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Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

According to the DSM V, when a person has experienced trauma, they have been exposed to a traumatic event where they experience, witness, or are confronted with ___, ___, or ___. The person responds with ___, helplessness, or horror. Children may respond by feeling disorganized or agitated.

A

Death/threated death; serious injury; threat to physical integrity; fear.

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2
Q

What are some common traumatic events?

A

MVA, natural disasters, sexual assault, childhood sexual abuse, domestic violence, combat, elder abuse, homicide, suicide of a loved one

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3
Q

What are the three parts of the practical definition of trauma?

A
  1. Non-consensual
  2. Victim is in discomfort, fear, feels intimidated
  3. Bodily integrity is threatened
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4
Q

What is a statutory offense where the offender knowingly causes another person to engage in unwanted sexual acts by force or threat of force?

A

Rape/sexual assault

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5
Q

What is the prevalence of sexual assault in the US (women/men)?

A

Women: 22%
Men: 3.8%

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6
Q

What is any recent act or failure to act on the part of a parent or caretaker which results in death, serious physical or emotional harm, sexual abuse or exploitation OR an act or failure to act which presents an imminent risk of serious harm?

A

Child abuse

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7
Q

More than ___ children die every day as a result of child abuse. The vast majority are under age ___.

A

5; 4

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8
Q

What is the prevalence of child sexual abuse (women/men)?

A

Women: 16.8%
Men: 7.9%

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9
Q

What is a violent confrontation between family or household members involving physical harm, sexual assault, or fear of physical harm?

A

Intimate partner violence

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10
Q

Nearly ___ of women in the US reports experiencing violence by a current/former spouse or boyfriend in her lifetime.

A

1/4

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11
Q

On average, greater than ___ women are murdered by their husbands or boyfriends in the US.

A

3

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12
Q

Men who have witnessed their parents’ domestic violence are ___ times more likely to abuse their own partners.

A

2

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13
Q

More than ___% of batterers also abuse their children or their victim’s children.

A

50

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14
Q

What is the physical, sexual, or emotional abuse of an elderly person, usually one who is disabled and frail?

A

Elder abuse

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15
Q

___% of older people reported significant abuse in the last month.

A

6

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16
Q

___% of vulnerable elders reported significant levels of psychological abuse.

A

25

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17
Q

___% of family caregivers reported physical abuse towards care recipients with dementia in a year, and 1/3 reported significant abuse.

A

5

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18
Q

___% of care home staff admitted significant psychological abuse.

A

16

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19
Q

___% of men and ___% of women have been exposed (either as soldiers or civilians).

A

10-20; 2-10

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20
Q

The rate of ___ and MVA are now equal as the leading cause of non-medical deaths in the US.

A

Firearms

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21
Q

Describe the cycle of trauma.

A

Childhood traumatic stress -> Adult traumatic stress -> Toxic stress in the community (repeat)

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22
Q

Describe the stress response in the body.

A
  1. Amygdala senses threat
  2. Hypothalamus releases corticotropin-releasing hormone
  3. Pituitary releases adrenocorticotropic releasing hormone
  4. Adrenal cortex releases glucocorticoids (including cortisol)
  5. Sympathetic nervous system stimulates fight or flight response
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23
Q

In PTSD, individuals begin to generalize their fear responses to situations that once felt safe. What happens as a result?

A

The amygdala can no longer discern threatening from safe stimuli and the SNS and HPA axis become chronically activated.

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24
Q

Describe the utilization of preventative care by trauma survivors.

A

Trauma survivors are less likely to use preventative care.

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25
Q

What is secondary victimization?

A

Victimization which occurs through the response of institutions and individuals to the victim

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26
Q

What is trauma-informed care?

A

Every part of an agency or institution understands the effects of traumatic events, sensitively interact with trauma survivors, avoid re-traumatization, and engage in trauma screening and prevention as appropriate

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27
Q

Describe the trauma-informed care pyramid.

A
  1. Patient-centered communication skills
  2. Understanding the health effects of trauma
  3. Collaboration and understanding your professional role
  4. Understanding your own history
  5. Screening
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28
Q

When should screening occur?

A
  1. High risk environments

2. Acute injuries

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29
Q

What are the general categories of adverse childhood events?

A
  1. Abuse (physical, emotional, sexual)
  2. Neglect (physical, emotional)
  3. Household dysfunction (mental illness, incarceration, mother abused, substance abuse, divorce)
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30
Q

What are the two major findings of the ACE study?

A
  1. ACEs are more common than anticipated or recognized.

2. ACEs have powerful correlations to health outcomes later in life.

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31
Q

___ of study participants reported at least one ACE. More than 1 in 5 reported 3+ ACEs.

A

~2/3

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32
Q

ACEs still have a profound effect 50 years later, although now transformed from psychosocial experience into what three things?

A
  1. Organic disease
  2. Social malfunction
  3. Mental illness
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33
Q

Describe the mechanism by which ACEs influence health and well-being throughout the lifespan.

A
  1. ACE
  2. Disrupted neurodevelopment
  3. Social, emotional, and cognitive impairment
  4. Adoption of health-risk behaviors
  5. Disease, disability, and social problems
  6. Early death
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34
Q

Describe the two syndromes involved in Selye’s Stress Response Theory.

A
  1. Localized Adaptation Syndrome (LAS) - regional response, localized inflammation
  2. Generalized Adaptation Syndrome (GAS) - backup for LAS, system-level response to stressor that has overwhelmed current adaptive resources.
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35
Q

What is GAS and when does it occur?

A

Manner in which the body copes with stress; occurs when homeostasis is overwhelmed

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36
Q

What are the three stages of GAS?

A
  1. Alarm
  2. Resistance
  3. Exhaustion
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37
Q

What are the two parts of the Alarm stage of GAS?

A
  1. HPA axis

2. SNA suppression

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38
Q

What are the two parts of the Resistance stage of GAS?

A
  1. Decreased alarm reaction

2. Attempts to coexist with stressor

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39
Q

What are the three parts of the Exhaustion stage of GAS?

A
  1. Increased endocrine activity
  2. Continued high cortisol circulation
  3. Wear and tear or death
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40
Q

What is an allostatic load?

A

An allostatic load is the “wear and tear” on the body which grows over time when the individual is exposed to chronic stress.

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41
Q

Describe the allostatic load theory.

A

In the short term, allostasis is essential for survival/maintenance of homeostasis. In the long term, it exacts a cost and can accelerate disease processes.

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42
Q

How is the allostatic load measured?

A

Measured as a chemical imbalances in the ANS, CNS, neuroendocrine, and immune system activity, daily anxiety, an, in some cases, plasticity changes to the brain structures

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43
Q

What are the four types of allostatic loads?

A
  1. Repeated hits
  2. Lack of adaptation
  3. Prolonged response
  4. Inadequate response
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44
Q

What is a criticism of the GAS theory?

A

Did not take into account cognition, perception, and interpretation of the stimulus

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45
Q

Describe Walter Cannon’s theory of stress.

A

Behavior and emotions + autonomic and endocrine regulation = homeostasis

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46
Q

Describe the Schacter and Singer theory of stress.

A

Cognitions and perceptions shape emotions (emotional biasing)

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47
Q

Describe Richard Lazarus’s theory of stress.

A

Role of perception in the stress response - primary/secondary appraisals

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48
Q

How does the transactional model define stress?

A

Process of interchange between an organism and its environment that involves self-generated or environmentally-induced changes that, once they are perceived by the organism as exceeding available resources, disrupt homeostatic processes in the organism-environmental system.

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49
Q

What are some medical conditions related to stress?

A
  1. Wound healing and surgical recovery
  2. GI disorders
  3. Pain
  4. Asthma
  5. Addiction
  6. Trauma and Stress-related disorders like PTSD
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50
Q

Why might women report feelings of stress more often?

A
  1. React to a wider range of stressors
  2. Often have 2 jobs
  3. Tend to internalize stress
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51
Q

How do men tend to handle stress?

A

Men tend to externalize stress

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52
Q

Perceived ___ is a key factor in chronic stress-related health disparities.

A

Discrimination

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53
Q

What is one of the most powerful health predictors?

A

SES (direct linear correlation)

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54
Q

What are the 4 R’s involved in trauma-informed care?

A
  1. Realize the widespread impact of trauma
  2. Recognize the signs and symptoms of trauma
  3. Respond by fully integrating knowledge about trauma into policies, procedures, and practices
  4. Resist Re-traumatization
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55
Q

What are some ways to assess health disparities/inequality?

A

Race/ethnicity, gender, SES, disability status, LGBT status, geography

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56
Q

Describe the trend of life expectancy at birth by sex and race.

A

Highest life expectancy: white female -> black female -> white male -> black male: lowest life expectancy

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57
Q

What is a disparity?

A

A difference; two quantities are not equal

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58
Q

Inequalities in health are based on observed ___ in health.

A

Disparities

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59
Q

Inequities in health are based on ___.

A

Ethical judgments

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60
Q

We can measure ___ in health status between groups. However, social and political discourse is required to asses ___.

A

Disparities; inequities.

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61
Q

Health care is a matter of ___, not ___.

A

Equity; equality

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62
Q

What is any degree of uncertainty a physician may have relative to the condition of the patient?

A

Clinical uncertainty

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63
Q

If the physician has difficulty accurately understanding the symptoms, what happens?

A

The physician is likely to place greater weight on the prior beliefs about the likelihood of patients’ conditions that will be different according to age, gender, SES, race, or ethnicity.

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64
Q

What is stereotyping?

A

The beliefs (stereotypes) and general orientations (attitudes) that people bring to their interactions help to organize and simplify complex or uncertain situations and give perceives greater confidence in their ability to understand a situation and respond effectively.

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65
Q

Health disparities are driven by ___.

A

Social and economic determinants

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66
Q

What are some social and economic determinants of health disparities?

A

Economic determinants, education, geography and neighborhood, environment, stress, lower-quality care, inadequate access to care, inability to navigate system, provider ignorance or bias

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67
Q

What are some of the major steps health care organizations need to take to reduce disparities?

A
  1. Recognize disparities and commit to reducing them (explore performance data, disparities training)
  2. Implement a basic quality improvement structure and process upon which to build interventions (culture of quality, set goals, obtain support from top admins)
  3. Make equity an integral component of quality improvement efforts
  4. Design the intervention(s)
  5. Implement, evaluate, and adjust the interventions
  6. Sustain the interventions
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68
Q

What are the six levels of influence?

A

Patient, provider, microsystem, organization, community, policy

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69
Q

What is one example of an implementation model?

A

Consolidated Framework for Implementation Research (CFIR)

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70
Q

What are the 5 domains of the CFIR?

A
  1. Intervention characteristics
  2. Outer setting
  3. Inner setting
  4. Characteristics of the individuals involved
  5. The process of implementation
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71
Q

Caring, committed relationships (family or friends) are health-____.

A

Producing

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72
Q

What is the WHO definition of health?

A

State of complete physical, mental, and social well-being and not merely the absence of disease or infirmity

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73
Q

According to a BYU study, lack of social connections risk…

A

…equivalent to smoking 15 cigarettes a day, equivalent to being an alcoholic, more harmful than not exercising, twice as harmful as obesity.

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74
Q

What were the strongest social predictors of likelihood of post-open heart surgery survival?

A
  1. Those who were active in their community

2. Those who found strength and comfort in their religious faith

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75
Q

What is social support and what are the 4 types?

A

The presence of others or the resources they provide

Emotional, Spiritual, Physical, Financial

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76
Q

What qualities of social support are likely to impact health?

A
  1. Number of support persons
  2. Availability and access to support
  3. Quality of support system (satisfaction gained)
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77
Q

___ and loneliness create responses in the human body similar to those of stress.

A

Isolation

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78
Q

Male medical students/physicians are ___% more likely to commit suicide.

A

40

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79
Q

Female medical students/physicians are ___% more likely to commit suicide.

A

130

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80
Q

___ doctor per day commits suicide.

A

1

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81
Q

___% of medical students will experience clinical depression.

A

30-40

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82
Q

___ medical students harbor active suicidal thoughts.

A

1 in 10

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83
Q

What are possible direct and indirect mechanisms for the positive effect of social interaction?

A

Direct: immune function, increased catecholamine and inflammatory cytokine release
Indirect: resources of the social network buffer the impact of the disease process

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84
Q

Those with a higher loneliness rating are more likely to develop ___ problems.

A

Cognitive

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85
Q

The loneliest 10% of a study were more than twice as likely to develop ___.

A

Alzheimer’s

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86
Q

True or false - social networks have the same protective impact as real relationships.

A

False

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87
Q

___ is most predictive of depression.

A

Marital status

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88
Q

Why is marital status predictive of depression?

A

People who are single may:

  1. Eat less healthily
  2. Consume more alcohol
  3. Smoke more cigarettes
  4. Less preventative medicine visits
  5. Work longer hours
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89
Q

What is one of the single most powerful predictors of physical and emotional illness?

A

Divorce

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90
Q

Patients who interact with patients in a ___ manner make more accurate diagnoses and produce greater patient copmliance.

A

Compassion

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91
Q

How does faith help people cope with health-related stress?

A

Hope, control, strength, meaning, purpose

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92
Q

What are the three components of Freud’s structural model of the psyche?

A
  1. Id (biological urges, instincts, seeks to maximize pleasure)
  2. Ego (realistic thinking, postpone pleasure until appropriate, mediates id and superego)
  3. Superego (values, conscience, how the ego should behave)
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93
Q

What operates according to the pleasure principle? The reality principle?

A

Id; ego

94
Q

What are unconscious mechanisms by which ego wards off anxiety and controls unacceptable instinctual urges and unpleasant affects or emotions by manipulating, distorting, or denying relatiy?

A

Defense mechanisms

95
Q

When does a defense mechanism become pathological?

A

When its persistent use leads to maladaptive behavior such that the physical or mental health of the individual is adversely affected

96
Q

What is denial?

A

Primitive defense to avoid pain or anxiety; reality is refused in favor of internally generated, wish-fulfilling fantasies

97
Q

What is projection?

A

Falsely attributing your own unacceptable feelings, impulses, or thoughts to someone else

98
Q

Projection is most typical of…

A

…physical and sexual impulses

99
Q

What is regression?

A

Method of escaping anxiety by returning to an earlier level of adjustment during which gratification was ensured

100
Q

What is identification?

A

Some traits or attributes of another person are taken as your own

101
Q

What is repression?

A

Memories, feelings, and drives associated with painful and unacceptable impulses are excluded from consciousness

102
Q

What is reaction formation?

A

Managing unacceptable thoughts, feelings, or behaviors that are opposite

103
Q

What is isolation of affect?

A

Separating ideas from feelings originally associated with them; emotional component of idea is repressed while the cognitive component remains conscious

104
Q

What is intellectualization?

A

Shifts emphasis from immediate interpersonal conflict to abstract ideas and esoteric topics; avoid painful feelings by focusing on ideas

105
Q

What is displacement?

A

Redirecting an emotion from its original target to a more acceptable substitute; most commonly involves anger

106
Q

What is sublimation?

A

Divert unacceptable drives into socially acceptable channels

107
Q

What is altruism?

A

Kindness, concern for the welfare of others; adaptive against feelings of inferiority, lack of fulfillment; helps alleviate feelings of isolation, lack of significance

108
Q

What is suppression?

A

Conscious decision to postpone paying attention to an unpleasant subject, impulse, or conflict

109
Q

What is the only conscious defense mechanism?

A

Suppression

110
Q

What is humor?

A

Unconscious or forbidden feelings are expressed via socially acceptable outlets; joking in effort to lighten and diffuse a tense or sad situation

111
Q

What are the four levels of Valliant’s classification of defense mechanisms based on effectiveness?

A
  1. Level I - pathological defenses (psychotic denial, delusional projection)
  2. Level II - immature defenses (fantasy, projection, passive aggression, acting out)
  3. Level III - neurotic defenses (intellectualization, reaction formation, dissociation, displacement, repression)
  4. Level IV - mature defense (humor, sublimation, suppression, altruism)
112
Q

What is transference?

A

Patient unconsciously transfers feelings and attitudes from a person or situation in the past onto a person or situation in the present.

113
Q

True or false - transference is conscious.

A

False - it is unconscious

114
Q

True or false - transference is at least partly inappropriate to the present situation.

A

True

115
Q

True or false - transference is the transferring of a relationship dynamic.

A

True

116
Q

True or false - transference involves transfer of the entire relationship.

A

False - it involves one aspect of it

117
Q

What are four factors that increase transference?

A
  1. Vulnerable personality (impulsive, little capacity for reflection)
  2. Rigid expectations
  3. Anxiety about physical or psychological safety
  4. Frequent contact with physciian
118
Q

What is countertransference?

A

Physician unconsciously transfers feelings and attitudes from a person or situation in the past onto a patient.

119
Q

What is shame?

A

Painful feelings caused by the lowering of one’s pride, self-respect, or self-concept; note that shame is that state of the self, humiliation is a temporary status of self

120
Q

What are physical, behavioral, and cognitive manifestations of shame?

A

Physical: blushing, sweating, freezing, fainting, sense of weakness
Behavioral: urge to hide or disappear, break eye contact, anxious laughter, withdrawal, avoidance
Cognitive: feeling defeated, exposed, deficient, a failure, inadequate, worthless, wounded

121
Q

What are examples of shame-inducing events in the medical setting?

A
  • Examining physical and psychological deficits
  • Treatments with side effects
  • Dying with(out) dignity
  • Fear of stigmatization (perception of low status, poor living conditions, bad choices, character defects, failures)
  • Fear of alientating others
  • Medical terms
122
Q

What are some patient vulnerabilities in the medical setting?

A
  • Need to be strong and powerful
  • Need to succeed/win
  • Need to be clean and tidy
  • Need to be whole and complete in physical and mental makeup
  • Need to be in control of bodily functions and feelings
123
Q

What are some variables that influence shaming experiences?

A
  • Who is perceived as doing the shaming?
  • What is the nature of the communication?
  • What is the nature of the social event?
124
Q

What are some adaptive reactions to shame in the medical setting?

A
  • Response appears and disappears within seconds
  • Strengthening of vulnerable aspects of self
  • Humor, laughter
125
Q

What are some maladaptive reactions to shame in the medical setting?

A
  • Becoming subdued, withdrawn
  • Lying, withholding information
  • Counter humiliating
  • Long lasting grudges
  • Avoidance of future appointments, changing doctors
  • Seeking care away from community
  • Complaining, speaking to patient care representative
  • Suing
126
Q

True or false - more women than men experience shame.

A

True

127
Q

What are the three most frequent shaming topics?

A

Sexual behavior, teeth, and weight

128
Q

When patients condemned themselves, the reactions were ___. Reactions were ___ when patients condemned the behavior.

A

Negative; positive

129
Q

What are three purposes of emotions?

A
  1. Prepare us for actin
  2. Communicate to others
  3. Communicate to ourselves
130
Q

What are four evolutionary functions of emotion?

A
  1. Fear
  2. Anger
  3. Shame
  4. Guilt
131
Q

What is validation?

A

Communicating to a person that his/her experience makes sense; informs a person that you understand the reason for his/her emotion; is not agreement

132
Q

What is stating an opinion instead of listening?

A

Counter-argument

133
Q

What are why/how/what questions?

A

Interrogation

134
Q

What demands behavior change?

A

Command

135
Q

What focuses on one’s own point of view instead of the patient’s?

A

Evading/missing/avoiding

136
Q

Misuse of and addiction to alcohol, nicotine, and illicit/prescription drugs cost Americans more than ___/year in increased health care costs, crime, and lost productivity.

A

$700 billion

137
Q

Every year, illicit and prescription drugs and alcohol contribute to the death of more than ___ Americans, while tobacco is linked to an estimated ___ deaths/year.

A

90,000; 480,000

138
Q

Describe the DSM-IV’s definitions of substance-related issues.

A
  1. Substance use: maladaptive pattern of use leading to clinically significant impairment or distress (12 month period, occurs 1x)
  2. Substance dependence: same definition, occurs 3x with tolerance and withdrawal
139
Q

Describe the DSM-V’s definitions of substance-related issues.

A

No longer uses substance use/dependence. Instead, it refers to substance use and addictive disorders, which are defined as mild, moderate, or severe.

140
Q

What are the four major categories looked at when diagnosing a substance use disorder (SUD)?

A
  1. Impaired control
  2. Social impairment
  3. Risky use
  4. Pharmacological criteria
141
Q

To be diagnosed with a SUD, one needs to have 2 of the following criteria within a 12-month period:

A
  1. Substance taken in larger amounts or over a longer period than intended
  2. Persistent desire or unsuccessful effort to cut down or control use
  3. Great deal of time spent in activities necessary to obtain/use/recover from the substance
  4. Craving
  5. Recurrent use of substance results in failure to fulfill major obligations
  6. Continued use of substance despite persistent problems
  7. Important activities are given up/reduced because of use
  8. Recurrent use of substance in situations which are hazardous
  9. Use continues despite knowledge of a problem
  10. Tolerance
  11. Substance is taken to relieve/avoid withdrawal
142
Q

What is a need for markedly increased amounts of a substance to achieve intoxication or desired effect/a markedly diminished effect with continued use of the same amount of substance?

A

Tolerance

143
Q

What is withdrawal?

A

The characteristic withdrawal syndrome for that substance as specified in the DSM-5

144
Q

___ adults had a substance use disorder when asked about the past year’s use.

A

20.2 million (8.4%)

145
Q

Of these, 7.9 people also had…

A

…co-occurring mental and substance use disorder.

146
Q

True or false - Men aged 12 or older are more likely than women to report illegal drug use.

A

True

147
Q

___% of people with SUDs start using the substance before age 18.

A

90

148
Q

What are the three risk factor categories for SUDs?

A
  1. Biological (genetics, neuroanatomy)
  2. Environmental (social)
  3. Psychological (trauma, learned behavior)
149
Q

What are 4 psychological risk factors?

A
  1. Mental illness (self-medication)
  2. ADHD
  3. Low self-esteem/self-worth
  4. Trauma
150
Q

If you have a parent with an alcohol-use disorder, you are ___ times more likely to have one.

A

4

151
Q

What are the functions of the dopamine pathway?

A

Reward, pleasure, motor function, compulsion, perseveration

152
Q

What are the functions of the serotonin pathways?

A

Mood, memory processing, sleep, cognition

153
Q

What are some environmental risk factors?

A
  1. Familiar, social, cultural normalization
  2. Peer pressure
  3. Interpersonal violence
  4. Directed advertisement
154
Q

What are some of alcohol’s impacts on health?

A
  1. Heart health (alcoholic cardiomyopathy, arrhythmias, strokes, hypertension)
  2. Pancreas (pancreatitis)
  3. Cancer
  4. Immune system
  5. Liver failure
  6. Head injuries from falls
  7. Korsakoff Syndrome
  8. Toxic effect on brain cells
  9. Biological stress of repeated intoxication/withdrawal
  10. Cerebrovascular disease
155
Q

What happens when mixing Tylenol with alcohol?

A

Liver failure

156
Q

What happens when mixing alcohol and sedatives?

A

Multiplication of sedative effect

157
Q

What is a peripheral neuropathy related to lack of Vitamin B?

A

Korsakoff syndrome

158
Q

What are some of the health effects of heroin/opiates?

A

Physical complications due to neglect, infection

159
Q

What are some of the health effects of cocaine?

A

Cardiovascular disease, destruction of nasal tissue

160
Q

What are some of the health effects of methamphetamine?

A

Literally everything

161
Q

What are some of the health effects of inhalants?

A

Varied effects - increase/decrease HR, headache, dizziness, loss of sense of smell, pain at nose/mouth, lung collapse, confusion

162
Q

What are some of the health effects of nicotine?

A

90% of long cancer deaths, 80-90% emphysema, cancers

163
Q

What are some of the health effects of ecstasy?

A

Liver damage, anxiety disorders, irregular heartbeats, brain damage, depression, confusion, paranoia

164
Q

___% of older women misuse prescribed medications.

A

10

165
Q

What are some examples of the impact of drugs on others?

A
  1. Prenatal drug exposure
  2. Secondhand smoke
  3. Spread of infectious disease
166
Q

What are some treatment options?

A
  1. Early intervention
  2. Outpatient treatment
  3. Intensive outpatient/partial hospitalization
  4. Residential/inpatient treatment
  5. Medically managed intensive inpatient
167
Q

What are some types of behavioral and cognitive treatments and what are the goals?

A

Types: motivational interviewing, cognitive therapy, contingency management, relapse prevention

Goals: modify attitudes/behaviors, strategies to plan for triggers and/or relapse, increase life skills, coping techniques

168
Q

What is the function of the medication ondansetron (zofran)?

A

Decreases craving

169
Q

What is the function of the medication Zyban (buproprion)?

A

Reduces cravings and other withdrawal effects

170
Q

What is the function of the medication chantix?

A

Produce more dopamine; best when combined with the patch

171
Q

What is the function of the medication Naltrexone?

A

Blocks receptors for getting high

172
Q

What is the function of the medication Disulfiram (antabuse)?

A

Addresses alcohol-use disorder

173
Q

What are some examples of harm reduction practices?

A
  1. Needle exchanges
  2. Methadone maintenance (synthetic form of heroin)
  3. Buprenorphine (reduces likelihood of overdose)
  4. Suboxone (buprenorphine + naloxone)
174
Q

What are some examples of holistic treatments?

A

Herbal remedies, St. John’s Wort, hypnosis, acupuncture, massage therapy, physical exercise to reduce tension

175
Q

What is the CAGE screening for?

A

Alcohol-use:

Have you ever felt the need to Cut down on your drinking?
Have people Annoyed you by criticizing your drinking?
Have you ever felt Guilty about drinking?
Eye-opener?

176
Q

What is the TWEAK screening for?

A

Alcohol-use during pregnancy:

Tolerance
Worried
Eye-opener
Amnesia
Kut Down
177
Q

What is the AUDIT screening for?

A

Alcohol Use Disorders Identification Test

178
Q

What is the MAST screening for?

A

Michigan Alcoholism Screening Test

179
Q

What is the DriInC assessment for?

A

Drinker Inventory of Consequences

180
Q

What is the SASSI assessment for?

A

Substance Abuse Screening Inventory

181
Q

Everyone has a sexual orientation, a gender ___, and a gender ___.

A

Identity; expression

182
Q

What are the three components of sexual orientation?

A
  1. Identity
  2. Attraction
  3. Behavior
183
Q

Define identity as it relates to sexual orientation.

A

How a person defines or labels their sexuality

184
Q

Define behavior as it relates to sexual orientation.

A

The gender of a person’s sexual and romantic partners; sexual identity may not always align with sexual behaviors

185
Q

Define attraction as it relates to sexual orientation.

A

Refers to the genders a person is attracted to; does not always align with behavior or identity

186
Q

What is a person’s internal sense of being a man/male, woman/female, both, neither, or another gender?

A

Gender identity

187
Q

What is the manner in which a person represents or expresses their gender identity?

A

Gender expression

188
Q

When a person’s gender identity correspond with their assigned sex at birth, this is termed ___.

A

Cisgender

189
Q

When aa person’s gender identity, expression, or behavior is different from those typically associated with their assigned sex at birth, this is termed ___.

A

Transgender

190
Q

People assigned male sex at birth but who identity as female may call themselves…

A

Transgender women, trans women, male-to-female persons, women, or another term

191
Q

People assigned female sex at birth but who identity as male may call themselves…

A

Transgender men, trans men, female-to-male persons, men, or another term

192
Q

What describes the period during which a transgender person begins to express their gender identity?

A

Transitioning

193
Q

What percentage of people self-identify as LGB in the US?

A

2.2-4%

194
Q

What percentage of people self-identify as transgender in the US/

A

0.6%

195
Q

LGBQ persons experience higher rates of ___ and ___ than do heterosexual peers.

A

Victimization; violence

196
Q

Who experiences the highest rates of violence and victimization?

A

Transwomen

197
Q

What are primary drivers of LGBTQ health disparities?

A

Stigma, discrimination, and inequality

198
Q

What are the three aspects of the cross-cultural interview?

A
  1. Respect
  2. Curiosity
  3. Empathy
199
Q

What happens to the ANS, body temperature, and respiration during sleep?

A

ANS - parasympathetic dominates
Body temperature: lower set-point
Respiration: decreased ventilation

200
Q

All mammals have ___ sleep.

A

NREM/REM

201
Q

What is one of the most important determinants of sleep?

A

Age

202
Q

What is the ratio of REM:NREM in infants and adults?

A

Infants: 50:50

Adults - 20-25:75-80

203
Q

SWS declines most significantly at what age?

A

Second decade

204
Q

__ sleep increases to adult level 45-55%.

A

Stage 2

205
Q

Describe normal sleep in children.

A

Sleep Onset REM Periods (SOREMs) until 3 months old; NREM stages 3-6 months

206
Q

Describe normal sleep in adults.

A

Sleep entered through NREM sleep; REM cycles every 90-120 minutes

207
Q

When does NREM predominate? REM?

A

NREM sleep predominates in first half of sleep and is linked to prior level of wakefulness. REM predominates in last half of sleep and is circadian linked.

208
Q

Describe the homeostatic sleep drive model.

A

Sleep responses are proportional to the duration of prior wakefulness; increased sleepiness, increased sleep, increased depth/maintenance of sleep

209
Q

What is a circadian rhythm?

A

When isolated from time cues such as sunlight, most creatures show intrinsic rhythms of nearly, but rarely exactly, 24 hours.

210
Q

What generates circadian rhythm?

A

Circadian pacemaker located in the suprachiasmatic nuclei (SCN) of the hypothalamus

211
Q

What is the biological clock?

A

SCN

212
Q

Circadian rhythms are involved in what functions?

A

Wake/sleep, hormonal, temperature, immune, drug metabolism, renal function, airway function, cardiovascular activity, hematology, neoplastic cells

213
Q

How are circadian rhythms synchronized to the external environment?

A

Entrainment

214
Q

How is entrainment done?

A

Through presentation of stimuli that signals the time of day (Zeitgebers)

215
Q

What is a Zeitgeber?

A

Any stimulus capable of shifting the phase of the circadian clock in a systemic manner

216
Q

What is it called when individuals run on their own intrinsic clock?

A

Free run

217
Q

Describe the Two Process Model of Sleep Regulation.

A
  1. Process S is homeostatic, increasing sleep pressure with increased time awake.
  2. Process C is circadian

S is built up over the day; C is high before you fall asleep and low during sleep

218
Q

What are the primary determinants of sleepiness?

A
  1. Circadian
  2. Homeostatic
  3. Age
  4. Other - drugs, sleep disorders
219
Q

What is the Epworth Sleepiness Scale (ESS)?

A 
0 = no chance of dozing
1 = slight chance
2 = moderate chance
3 = high chance
220
Q

What are the stages of sleep?

A
  1. W (Wakefulness)
  2. NREM (N1, N2, N3)
  3. R (REM)
221
Q

What is the Multiple Sleep Latency Test (MSLT)?

A

Tests the underlying physiologic tendency to fall asleep during usual waking hours

222
Q

What is the Maintenance of Wakefulness Test?

A

Tests the patient’s ability to stay awake

223
Q

How long must insomnia be present to be diagnosed?

A

At least one month

224
Q

What are the symptoms of obstructive sleep apnea?

A

Loud snoring, observed apneas, daytime sleepiness, morning sore throat/headache, elevated BMI, crowded oropharynx, hypertension

225
Q

How is obstructive sleep apnea diagnosed?

A

Polysomnography

226
Q

What is the etiology of sleep apnea?

A

Narrowing or occlusion of the upper airway during sleep

227
Q

How is sleep apnea treated?

A

CPAP (continuous positive air pressure)

228
Q

Describe URGES (Restless Leg Syndrome).

A 
U: Unpleasant limb sensation with urge to move
R: symptoms precipitated by rest
G: better with movement (Getting up)
E: symptoms worse in Evening/night
Sleep disturbance and consequences
229
Q

What are some symptoms of narcolepsy and their prevalence?

A

Excessive daytime sleepiness (100%)
Cataplexy (70%)
Hypnagogic hallucinations (66%)
Sleep paralysis (60%)

230
Q

What are disorders that intrude into the sleep process and are not primarily disorders of sleep and wake state; undesirable physical events or experiences that arise from sleep or sleep-wake transition.

A

Parasomnias

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