Exam #2 Flashcards
1
Q
_______ cartilage has no perichondrium, rather, it receives nutrients from _______.
A
Articular cartilage
synovial fluid
2
Q
During embryonic development, the differentiation of cartilage takes place primarily from the ______ ______; therefore the more central cells have the characteristics of ________, whereas the peripheral cells are typical ______. The ________ forms the perichondrium.
A
- center outward
- chondrocytes
- chondroblasts
- superficial mesenchyme
3
Q
Define interstitial growth and where it occurs; give an example
A
Mitotic division of preexisting chondroblasts in the MATRIX.
e.g. in articular cartilage and epiphyseal plates of long bones for length increase.
4
Q
Define appositional growth and where it occurs; give an example
A
Involves differentiation of new chondroblasts from the perichondrium. Occurs in the PERICHONDRIUM.
e.g. postnatal development.
5
Q
Multiplication of chondroblasts within the matrix gives rise to ________ surrounded by a condensation of _______.
A
- isogenous cell aggregates
- territorial matrix
6
Q
Give three characteristics of chondroblasts (e.g. location, appearance)
A
- ) At the periphery of the cartilage
- ) Have an elliptic shape
- ) Long axis parallel to the surface
p. 132 Junq
7
Q
Damaged cartilage undergoes ____ and _____ repair, primarily by activity of cells from the ______.
A
- slow and often incomplete repair.
- perichondrium
8
Q
In extensively damaged areas, the perichondrium produces a ________ instead of _______.
A
-scar of dense connective tissue instead of forming new cartilage.
9
Q
The most numerous PG in cartilage is ______, what does it do within the context of the function of cartilage?
A
Aggrecan –binds large amounts of water.
10
Q
What are four stains used to visualize elastic tissue?
A
- ) Verhoeff
- ) Weigert
- ) Resorcin fuscin
- ) Silver stain
11
Q
What are the three mechanical and one metabolic function of bone?
A
Mechanical: Protection of vital organs, harbors bone marrow, attachment site for muscles.
Metabolic: Ca2+, PO3- reservoir.
12
Q
Which bone cells secrete organic components of bone matrix? What are the components?
A
Osteoblasts: collagen type I, PGs, osteonectin (glycoprotein).
13
Q
Mature osteoblasts are located exclusively _________, usually _______ in a layer somewhat resembling a simple epithelium
A
- at the surfaces of bone matrix
- side by side
14
Q
When actively engaged in matrix synthesis, osteoblasts have a ______ shape and ______ cytoplasm. When their synthesizing activity declines, they _____ and ______ is reduced
A
- cuboidal to columnar shape
- basophilic cytoplasm
- flatten
- basophilia is reduced
p. 138 Junq, p.251 Ross
15
Q
________ represent most of the flattened bone lining cells in both the endosteum and periosteum.
A
Inactive osteoblasts
16
Q
Osteoblasts secrete ______ containing what three things?
A
- osteoid
- collagen type I, proteoglycans and other molecules, and matrix vesicles.
17
Q
The process of bone appositional growth is completed by subsequent deposition of ______ into the newly formed matrix.
A
calcium salts
18
Q
Osteoblasts are ______ cells: matrix components are secreted at the cell surface in contact with _______, producing a layer of new (but not yet _____) material called _______ between the _____ layer and _______.
A
- polarized cells
- existing bone matrix
- not yet calcified material called osteoid.
- between the osteoblast layer and the preexisting bone surface.
pp. 140-141 Junq
19
Q
With high concentrations of both _____ and ______, _______ serve as foci for the formation of _______ crystals, the first visible step in calcification.
A
- calcium and phosphate ions
- matrix vesicles
- hydroxyapatite
20
Q
_____ processes come to occupy the many ______ that radiate from each lacuna.
A
- Osteocytic
- canaliculi
21
Q
Diffusion of metabolites between _____ and blood vessels occurs through the small amount of extracellular fluid between the bone matrix and the ______ and their ______.
A
- osteocytes
- osteocytes and their processes
22
Q
Osteocytes also communicate with one another via _______ on the ______ in the ______ and on osteoblasts and bone lining cells.
A
- gap junctions
- dendritic processes in the canaliculi
23
Q
Describe the shape of osteocytes and their main differences from osteoblasts (3)
A
- Flat, almond-shaped.
1. ) Significantly less RER
2. ) Smaller Golgi complexes
3. ) More condensed nuclear chromatin
p. 142 Junq
24
Q
What is the main function of osteocytes?
A
Maintaining the bony matrix and regulating bone remodeling.
25
The death of osteocytes through trauma is followed by ______ (by _____ activity), followed by ________.
Rapid matrix resorption (by osteoclast activity), followed by repair or remodeling of the bone tissue by osteoblast activity.
26
Describe the staining properties of decalcified bone matrix. What gives it this property?
Acidophilic – due to high collagen content.
| p.143 Junq
27
What binds the periosteum to bone? Describe
Bundles of periosteal collagen fibers, called perforating (or Sharpey) fibers, penetrate the bone matrix, binding the periosteum to bone.
28
What is osteonectin and where does it come from?
- It is a glycoprotein secreted by osteoblasts.
| - Anchors mineral components to collagen.
29
Where are osteoprogenitor cells (aka _____) located?
- aka Mesenchymal stem cells
| - inner region of Perisosteum (more cellular layer)
30
What are the principal functions of the periosteum (2)?
The principal functions of periosteum are to nourish the osseous tissue and provide a continuous supply of new osteoblasts for appositional bone growth or repair.
31
All central osteonic canals and perforating canals come into existence when matrix is laid down around areas with _________.
-preexisting blood vessels
32
What are interstitial lamellae?
Lamellae remaining from osteons partially destroyed by osteoclasts during growth and remodeling of bone.
p.145 Junq
33
In both endochondral and intramembranous ossification , the first bone tissue to appear is ___________.
Temporary woven bone; which is soon replaced by stronger lamellar bone.
p.148 Junq
34
Most flat bones begin to form via _______ ossification within _______ of __________.
Intramembranous ossification within condensations (membranes) of embryonic mesenchymal tissue.
35
Gives six examples of bones that initially form via intramembranous ossification.
1-2.) The frontal and parietal bones of the skull
3-4.) Parts of the occipital and temporal bones
5-6.) The mandible and maxilla
— are all produced initially by intramembranous ossification.
p.149 Junq
36
The _______/______ is responsible for the growth in length of the bone and disappears at adulthood, causing bone growth to cease.
epiphyseal cartilage/plate
| p.151 Junq
37
Is any bone growth possible once the epiphyseal plates close?
Yes – bone widening may occur, though LENGTHENING of the bone does not occur after closure.
p.151 Junq
38
During embryonic muscle development, _______ fuse, forming _____ with many ______.
mesenchymal myoblasts fuse, forming myotubes with many nuclei.
p.191 Junq
39
What is the characteristic nuclear location unique to skeletal muscle fibers/cells?
Elongated nuclei found peripherally, just under the sarcolemma.
40
A small population of reserve muscle progenitor cells called _________ remains adjacent to most fibers of differentiated skeletal muscle.
muscle satellite cells
| p.192 Junq
41
Individual muscle fibers ______ from one end of a muscle to the other.
seldom extend from one end to the other, thus, collagen in these CTs serve to transmit the mechanical force over the entire muscle.
p.192 Junq
42
______ in these connective tissue layers of muscle serve to transmit the mechanical forces generated by the contracting muscle cells/fibers.
Collagen
43
What protein is present throughout the entire A-band?
Myosin (thick filaments)
44
Which sarcomere band contains only thin filaments?
It runs between which bands?
Which sarcomeric structure transects this band?
I-band; runs from A-band to A-band.
| The I-band is transected by the Z-DISC.
45
________ and _______ are found between the myofibrils of skeletal muscle.
Mitochondria and sarcoplasmic reticulum
46
The I-band is composed primarily of _______ and ______.
F-actin (thin myofilaments) and titin.
47
Describe the composition of myosin in skeletal muscle.
Two heavy chains (twisted together to form the myosin tail region), and two pairs of light chains (i.e. four light chains) forming the head region at the end of each heavy chain.
p.194 Junq
48
What do myosin heads bind (2)?
Actin and ATP
49
What gives I-bands their characteristic staining quality?
Light-staining is imparted upon I-bands due to the fact that I-bands consist of the portions of thin filaments THAT DO NOT OVERLAP WITH THE THICK FILAMENTS.
50
What protein supports the thick myofilaments and connects them to the Z-discs?
Titin.
51
What accessory protein specifies the length of actin polymers during myogenesis? What is another important role of this protein?
Nebulin; it also binds each thin filament laterally, anchoring them to alpha-actin.
52
What gives A-bands their characteristic staining quality?
Dark staining due to the A-band containing both thick filaments and the overlapping portions of thin filaments.
53
What forms F-actin filaments?
Two globular G-actin molecules that polymerize to form a double-stranded helix – the F-actin filament.
54
Each ______ molecule of the thin filament has a binding site for myosin.
G-actin
55
What enzyme helps to supply ATP for muscle contraction? What does it do?
Creatine Kinase: It catalyzes the transfer of phosphate groups from phosphocreatine to ADP.
p.195 Junq
56
The T-tubules encircle every myofibril near the aligned ____ and ____ boundaries of sarcomeres.
A- and I-band boundaries.
57
______ and ______ shorten in width during contraction as actin filaments slide past one another.
I- band and H-zone shorten in width during contraction as actin filaments slide past one another.
58
What is the most notable histologic difference distinguishing articular cartilage from other types/locations?
No perichondrium in articular cartilage.
59
Describe the relative proportions of spongy to compact bone in the shaft of bones compared to the ends.
- In the shaft, almost the entire thickness of the bone tissue is compact; at most, only a small amount of spongy bone faces the marrow cavity.
- At the ends of the bone, the reverse is true. Here the spongy bone is extensive, and the compact bone consists of little more than a thin outer shell.
p. 220 Ross
60
If a bone forms a freely moveable/synovial joint, _____ cartilage is present.
Hyaline
61
What is trabeculae?
Where is it found?
What does their aggregation form?
- Trabeculae are thin, anastomosing spicules of bone tissue found within the interior of spongy bone.
- They forms a spongelike meshwork; the spaces in the meshwork being continuous, and, in living bone, are occupied by marrow and blood vessels.
p. 219 Ross
62
What is a triad, in relation to skeletal muscle?
| Where are they located?
- The complex of a T-tubule and two adjacent (closely associated), small terminal cisterns of SR.
- Located near the aligned A- and I-band boundaries of sarcomeres.
63
Binding actin produces a conformational change or pivot in the myosins, which pulls the thin filaments farther into the _____-band, toward the _____.
Farther into the A-band, toward the Z-disc (I guess...).
Titin compresses and Z-discs come CLOSER TOGETHER.
p.197 Junq
64
In the absence of ATP, the actin-myosin crossbridges become ______, which accounts for the rigidity of skeletal muscles (______) that occurs as ______ activity stops after death.
- become stable.
- rigor mortis
- mitochondrial activity
p. 198 Junq
65
In skeletal muscle, myelinated motor nerves branch out within the ______ connective tissue, where each nerve gives rise to several unmyelinated terminal twigs that pass through ______ and form synapses with _______.
- perimysium
- endomysium
- individual muscle fibers
p. 198 Junq
66
What are junctional folds within the context sarcolemma?
| What are they for?
- Sarcolemmal folds adjacent to the synaptic cleft that provide a greater postsynaptic SA and more transmembrane ACh receptors.
p. 198 Junq
67
Innervation of _____ muscle fibers by _____ motor neurons provides precise control of muscle activity and occurs, for example, in the _____ muscles.
- single muscle fibers by single motor neurons
| - extraocular muscles.
68
What is the role of the muscle spindles? Describe
| What are their fibers called?
- Stretch detectors strewn amongst the muscle fascicles.
| - Their fibers are called INTRAFUSAL fibers.
69
What is a general description of Type IA muscle fibers (3 words)
Slow, oxidative fibers
70
What is a general description of Type IIB muscle fibers (3 words)
Fast, glycolytic fibers
71
Muscles that are often active with slow contractions for long periods (Type ____) tend to have more ______ for _______ and _____ production and to have a higher density of surrounding ______.
- Type I
- More mitochondria for oxidative phosphorylation and ATP production.
- Higher density of surrounding capillaries.
p. 204 Junq
72
Type I fibers have high levels of the cytoplasmic protein ______, which contains ____ and stores ______ molecules, giving such fibers a _____ color in fresh tissue.
- myoglobin
- contains iron and stores oxygen molecules
- a red color.
73
Muscles specialized for short-term work and fast contractions (Type _____) are typically _____ in diameter and depend more heavily on _____ (______) metabolism of ______, much of which is derived from stored glycogen.
- Type IIa or b
- larger in diameter
- anaerobic (glycolytic) metabolism of glucose
74
Describe I-fibers
Intermediate between type 1A and type 2B.
75
Differentiation of muscle into red, white, and intermediate fibers is partly controlled by the __________________, and fibers of a single motor unit are ________.
- frequency of impulses from its motor innervation
| - of the same type
76
Cells within a cardiac muscle fiber often branch and bind to _________.
-cells in adjacent fibers
77
Unlike skeletal muscle, each cardiac muscle cell possesses __(a number)__ ______-located, _____-staining nuclei.
-1 or 2 centrally-located, pale-staining nuclei
78
Compare the T-tubules and SR between skeletal muscle and cardiac muscle.
T-tubules are LARGER AND MORE NUMEROUS in cardiac muscle than in skeletal muscle, though the SR is LESS ABUNDANT in cardiac muscle than in skeletal muscle.
p.206 Junq
79
Compare the percentage of cytoplasmic volume occupied by mitochondria between skeletal and cardiac muscle
Cardiac – 40%
Skeletal – 2%
*Many more in CARDIAC MUSCLE*
80
______ granules are often found near the nuclei of cardiac muscle cells.
Lipofuscin pigment
81
Atrial muscle cells are somewhat ______ than ventricular muscles, with markedly fewer ______.
- smaller
| - T tubules
82
Explain how the contractile cells of the heart’s atria also serve an endocrine function.
Membrane-limited cytoplasmic granules release the peptide hormone *atrial natriuretic factor (ANF)* that acts on target cells in the kidney to affect Na+ excretion and water balance.
p.206 Junq
83
Short membrane invaginations, called ______, are often frequent at the smooth muscle cell surface.
caveolae
| p.208 Junq
84
Smooth muscle fibers have rudimentary _____, but lack ______.
- Rudimentary SR
- Lack T-tubules.
p. 208 Junq
85
What are the intermediate filaments associated with smooth muscle?
What is their function?
- Desmin and Vimentin intermediate filaments
- They form networks which support the contractile elements of smooth muscle, e.g. dense bodies.
p. 332 Ross
86
Smooth muscle is not under voluntary control, and its fibers lack _____.
MEPs
| p.209 Junq
87
What determines whether smooth muscle fibers contract as small groups or throughout an entire muscle to produce waves of contraction (two things)?
It is determined largely by the degree of autonomic innervation and the density of the gap junctions.
* both conditions vary considerably in different organs*
p. 209 Junq
88
Because smooth muscle is most often _______________, its nerve supply serves primarily to modify activity rather than to ______.
- spontaneously active without nervous stimuli
- rather than to initiate it.
p. 209 Junq
89
Explain why and how smooth muscle has regenerative capabilities.
- SM is composed of simpler, smaller, mononucleated cells and, thus, is capable of a more active regenerative response.
- After injury, viable smooth muscle cells undergo mitosis and replace the damaged tissue.
p. 210 Junq
90
List the components of the conducting portion of the respiratory system (7)
nasal cavities, nasopharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, bronchioles, and terminal bronchioles
91
List the components of the respiratory portion of the respiratory system (3)
bronchioles, alveolar ducts, and alveoli
92
What are the four components of the upper respiratory tract?
- Sphenoid sinus
- Frontal sinus
- Nasal cavity
- Pharynx
93
What are the four components of the lower respiratory tract?
- Larynx
- Trachea
- Bronchi
- Lungs
94
Which kind of epithelium is present in each the superior, middle, and inferior conchae (turbinates)?
Superior conchae —> Olfactory epithelium
| Middle and Inferior conchae —> Respiratory epithelium
95
What are four functions of the nasal cavity?
1. ) Humidifies by secretions.
2. ) Warms by vascular loops.
3. ) Traps particulate matter by mucus.
4. ) IgA secretion by plasma cells.
96
The roof of the nasal cavities bear what kind of epithelium?
Olfactory
| p.343 Junq
97
1.) What is 'squamous metaplasia' and what is it caused by? 2.) Where is it most likely to occur?
1. ) A change from pseudostratified ciliated columnar to stratified squamous epithelium caused by heavy smoking, or industrial air pollution.
2. ) Occurs particularly in the mucosa of bronchi.
p. 344 Junq
98
What are two features that distinguish olfactory epithelium from respiratory epithelium?
olfactory epithelium has NO GOBLET CELLS, taller columnar cells (perhaps, confirm this!)
99
The nasal cavities open posteriorly into the _______, which is the first part of the ______ and continuous caudally with the ________, the posterior part of the oral cavity leading to the _______.
- nasopharynx
- pharynx
- continuous caudally with the oropharynx
- larynx
p. 346 Junq
100
1. ) What is the composition of the skeleton of the nasal cavity and sinuses?
2. ) Pharynx?
1. ) Cartilage/bone in nasal cavity and sinuses.
| 2. ) Skeletal muscle
101
Which cartilagenous portions of the larynx are formed by hyaline cartilage (3)?
thyroid, cricoid, and the inferior arytenoid cartilages
| p.346 Junq
102
Which cartilagenous portions of the larynx are formed by elastic cartilage (4)?
epiglottis, cuneiform, corniculate, and the superior arytenoid cartilages
p.346 Junq
103
What type of epithelium covers the vocal folds (cords) and why?
Stratified squamous epithelium – protects mucosa from abrasion and desiccation from rapid air movement.
p.348 Junq
104
Describe the vocal ligament
Dense bundle of elastic CT supporting the free edge of each fold.
p.348 Junq
105
What type of epithelium predominates in the larynx? Exceptions?
Ciliated pseudostratified columnar predominates – The luminal surface of the vocal cords is covered with stratified squamous epithelium, as is most of the epiglottis.
p.670 Ross
106
What are the contents within the lamina propria of the epiglottis (4)?
1. ) Mixed mucous and serous glands.
2. ) Areolar tissue
3. ) MALT (lymphoid tissue)
4. ) Vocal fold – vocal (elastic) ligament – vocalis (striated) muscle.
107
A thick __________ is characteristic of tracheal epithelium.
basement membrane
| p.673 Ross
108
Describe OSTEOCALCIN, i.e. where it comes from and what it does. What cofactor does it require?
Secreted by osteoblasts – it is a vitamin K dependent polypeptide which, together with various GP's binds Ca2+ ions and raises their concentration locally.
109
Define lamina propria
The lamina propria is a thin layer of loose connective tissue, or dense irregular connective tissue, which lies beneath the epithelium and together with the epithelium constitutes the mucosa.
110
The lamina propria of brochi contain crisscrossing bundles of spirally arranged ______ and ______ which become more prominent in the ___________. Why do they become more prominent?
- smooth muscle and elastic fibers
- smaller bronchial branches.
- they become more prominent because the cartilage eventually disappears and is replaced by smooth muscle (p.626 Wilson).
p. 350 Junq
111
In the primary bronchi, most cartilage rings ___________, but as the bronchial diameter decreases, cartilage rings are gradually replaced with _____________.
- nearly encircle the lumen (C-shaped hyaline cartilage ring)
- isolated plates of hyaline cartilage
p. 350 Junq
112
Like the smooth muscle and elastic fibers, _____________ ( aka ______ ) also becomes relatively more abundant as bronchi become smaller and the cartilage and other connective tissue are reduced.
Mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue (MALT)
| p.351 Junq
113
What two histologic characteristics can be used to distinguish bronchi?
1. ) Cartilage plates
2. ) Circular layer of smooth muscle
p. 676 Ross
114
Bronchioles lack both ______ and ______ when compared to the bronchi.
Mucosal glands and cartilage
| p.351 Junq
115
The ciliated epithelial lining of bronchioles begins the ____________ /________. What is its purpose?
- mucociliary apparatus / escalator.
- Important in clearing debris and mucus by moving it UPWARD along the bronchial tree and trachea.
p. 351 Junq
116
In the larger bronchioles, the epithelium is ______________, but this decreases in height and complexity to become _________ or _______ in the smallest terminal bronchioles, which are ______ of the air conducting system.
- ciliated pseudostratified columnar
- ciliated simple columnar or simple cuboidal epithelium
- the last parts of the air conducting system.
p. 351 Junq
117
The adenventita of the bronchioles contains what?
Dense connective tissue
118
1. ) Where are Clara cells present (2) and describe the morphology of Clara cells (3)
2. ) Describe their functions (4)
1. ) Terminal and respiratory brochioles
a. ) Nonciliated
b. ) Dome-shaped apical ends with c.) secretory granules.
2. ) a.)Secretion of surfactanct
b. ) Detoxification
c. ) Secretion of antimicrobial peptides
d. ) Stem cells (subpopulation)
p. 351 Junq
119
What characteristic allows Clara cells to function in detoxification?
Abundant SER
120
Small bronchioles have a _______ epithelium.
simple cuboidal
| p.677 Ross
121
Terminal bronchioles are distal to the ______, past the last _______, and lead into _____________.
- distal to the bronchi
- past the last cartilage plate
- lead into respiratory bronchioles
p. 347 Netter
122
Beyond the respiratory bronchioles are _______ and rotunda-shaped _______, which lead into _______.
- alveolar ducts
- alveolar sacs
- alveoli proper
p. 347 Netter
123
The bronchiolar lamina propria still contains ______ and _______, producing folds in the mucosa.
elastic fibers and smooth muscle
| p.351 Junq
124
The respiratory bronchiolar mucosa is structurally identical to that of the terminal bronchioles, except for _____________________.
- except for a few openings to the alveoli where gas exchange occurs.
p. 352 Junq
125
The mucosa lining of respiratory bronchioles consists of _______ cells and _______ cells, with _______ cells at the alveolar openings and extending into the alveolus.
- Clara cells and ciliated cuboidal cells
- simple squamous at the alveolar openings and extending into the alveolus.
p. 352 Junq
126
What makes up the lamina propria of respiratory bronchioles?
Smooth muscle and elastic connective tissue make up the lamina propria.
p.352 Junq
127
What type of epithelium lines the alveolar ducts and alveoli?
Simple squamous epithelium
| p.356 Junq
128
What comprises the matrix of alveolar ducts and alveoli? What is its purpose?
Elastic and collagen fibers (reticular) – enables alveoli to expand with inspiration and contract passively with expiration; reticular fibers prevent both collapse and excessive distention of alveoli.
p.356 Junq
129
Where are Alveolar pores (of Kohn) found and what is their function?
They penetrate the *interalveolar septa* (Figure 17–13, p.357 Junq) and connect neighboring alveoli that open to different bronchioles.
* The pores equalize air pressure in these alveoli and permit collateral circulation of air when a bronchiole is obstructed*
p. 356 Junq
130
What three components make up the blood-air barrier?
1. ) two to three highly attenuated, thin cells lining the alveolus.
2. ) the fused basal laminae of these cells and of the capillary endothelial cells, and
3. ) the thin endothelial cells of the capillary.
i. e. fused basement membranes of the capillary and alveoli.
p. 356 Junq AND p.634 Wilson
131
Type 1 alveolar cells are _______ cells with _____ junctions.
- squamous cells
- occluding junctions
p. 357 Junq
132
Type II pneumocytes cells often occur in groups of two or three at points where __________.
- two or more alveolar walls unite.
| p. 357 Junq
133
Type II cell nuclei are _______ and may have _______, and their cytoplasm is typically ______ stained with many _______.
- rounded and may have nucleoli.
- lightly stained with many vesicles.
p. 357 Junq
134
1. ) What is the 1˚ role of type 2 pneumocytes?
| 2. ) _______ can be considered markers for type II cells, what do they do?
1. ) Surfactant production – prevents alveolar wall collapse.
2. ) Lamellar bodies – Stores surfactant.
p. 357 Junq
135
What are the required components of pulmonary surfactant (3)?
1. ) DPPC (phospholipid)
2. ) Cholesterol
3. ) Surfactant proteins, i.e. SP (four of them – A, B, C, D).
* SP-B and SP-C are REQUIRED for the maturation of DPPC and its proper orientation in the surfactant film*
p. 358 Junq
136
How can you distinguish active dust cells from type 2 pneumocytes?
Dust cells are slightly darker due to their content of dust and carbon from air and complexed iron (hemosiderin) from erythrocytes (Figure 17–14).
p.359 Junq
137
What are the three possible fates for filled alveolar macrophages (dust cells)?
1. ) Most migrate into bronchioles where they move up the mucociliary apparatus for removal in the pharynx.
2. ) Others exit the lungs in the lymphatic drainage.
3. ) Some remain in the interalveolar septa connective tissue for years.
p. 359 Junq
138
Where are dust cells found?
Found in the alveoli and interalveolar septum.
139
What types of stains are used to identify blood and marrow cells on smears?
Romanovsky stains (e.g. Wright, Giemsa)
140
What is the purpose of the biconcave structure of RBCs?
Biconcave structure helps maximize surface-to-volume ratio for O2 exchange.
141
What method of energy production do RBCs employ? Why?
Anaerobic glycolysis – because they lack mitochondria.
| p.238 Junq
142
Why can RBCs not replace their own defective proteins?
Because they lack nuclei
143
What is the average lifespan of an RBC?
120 days
144
Describe the roles of spectrin and ankyrin in RBCs
Spectrin lattice (dimers of spectrin form the lattice) bound to underlying actin filaments are anchored to the membrane by ankyrin.
They support the bocincave shape and flexibility of the RBC membrane.
p.237 Junq
145
1. ) What do RBCs stain best with and why?
| 2. ) What characteristic does the cytoplasm of RBCs display?
1. ) Stain uniformly with EOSIN due to the acidophilia of hemoglobin.
2. ) Cytoplasmic granularity.
p. 272 Ross
146
______ hematocrit increases blood viscosity.
Elevated hematocrit.
| p.237 Junq
147
Erythrocyte differentiation includes loss of the ______ and _____, shortly before the cells are released by bone marrow into the circulation.
- nucleus and organelles
| p. 238 Junq
148
Senescent or worn-out RBCs displaying such changes are removed from the circulation, mainly by _______ of the ______, _______, and __________.
- macrophages of the spleen, liver, and bone marrow.
| p. 238 Junq
149
All granulocytes are _______ cells with a life span of _________.
- terminally differentiated cells
- only a few days
p. 238 Junq
150
Describe the Golgi complexes, RER, and mitochondria of granulocytes. How do granulocytes generate energy?
Their Golgi complexes and rough ER are poorly developed. They have few mitochondria and depend largely on glycolysis for their low energy needs.
p.238 Junq
151
What type of stain works best with agranulocytes?
The BASIC STAIN – AZURE A.
152
Describe the morphology of agranulocyte nuclei
Spherical (lymphocyte – LARGE nucleus dominates that cytoplasm) or indented (monocyte) – but NOT LOBULATED.
p.238 Junq
153
What two major types of WBCs are included in the azurophilic group?
lymphocytes and monocytes
| p.238 Junq
154
What is myeloperoxidase (MPO) and where does it come from?
- It is one of the contents of the 1˚ azurophilic granules from neutrophils.
- Generates hypochlorite and other agents toxic to bacteria.
p. 241 Junq
155
What are the three contents of the 1˚ azurophilic granules from neutrophils and what do they do?
1. ) MPO: Generates hypochlorite (toxic to bacteria).
2. ) Lysozyme: Degrades bacterial cell walls.
3. ) Defensins: Disrupts bacterial cell walls.
p. 241 Junq
156
1. ) Describe the morphology of 2˚ (specific) granules relative to the 1˚ granules (azurophilic) of neutrophils.
2. ) What are the contents of 1˚ granules and what do they do?
1. ) Specific 2˚ granules are smaller and less dense.
2. ) -Collagnases: ECM-degrading enzyme
- Bacteriocidal proteins.
p. 241 Junq
157
Give two main identifying characteristics of eosinophils (one pertaining to the nucleus).
1. ) Bilobed nucleus.
2. ) Abundance of large, acidophilic specific granules typically staining pink or red.
p. 242 Junq
158
What accounts for the granule acidophilia of eosinophils?
Major basic protein (MBP): 50% of total granule population.
| p.242 Junq
159
What is the purpose of of the specific granules within eosinophils?
To kill parasitic worms.
| p.242 Junq
160
The number of circulating eosinophils increases during ________ and _______.
Helminthic infections and allergic reactions.
| p.242 Junq
161
Eosinophils also modulate inflammatory responses by releasing what three things?
chemokines, cytokines, and lipid mediators
| p.242 Junq
162
Describe the morphology of a typical basophil nucleus
Two irregular lobes (but large granules typically obscure its shape).
p.242 Junq
163
How do the specific granules of basophils stain and with what stain?
Basophil specific granules typically stain purple with the basic dye of blood smears.
164
The strong basophilia of the granules in basophils is due to the presence of _______ and other ________.
heparin and other sulfated GAGs.
| p.243 Junq
165
What two substances (similar to those of mast cells) do basophils release in an inflammatory response and what do they do?
Histamine: Dilates blood vessels.
Heparin: Anti-coagulant.
Eosinophil chemotactic factor: ???
166
What immunoglobulin do basophils have surface receptors for?
IgE
| p.243 Junq
167
Which two types of cells are central to allergic response?
Mast cells and basophils.
168
What is the smallest type of leukocyte? Describe the morphology of its nucleus.
Lymphocytes – Belongs to a family with SPHERICAL NUCLEI.
| p.243 Junq
169
1. ) How are lymphocyte families subdivided?
| 2. ) What are the three types?
1. ) Cluster of Differentiation Markers (CD Markers).
2. ) B-lymphocytes, T-lymphocytes, natural killer (NK) cells.
p. 244 Junq
170
Compare the average size of lymphocytes to that of RBCs
≈ the same size.
| p.244 Junq
171
Monocytes are precursors to what three types of cells? Also other cells of what general family?
Macrophages, osteoclasts, microglia, and other cells of the mononuclear phagocyte system in CT.
p.245 Junq
172
All monocyte-derived cells are ________ cells and have important roles in _______ of tissues.
antigen-presenting cells and have important roles in immune defense of tissues.
p.245 Junq
173
The cytoplasm of the monocyte is ______ and contains many small _______ or ______ granules
basophilic and contains many small lysosomes or azurophilic granules
p.245 Junq
174
What organelles are present in monocyte?
Mitochondria and small areas of rough ER are present, along with a Golgi apparatus involved in the formation of lysosomes.
p.245 Junq
175
Describe the morphology of the monocyte nucleus
The monocyte nucleus is large and usually distinctly indented or C-shaped.
p.245 Junq
176
What is the origin of platelets?
Fragments of cytoplasm *derived from MEGAKARYOCYTES in bone marrow*
177
1. ) What is the functions of platelets?
| 2. ) What is their circulating lifespan?
1. ) Platelets promote blood clotting and help repair minor tears or leaks in the walls of small blood vessels, preventing loss of blood from the microvasculature.
2. ) ≈ 10 days
p. 246 Junq
178
What are the two distinct regions of platelets?
1. ) Hyalomere: Very light peripheral zone.
2. ) Granulomere: Dark central zone.
p. 246 Junq
179
Name and describe four features of platelets on EM
1. ) Glycocalyx: Involved in adhesion and activation during blood coagulation.
2. ) Marginal bundle: Peripheral bundles of microtubules and microfilaments that help maintain the platelets shape.
3. ) Open canalicular system: Vesicles connected to invaginations of the plasma membrane – may facilitate platelets' uptake of factors from plasma.
4. ) Dense tubular system: Derived from ER – Stores Ca2+ ions.
p. 247 Junq AND p.148 Wilson (good image)
180
1. ) Where are dense (delta) granules found and what do they do?
2. ) Alpha granules?
1. ) Platelets – Electron-dense granules that contain ADP, ATP, and serotonin taken up from plasma.
2. ) Platelets – Contain platelet-derived growth factor (PDGF).
p. 247 Junq
181
Most of the stained granules seen in platelets with the LM are _______ granules.
Alpha
| pp.247-248 Junq
182
Describe the origin of platelets
```
Membranes partition megakaryocyte (MKCs) cytoplasm into individual platelets.
-MKCs extend long processes called protoplatelets into lumen of sinusoids (in marrow).
-Platelets separate from the ends of protoplatelet cytoplasmic processes.
#43, p.149 Wilson
```
183
Describe the four roles of platelets in homeostasis
1.) Aggregate at site of injury to control blood loss from leaks in vasculature.
2.) Promote formation of a FIBRIN blood clot.
3.) Cause clot RETRACTION.
4.) Play role in activating PLASMIN to lyse blood clot.
#44
184
List the sites of hematopoiesis during the embryonic period, second, and thirds trimesters.
Early embryo – Yolk sac mesoderm.
Second trimester – Liver (1˚) and spleen (2˚).
Third trimester – Bone marrow.
185
Under certain conditions, such as _______ or ______, yellow marrow reverts to red.
severe bleeding or hypoxia
| p.251 Junq
186
The hematopoietic niche in marrow includes what three things?
the stroma, osteoblasts, and megakeryocytes.
| p.254 Junq
187
Within hematopoietic bone marrow, between the hematopoietic cords run the _______, which have ___________, through which newly differentiated blood cells and platelets enter the circulation (Figure 13–5).
- sinusoids
- discontinuous endothelium
p. 254 Junq
188
What is Nissl stain? What does it bind/what acid-base qualities does it bear?
Nervous tissue stain – Similar to hematoxylin; basophilic stain that binds to DNA structures: RER, ribosomes, Nissl bodies.
189
From which embryonic structures do the CNS and PNS originate?
CNS: Neural tube.
PNS: Neural crest cells – cells that separated and migrated from neuroepithelium (mesenchymal in origin).
pp.160-161 Junq
190
When and where does nervous tissue begin to develop?
Develops from ectoderm (outermost of the three early embryonic layers) beginning in the 3rd week of development.
191
1. ) Where are bipolar neurons found (4)?
| 2. ) Where are pseudounipolar neurons found?
1. ) Found in retina, olfactory mucosa, and the inner ear/cochlear and vestibular ganglia.
2. ) Sensory neurons in DRG (spinal ganglia).
p. 161 Junq
192
What are the intermediate filaments of neurons and where are they found?
Neurofilaments – found in the cell bodies and processes.
| p.164 Junq
193
What is the function of dendrites?
- Principal signal reception and processing sites on neurons.
- Make it possible for one neuron to receive and integrate a great number of axon terminals from other nerve cells.
p. 164 Junq
194
Most synapses impinging on neurons occur on _________.
dendritic spines
| p.164 Junq
195
What part of the neuron serves as the initial processing sites for synaptic signals?
Dendritic spine
| p.164 Junq
196
What three organelles are NOT found in axons?
RER, Nissl bodies, free ribosomes.
197
What three structures (two are organelles) are found in the greatest numbers at a presynaptic terminal?
1. ) Synaptic vesicles (containing NTs).
2. ) Mitochondria
3. ) Smooth ER
p. 166 Junq
198
Excitatory neurons are _____ mediated. Name three excitatory NTs.
- Na+ mediated (depolarizing).
| - ACh, glutamate, serotonin.
199
Inhibitory neurons are _____ mediated. Name two inhibitory NTs.
- Cl- mediated (hyperpolarizing)
| - GABA, glycine
200
Define anterograde and retrograde transport and their associated motor proteins.
Anterograde: From cell body to terminals (periphery).
• Kinesin.
Retrograde: From terminals (periphery) to cell body.
• Dynein.
201
What is neuropil?
The fibrous intercellular network surrounding cells of the CNS.
p.167 Junq
202
Which types of astrocytes predominate in white matter, and which in gray matter?
Fibrous Astrocytes: Typical in white matter.
Protoplasmic Astrocytes: Predominate in gray matter.
p.170 Junq
203
What are the intermediate filaments associated with astrocytes? What is their clinical significance?
- Glial fibrillary acid protein (GFAP): Bundles of intermediate filaments that reinforce the larger processes of astrocytes.
- Serves as a unique marker for astrocytes – the MOST COMMON SOURCE OF BRAIN TUMORS.
p. 170 Junq
204
What is CSF? What cells creates and moves it and where are they located?
```
Cerebrospinal Fluid (CSF): An ultrafiltrate of plasma created by EPENDYMAL CELLS located in the ventricles of the brain and central canal of spinal cord.
pp.172-173 Junq
```
205
Unlike other glial cells, microglia can ________, scanning the tissue for ________ and _______.
- migrate through the neuropil.
- damaged cells and invading microorganisms.
p. 173 Junq
206
What is the origin of microglia?
Originate from CIRCULATING BLOOD MONOCYTES – belonging to the same family as macrophages and other ANTIGEN-PRESENTING CELLS (monocytes).
p.173 Junq
207
How does one histologically demonstrate microglial processes?
Immunohistochemistry using antibodies against cell surface antigens of immune cells demonstrates microglial processes.
p.173 Junq
208
What are the differences between Schwann cells and oligodendrocytes?
Schwann: PNS only, one or many Schwann to myelinate ONE AXON.
Oligodendrocyte: CNS only, one OD can myelinate MANY axons.
p.174 Junq
209
What is the origin of Schwann cells?
They differentiate from precursors in the NEURAL CREST.
| p.174 Junq
210
What is the role of satellite cells and where are they found?
- They form an intimate covering over the large neuronal cell bodies in the ganglia of the PNS.
- Regulation of the microenvironment.
p. 174 Junq
211
Blood vessels penetrate the CNS through long _________ covered by _______.
Long perivascular spaces covered by pia mater.
| p.176 Junq
212
Where (specifically) are ependymal cells found?
Covering the pia mater located on the villus of the choroid plexus.
p.179 Junq
213
What are the components of CSF?
Made from water removed from blood; contains Na+, K+, and Cl-, but very little protein.
p.179 Junq
214
The ____________ determines whether the ganglion will be a sensory or an autonomic ganglion.
direction of the nerve impulse
| p.184 Junq
215
What are the two main roles of perineurium?
- Surround fascicles of nerves.
| - Blood nerve barrier.
216
Give the function (and description) and relative collagen distribution for the layered nerve coverings (epi-, endo-, peri-). Which is most prevalent?
- Epineurium: Dense CT; External nerve covering.
1: 1 ratio of Type I and Type III.
-Perineurium: Surrounds fascicles; blood-nerve barrier.
Types III & IV.
-Endoneurium: Loose CT surrounding individual fibers.
Mostly Type I – *merges with Type IV*
*Type 1 most prevalent*
217
Describe the three coatings of muscle (where they lie) and their relative collagen distributions (epimysium, perimysium, endomysium).
Epimysium: Surrounds the muscle.
• Mostly Type I; little type III.
Perimysium: Envelops fascicles.
• Types I, III, and V.
Endomesium: Envelops each fiber.
• Types I, III, IV, and V.
218
Where is ANP created and what does it do?
Created in ATRIAL MYOCYTES – ANP lowers BP by causing the body to excrete increased concentrations of Na+.
p.273 Wilson
219
Where is the SA node (what chamber and near what important vessel) and what contraction does it stimulate?
SA node (pacemaker): Wall of R atrium, near superior vena cava.
- Stimulates atrial contraction.
p. 214 Junq
220
The coronary arteries (main vessels that supply the heart) are located in which tissue layer?
EPICARDIUM
221
Where does the cardiac skeleton attach?
chordae tendineae
| p.214 Junq
222
What are the three functions of the cardiac skeleton?
1. ) Anchoring and supporting the heart valves
2. ) Providing firm points of insertion for cardiac muscle
3. ) Helping coordinate the heartbeat by acting as electrical insulation between atria and ventricles.
p. 214 Junq
223
1. ) Name the two AV valves and which side they are on
| 2. ) What closes the valve, and what prevents back flow (i.e. collapse of the valve into the previous chamber)?
1.) Tricuspid valve: Right side (tRicuspid = Right)
Bicuspid valve – aka Mitral valve: Left side
2.) BP pressure closes valve; Chordae Tendineae: Prevent valve prolapse.
224
What is the state of the four valves (open or closed) during relaxation and contraction?
1. ) Relaxation
- Tricuspid (R): Open
- Mitral: Open
- Aortic: Closed
- Pulmonary: Closed
2. ) Contraction
- Tricuspid (R): Closed
- Mitral: Closed
- Aortic: Open
- Pulmonary: Open
225
Arterial blood ______ and _______ become less variable as distance from the heart increases.
VELOCITY AND PRESSURE
| p.218 Junq
226
High capillary blood flow in the skin allows ______ of heat, while reduced capillary blood flow allows _______ of heat.
- dissipation
- conservation
p. 223 Junq
227
1. ) What do arteriovenous shunts do/what are they?
2. ) The media and adventitia are ______ in these arteriovenous shunts (or arteriovenous anastomoses) and richly innervated by ______ and ______ nerve fibers.
1.) They are arterioles that can bypass capillary networks and connect directly to venules (e.g. for thermoregulation).
2. ) Thicker
- sympathetic and parasympathetic nerve fibers.
p. 223 Junq
228
What is the function of the portal system?
1st capillary bed (receiving molecules) —> Portal vein —> 2nd capillary bed (distributing molecules in high concentration)
This arrangement allows molecules entering the blood in the first set of capillaries to be delivered quickly and at high concentrations to surrounding tissues at the second capillary bed, which is important in the anterior pituitary gland and liver.
p.224 Junq
229
The _______ gets thicker as veins get larger.
Adventitia
230
Low pressure blood entering veins get back to the heart how? (two ways)
1. ) By contraction of smooth muscle fibers in the MEDIA.
2. ) By external compressions from surrounding muscles and other organs.
p. 227 Junq
231
In veins, valves project from the ______ to prevent backflow of blood.
tunica intima
| p.227 Junq
232
1. ) What layer tends to be most prominent in veins?
| 2. ) Arteries?
1. ) Adventita
| 2. ) Media
233
Large Veins: The adventitial layer is thicker than the _____ in large veins and frequently contains _______________.
- Thicker than the media
- longitudinal bundles of smooth muscle
p. 227 Junq
234
Junctions between _________ are the loosest of the microvasculature. What characteristic bodily response does this facilitate?
- endothelial cells of postcapillary venules
- characteristic loss of fluid here during the inflammatory response, leading to TISSUE EDEMA.
p. 228 Junq
235
Where does lymph empty back into the blood? (two places)
Lymphatic vessels ultimately converge as two large trunks: 1.) Thoracic duct (near junction of left internal jugular and left subclavian veins) and...
2.) Right lymphatic duct (near confluence of right subclavian and right internal jugular veins).
Both of which empty lymph back into the blood.
p.228 Junq
236
Lymph vessels facilitate the spread of what three things throughout the body? What is the medical implication?
pathogens, parasites, and malignant cells.
- These can disrupt lymphatic drainage and produce swelling or LYMPH EDEMA.
p. 228 Junq
237
Hypertension is due to a wide variety of mechanisms that increase _____________.
arteriolar constriction
| p.222 Junq
238
True capillaries branch from _________.
metarterioles
| p.225 Junq
239
At the beginning of each true capillary, precapillary sphincters (muscle fibers) contract and relax _______, causing blood to pass through capillaries in a _______ manner.
- contract and relax CYCLICALLY (5-10 cycles per min).
- Pulsatile manner.
p. 225 Junq
240
_______ is more abundant in the interterritorial parts of the collagen matrix.
Collagen.
241
Describe the staining characteristics of immature and mature bone, which stain works best and why.
- The matrix in immature bone stains more intensely with hematoxylin (because the matrix of immature bone has more ground substance than does the matrix of mature bone).
- The matrix of mature bone stains more intensely with eosin.
p. 223 Ross
242
Volkmann’s canals are not surrounded by __________, a key feature in their histologic identification.
concentric lamellae
| p.222 Ross
243
_______ is not associated with bone development in intramembranous ossification.
Hyaline cartilage.
244
Close to the endosteum (lining spongy bone – adjacent to marrow cavity), you will find the _______, because most ________ occurs near the spongy bone on the inside.
- osteoclasts
| - resorption
245
When and where do 1˚ and 2˚ ossification centers appear?
1˚ Ossification Centers: Ossification within the diaphysis.
*Begins in many bones as early as the first trimester*
2˚ Ossification Centers: Appear later at the epiphyses of the cartilage model and develop in a similar manner.
*Appear at around the time of birth*
246
In what blood centrifugation layer will fibrinogen be found?
Plasma
247
What are cytokines? What releases them?
- Factors released that trigger loosening of intercellular junctions in endothelial cells of local postcapillary venules.
- Released by macrophages.
248
1. ) At which stage of erythropoiesis does Hb begin to fill cytoplasm? What morphologic changes occur due to this?
2. ) What other major change occurs at this stage?
1. ) Polychromatophilic Erythroblast: The largely basophilic (from ribosomes and RER synthesizing RNA for Hb) cytoplasm starts to show EOSINOPHILIA from Hb.
2. ) Nucleus becomes pyknotic and displaces toward the edge of the cell.
249
Describe the three functions of colony stimulating factor (and what are CSFs?).
1) Glycoproteins that stimulate proliferation of progenitor and precursor cells
2) Promote cell differentiation and…
3) Maturation within specific lineages.
p. 251 Junq
* Essentially, they affect–
1. ) cell division
2. ) differentiation or
3. ) cell function.
p. 297 Ross
250
1. ) At which stage does the first visible sign of specific granules appear during differentiation of granulocytes?
2. ) When do 1˚ azurophilic granules appear?
1. ) MYELOCYTE (3rd stage) —> p.257 Junq.
| 2. ) 1˚ azurophilic granules (blue/purple) seen during promyelocyte stage.
251
Where are the CSFs for erythropoiesis (erythropoietin) and thrombopoiesis (thrombopoietin) synthesized?
erythropoiesis (erythropoietin) – KIDNEY cells
thrombopoiesis (thrombopoietin) – LIVER hepatocytes
p.297 Ross
252
1. ) Which cardiac tissue layer(s) makes pericardial fluid?
| 2. ) Where does it secrete into? Lined by what?
1. ) Serous pericardial layer – Parietal (outer portion) and Visceral (inner portion – aka Epicardium) pericardium.
2. ) Pericardial cavity (between visceral and parietal); lined by mesothelium.
253
The great vessels enter and leave the heart as the ______ pericardium.
Parietal – roots the great vessels.
254
The pericardial cavity is lined by ______ cells.
Mesothelial cells.
255
The epicardium is a simple squamous _________ supported by a layer of loose connective tissue containing blood vessels and nerves
mesothelium
| p.213 Junq
256
The external tunic of the heart, the epicardium, is the site
| of the _______ _______ and contains considerable __________.
- coronary vessels
- adipose tissue
p. 216 Junq
257
1. ) Purkinje fibers are essentially ________ cells.
| 2. ) How are they different?
1. ) Modified cardiac muscle cells (contractile AND conductive).
2. ) Larger in diameter, fewer myofibrils, paler staining (due to glycogen).
p. 269 Wilson
258
How do Purkinje fibers stain relative to normal cardiac muscle cells? Why?
Lighter because of GLYCOGEN in their cytoplasm
259
1. ) Where is the AV node?
2. ) AV bundles (of His)?
3. ) What and where do the fiber go after the AV bundles?
1. ) Floor of the right atrium
2. ) IV septum down to the apex
3. ) Branch into Purkinje fibers that extend into myocardium of the ventricles.
p. 214 Junq
260
What are the junctional components of intercalated discs?
Desmosomes, fascia adherens, gap junctions.
261
1. ) Describe the location of the coronary arteries in terms of tissue layers and where they receive blood.
2. ) At which cardiac stage do they receive blood and how?
1. ) Located in the epicardium behind cusps of aortic valves (sinuses).
2. ) Feeds the heart during DIASTOLE – Elastic rebound forces blood through coronary arteries between contractions.
262
Right Ventricle tends to be ______-SHAPED
Left Ventricle tends to be _____-SHAPED
R ventricle: POUCH-shaped
| L Ventricle: CIRCLE-shaped
263
Adventitia of large vessels contains _________ fibers (______ nerves)
- autonomic unmyelinated
| - vasomotor
264
The _______ layer of elastic arteries contains smaller blood vessels, the _______, which supply the outer half of the _______.
- adventitial
- vasa vasorum
- tunica media
p. 274 Wilson
265
What are the four functions of tunica intima?
1. ) Regulates vascular tone and blood flow – Relaxation (NO) or Constriction (ACE).
2. ) Inflammation and local immune response (pro- or anti-inflammation).
3. ) Secretes growth factors promoting proliferation of WBCs (growth inhibition or promotion)
4. ) Anti- or prothrombosis (present an anti-thrombotic surface on which blood will not clot – secretes HEPARIN).
266
1. ) Describe the location (layer) and morphology of olfactory receptor cell nuclei.
2. ) The Olfactory receptor cells function as ______ neurons whose axons penetrate the ______ to join the ______.
1. ) Middle layer, ciliated, their apical swelling being the dendritic process.
2. ) Bipolar neurons, penetrate the basement membrane to joint the olfactory nerve.
p. 616 Wilson
267
1. ) What is another name for small granule cells?
2. ) What type of cell are they and what do they secrete?
3. ) Where are they found?
1. ) Kulchitsky cells
2. ) Neuroendocrine cells – secretes SEROTONIN.
3. ) Found in respiratory epithelium of the trachea.
p. 623 Wilson
268
What changes do the bronchi undergo as they branch distally (3)?
Walls become thinner with the loss of cartilage plates and the presence of a more simplified epithelium.
p.624 Wilson
269
1. ) There are no mucous glands starting at what respiratory level? Why?
2. ) What related structures still persist below this level and why?
1. ) Bronchioles (Intrapulmonary bronchi right proximal have seromucous), because you don't want mucous near the airways.
2. ) Ciliated cells; because if mucous or other matter does get down there, you want to be able to remove it.
270
_________ becomes relatively more abundant as bronchi become smaller and the cartilage and other connective tissue are reduced.
mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue (MALT)
| p.351 Junq
271
At what respiratory level do goblet cells end? What other distinguishing characteristics does this level have?
Terminal bronchioles – Simple cuboidal and Clara cells.
272
At what respiratory levels are Clara cells found?
Primary and terminal bronchioles.
273
______ ______ are distinct feature of the brush cell.
Blunt microvilli
274
Smooth muscle around the alveolar openings appears as _______ “______” between adjacent alveoli.
eosinophilic “knobs”
| p.356 Junq
275
Alveoli form outpockets from the ______ and are lined by ________.
- from the Alveolar sac
- Lined by flattened type I pneumocytes
p. 632 Wilson
276
What is the most abundant PG in hyaline cartilage and what are its two main GAGs?
Aggrecan – with chondroitin and keratan sulfate GAGs.
