Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Salivary Gland Neoplasia usually arise during:

A

Adulthood

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2
Q

The SECOND most common site of involvement of Salivary Gland Neoplasms (after parotid) are ______ on the _____

A

MINOR glands

Palate

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3
Q

What has a greater chance of MALIGNANCY for Salivary Gland Neoplams….upper or lower lip?

A

LOWER

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4
Q

Most MALIGNANT spot for Salivary Gland Neoplasm

A

Retromolar

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5
Q

Most common salivary gland neoplasm:

A

Pleomorphic Adenoma (aka Benign Mixed Tumor)

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6
Q

Most common site of Pleomorphic Adenoma

A

Parotid (80%)

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7
Q

Pleomorphic Adeoma is..

  • (slow/fast) growing:
  • pain?
  • Movable or stationary
  • On palpation, feels:
  • Only time it is NOT movable:
A
  • slow
  • painless
  • freely movable
  • rubbery firm
  • on hard palate
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8
Q

Pleomorphic Adenoma intraoraly is most frequently located:

A

Palate (followed by upper lip)

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9
Q

___________ has myoepithelial cells that have the ability to produce hyaline, cartilage, and even bone.

A

Pleomorphic Adenoma

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10
Q

Pleomorphic Adenoma tx:

A

Remove lesion and involved gland

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11
Q

Papillary Cystadenoma Lymphomatosum is aka:

A

Warthin Tumor

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12
Q

Papillary Cystadenoma Lymphomatosum (Warthin’s Tumor) is found exclusively in:

A

Parotid gland

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13
Q

Presents as a non-tender, slowly growing freely movable mass in parotid region and may be caused by CIGARETTE smoking!

A

Warthin’s Tumor (Papillary Cystadenoma Lymphomatosum)

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14
Q

What is encapsulated with cystic spaces containing milky or chocolate-syrup-like fluid AND GERMINAL CENTER formation

A

Warthin’s Tumor (Papillary Cystadenoma Lymphomatosum)

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15
Q

Monomorphic Adenoma is ___ common than pleomorphic. It’s a proliferation of ONE cell type

A

less

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16
Q

2 major subtypes of Monomorphic Adenoma

A

Canalicular Adenoma + Basal Cell Adenoma

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17
Q

Canalicular Adenoma (a type of Monomorphic Adenoma) is common where?

A

Upper labial mucosa

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18
Q

Which Monomorphic Adenoma has a FEMALE predominance in OLDER adults.

A

Canalicular Adenoma

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19
Q

Most common intraoral salivary gland MALIGNANCY (very common in children too)

A

Mucoepidermoid Carcinoma

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20
Q

Most common intraoral site of Mucoepidermoid Carcinoma

A

Palate (followed by retromolar area)

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21
Q

What lesion may be bluish due to entrapped mucin?

A

Mucoepidermoid Carcinoma

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22
Q

Mucocele-appearing lesion of retromolar area should be considered a ________ until proven otherwise

A

Mucoepidermoid Carcinoma

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23
Q

Does Mucoepidermoid Carcinoma hurt?

A

Yes, ulceration and pain may develop as lesion progresses

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24
Q

Does Mucoepidermoid Carcinoma need mucous cells AND epidermoid cells to make a diagnosis?

A

YES

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25
Q

In Mucoepidermoid Carcinoma, cells don’t usually show _____ or increased ____ activity, but a spectrum of ______ is recognized

A
  • Pleomorphism
  • Mitotic
  • Differentition
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26
Q

Mucoepidermoid Carcinoma lesions less than 2.5cm

A

Excellent

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27
Q

What is the SECOND most common intraoral salivary gland MALIGNANCY

A

Polymorphous Low-Grade Adenocarcinoma (PLGA)

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28
Q

Polymorphous Low-Grade Adenocarcinoma (PLGA) has a _____predilection

A

Female

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29
Q

PLGA is most commonly found where?

A

Posterior hard palate /soft palate

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30
Q

PLGA is usually _____ growing

A

very SLOW

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31
Q

PLGA has a ____ growth pattern that infiltrates surrounding normal tissue, although a ______ can be present in some areas

A

lobular

-psuedocapsule

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32
Q

Why is PLGA “polymorphous”

A

You usually see a variety of growth patterns from lesion to lesion or within same lesion

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33
Q

PLGA prognosis:

A

Excellent

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34
Q

Adenoid Cystic Carcinoma most commonly affects:

A

Palate

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35
Q

Does Adenoid Cystic Carcinoma cause pain?

A

Yes! and tenderness

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36
Q

Which salivary gland malignancy can invade nerves (perineural and intraneural)

A

Adenoid Cystic Carcinoma

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37
Q

Is Adenoid Cystic Carcinoma encapsulated?

-What is the intermediate growth pattern?

A

NO!

-Cribiform “swiss cheese”

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38
Q

Adenoid Cystic Carcinoma tx:

A

surgical excision AND THEN radiation

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39
Q

Adenoid Cystic Carcinoma prognosis

A

Poor. 10yr survival = 50%

Slow growing and relentless. You can die from disease up to 25 yrs after

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40
Q

Adenoid Cystic Carcimoma usually metastasize to:

-Does it usually affect lymph nodes?

A

Lung

-Rarely

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41
Q

Is Acinic Cell Adenocarcinoma a popular salivary gland tumor?

A

NO only 2%

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42
Q

Describe Acinic Cell Adenocarcinoma clinically:

Is pain common?

A

Fairly circumscribed, Slow-growing, In parotid region

-Pain in half of the cases

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43
Q

Is Acinic Cell Adenocarcinoma encapsulated?

A

Psuedo-encapsulated

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44
Q

Where does Acinic Cell Adenocarcinoma metastasize to

A

Lymph nodes

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45
Q

Long staniding asymptomatic mass that suddenly becomes tender or causes parasthesia describes:

A

Carcinoma ex-Mixed Tumor (PA pleomorphic adenoma)

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46
Q

Which salivary gland malignancy caused everyone to die if invasion was >8mm (and everyone lived if less than 6)

A

Carcinoma ex-Mixed Tumor (PA)

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47
Q

What is collagen deposition secondary to chronic trauma

A

Fibroma

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48
Q

Inflammatory FIBROUS Hyperplasia is caused by:

-What gives it away?

A

Ill-fitting denture

-Central fissure

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49
Q

Numerous asymptomatic red papules on central region of hard palate from denture:

A

Inflammatory PAPILLARY Hyperplasia

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50
Q

Pyogenic Granuloma…

  • Grows ___
  • Pain?
  • Color?
  • Location?
  • Does it bleed?
  • Frequently occurs when?
A

Fast

  • NO pain
  • Red
  • Any body surface
  • Bleeds easily
  • During pregnancy
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51
Q

What painless mass has a dusky-purple hue?

A

Peripheral Giant Cell Granuloma

52
Q

Peripheral Giant Cell Granuloma is only found in which two places:

A

Gingiva + Alveoler process

53
Q

Painless firm coral-pink mass:

A

Peripheral Ossifying Fibroma

54
Q

Peripheral Ossifying Fibroma is only found where?

A

Gingiva

55
Q

Benign tumor of adipose tissue:

-Does it become malignant?

A

Lipoma

-NO

56
Q

Traumatic Neuroma clinically appears as:

A

Smooth-surfaced, dome-shaped papule,

57
Q

Slow-growing, solitary (single), encapsulated, rubbery mass that may be seen in mandible

A

NeuriLEMOMA (Schwannoma)

58
Q

Does Nuerilemoma have a capsule?

  • What are the 2 patterns seen
  • Malignancy?
A

YES

  • Antoni A and B
  • NEVER
59
Q

Antoni A and B are associated with:

A

NeuriLEMOMA

60
Q

Which lesion usually “shells out” due to dense connective tissue capsule

A

NeuriLEMOMA

61
Q

Difference between Neurilemoma and Neurofibroma?

A

NeuriLEMOMA has CAPSULE

62
Q

What lesion could potentially (not likely) transfrom to Malignant Peripheral Nerve Sheath Tumor

A

NeuroFIBROMA

63
Q

NeuroFIBROMATOSIS is one of the most common:

A

Autosomal genetic problems

64
Q

What can cause Cafe-au-lait spots on skin?

-How many spots do they usually have

A

NeuroFIBROMATOSIS

-Usually >6 greater than 1.5cm

65
Q

NeuroFIBROMATOSIS prognosis

A

fair to guarded. If malignant transformation occurs, prognosis is poor

66
Q

Melanotic Neuroectodermal Tumor of Infancy…

  • Most develop where?
  • Growth speed?
  • What is characteristic?
  • Prognosis?
A

Anterior maxilla

  • Rapid
  • Radiographic appearance (radiolucency of anterior maxilla)…“TOOTH FLOATING IN SPACE”
  • Good
67
Q

Granular Cell tumor most common location:

  • Size:
  • Prognosis
A

tongue (followed by floor of mouth and buccal mucosa)

  • less than 1cm
  • excellent
68
Q

PEH (psuedoepitheliomatous hyperplasia) is present in 30% of:

A

Granular Cell Tumors

69
Q

Rare lesion found at birth on maxillary ridge of GIRL babies

A

Congenital Epulis

70
Q

Does Congenital Epulis have PEH (pseudoepitheliomatous hyperplasia?
-Does it have S-100 positivity?

Which lesion DOES have PEH?

A

NO
-NO

-Granular Cell Tumor

71
Q

Most common tumor of childhood:

-Most common intraoral site

A

hemangioma

-Tongue

72
Q

How to diagnose Hemangioma clinically:

A

Press on lesion with glass slide (diascopy). Lesion will blanch (blood within vessels will be pushed into adjacent vessels)

73
Q

Hemangioma treatment:

A

If lesion impairs vision, treat ASAP. Otherwise, WAIT until child is at least 6 yrs old

74
Q

Is Encephalotrigeminal Angiomatosis (aka Sturge-Weber Syndrome) congenital?
-Is it inherited/genetic

A

Yes

-NO (just present since birth)

75
Q

In Encepthalotrigeminal Angiomatosis, which CN is most frequently affected (exhibits nevus flammeus)
-Symptoms

A

1st

-Seizures, retardation, and hemiplegia (paralysis of one side of body)

76
Q

What is classic radiographic finding of Encephalotrigeminal Angiomatosis

A

“tram line” calcifications seen on skull film

77
Q

Lymphangioma most common site:

  • Surface has vesicular appearance, similar to:
  • Recurrence?
A

Tongue

  • “frog eggs”
  • Yes, up to 40%!
78
Q

Cystic Hygroma is just a very large _____.

-Why is it significant?

A

Lymphanigioma

-Can cause airway obstruction

79
Q

Which is harder to treat, lymphangioma or hemangioma?

A

Lymphangioma (cuz the borders aren’t as defined)

80
Q

Leiomyoma is a benign tumor of ______

  • Most in the oral region arise from ____ smooth muscle
  • Most common in what locations:
  • Recurrence?
A

smooth muscle

  • vascular (might be reddish/purplish)
  • upper lip, buccal mucosa, and palate
  • NONE
81
Q

Rhabdomyoma is a very rare benign tumor of ____

  • Most arise in the _____ and are associated with the syndrome ______
  • Where are they located intraoraly?
A

skeletal muscle

  • Heart
  • Tuberous Sclerosis
  • Submandibular or base of tongue
82
Q

Mesenchymal Neoplasms are aka:

A

Sarcomas

83
Q

Fibrosarcoma may present as _____ mass or _____lesion

  • Hows the response to radiation?
  • Prognosis:
  • Metastasizes to:
A

soft tissue or intrabony

  • little response to radiation
  • BAD ~50% 5-year survival
  • lung, bone, and liver
84
Q

Malignant Peripheral Nerve Sheath Tumor may arise spontaneously or in association with:

  • Which patients are affected earlier, spontaneous or NF1?
  • What positivity does it show?
  • 5 yr survival? 10?
A

Neurofibromatosis Type 1 (NF1)

  • NF1 earlier
  • S100
  • 50% … 35%
85
Q

Kaposi Sarcoma is malignancy of:

  • Result of infections by:
  • Classically presents where (on older males)?
  • Which is the only form of Kaposi Sarcoma that has oral lesions?
A

Endothelium cells (in blood vessels)

  • HHV-8
  • Lower extremeties
  • AIDS-related
86
Q

What is treated with vinblastine (anticancer agent)

A

Kaposi Sarcoma

87
Q

Most common soft tissue sarcoma of children

A

Rhabdomyosarcoma

88
Q

Rhabdomyosarcoma usually affects what region of children?

-When it grows into body cavity, the lesion may look like:

A

head & neck

-Bunch of grapes “sarcoma botryoides”

89
Q

Langerhans Cell Histiocytosis…

  • Langerhans cells are related to ____ and serve as ______ cells
  • Most common type:
A

Monocytes
Antigen-presenting
-Eosinophilic Granuloma

90
Q

Which form of Langerhans Cell Histiocytosis is seen in infants?

  • Clinical appearance:
  • Aggressive?
A

ACUTE Disseminated Histiocytosis (Letterer-Siwe Disease)

  • Rash, splenic + hepatic involvement
  • YES! malignant!
91
Q

Which form of Langerhans Cell Histiocyotsis is seen in older children
-Clinical appearance:

A

CHRONIC Disseminated Histiocytosis

-Classic triad of exophthalmos (eye bulging), diabetes insipidus, and bone lesions

92
Q

Difference of Langerhans Cell Histiocytosis in teenagers and adults:

A

Teenagers: polystotic
Adults: monostotic

93
Q

Three forms of Langerhans Cell Histiocytosis and their prognoses:

A

Acute: poor
Chronic: guarded
Eosinophilic granuloma: good

94
Q

What are the group of hematologic malignancies characterized by tumor cells in blood called?

A

Leukemia

95
Q

Leukemia..
Pts often present with signs related to ______ anemia (normal bone marrow replaced by leukemic cells)
-Symptoms:
-Diagnosis is usually based on finding increased:

A

Myelophthisic

  • Fatigue (decreased RBC’s), easy bruising (decreased platelets), infection (decreased WBC’s)
  • Atypical WBC’s in circulation
96
Q

Leukemia in the mouth is most frequently seen which form?

-What affect does Leukemia have intraoraly?

A

Myelomonocytic form

-Diffuse gingival enlargement

97
Q

Targeted Gene Therapy is the future for treating:

A

Leukemia

98
Q

Difference of Hodgkins and NH lymphoma

A

Hodgkin: develops in lymph nodes
NH: may develop in nodes, soft tissue, or bone. Older pts

99
Q

Common site of initial involvement of Hodgkin Lymphoma:

-Prognosis is based on ____

A

Head and neck

-Stage

100
Q

Oral involvement for Non-Hodgkin Lymphoma is usually seen as:

  • How do you know if it has mandibular involvement?
  • What do you see radiographically?
A

Diffuse mass of soft palate or buccal vestibule

  • numb chin
  • moth eaten
101
Q

Lymphoma tx…
Localized:
Generalized:

A

Radiation (and possible chemo)

-multi-agent chemo

102
Q

What is Plasmacytoma/Multiple Myeloma?

  • Comprises nearly __% of malignancies involving bone
  • Almost never seen in pts younger than:
  • Who’s affected more…men or women..black or white
A

Neoplastic proliferation of plasma cells, frequently arising in bone marrow

  • 50%
  • 40 yrs old
  • Black male is most affected
103
Q

Plasmacytoma/Multiple Myeloma can cause ____ failure due to circulating monoclonal immunoglobulin light chains which can spill over into ____.
-It can also be deposited in tissues as acellular eosinophilic material - “_____”

A

renal

  • urine
  • “amyloid”
104
Q

Plasmacytoma/Multiple Myeloma tx:

-Prognosis

A

Chemo (prednisone and alkylating agent), thalidomide, bone marrow transplant
-Poor (5 yr survival = 46%)

105
Q

Osteogenesis Imperfecta aka:

  • defective type _ collagen
  • Mostly autosomal _____
  • Tx:
A

Brittle Bone Disease

  • 1
  • Dominant
  • Anti-resorptive meds
106
Q

Osteopetrosis aka:

  • Characterized by dysfunction of _____
  • Adult type is autosomal ___
  • Child type is autosomal ____
  • _____is replaced by ____ leading to _____
  • Tx:
A

Marble Bone disease

  • osteoclasts
  • dominant
  • recessive
  • marrow / bone / pancytopenia(deficiency of all 3 components of blood)
  • Transfusions and bone marrow transplant
107
Q

Cleidocranial Dysplasia is a mutation of___ which is associated with bone, cartilage, and TOOTH formation.
-Why is primary dentition retained?

A

RUNX2 gene

-Permanent teeth do not erupt

108
Q

If patient has little to no clavicles (and numerous impacted and supernumerary teeth), they have:

A

Cleidocranial Dysplasia

109
Q

What is Focal Osteoporotic Marrow Defect?

-Higher predilection in:

A

Asymptomatic, ill-defined radioLUCENCY in body of mandible

-Females

110
Q

Diff of Focal Osteoporotic Marrow Defect and Idiopathic Osteosclerosis?

A
Focal = radioLUCENCY
Idopathic = radiOPAQUE
111
Q

Where is Idiopathic Osteosclerosis most common?

A

Mandible (premolar area)

112
Q

Cherubism is:

  • Symptoms
  • Radiographically:
  • What tx should you NOT do
A

Osteoclast hyperactivity

  • Painless bilateral expansion of jaws
  • Bilateral multilocular radiolucencies of posterior mandible
  • Surgical. Can accelerate growth of lesion
113
Q

Traumatic (Simple) Bone Cysts are seen in what age group?

  • Where are they usually located?
  • Radiographically
  • At surgical exploration, what do they find?
  • Tx
A

Young

  • Symphyseal area and posterior mandible
  • Well-circumscribed radiolucency with scalloping between roots (teeth are VITAL!)
  • Empty cavity within bone
  • Curettage to induce bleeding and bone growth
114
Q

Osteitis Deformans aka

  • Abnormal ____ and ____ resulting in:
  • Age:
  • Do most cases affect only one bone?
  • Radiographically:
  • More common in maxilla or mandible?
A

Pagets Disease

  • Resorption + deposition / thickened but weak bone
  • > 40
  • NO! polyostotic
  • “Cotton Wool”
  • Maxilla (2:1)
115
Q

Which disease causes Simian stance (bowing of legs) and hypercementosis of teeth?

A

Osteitis Deformans

116
Q

Which disease causes markedly elevated serum alkaline phosphatase?

A

Osteitis Deformans

117
Q

Which disease has irregular trabeculae with resting and reversal lines = “mosaic/jigsaw” pattern

A

Osteitis Deformans

118
Q

Which disease has a 1% lifetime risk of developing into osteosarcoma?

A

Osteitis Deformans

119
Q

What is Fibrous Dysplasia?

  • Mutation of which gene?
  • What percent are monostotic (one bone)
  • Classic radiography:
  • Can cause obliteration of:
A

Tumor-like lesion that replaces normal bone

  • GNAS (tumor suppressor)
  • 70-85%
  • Ground glass
  • Maxillary sinus
120
Q

Which bone disorder can cause cafe au lait spots?

A

Fibrous Dysplasia (ONLY in the POLYostotic form)

121
Q

Fibrous Dysplasia tx:

A

En Bloc resection

122
Q

What is the most common fibro-osseous lesion of the jaws encountered in clinic?

  • What are the 3 types?
  • Which has most widespread expression?
A

Cemento-Osseous Dysplasia

  • Focal, Periapical, Florid
  • Florid
123
Q

Focal Cemento-Osseous Dysplasia has a __% _____predilection.

  • Radiographically?
  • What is the appearance during surgery
  • What is the shape of trabeculae?
A

90% female

  • Radiolucency with radiopaque central component
  • Gritty fragments come out
  • Ginger root
124
Q

What is the most common area and group of people that get Periapical Cemental Dysplasia?
-Tx?

A
  • Mandibular Anterior region
  • Black females (so is Florid)
  • None needed
125
Q

Florid Cemento-Osseous Dysplasia is most common in:

-It affects:

A
Black females (so is Periapical)
-MULTIPLE quadrants of the jaws