Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

According to the text, an ethical framework has four primary components: 1) duties, 2) rights, 3) standards of excellence, and 4) commitments.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

The community principle of ethics involves making decisions that you would be publicly proud of.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The principles, values, and beliefs that are widely considered universal are referred to as the standard level of ethics.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Escalation is an increase in an organizational behavior as a direct response to a competitor’s behavior.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

An externality is a cost (negative) or benefit (positive) that occurs within the direct exchange between an organization and its stakeholders.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Ethics is as simple as “doing the right thing.”

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

The first stage of moral development is called preconventional.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Stakeholders can be either internal or external to the organization.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

___________ may be described as the moral principles, values, and beliefs that govern group or individual behavior according to what is right or wrong.

A

Ethics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which of the following is the final stage of moral development?

A

Postconventional

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

The more healthy options that one fast food chain offers, the more healthy options other fast food chains have to offer. This is an example of which of the following concepts?

A

Escalation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

When managers make a principles-based decision that follows both the letter and the spirit of the law, they are applying which of the following?

A

A legal principle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

A decision that provides the greatest good to the greatest number (or the least harm to the fewest number) is based on:

A

Utilitarian principle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

By protecting human health, safety, and privacy, one is upholding which of the following Codes of Conduct Standards?

A

Dignity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

When an organization supports proactive behaviors that are beneficial to society, the organization is engaging in:

A

social responsibility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Articles of incorporation is a legal agreement between shareholders and management that determines the ______________ of management in operating the organization.

A

fiduciary duty

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

When a company accepts responsibility for a situation but then only does the minimum required, it is using which of the following approaches to social responsibility?

A

Defensive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

All of the following are domains of ethical decision making EXCEPT:

A

principles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

A situation in which the company’s culture impact employee behavior in ways that are consistent with the organization’s mission and values would be an example of ______________

A

values-based

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

A(n) _____________ approach is when an organization accepts responsibility and takes action in response to societal pressures.

A

accommodative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

According to the text, there are seven steps in the decision making process.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

When a decision is made based on beliefs or assumptions despite evidence to the contrary, it is known as an intuitive decision.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Groupthink is the ability for a team to synthesize their thoughts into a more effective alternative path.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Evaluating alternatives is the third step in the decision-making process.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

The degree to which the outcomes of an alternative can be predicted is referred to as risk.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

A decision based on preestablished rules in response to a recurring situation is called:

A

a programmed decision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Which of the following is the first step in the decision-making process?

A

Identify the problem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Managers rarely have all the information they need to make the best possible decision where information about the situation, goals, or criteria is incomplete or can be interpreted in multiple ways. This is referred to as:

A

ambiguity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

A method of problem analysis that isolates the variables in a system that can truly be addressed through management intervention is known as:

A

policy-based analysis

30
Q

Research suggests that group brainstorming is a particularly effective technique for dealing with a problem that is:

A

complex and cross-functional

31
Q

Basing decisions on beliefs or assumptions despite evidence to the contrary is:

A

prior hypothesis bias

32
Q

When decision making is limited by time, cognitive abilities, and available information, it is known as:

A

bounded rationality

33
Q

Which of the following can become problematic when implementing decision alternatives?

A

illusion of control

34
Q

Which of the following is NOT one of the steps in the process for feedback and measurement results?

A

Identify the problem

35
Q

What is the last step in the seven-step decision-making process?

A

Solicit feedback and analyze results

36
Q

The decision that is the best possible option given all the needed information is known as a(n):

A

optimum decision

37
Q

The method of decision making in which a group of experts propose and question ideas until
a consensus is reached is the:

A

Delphi technique

38
Q

A plan that interprets an organizational strategy into a market or community-based
opportunity for division or departmental managers is a business plan.

A

True

39
Q

Key performance indicators are measurements that managers identify as vital to the
company’s performance.

A

True

40
Q

A distal goal is almost unattainable and requires the full capacity of an individual, manager,
team, or organization to accomplish.

A

False

41
Q

Goals must be set within a strategic framework consisting of mission, vision, and values.

A

True

42
Q

If a goal is several months or even a year in the future, milestones must be set along the way to assess performance and allow room for feedback.

A

True

43
Q

Directional plans provide focus and include specific objectives and responsibilities.

A

False

44
Q

Managers set proximal goals, or short term goals, that increase individuals’ abilities to reach distal goals by providing motivation and feedback.

A

True

45
Q

People tend to be more motivated by _____________ goals.

A

challenging

46
Q

Through progress reports and other types of feedback, managers can:

A

clarify expectations
assess the process
make adjustments if necessary

47
Q

The motivation and determination needed to achieve a goal is known as:

A

goal commitment

48
Q

The technique in which management and employees agree to specific goals that are then
used to evaluate individual performance is known as:

A

MBO

49
Q

A plan that guides the day-to-day production or delivery of an organization’s goods and
services, and which enacts a functional strategy is known as a(n):

A

operational plan

50
Q

A visual representation of an organization’s strategies and goals is a ________________.

A

performance dashboard

51
Q

A standing plan that provides specific steps to be taken as part of a recurring process or in
response to a recurring situation is a:

A

procedure

52
Q

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a S.M.A.R.T. goal?

A

realistic

53
Q

A plan that interprets an organizational strategy into a market or community-based opportunity for division or departmental managers is a:

A

tactical plan

54
Q

Which of the following is a standing plan that describes how an organization and its members should respond to recurring or anticipated situations?

A

Policy

55
Q

The Harvard professor who developed the five forces model is Frederick Taylor.

A

False

56
Q

A company with a high market share but low market growth is categorized as a cash cow.

A

True

57
Q

A functional strategy determines how employees will implement and achieve a tactical plan.

A

True

58
Q

A diversification strategy reduces risk as an organization adds new kinds of goods, services, or business units.

A

True

59
Q

Only big industries are subject to government policies.

A

False

60
Q

A plan of action for achieving goals is known as:

A

strategy

61
Q

A company that uses strategies for high risk and fast growth through product and market innovation is known as a(n):

A

prospector

62
Q

Which of the following is NOT a barrier to entry?

A

Expansive government policy

63
Q

________ refers to the financial and human resources available to the company, which will enable or hinder it to achieve goals.

A

Capacity

64
Q

What is the appropriate action for an organization or product that is a Question Mark according to the BCG Matrix?

A

Invest heavily in order to achieve Star status

65
Q

Activities and processes that an organization routinely does well in comparison to its competitors are:

A

core capabilities

66
Q

The renewal strategy addresses declining performance through ___________.

A

retrenchment and regrowth

67
Q

Which of the following levels of strategy answers the question, “How will a business
compete in a particular industry or market?”

A

Divisional strategy

68
Q

A(n) ____________ is a company whose strategies seek to maintain existing products and
services while pursuing limited innovation.

A

analyzer

69
Q

When companies produce and distribute their own supplies it is known as:

A

vertical integration

70
Q

It is the responsibility of managers to _________ strategies that will defend the company against the threat of competitors.

A

create
present
implement

71
Q

A company that follows no consistent strategy, but instead changes depending on the environment, is a(n):

A

reactor

72
Q

When an organization focuses on processes, products, and services that will last over the long term, it is known as the company’s:

A

stability strategy