pain

221
Q

phagocyte mobilization is the

A

second stage of the inflammatory response
leukocytosis
margination
neutrophils enter first and monocytes follow
monocytes will differentiate into macrophages
pus is the accumulation of dead/dying neutrophiils and macrophages following inflammatory response

222
Q

leukocytosis

A

increase in release and production of neutrophils in the red marrow
-4-5 times normal levels of cells

223
Q

margination

A

cell adhesion molecules (CAMs) on vessel walls and neutrophils

224
Q

antimicrobial proteins

A

interferons help protect uninfected cells from viruses
complement are plasma proteins that help destroy pathogens
-“complements” the innate and adaptive immune system
–opsonization
–enhance inflammation
–insertion of MAC into membranes inducing cell lysis

225
Q

fever

A

a systemic response to an invading microorganism
body temperature above normal homeostatic range-36-38 degrees Celsius-febrile
pyrogens are released from damaged cells or pathogens establishing a higher than normal body temperature set point in the hypothalamus
cold “shivers” result from body tying to establish pathological body temperature
unknown physiological benefits:
-liver and spleen sequester ion and zinc-reduce bacterial growth
-increase metabolic rate-sped up tissue repair
-increased activity of phagocytic cells

226
Q

three important aspects of adaptive immunity:

A

it is specific, systemic, and has memory

227
Q

antigens

A

substances that trigger the adaptive immune system

there are self and non-self antigens

228
Q

functional properties of complete antigens

A

immunogenicity and reactivity

229
Q

immunogenicity

A

the ability to stimulate specific lymphocytes to proliferate

230
Q

reactivity

A

the ability to react with activated lymphocytes and released antibodies

231
Q

hapten (incomplete antigen)

A

small molecules (peptides, nucleotides, hormones) that need to nbind endogenous proteins to be recognized

  • penicilin, animal dander, detergents
  • when unbound have reactivity, but immunogenicity
232
Q

major types of antigen-presenting cells

A

dendritic cells: skin
macrophage: lymphoid organs and connective tissue
b cells: present to T helper cells

233
Q

lymphocyte development

A

1) origin
2) maturation
3) seeding secondary lymphoid organs and circulation
4) antigen encounter and activation
5) proliferation and differentiation

234
Q

lymphocytes are ___ during maturation

A

educated

  • immunocomptence
  • self tolerance
235
Q

immunocompetence

A

must be able to recognize one specific antigen

  • B&T cells will display a unique (specific to one antigenic determinant) surface receptor
  • all the receptor on one B or T cell are all the same
  • B cells display antibodies; T cells display T cell receptors
236
Q

self-tolerance

A

must be unresponsive to self-antigens

237
Q

T cell ‘education’ requires cells to pass two molecular tests

A

1) positive selection

2) negative selection

238
Q

active immunity

A

enhanced secondary immune response results from efficacy of memory B cells

239
Q

fab region

A

variable region
forms antigen binding sites and confer specificity
-2 antigen binding sites per antibdody

240
Q

Fc region

A 
constant region
is the same for a given class of antibodies
-dictate the type of cell the antibody can bind to
-how the antibody functions to eliminate antigens
--Fc receptors on immune cells
241
Q

class 1 major histocompatibility complex (MHC)

A 
found on all nucleated human cells
-if cell becomes infected with a pathogen then class 1 MHC will display a non-self atnigen fragment on its cell surface
242
Q

class 2 major histocompatibility complex (MHC)

A

is found primarily on antigen presenting cells

243
Q

T cells mature in the

A

thymus

244
Q

T cells can only be activated by an

A

antigen presenting cell and a double recognition

  • t cell receptor recognizes a specific antigen
  • CD glycoprotein will recognize the MHC protein on the antigen presenting cell
  • -remember the positive and negative selective test performed in the thymys
  • co-stimulatory molecules are only present when pathogens are detected
  • -“double handshake” betweeen APC and T cell
  • process of clonal selection same for both Helper and cytotoxic T cells
  • most effector cells undergo apoptosis between 7 to 30 days
245
Q

helper T cells help facilitate humoral immunity mediated by B cells

A

helper T cell activation of B cells required for full humoral immunity response
-T cell-independent antigens do not require T cells, but mount a weak response
-T cell-dependent antigens require T cells
similar to co-stimulation molecules between T cells and APCs

246
Q

helper T cells help activate cytotoxic t cells

A

more efficient mechanism to activate cytotoxic T cells

  • remember cytotoxic T cells can not see class 2 MHC
  • APCs express both class 1 and class 2 MHC
  • cytokines released attract and stimulate immune cells
247
Q

cytotoxic T cells are the only T cell that can directly attack and kill cells

A

two mechanisms to induce cell death:
-perforins and granzymes
-receptor stimulated apoptosis
cytotoxic T cells work in tandem with nateral killer cells to provide immune surveillance
-NK cells can not interact with cells displaying class 1 MHC
-cytotoxic T cells can not see cells without class 1 MHC

248
Q

allergy

A

an inflammatory response to a non-pathological antigen

249
Q

lymphatic system

A

returns leaked fluids to the cardiovascular system

  • network of lymphatic vessels
  • lymph
  • lymph nodes
250
Q

lymphoid organs and tissues

A

structural basis of immune system

-spleen, thymys, tonsils, lymph nodes

251
Q

immunity

A

resistance to disease

252
Q

major functions of the lymphatic and immune systems working together

A

recognition and removal of abnormal “self” cells
removal of dead and damaged cells
protects body from disease causing invaders
-pathogens:
–microorganisms (microbes)-bacteria, fungi, viruses, single cell protozoans
–parasites (hookworm, tapeworms)
–antigens
-immunogens
–pollen, chemcicals, foreign bodies (splitter)
–antigens

253
Q

lymph

A

the fluid that lymphatic capillaries collect

254
Q

excess extracellular fluid is collected by lymphatic vessels

A

more fluid is pushed out of capillaries than is drawn in, resulting in accumulation of lfuid in extrcellular space

255
Q

lymph flows back to bloodstream via a network of lymphatic vessels

A

collecting vessels–>lymphatic trunks–>lymphatic ducts
lymph enpties into veins close to heart
-thoracific duct drains MOST of body

256
Q

lymphedema

A

sluggish flow leads to buildup of lymphatic fluid in extracellular space

257
Q

what are helpful techniques for improving lymph return

A 
exercising muscles
external compression
-compression sleeves/wraps
-pneumatic cuffs
-massage
258
Q

lymphoid cells

A

lymphocytes (B cells and T cells)
macrophages
dendritic cells
reticular cells-fibroblast like cells that produce reticular fibers creating a stroma

259
Q

lymphoid tissue

A

reticular connective tissue

  • diffuse lymphoid tissue: arrangement of lymphoid cells and reticular fibers
  • lymphoid follicles (lympoid nodules): solid, spherical bodies packed with lymphoid cells and reticular fibers
260
Q

primary lymphoid organs

A

where B and T lymphocutes mature:

  • both originate in red marrow
  • B cells mature in red marrow
  • T cells mature in thymus
261
Q

secondary lymphoid organs

A

where mature lymphocytes first encounter antigens and are activated

262
Q

lymph nodes

A

clusters of tymphatic tissue located along lymphatic vessels
-hundreds embedded in connective tissue
-clusters in axillae (arm pit), cervical (neck), inguinal (groin), mesenteric (abdominal)
two protective functions:
-cleansing the lymph-macrophages in the node
-immune system activation-site of lymphocyte-antigen ineraction
filters the lymph

263
Q

the spleen is site of

A

lymphocyte proliferation, immune surveillance, and blood cleansing

  • about the size of a fist
  • largest lymphoid organ
  • interweaving network of reticular fibers
  • filters the blood
  • extracts aged and defective RBCs and platelets
  • -recycles products
  • macrophages remove debris and foreign materials
  • stores platelets and monocytes
  • erythrocyte production in fetus
264
Q

two histologically regions of the spleen

A

white pulp and red pulp

265
Q

white pulp

A

immune function
composed of lymphocytes suspended on reticular fibers
forms cuffs around central arteries

266
Q

red pulp

A

where word out RBCs and blood borne pathogens are destroyed by macrophages

267
Q

MALT

A

mucosa-associated lymphoid tissues

268
Q

what is MALT

A

a collection of lymphoid tissue clustered in areas prone to pathogen exposure

269
Q

where is MALT

A

found in GI tract, respiratory passages, genitourinary organs
composed of spherical clusters of lymphoid follicles-B cells

ANPS 020 (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions