Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the initial study used for respiratory sxs and which view is preferred?

A

CXR, PA view preferred

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2
Q

If you note a Hampton hump on CXR, what should you be concerned about?

A

Pulmonary infarct

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3
Q

What is a c/i to CXR?

A

Pregnancy

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4
Q

What systematic approach should be used when reading a CXR?

A
A- airway
B- bones
C- cardiac silhouette & costophrenic angle
D- diaphragms (free air)
E- edges
F- fields (infiltrates, nodules)
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5
Q

CT is equivalent to how many XRays with respect to radiation?

A

80

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6
Q

Which form of pulmonary dx imaging is used to clarify abnormal cxr, characterize pulm nodules, eval lung mets/ suspected masses?

A

CT

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7
Q

CT’s place beds at increased risk of what due to higher sensitivity?

A

Leukemia/ brain tumors

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8
Q

In utero exposure of radiation with CT’s of pregnant women is linked to what?

A

Peds CA mortality

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9
Q

Low dose CT’s are used for what?

A

Screening

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10
Q

What are the indications for iodine contrast w/ CT?

A

Vessels, malignancy chest trauma

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11
Q

Patients should be pretreated with what due to possibility of iodine allergic rxn w/ CT?

A

Prednisone and diphenhydramine (Benadryl)

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12
Q

When does CIN occur/ peak?

A

Occurs @ 24-48 hrs post exposure

Peaks @ 3-5 days

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13
Q

If you note an increased serum creatinine >/= 0.5 mg/dL or >/= 25% from baseline following an iodine contrast CT, what should you be concerned about?

A

Contrast induced nephropathy (CIN)

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14
Q

When should you check kidney fxn prior to an iodine contrast CT due to concerns of CIN?

A

> 60 yo, hx of renal disease/ HTN/ DM, taking Metformin

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15
Q

What is the dx imaging of choice for pulmonary vasculature?

A

CT pulmonary angiography (CTPA)

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16
Q

What is the gold standard for PE eval?

A

Catheter directed pulmonary angiography (“direct”)

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17
Q

What pulmonary imaging is useful if V/Q scan or CTPA is inconclusive, but there is a high clinical suspicion for PE?

A

Catheter directed pulmonary angiography

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18
Q

What pulmonary imaging has the following associated risks?

Bleeding @ insertion site, arrhythmia, allergic rxn to contrast, CIN

A

Catheter directed pulmonary angiography

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19
Q

What pulmonary imaging is best if there is a normal CXR and high suspicion for PE?

A

V/Q scan

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20
Q

What is the pulmonary imaging test of choice for dx in pregnant women?

A

V/Q scan

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21
Q

What pulmonary imaging is used to detect cancer?

A

PET scan

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22
Q

What pulmonary imaging involves detection of radiation from fluorodeoxyglucose (FDG)?

A

PET scan

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23
Q

A PET scan is better than CT for mediastinal imaging due to the fact that you can ID a tumor in what?

A

Normal sized lymph nodes

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24
Q

When should an MRI/ MRA be avoided, due to use of Gadolinium contrast dye, and why?

A

Avoid if GFR < 30 mL/min, possibility of nephrotic systemic fibrosis

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25
Q

What are the specific risks associated with taking a bx with bronchoscopy?

A

Bleeding, bronchial perforation, pneumothorax

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26
Q

Should airflow spirometry be performed sitting or standing?

A

Sitting (prevents syncope)

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27
Q

Is FEV-1 most useful for obstruction or restriction?

A

Obstruction

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28
Q

What value defines the severity of obstruction and assists in differentiating between obstructive and restrictive diseases?

A

FEV-1: FVC ratio (< 0.7 = obstructive)

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29
Q

What value measures the airflow during the middle 1/2 of forced expiration?

A

FEF-25-75%

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30
Q

What value is non-specific for airway obstruction but may be an early indicator of disease?

A

FEF-25-75%

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31
Q

What is considered + on a reversibility testing for bronchodilation?

A

FEV-1 increases by 12% and 200mL

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32
Q

In which test do you give a dilute bronchoconstrictor at increased concentrations via a nebulizer at 30 and 90 seconds and test FEV1?

A

Bronchoprovocation (methacholine challenge)

Med = dilute methacholine

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33
Q

What is considered a + on the bronchoprovocation (methacholine challenge) test?

A

FEV1 decreases by 20%

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34
Q

In obstructive diseases, do you have normal inspiration or expiration?

A

Inspiration N (but decreased expiration)

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35
Q

In restrictive diseases, do you have normal inspiration or expiration?

A

Expiration N (but difficulty expanding lungs during inhalation)

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36
Q

What value measures the ability of the lungs to transfer gas and saturate Hgb, and when can it be misleading?

A

Diffusion capacity of lungs for CO (DLCO)

Misleading if anemic due to false reduction

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37
Q

If lungs are healthy, what will a DLCO show?

A

Little CO collected during exhalation

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38
Q

If lungs are diseased, what will a DLCO show?

A

Less CO diffused into lungs = higher levels measured in exhaled gas

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39
Q

What will the following values show for an obstructive lung disease?
TLC, FVC, RV, FEV1, FEV1/ FVC

A
TLC- inc 
FVC- N
RV- inc
FEV1- dec
FEV1/ FVC- dec
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40
Q

What will the following values show for an restrictive lung disease?
TLC, FVC, RV, FEV1, FEV1/ FVC

A
TLC- dec
FVC- dec
RV- dec
FEV1- dec
FEV1/ FVC- N/ inc
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41
Q

What are the 5 steps of PFT interpretation?

A

Examine:

  1. flow-volume curve
  2. FEV-1 value
  3. FEV-1/ FVC ratio
  4. response to bronchodilator
  5. DLCO
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42
Q

Will the flow-volume curve be scooped out or peaked with an obstructive lung disease?

A

Scooped out

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43
Q

What two guidelines classify asthma?

A

NAEPP and GINA

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44
Q

What are the primary sxs of asthma?

A

Coughing (nocturnal), > 3 weeks

Wheezing (hallmark)

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45
Q

What disease is characterized by tripod positioning, accessory muscle use, pulsus paradoxus, and tachypnea/cardia?

A

Asthma

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46
Q

What will the diagnostic values of FEV1, FEV1/FVC and reversibility be for asthma?

A

FEV1: < 80%
FEV1/FVC: N (70-85%)
Reversibility: > 12% w/ FEV1 bronchodilator

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47
Q

What makes up ASA triad/ Samter’s triad?

A
  1. sinus disease w/ nasal polyps
  2. ASA sensitivity
  3. severe asthma
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48
Q

What is made up of atopic derm, allergic rhinitis, and asthma?

A

Atopic triad

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49
Q

What is made up of atopic derm, food allergy, allergic rhinitis, and asthma?

A

Atopic march

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50
Q

What test is used to confirm a dx of asthma?

A

Spirometry

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51
Q

In regards to asthma classification, which steps are considered intermittent?

A

Step 1

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52
Q

In regards to asthma classification, which steps are considered persistent?

A

Steps 2-4

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53
Q

If a patient presents with hx of asthma sxs ≤ 2 days/ week and nighttime awakenings ≤ 2 nights/ month (≥ 5 yo) which step of asthma classification would they be?

A

Step 1

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54
Q

If a patient presents with hx of asthma sxs > 2 days/ week and nighttime awakenings 1-2x/ month (0-4 yo)/ 3-4x/ month (≥ 5 yo), which step of asthma classification would they be?

A

Step 2

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55
Q

If a patient presents with hx of asthma sxs daily and nighttime awakenings 3-4x/ month (0-4 yo)/ >1x/ week (≥ 5 yo), which step of asthma classification would they be?

A

Step 3

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56
Q

If a patient presents with hx of asthma sxs throughout the day and nighttime awakenings >1x/ week (0-4 yo)/ nightly (≥ 5 yo), which step of asthma classification would they be?

A

Step 4

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57
Q

What will the FEV1 value be for steps 1-4 of asthma?

A

Step 1: > 80%
Step 2: > 80%
Step 3: 60-80%
Step 4: < 60%

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58
Q

For which steps of asthma classification will the FEV1/ FVC ratio be decreased by 5%?

A

Steps 3-4

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59
Q

What is the treatment for Step 1 asthma?

A

SABA prn

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60
Q

What is the treatment for Step 2 (mild) asthma?

A

Low dose daily ICS
OR
LTRA/ Cromlyn (kids that don’t want steroid)

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61
Q

What is the treatment for Step 3 (moderate) asthma?

A
  • Consider specialist referral
  • Medium dose ICS (0-4 to)
    OR
  • Low dose ICS + LABA (≥ 5yo) or LTRA
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62
Q

What is the treatment for Step 4 (severe) asthma?

A
  • Refer to specialist
  • Medium dose ICS & LABA (or LTRA 0-4 yo)
    OR
  • Medium dose ICS + LTRA
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63
Q

What is the treatment for Step 5 asthma?

A

High dose ICS/ LABA (or LTRA if 0-4 yo)

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64
Q

What is the treatment for Step 6 asthma?

A

High dose ICS/ LABA (or LTRA if 0-4 yo) + oral steroids

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65
Q

When should you consider adding Omalizumab (Xolair) with steps 5-6 asthma?

A

If ≥ 12 yo with allergies

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66
Q

When would Theophyline with use of ICS be used in the treatment of asthma steps 5-6, and why is this a less attractive alternative?

A

> 5 yo

Serum levels must be monitored closely

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67
Q

What is the rule of 2’s and what disease does it pertain to?

A

Asthma

  • Sx ≥ 2x/ week
  • Awaken w/ asthma sx ≥ 2x/month
  • Refill SABA ≥ 2x/ yr
  • Peak flow meter measures 20% from baseline ≤2x
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68
Q

If results of a peak flow meter show green, what does this indicate?

A

> 80%, good control

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69
Q

If results of a peak flow meter show yellow, what does this indicate?

A

50-80%, caution- SABA + med change

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70
Q

If results of a peak flow meter show red, what does this indicate?

A

<50%, medical alert/ emergency tx

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71
Q

If a pt shows the following, how well controlled is their asthma?

  • Sx frequency/ SABA use: ≤ 2x/ week
  • Nighttime awakenings (0-11 yo): ≤ 1x/ month
  • Nighttime awakenings (≥ 12 yo): ≤ 2x/ month
  • FEV1: > 80%
  • FEV1/ FVC: > 80%
A

Well controlled

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72
Q

If a pt shows the following, how well controlled is their asthma?

  • Sx frequency/ SABA use: ≥ 2 days/ week
  • Nighttime awakenings (0-4 yo): 1x/ month
  • Nighttime awakenings (0-11 yo): ≥ 2x/ month
  • Nighttime awakenings (≥ 12 yo): 1-3x/ week
  • FEV1: 60-80%
  • FEV1/ FVC: 75-80% (5-11 yo)
A

Not well controlled

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73
Q

If a pt shows the following, how well controlled is their asthma?

  • Sx frequency/ SABA use: daily
  • Nighttime awakenings (0-4 yo): 1x/ week
  • Nighttime awakenings (0-11 yo): ≥ 2x/ week
  • Nighttime awakenings (≥ 12 yo): ≥ 4x/ week
  • FEV1: < 60%
  • FEV1/ FVC: < 75% (5-11 yo)
A

Very poorly controlled

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74
Q

What is the tx for exacerbation of asthma?

A
  1. O2
  2. SABA/ SVN- Albuterol or Xopenex +/- Ipratropium bromide → repeat PEF, SVN repeated or continuous
  3. Systemic corticosteroids- prednisolone ~ 1 mg/kg/day w/ max dose based on weight
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75
Q

What role should abx and resp monitoring be considered in the tx of asthma exacerbation?

A

Abx prn

Resp monitoring if in ED/ inpatient, severe = C-PAP, BiPAP, intubation

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76
Q

How soon should a pt with asthma exacerbation f/u?

A

Within 1 week

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77
Q

Small airway disease –> ?

A

Obstructive chronic bronchitis

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78
Q

Blue bloater (hypoxemia, cyanosis, cor polmonale, weight gain) are associated w/ what disease?

A

Obstructive chronic bronchitis

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79
Q

Infiltration of the submucosal layer by neutrophils is associated w/ what disease?

A

Obstructive chronic bronchitis

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80
Q

Presence of dry cough and sputum production for 3+ months in 2 consecutive years is what?

A

Obstructive chronic bronchitis

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81
Q

Pink puffer (hypercapnia, weight loss, muscle wasting)

A

Emphysema

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82
Q

Parenchyma disease –>

A

Emphysema

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83
Q

Destruction of alveolar walls and reduced alveolar surface area available for gas exchange is associated w/ what disease?

A

Emphysema

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84
Q

Most common early finding ing COPD?

A

Dyspnea on exertion

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85
Q

Last COPD presentation?

A

Dyspnea, chronic cough, sputum production present at rest

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86
Q

Host risk factor for COPD? (3)

A
  1. a1-antitrypsin deficiency (AATD)
  2. asthma
  3. childhood respiratory infections
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87
Q

Tripod positioning, accessory muscle use, and pursed lip breathing are associated w/ what disease?

A

COPD

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88
Q

AP diameter increases or decreases w/ COPD?

A

Increases

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89
Q

Irreversibly after bronchodilator use is consistent w/ what disease?

A

COPD

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90
Q

FEV1/FVC < 70% indicates restrictive or obstructive disease?

A

Obstructive

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91
Q

Gold classes for COPD?

A

I. ≥80%
II. 50-80%
III. 30-50%
IV. <30%

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92
Q

TX goals for COPD? (4)

A
  1. Prevent progression (smoking cessation)
  2. Relieve sx/improve exercise tolerance
  3. Manage/prevent acute exacerbations
  4. Reduce mortality
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93
Q

Supplemental O2 sat for long term COPD tx?

A

88-92%

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94
Q

TX for COPD exacerbation?

A

SABA +/- SAMA
Prednisone 40 mg QD x 5 days

Mod-severe = + ABX 5-7 days
Sever = +/- hospitalization
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95
Q

TX for class A COPD?

A

SABA PRN

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96
Q

TX for class B COPD?

A

SABA + LAMA/LABA

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97
Q

TX for class C COPD?

A

SABA + LAMA

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98
Q

TX for class D COPD?

A

SABA + LAMA (or LABA/LAMA if severe)

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99
Q

S3 gallop, RVH, hepatomegaly, and peripheral edema are consistent w/ what disease?

A

Cor Pulmonale

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100
Q

Bleds/bullae are pathognomic for?

A

Emphysema

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101
Q

Is CT needed for routine COPD dx?

A

No

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102
Q

Acute changes in baseline dyspnea, cough, sputum that warrant a change is therapy is considered what?

A

Acute COPD exacerbation

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103
Q

SE of B2 bronchodilators?

A

Palpitations, tachycardia, insomnia, tremors

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104
Q

Albuterol is falls under what drug classification?

A

SABA (B2)

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105
Q

Salmeterol and Formoterol are what type of B2 agonists?

A

LABA

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106
Q

Dry mouth, metallic taste, HA and cough are SEs of what drug class?

A

Anticholinergics

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107
Q

Atrovent and Combivent are SABA or LABA anticholinergics?

A

SABA

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108
Q

Spirival and Incruse Ellipta are SABA or LABA anticholinergics?

A

LABA

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109
Q

Oral candidiasis and bruising are SEs of what meds?

A

LABA + ICS

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110
Q

Advair and Symbicort are fall under waht drug class?

A

LABA + ICS

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111
Q

What deficiency requires tx w/ antiprotease therapy?

A

a-1 antitrypsin (serum level < 11 micromol/L)

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112
Q

ABCD assessment tool combines what tools? (4)

A
  1. GOLD
  2. Modified British Medical Research Council (mMRC)
  3. COPD assessment tool (CAT)
  4. Exacerbation hx
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113
Q

Prior hospitalization for COPD exacerbation is predictive of what? (2)

A

Poor prognosis, ↑ risk of death

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114
Q

Grad A associated w/ (sx, risk)?

A

↓ sx, ↓ risk

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115
Q

Grad B associated w/ (sx, risk)?

A

↑ sx, ↓ risk

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116
Q

Grad C associated w/ (sx, risk)?

A

↓ sx, ↑ risk

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117
Q

Grad D associated w/ (sx, risk)?

A

↑ sx, ↑ risk

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118
Q

Cough >5 days is consistent w/ what dx?

A

Acute bronchitis

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119
Q

Acute bronchitis more commonly due to viral or bacterial pathogens?

A

Viral (90%)

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120
Q

Bacterial agent that causes acute bronchitis?

A

Bordetella pertussis

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121
Q

Ronchi > w/ expiration is consistent w/ what dx?

A

Acute bronchitis

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122
Q

First line TX for acute bronchitis?

A

Reassurance and edu on expected course

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123
Q

When are ABX used to tx acute bronchitis?

A

Pertussis ONLY

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124
Q

Cough ≥ 3 months for 2 consecutive years is consistent w/ what dx?

A

Chronic bronchitis

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125
Q

Gold standard diagnostic for pertussis?

A

Bacterial culture nasopharyngea secretions

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126
Q

Catarrhal, paroxysmal and convalescent are 3 phases of what disease?

A

Bordetella pertussis

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127
Q

Whooping cough is consistent w/ what disease?

A

Bordetella pertussis

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128
Q

When is serology used to dx pertussis?

A

Later stage of disease (2-8 weeks from cough onset)

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129
Q

Abx tx for what disease will ↓ transmission but have little effect on sx?

A

Bordetella pertussis

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130
Q

Is Bordetella pertussis a reportable disease?

A

Yes

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131
Q

ABX Tx for Bordetella pertussis in adults?

A

Macrolide: Azithro, clarithro or erythro

Bactrim if macrolide not tolerated

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132
Q

Fever, HA, myalgia and malaise are consistent with what disease?

A

Influenza

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133
Q

Viral culture, RIDT or PT-PCR is confirmatory dx for influenza?

A

Viral culture

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134
Q

Timeline to give antiviral treatment for influenza?

A

onset-48 hrs

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135
Q

If negative RIDT, but high clinical suspicion can you make dx clinically?

A

Yes

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136
Q

Acute onset fever and cough w/ crackles is consistent w/ what disease?

A

CAP

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137
Q

Aspirations from oropharynx is most common form of transmission for CAP, HAP or VAP?

A

CAP

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138
Q

CXR shoes infiltrate on plane films. This gold standard dx for what?

A

CAP

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139
Q

CURB-65 is used in the dx of HAP, VAP, or CAP?

A

CAP

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140
Q

What is CURB-65?

A
Confusion
Urea > 7 mmol/L &amp; BUN ≥ 20 mg/dl
RR ≥ 30 b/min
BP <90/60
> 65 yrs
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141
Q

2 requirements to dx uncomplicated CAP?

A
  1. Previously healthy

2. No ABX use in last 3 months

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142
Q

TX for outpatient CAP? (3)

A
  1. ABX ≥ 5 days
  2. Reassurance (resolution of fever in 3 days and 14 days for cough/fatigue)
  3. CXR f/u 7-12 wks post tx only in pt >40yrs or smokers
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143
Q

TX for uncomplicated CAP?

A

Azithromycin 500 mg x 1 day, 250 mg x 4 days
OR
Doxycycline 100 mg BID x 7-10 days

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144
Q

2 requirements to dx complicated CAP?

A
  1. Recent ABX use

2. HX of COPD, CA, DM, drug abuse, IMC

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145
Q

Tx for complicated CAP?

A

Bactrim or Levofloxacin 750 mg QD x 5 days

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146
Q

Most common pathogen of sx based pneumonia?

A

S. pneumoniae

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147
Q

Rare cause of CAP, especially in IMC pts?

A

Fungal infection

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148
Q

Is sputum cx definitive dx for CAP?

A

No, no proof of etiologic agent (not recommend for outpatient)

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149
Q

TX for CURB 65 score of 2

A

Hospitalization

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150
Q

TX for CURB 65 score of 3-5?

A

ICU

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151
Q

TX for CURB 65 score of 0-1?

A

Outpatient

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152
Q

CAP prevention measures (2)?

A
  1. Smoking cessation

2. Vaccines

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153
Q

Pneumonia onset 48+ post admission is CAP, HAP, or VAP?

A

HAP

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154
Q

New or progressive infiltrate and 2+ (fever, purulent sputum, leukocytosis) is dx for what forms of pneumonia?

A

HAP/VAP

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155
Q

First line tx for HAP & VAP?

A

Prevention + ABX

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156
Q

Non-resolving pneumonia is concerning for what? (5)

A

Atypical infection, aspirations, CHF, CA, fibrosis

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157
Q

Pneumonia associated w/ HIV and low CD4?

A

Pneumocystic Jirovecii Pneumonia (PCP)

158
Q

CXR w/ reticular, ground glass opacities is concerning for?

A

Pneumocystic Jirovecii Pneumonia (PCP)

159
Q

TX for Pneumocystic Jirovecii Pneumonia (PCP)?

A

Bactrim

160
Q

When would you tx prophylactically for PCP?

A

HIV+ or high risk pt

161
Q

Displacement of gastric contents into the lung is concerning for?

A

Aspiration pneumonia

162
Q

RLL infiltrates is most commonly associated with what type of pneumonia?

A

Apspiration pneumonia

163
Q

RLL infiltrates is most commonly associated with what type of pneumonia?

A

Apspiration pneumonia

164
Q

Interstitial lung disease is also known as?

A

Diffuse parenchymal lung disease (DPLD)

165
Q

ILD is generally reversible or irreversible?

A

Irreversible

166
Q

Most common cause of IDL?

A

Idiopathic

167
Q

Fibrosis and adherent scarring is pathophys. associated with what disease?

A

ILD

168
Q

Progressive DOE and persistent non producrtive cough are consistent with what disease?

A

ILD

169
Q

ON exam you hear velcro like crackles in the bilateral lung bases and notice digital clubbing what DX are you concerned for?

A

ILD

170
Q

Ground glass appearance and reticular net like pattern on CXR is an early finding what disease?

A

ILD

171
Q

Honeycombing is indicative of a good or poor prognosis for ILD?

A

Poor

172
Q

Why is HRCT used in dx of ILD?

A

Increased accuracy

173
Q

If PFTs show low DLCO, what disease are you concerned about?

A

ILD

174
Q

Hypoxemia and respiratory alkalosis on ABG are consistent with what lung disease?

A

ILD

175
Q

What is the gold standard for dx of ILD?

A

Lung biopsy

176
Q

What CXR finding is a C/I for lung biopsy in ILD?

A

Honeycombing

177
Q

Inhalation related diseases (except asbestosis) will appear in the upper or low zones on HRCT?

A

Upper

178
Q

IPF, connective tissue disease, and asbestosis will appear in the upper or low zones on HRCT?

A

Lower

179
Q

All PFTS (TLC, FVC, FEV1, FRC and RV) are decreased with what type of lung disease?

A

Restrictive

180
Q

ILD PFTs are most consistent with restrictive or obstructive defect?

A

Restrictive

181
Q

Transbronchial bx is used for central or peripheral locations?

A

Central

182
Q

Surgical bx is used for larger or smaller sample sizes?

A

Largers

183
Q

What bx technique do you use is sarcoid is suspected?

A

Endobronchial US guided transbronchial needle aspiration (EBUS-TBNA)

184
Q

What is the most common interstitial lung disease?

A

Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis

185
Q

Peripheral reticular opacities an honeycombing on CXR are dx for what disease?

A

IPF

186
Q

HRCT shows bibasilar reticulonodular opacities, traction, and bronchiectasis what disease are you concerned for?

A

Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis

187
Q

When treating IPF what disease must you also treat?

A

GERD

188
Q

Pirfenidone is used in the tx of what disease?

A

IPF

189
Q

Non-caseating granulomas secrete what enzyme?

A

ACE

190
Q

Non-caseating granulomas are associated with what disease?

A

Sarcoidosis

191
Q

CXR shows hilar adenopathy and labs show increased ACE what disease are you concerned for?

A

Sarcoidosis

192
Q

Lung disease caused by inhalation/deposition of mineral dust

A

Pneumoconiosis

193
Q

Black lung is synonymous with?

A

Coal worker’s pneumoconiosis

194
Q

The fibronodular disease characterized by the inhalation of silica dust form occupational hazards is what?

A

Silicosis

195
Q

What would you expect to see on HRCT for acute silicosis?

A

Crazy paving pattern

196
Q

Digital clubbing is common or uncommon with pneumoconiosis?

A

Uncommon

197
Q

PFTs for pneumoconiosis will be restrictive or obstructive?

A

Restrictive

198
Q

Repeat CXR after the exposure to silica dust has been removed will show the same size or enlarging opacities?

A

Enlarging

199
Q

Corticosteroids are used to treat chronic or acute pneumoconiosis?

A

Acute

200
Q

What specific therapy, if any will alter the disease course for pneumoconiosis?

A

None

201
Q

Chronic simple pneumoconiosis is classified by how many years of exposure?

A

> 10-12 yrs

202
Q

Chronic simple pneumoconiosis is progressive or non-progressive once exposure is eliminated?

A

Non-progressive

203
Q

Chronic complicated pneumoconiosis is defined as what?

A

> 20 yrs exposure, progressive even after exposure is eliminated

204
Q

CXR show’s “angle wings” what disease are you concerned for?

A

Chronic complicated pneumoconiosis

205
Q

What occupation exposure has a strong associated with mesothelioma?

A

Asbestosis

206
Q

What findings should you expect to see on CXR for pt with chronic inhalation of asbestos? (2)

A
  1. Opacities in lower lungs

2. Pleural plaques

207
Q

Open lung bx is the definitive treat for what disease, even though it is not usually indicated?

A

Asbestosis

208
Q

PFTS for asbestosis are restrictive or obstructive pattern?

A

Restrictive

209
Q

Will immunotherapy and/or steroids alter the disease course for Asbestosis?

A

No

210
Q

Inflammatory syndrome due to repetitive inhalation of antigens is what?

A

Hypersensitivity Pneumonitis (HSP)

211
Q

First line tx for HSP?

A

Antigen avoidance & proper prevention techniques

212
Q

Is HSP reversible?

A

Yes, remove antigen

213
Q

Immune mediated systemic vasculitis is what?

A

Graulomatosis w/ Polyangitis (GPA)

214
Q

Necrotic blistering purpura, saddle nose deformity, and pulmonary infiltrates are concerning for what disease?

A

Graulomatosis w/ Polyangitis (GPA)

215
Q

Stellate shaped peripheral pulmonary arteries on CT chest is concerning for what disease?

A

Graulomatosis w/ Polyangitis (GPA)

216
Q

Labs reveal elevates ESR and CCRP with + C-ANCA what disease are you concerned about?

A

Graulomatosis w/ Polyangitis (GPA)

217
Q

What is the initial tx for Graulomatosis w/ Polyangitis (GPA)?

A

Cyclophosphamide (immunosuppressant) + corticosteroid

218
Q

SX of Cyclophosphamide toxicity

A

Cardiac, hematologic, renal, GI

219
Q

What labs might you consider for dx Graulomatosis w/ Polyangitis (GPA)?

A

ANA, RF

220
Q

What is the tx for radiation induced ILD?

A

Steroids

221
Q

What is the tx for drug induced ILD?

A

Remove offending drug

222
Q

Pulmonary langerhans cell histiocytosis is a manifestation to what form of ILD?

A

Smoking ILD

223
Q

What is the biggest RF for getting lung cancer?

A

Smoking

224
Q

Generally speaking, primary lesions, intrathoracic spread, paraneoplastic syndromes, and metastasis lead to lung cancer being what?

A

Symptomatic

225
Q

What are the most common sites of distant mets from lung cancer?

A

Liver (50%), bone, adrenal glands, brain

226
Q

What is needed for the dx of lung cancer?

A

Tissue biopsy

227
Q

What type of lesions are best evaluated for by sputum culture?

A

Central lesions

228
Q

What imaging is used to aid in the dx of lung cancer via short lived radioactive isotopes?

A

PET

229
Q

What causes cancer cells to “light up” in a PET scan?

A

Metabolically active cells accumulate FDG

230
Q

If a patient w/ lung cancer has no ADL restrictions, what would their performance status be?

A

0

231
Q

If a patient w/ lung cancer has restricted ability to perform strenuous physical activity, what would their performance status be?

A

1

232
Q

If a patient w/ lung cancer is capable of all self care and ambulatory for > 50% of walking hours but unable to carry out work activities, what would their performance status be?

A

2

233
Q

If a patient w/ lung cancer is capable of only limited self care, confirmed to a bed/ chair > 50% of walking hours, what would their performance status be?

A

3

234
Q

If a patient w/ lung cancer is completely disabled (cannot carry out any self care, totally bed/ chair confined), what would their performance status be?

A

4

235
Q

With regards to performance status, if FEV1 < 60%, what is this a strong indicator of?

A

Post op complications

236
Q

N/V, anorexia, weight loss, hematologic toxicity, nephrotoxicity, neurotoxicity, and fatigue are all sxs of what systemic lung cancer therapy?

A

Cytotoxic chemotherapy

237
Q

What is the 5 yr survival rate for limited SCLC?

A

10-13%

Medial survival = 15-20 mos

238
Q

What is the 5 yr survival rate for extensive SCLC?

A

1-2%

Median survival = 8-13 mos

239
Q

What is the 5 yr survival rate for NSCLC?

A

15% (all stages combined)

240
Q

In screening for lung cancer, a LDCT (low-dose CT) should be performed in what cases?

A

High risk =
Current smokers 55-74 yo w/ 30 pack yr hx
Quit smoking w/i 15 yrs
20 pack yr hx w/ 1 additional RF (not second hand smoke)

241
Q

What is the primary tx for smoking cessation?

A

Zyban (stop smoking in 5-7 days)

242
Q

What is the MOA for Zyban? (smoking cessation)

A

Inhibits neuronal uptake of NE and dopamine

243
Q

What does Zyban have a black box warning?

A

Increased risk of SI in children, adolescents, YA

244
Q

Besides Zyban, what are the possible txs for smoking cessation?

A

Chantix, (OTC) nicotine replacement

245
Q

A coin lesion is aka what?

A

Solitary pulmonary nodule (SPN)

246
Q

<3cm, well defined, not associated w/ infiltrate/ atelectasis/ adenopathy, and most are benign describes what?

A

Solitary pulmonary nodule (SPN)

247
Q

A SPN w/ minimal growth in 2 yrs, calcifications, and smooth, well-defined edges is most likely benign or malignant?

A

Benign

248
Q

A SPN w/ doubling in 20-400 days, no calcification, poor defined, irregular, and spiculated is most likely benign or malignant?

A

Malignant

249
Q

What is the primary cause of SPN’s in AZ?

A

Cocci

250
Q

What is the preferred imaging for nodal eval?

A

Helical CT of chest w/o contrast, low dose radiation

251
Q

If a solid nodule is ≤ 6mm, what is the f/u procedure?

A

Do not usually require f/u
+/- CT at 12 mos
Individualized care

252
Q

If a solid nodule is 6-8mm, what is the f/u procedure?

A

F/u w/ CT at 6-12 mos

Repeat as indicated

253
Q

What is the eval procedure for a solid nodule > 8mm with a low probability (< 5%) of malignancy?
No growth?
Growth?

A

Get CT @ 3 mos
No growth = serial CT @ 9-12 and 18-24 mos
Growth = pathologic eval

254
Q

What is the eval procedure for a solid nodule > 8mm with an intermediate probability (5-65%) of malignancy?

A

FDG PET/ CT and/ or bx

255
Q

What is the eval procedure for a solid nodule > 8mm with an intermediate probability (5-65%) of malignancy and FDG avid?

A

Biopsy/ excision

256
Q

What is the eval procedure for a solid nodule > 8mm with an intermediate probability (5-65%) of malignancy and PET/CT unavailable, negative, or indeterminate?

A

Individualized management based on clinical suspicion

257
Q

For a solid nodule > 8mm with an intermediate probability (5-65%) of malignancy, what is an acceptable alternative to bx?

A

CT surveillance at 3, 9-12, and 18-24 mos?

258
Q

What is the eval procedure for a solid nodule > 8mm with an intermediate probability (>65%) of malignancy?

A

Biopsy/ excision

+/- staging w/ PET/CT

259
Q

If evaluation of a SPN shows:

  • New/ enlarging/ indeterminate lesion
  • Lesion > 3cm, unstable, non-calcified, irregular/ spiculated, what should you do?
A

Refer

260
Q

A solid pulmonary mass (SPM) is what size?

A

> 3cm

261
Q

Small cell lung cancers are aka what?

A

Oat cell carcinoma

262
Q

What type of lung cancer is more commonly seen in central airways and is highly aggressive, rapid double times, and early mets?

A

SCLC

263
Q

Sxs of cough, dyspnea, weight loss, and debility are most commonly associated with what type of lung cancer?

A

SCLC

264
Q

If upon imaging you see a large hilar mass w/ bulky mediastinal adenopathy, what should you be concerned about?

A

SCLC

265
Q

What type of lung cancer is associated w/ SVC, SIADH, Cushing’s, and Eaton-Lambert syndromes?

A

SCLC

266
Q

If a SCLC tumor affects ipsilateral hemithorax, what is it staged at?

A

Limited disease (less common)

267
Q

If a SCLC tumor extends beyond hemithorax and includes pleural effusions, what is it staged at?

A

Extensive disease (more common)

268
Q

What are the 3 types of NSCLC?

Which is the most common?

A

Adenocarcinoma (most common)
Squamous cell
Large cell

269
Q

Which type of lung cancer affects the mucous glands/ epithelial cells in or distal to the terminal bronchioles?

A

NSCLC - Adenocarcinoma

270
Q

If a pt presents with peripheral nodules/ masses, thrombophlebitis, clubbing, and a hx of smoking, what should you be concerned for?

A

NSCLC - Adenocarcinoma

271
Q

If a pt presents with evidence of cancer centrally/ in the main bronchus that extends into the main hilum and mediastinum, what should you be concerned for?

A

NSCLC - squamous cell

272
Q

If a pt presents with slower growing/ late mets, sxs of cough, hemoptysis (& PTH/ hypercalcemia), what should you be concerned for?

A

NSCLC - squamous cell

273
Q

What will be seen on CXR of a pt with NSCLC - squamous cell?

A

Cavitations

274
Q

Which type of cancer is associated w/ central or peripheral masses, aggressive/ rapid doubling time, and is primarily a dx of exclusion?

A

NSCLC - large cell

275
Q

What is the TNM staging?

A

T- primary tumor
N- nodal involvement
M- distant metastases

276
Q

What is the treatment of choice for localized lung cancers?

A

Surgical resection

277
Q

What is the tx for lung cancer stage I-IIIa with adequate pulmonary fxn?

A

Surgery

278
Q

What is the tx for lung cancer stage IIIb-IV?

A

Palliative radiation or combo chemo

279
Q

What is the 5 yr survival rate for stage 1 lung cancer?

A

75%

280
Q

What is the 5 yr survival rate for stage 2 lung cancer? (advanced primary tumors/ mets to ipsilateral nodes)

A

40%

281
Q

What is the 5 yr survival rate for stage 3 lung cancer?

A

17%

282
Q

What is the 5 yr survival rate for stage 4 lung cancer?

A

<1%

283
Q

What is the tx for stage 4 lung cancer?

A

Palliative

Targeted therapy- EGFR inhibitors

284
Q

Pleural effusion, pericardial effusion, and hoarseness are concerning for what with regards to lung cancer?

A

Intrathoracic spread

285
Q

What are the 3 types of intrathoracic spread?

A

SVC syndrome
Pancoast syndrome
Paraneoplastic syndrome

286
Q

What type of intrathoracic spread is due to compression or direct invasion and shows a pathologic process from the right lung > lymph nodes > other mediastinal structures?

A

SVC syndrome

287
Q

What is the most common cause of SVC syndrome?

A

Intrathoracic malignancy/ NSCLC

288
Q

If a pt presents w/ the following sxs, what should you be concerned about?

  • Dyspnea
  • Facial swelling/ head fullness
  • Dilated neck veins
  • Prominent venous pattern on chest
  • Arm swelling, cough, chest pain, dysphagia
A

SVC syndrome

289
Q

What is the gold standard for dx of SVC syndrome?

A

Superior vena cavogram (id obstruction, extent of thrombus formation)

290
Q

What is the initial study for sx of SVC syndrome with indwelling devices/ arm swelling?

A

Duplex US

291
Q

What is the tx for SVC syndrome if there is stridor from central airway obstruction, laryngeal edema, or coma from cerebral edema?

A

Emergency radiation therapy

292
Q

What type of intrathoracic spread is caused by a tumor involving the superior sulcus causing compression of the brachial plexus and cervical sympathetic nerves?

A

Pancoast syndrome

293
Q

What is the most common cause of Pancoast syndrome?

A

NSCLC - squamous cell

294
Q

If a pt presents with rib destruction, atrophy of hand muscles, and pain in the C8, T1, and T2 nerve roots on the same side of the tumor, what should you be concerned about?

A

Pancoast syndrome

295
Q

If a pt presents with pain greatest closer to the tumor site that radiates down the R shoulder + finger pain, what should you be concerned about?

A

Pancoast syndrome

296
Q

Injury of the sympathetic nerves of the face, causing mitosis, anhidrosis/ lack of sweating, and ptosis describes what?
What is it associated with?

A

Horner’s syndrome

Associated w/ Pancoast syndrome

297
Q

What type of intrathoracic spread is triggered by altered immune response to a neoplasm?

A

Paraneoplastic syndromes

298
Q

A lung cancer pt presents w/ anorexia, weight loss, cachexia, and suppressed immunity… what should you be concerned about?

A

Paraneoplastic syndromes

299
Q

Can paraneoplastic syndromes be treated?

A

Can reduce effects but may be temporary

300
Q

What 3 organ systems are likely to be affected with paraneoplastic syndromes?

A

Hematologic, endocrine, neurologic

301
Q

What neurologic effect of paraneoplastic syndromes is immune mediated, AB at NMJ leading to decreased DTRs, and what type of cancer is it greatest with?

A

Eaton-Lambert

> small cell

302
Q

What endocrine effect of paraneoplastic syndromes is associated w/ hypercalcemia and is greatest in SC NCLC?

A

PTH like substance

303
Q

What endocrine effect of paraneoplastic syndromes is associated w/ gynecomastia and milky nipple discharge and is greatest in LC NCLC?

A

Excess HCG

304
Q

What endocrine effect of paraneoplastic syndromes is associated w/ personality changes, confusion, coma, and respiratory arrest and is greatest in SCLC?

A

SIADH

305
Q

What endocrine effect of paraneoplastic syndromes is associated w/ ectopic ACTH, muscle weakness, weight loss, and hirsutism and is greatest in SCLC?

A

Cushing’s syndrome

306
Q

Where in the body does TB present itself?

A

Lung –> lymph node, kidney’s, spine and brain

307
Q

How is TB transmitted?

A

Airborne droplet nuclei –> into alveoli

308
Q

Is prolonged exposure required for transmission of TB?

A

Yes

309
Q

What form of TB must a pt have to spread disease?

A

Active

310
Q

Is a pt has latent TB, will they present with sx?

A

no

311
Q

Are latent TB pt’s able to transmit TB infection?

A

No

312
Q

Is active or latent TB more common?

A

Latent

313
Q

When would latent TB become active?

A

If becomes IMC (unable to fight infection, granulomas breakdown)

314
Q

What pt population is at the highest risk for for active BT infection/

A

HIV

315
Q

If pt is TB positive, could this be the first indication that they are also HIV positive?

A

Yes

316
Q

Within what time frame do you need to report TB dx?

A

24 hrs

317
Q

What are the 3 primary sx of TB?

A
  1. Cough >3+ wks
  2. Fever
  3. Pleuritic/retrosternal chest pain
318
Q

Primary finding on PE for TB?

A

Posttussive crackles

Also dullness/decreased fremitus & clubbing if severe

319
Q

Imaging study for sx TB or if positive infection testing?

A

CXR (will r/o TB disease if negative)

320
Q

If you notice cavitary lesions and infiltrate, +/- milliary pattern on CXR is this initial presentation of TB, latent TB, or reactivation of latent TB?

A

Reactivation

Initial = hilar lymphadenopathy
Latent = dense nodules
321
Q

Due to fact that TB is obligate aerobe where would you expect to find abnormalities on CXR?

A

Apical/posterior upper lobes

322
Q

Is you notice Gohn lesions and ipsilateral calcified hilar lymph nodes on CXR, what is this concerning for?

A

Ranke complex.

323
Q

Do you measure induration or erythema on TB skin test (TST)?

A

Induration

324
Q

Within what time frame should you measure TST?

A

48-72 hours

325
Q

True or false: TST might be negative 2-8 wks following exposure?

A

True

326
Q

If pt w/ hx of BCG vaccine, what DX test might produce false positive?

A

TST

327
Q

TST induration is ≥ 5mm. Who is this a positive test for?

A

Anyone even w/o TB RF’s

328
Q

TST induration is ≥ 5mm. What populations is this a positive test for? (5)

A
  1. HIV +
  2. Recent contacts w/ active TB pt
  3. Evidence of TB on CXR
  4. IMC (chronic steroids)
  5. Organ transplant
329
Q

TST induration is ≥ 10mm. What populations is this a positive test for? (8)

A
  1. ≥ 10mm
  2. Recent immigrants from countries w/ high TB infection rates
  3. HIV - injection drug users
  4. Mycobacteriology lab personnel
  5. Residents/ employees of high risk congregate settings
  6. High risk medical conditions
  7. Children < 4 yo
  8. Children/ adolescents exposed to adults @ high risk
330
Q

IGRA: QuantiFeron TB Gold and T-Spot TB measures what in the blood?

A

The immune responce to TB (IFN-g concentration)

331
Q

What test is used to test for latent TB disease if you received BCG vaccine?

A

IGRA: QuantiFeron TB Gold and T-Spot TB

332
Q

Does QuantiFeron TB Gold and T-Spot TB distinguish b/w active and latent disease?

A

No

333
Q

How many sputum specimens needs to be collected for TB dx? And in what time frame?

A

3 collected 8-24 hrs apart w/ at least 1 in the AM

334
Q

Will AFB smear confirm TB dx?

A

No

335
Q

Will Nucleic acid amplification (NNA) smear confirm TB dx?

A

No

336
Q

If pt w/ suspected TB has positive AFB and NNA, do you wait for culture to start tx?

A

No, start tx ASAP

337
Q

What is gold standard for dx of TB?

A

Culture, but takes weeks

338
Q

Xpert MTB/RIF assay will identify what? (2)

A
  1. M. tb DNA

2. Rifampin resistance

339
Q

Can you used Xpert MTB/RIF in pt that has been on Tb tx < 3 days?

A

Yes

340
Q

If pt w/ negative TB culture, but high clinical suspicion how do you proceed?

A

Treat, but monitor response to tx

341
Q

If pt w/ + TB culture, what is your next step?

A

Drug susceptibility testing

342
Q

Tissue biopsy in TB is taken only if needed, what is the hallmark finding?

A

Necrotizing granulomas

343
Q

First line drugs to active TB? (4)

A

Rifampin
Isoniazid
Pyrazinamide
Ethambutol

344
Q

Direct observed therapy (DOT) is required for treatment of what TB disease?

A

ALL pt’s w/ TB disease

345
Q

Initial (intensive) phase for active TB tx?

A

RIPE meds daily x 8 weeks (56 doses)

346
Q

After completing intensive tx phase for TB what is next? (3)

A

Repeat CXR, AFB smear, culture

347
Q

RIF and INH daily x 18 weeks (126 doses) is what phase of tx for active TB?

A

Continuation phase

348
Q

Why would you extend continuation phase for tx of active TB? (2)

A

Sputum culture, med tolerance

349
Q

Red-orange secretions are SE’s for what TB medication?

A

Rifampin

350
Q

Hepatotoxicty is a SE for what 2 TB drugs?

A

Isoniazid and Pyrazinamide

351
Q

Ethambutol can cause optic neuritis. In what population is it contraindicated?

A

Infants/children

352
Q

When is a pt being treated for TB not considered infectious? (3)

A
  1. 2 wks tx regimen
  2. 3 neg sputum smears
  3. Sxs improve
353
Q

An infectious TB pt is able to go home under what circumstances? (3)

A
  1. Strict f/u arrange w/ DOT
  2. No children < 5 yo or IMC living in home
  3. No travel (except to health care visits)
354
Q

6-9 month regimen of Isoniazid using DOT is tx for what form of TB? And preferred for what populations?

A

Latent. Preferred in pregnant women and children 2-11 yo

355
Q

12 doses of INH and Rifampin under DOT/SAT is preferred latent tx for what populations?

A

Adults & children ≥ 12 yo, otherwise healthy HIV+ pts

NOT during pregnancy

356
Q

If pt’s w/ latent TB can’t tolerate INH what do you tx with?

A

Rifampin 120 doses (daily x 4 months)

357
Q

In what populations do you preform targets TB testing? (3)

A
  1. High risk of TB exposure & high risk for developing disease once infected
  2. Health care workers
  3. Prophylaxis offered to pt’s w/ latent TB
358
Q

Resistance to INH and RIF is MDR or XDR?

A

MDR

359
Q

BCG vaccine is contraindicated in what populations because it is live?

A

Pregnant and IMC

360
Q

BCG vaccine does not prevent primary infection or activation of LTBI, what is its goal?

A

Decrease risk of severe consequences to TB disease (meningitis and disseminated TB, especially in children)

361
Q

Exposure to soil contaminated w/ bird/bat dropping is concerning for?

A

Histoplasmosis

362
Q

Fungal spores are turned into what once inhaled? This leads to Histoplasmosis

A

yeast

363
Q

HIV+ presents with dysphagia w/ esophageal narrowing, what should you be concerned for?

A

Histoplasmosis

364
Q

Pt present for physical exam for upcoming spelunking adventure? What disease should you warn them about?

A

Histoplasmosis

365
Q

Acute symptomatic pulmonary histoplasmosis is self limited or requires tx? If tx, what is it?

A

Self limited

366
Q

Form of histoplasmosis that is most common in IMC pts, involves multiple organ systems and is fatal w/in 6 weeks?

A

Progressive disseminated histoplasmosis

367
Q

Chronic pulmonary histoplasmosis results in progressive lung changes in what population?

A

Older COPD pts

368
Q

Immunodiffusion (ID) serology measures for the presence of what Ab in histoplasmosis and cocci?

A

IgM - Will tell you if pt has acute or chronic infection

369
Q

Complement fixation (CF) serology measures for the presence of what Ab in histoplasmosis and cocci?

A

IgG

370
Q

Antigen serology, Enzymes immunoassay (EIA) test is used first in dx the diagnosis of what two diseases?

A

Histoplasmosis, Cocci

371
Q

CXR for histoplasmosis will show what?

A

Patchy or nodular infiltrates in the lower lobes

372
Q

What is the tx for asymptomatic histoplasmosis?

A

None

373
Q

What is the most common form of histoplasmosis in otherwise healthy individuals?

A

ASX primary histoplasmosis

374
Q

TX for mild-mod acute pulmonary histoplasmosis?

A

< 4 wk, none

> 4w itraconazole

375
Q

Tx for acute-severe and progressive disseminated pulmonary histoplasmosis?

A

AmphoB then itraconazole

376
Q

TX for chronic histoplasmosis?

A

Itraconazole

377
Q

TX for HIV/Aids pts w/ histoplasmosis?

A

AmphoB + itraconazole

378
Q

Inhalation of spores from desert soil is concerning for what?

A

Cocci

379
Q

If pt presents with pulmonary complaints and 1+ of erythema nodosum, erythema multiforme, eosinophilia what should you be concerned for?

A

Cocci

380
Q

Is sub-acute valley fever infection protective from future disease?

A

yes

381
Q

Is CAP + fever, cough, pleuritic CP, HA, fatigue, desert rheumatism and erythema nodosum concerning for primary cocci infection or disseminated disease?

A

Primary infection

382
Q

More pronounced lung findings, bone lesions, lymphadenitis, and meningitis are concerning for what?

A

Disseminated cocci disease (increased risk in IMC pts)

383
Q

Slight leukocytosis with eosinophilia is concerning for what disease?

A

Cocci

384
Q

Is coccidiodin or spherulin skin test dx for cocci?

A

No

385
Q

Thin walled cavities on CXR should disappear in what time frame if Cocci?

A

2 years

386
Q

If pt with cocci is stable is treatment required?

A

No

387
Q

If IMC pt with severe cocci infection what is first line med?

A

“Azole” (no ketoconazole) OR amphoB if pregnant or v severe

388
Q

If no med therapy for cocci when does pt follow up?

A

Every 2-4 weeks for 1 year

389
Q

True or False all pts dx with cocci will follow up every 2-4 weeks regardless of treatment provided?

A

True

390
Q

When would a Cocci pt continue annual follow up for 2+ years?

A

If started on med therapy