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Histology > Exam #2 > Flashcards

Exam #2 Flashcards

1
Q

_______ cartilage has no perichondrium, rather, it receives nutrients from _______.

A

Articular cartilage

synovial fluid

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2
Q

During embryonic development, the differentiation of cartilage takes place primarily from the ______ ______; therefore the more central cells have the characteristics of ________, whereas the peripheral cells are typical ______. The ________ forms the perichondrium.

A
  • center outward
  • chondrocytes
  • chondroblasts
  • superficial mesenchyme
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3
Q

Define interstitial growth and where it occurs; give an example

A

Mitotic division of preexisting chondroblasts in the MATRIX.

e.g. in articular cartilage and epiphyseal plates of long bones for length increase.

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4
Q

Define appositional growth and where it occurs; give an example

A

Involves differentiation of new chondroblasts from the perichondrium. Occurs in the PERICHONDRIUM.
e.g. postnatal development.

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5
Q

Multiplication of chondroblasts within the matrix gives rise to ________ surrounded by a condensation of _______.

A
  • isogenous cell aggregates

- territorial matrix

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6
Q

Give three characteristics of chondroblasts (e.g. location, appearance)

A
  1. ) At the periphery of the cartilage
  2. ) Have an elliptic shape
  3. ) Long axis parallel to the surface
    p. 132 Junq
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7
Q

Damaged cartilage undergoes ____ and _____ repair, primarily by activity of cells from the ______.

A
  • slow and often incomplete repair.

- perichondrium

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8
Q

In extensively damaged areas, the perichondrium produces a ________ instead of _______.

A

-scar of dense connective tissue instead of forming new cartilage.

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9
Q

The most numerous PG in cartilage is ______, what does it do within the context of the function of cartilage?

A

Aggrecan –binds large amounts of water.

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10
Q

What are four stains used to visualize elastic tissue?

A
  1. ) Verhoeff
  2. ) Weigert
  3. ) Resorcin fuscin
  4. ) Silver stain
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11
Q

What are the three mechanical and one metabolic function of bone?

A

Mechanical: Protection of vital organs, harbors bone marrow, attachment site for muscles.

Metabolic: Ca2+, PO3- reservoir.

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12
Q

Which bone cells secrete organic components of bone matrix? What are the components?

A

Osteoblasts: collagen type I, PGs, osteonectin (glycoprotein).

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13
Q

Mature osteoblasts are located exclusively _________, usually _______ in a layer somewhat resembling a simple epithelium

A
  • at the surfaces of bone matrix

- side by side

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14
Q

When actively engaged in matrix synthesis, osteoblasts have a ______ shape and ______ cytoplasm. When their synthesizing activity declines, they _____ and ______ is reduced

A
  • cuboidal to columnar shape
  • basophilic cytoplasm
  • flatten
  • basophilia is reduced
    p. 138 Junq, p.251 Ross
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15
Q

________ represent most of the flattened bone lining cells in both the endosteum and periosteum.

A

Inactive osteoblasts

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16
Q

Osteoblasts secrete ______ containing what three things?

A
  • osteoid

- collagen type I, proteoglycans and other molecules, and matrix vesicles.

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17
Q

The process of bone appositional growth is completed by subsequent deposition of ______ into the newly formed matrix.

A

calcium salts

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18
Q

Osteoblasts are ______ cells: matrix components are secreted at the cell surface in contact with _______, producing a layer of new (but not yet _____) material called _______ between the _____ layer and _______.

A
  • polarized cells
  • existing bone matrix
  • not yet calcified material called osteoid.
  • between the osteoblast layer and the preexisting bone surface.
    pp. 140-141 Junq
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19
Q

With high concentrations of both _____ and ______, _______ serve as foci for the formation of _______ crystals, the first visible step in calcification.

A
  • calcium and phosphate ions
  • matrix vesicles
  • hydroxyapatite
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20
Q

_____ processes come to occupy the many ______ that radiate from each lacuna.

A
  • Osteocytic

- canaliculi

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21
Q

Diffusion of metabolites between _____ and blood vessels occurs through the small amount of extracellular fluid between the bone matrix and the ______ and their ______.

A
  • osteocytes

- osteocytes and their processes

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22
Q

Osteocytes also communicate with one another via _______ on the ______ in the ______ and on osteoblasts and bone lining cells.

A
  • gap junctions

- dendritic processes in the canaliculi

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23
Q

Describe the shape of osteocytes and their main differences from osteoblasts (3)

A
  • Flat, almond-shaped.
    1. ) Significantly less RER
    2. ) Smaller Golgi complexes
    3. ) More condensed nuclear chromatin
    p. 142 Junq
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24
Q

What is the main function of osteocytes?

A

Maintaining the bony matrix and regulating bone remodeling.

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25
Q

The death of osteocytes through trauma is followed by ______ (by _____ activity), followed by ________.

A

Rapid matrix resorption (by osteoclast activity), followed by repair or remodeling of the bone tissue by osteoblast activity.

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26
Q

Describe the staining properties of decalcified bone matrix. What gives it this property?

A

Acidophilic –due to high collagen content.

p.143 Junq

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27
Q

What binds the periosteum to bone? Describe

A

Bundles of periosteal collagen fibers, called perforating (or Sharpey) fibers, penetrate the bone matrix, binding the periosteum to bone.

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28
Q

What is osteonectin and where does it come from?

A
  • It is a glycoprotein secreted by osteoblasts.

- Anchors mineral components to collagen.

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29
Q

Where are osteoprogenitor cells (aka _____) located?

A
  • aka Mesenchymal stem cells

- inner region of Perisosteum (more cellular layer)

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30
Q

What are the principal functions of the periosteum (2)?

A

The principal functions of periosteum are to nourish the osseous tissue and provide a continuous supply of new osteoblasts for appositional bone growth or repair.

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31
Q

All central osteonic canals and perforating canals come into existence when matrix is laid down around areas with _________.

A

-preexisting blood vessels

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32
Q

What are interstitial lamellae?

A

Lamellae remaining from osteons partially destroyed by osteoclasts during growth and remodeling of bone.
p.145 Junq

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33
Q

In both endochondral and intramembranous ossification , the first bone tissue to appear is ___________.

A

Temporary woven bone; which is soon replaced by stronger lamellar bone.
p.148 Junq

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34
Q

Most flat bones begin to form via _______ ossification within _______ of __________.

A

Intramembranous ossification within condensations (membranes) of embryonic mesenchymal tissue.

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35
Q

Gives six examples of bones that initially form via intramembranous ossification.

A

1-2.) The frontal and parietal bones of the skull
3-4.) Parts of the occipital and temporal bones
5-6.) The mandible and maxilla
— are all produced initially by intramembranous ossification.
p.149 Junq

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36
Q

The _______/______ is responsible for the growth in length of the bone and disappears at adulthood, causing bone growth to cease.

A

epiphyseal cartilage/plate

p.151 Junq

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37
Q

Is any bone growth possible once the epiphyseal plates close?

A

Yes –bone widening may occur, though LENGTHENING of the bone does not occur after closure.
p.151 Junq

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38
Q

During embryonic muscle development, _______ fuse, forming _____ with many ______.

A

mesenchymal myoblasts fuse, forming myotubes with many nuclei.
p.191 Junq

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39
Q

What is the characteristic nuclear location unique to skeletal muscle fibers/cells?

A

Elongated nuclei found peripherally, just under the sarcolemma.

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40
Q

A small population of reserve muscle progenitor cells called _________ remains adjacent to most fibers of differentiated skeletal muscle.

A

muscle satellite cells

p.192 Junq

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41
Q

Individual muscle fibers ______ from one end of a muscle to the other.

A

seldom extend from one end to the other, thus, collagen in these CTs serve to transmit the mechanical force over the entire muscle.
p.192 Junq

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42
Q

______ in these connective tissue layers of muscle serve to transmit the mechanical forces generated by the contracting muscle cells/fibers.

A

Collagen

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43
Q

What protein is present throughout the entire A-band?

A

Myosin (thick filaments)

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44
Q

Which sarcomere band contains only thin filaments?
It runs between which bands?
Which sarcomeric structure transects this band?

A

I-band; runs from A-band to A-band.

The I-band is transected by the Z-DISC.

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45
Q

________ and _______ are found between the myofibrils of skeletal muscle.

A

Mitochondria and sarcoplasmic reticulum

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46
Q

The I-band is composed primarily of _______ and ______.

A

F-actin (thin myofilaments) and titin.

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47
Q

Describe the composition of myosin in skeletal muscle.

A

Two heavy chains (twisted together to form the myosin tail region), and two pairs of light chains (i.e. four light chains) forming the head region at the end of each heavy chain.
p.194 Junq

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48
Q

What do myosin heads bind (2)?

A

Actin and ATP

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49
Q

What gives I-bands their characteristic staining quality?

A

Light-staining is imparted upon I-bands due to the fact that I-bands consist of the portions of thin filaments THAT DO NOT OVERLAP WITH THE THICK FILAMENTS.

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50
Q

What protein supports the thick myofilaments and connects them to the Z-discs?

A

Titin.

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51
Q

What accessory protein specifies the length of actin polymers during myogenesis? What is another important role of this protein?

A

Nebulin; it also binds each thin filament laterally, anchoring them to alpha-actin.

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52
Q

What gives A-bands their characteristic staining quality?

A

Dark staining due to the A-band containing both thick filaments and the overlapping portions of thin filaments.

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53
Q

What forms F-actin filaments?

A

Two globular G-actin molecules that polymerize to form a double-stranded helix –the F-actin filament.

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54
Q

Each ______ molecule of the thin filament has a binding site for myosin.

A

G-actin

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55
Q

What enzyme helps to supply ATP for muscle contraction? What does it do?

A

Creatine Kinase: It catalyzes the transfer of phosphate groups from phosphocreatine to ADP.
p.195 Junq

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56
Q

The T-tubules encircle every myofibril near the aligned ____ and ____ boundaries of sarcomeres.

A

A- and I-band boundaries.

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57
Q

______ and ______ shorten in width during contraction as actin filaments slide past one another.

A

I- band and H-zone shorten in width during contraction as actin filaments slide past one another.

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58
Q

What is the most notable histologic difference distinguishing articular cartilage from other types/locations?

A

No perichondrium in articular cartilage.

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59
Q

Describe the relative proportions of spongy to compact bone in the shaft of bones compared to the ends.

A
  • In the shaft, almost the entire thickness of the bone tissue is compact; at most, only a small amount of spongy bone faces the marrow cavity.
  • At the ends of the bone, the reverse is true. Here the spongy bone is extensive, and the compact bone consists of little more than a thin outer shell.
    p. 220 Ross
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60
Q

If a bone forms a freely moveable/synovial joint, _____ cartilage is present.

A

Hyaline

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61
Q

What is trabeculae?
Where is it found?
What does their aggregation form?

A
  • Trabeculae are thin, anastomosing spicules of bone tissue found within the interior of spongy bone.
  • They forms a spongelike meshwork; the spaces in the meshwork being continuous, and, in living bone, are occupied by marrow and blood vessels.
    p. 219 Ross
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62
Q

What is a triad, in relation to skeletal muscle?

Where are they located?

A
  • The complex of a T-tubule and two adjacent (closely associated), small terminal cisterns of SR.
  • Located near the aligned A- and I-band boundaries of sarcomeres.
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63
Q

Binding actin produces a conformational change or pivot in the myosins, which pulls the thin filaments farther into the _____-band, toward the _____.

A

Farther into the A-band, toward the Z-disc (I guess…).
Titin compresses and Z-discs come CLOSER TOGETHER.
p.197 Junq

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64
Q

In the absence of ATP, the actin-myosin crossbridges become ______, which accounts for the rigidity of skeletal muscles (______) that occurs as ______ activity stops after death.

A
  • become stable.
  • rigor mortis
  • mitochondrial activity
    p. 198 Junq
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65
Q

In skeletal muscle, myelinated motor nerves branch out within the ______ connective tissue, where each nerve gives rise to several unmyelinated terminal twigs that pass through ______ and form synapses with _______.

A
  • perimysium
  • endomysium
  • individual muscle fibers
    p. 198 Junq
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66
Q

What are junctional folds within the context sarcolemma?

What are they for?

A
  • Sarcolemmal folds adjacent to the synaptic cleft that provide a greater postsynaptic SA and more transmembrane ACh receptors.
    p. 198 Junq
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67
Q

Innervation of _____ muscle fibers by _____ motor neurons provides precise control of muscle activity and occurs, for example, in the _____ muscles.

A
  • single muscle fibers by single motor neurons

- extraocular muscles.

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68
Q

What is the role of the muscle spindles? Describe

What are their fibers called?

A
  • Stretch detectors strewn amongst the muscle fascicles.

- Their fibers are called INTRAFUSAL fibers.

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69
Q

What is a general description of Type IA muscle fibers (3 words)

A

Slow, oxidative fibers

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70
Q

What is a general description of Type IIB muscle fibers (3 words)

A

Fast, glycolytic fibers

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71
Q

Muscles that are often active with slow contractions for long periods (Type ____) tend to have more ______ for _______ and _____ production and to have a higher density of surrounding ______.

A
  • Type I
  • More mitochondria for oxidative phosphorylation and ATP production.
  • Higher density of surrounding capillaries.
    p. 204 Junq
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72
Q

Type I fibers have high levels of the cytoplasmic protein ______, which contains ____ and stores ______ molecules, giving such fibers a _____ color in fresh tissue.

A
  • myoglobin
  • contains iron and stores oxygen molecules
  • a red color.
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73
Q

Muscles specialized for short-term work and fast contractions (Type _____) are typically _____ in diameter and depend more heavily on _____ (______) metabolism of ______, much of which is derived from stored glycogen.

A
  • Type IIa or b
  • larger in diameter
  • anaerobic (glycolytic) metabolism of glucose
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74
Q

Describe I-fibers

A

Intermediate between type 1A and type 2B.

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75
Q

Differentiation of muscle into red, white, and intermediate fibers is partly controlled by the __________________, and fibers of a single motor unit are ________.

A
  • frequency of impulses from its motor innervation

- of the same type

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76
Q

Cells within a cardiac muscle fiber often branch and bind to _________.

A

-cells in adjacent fibers

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77
Q

Unlike skeletal muscle, each cardiac muscle cell possesses __(a number)__ ______-located, _____-staining nuclei.

A

-1 or 2 centrally-located, pale-staining nuclei

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78
Q

Compare the T-tubules and SR between skeletal muscle and cardiac muscle.

A

T-tubules are LARGER AND MORE NUMEROUS in cardiac muscle than in skeletal muscle, though the SR is LESS ABUNDANT in cardiac muscle than in skeletal muscle.
p.206 Junq

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79
Q

Compare the percentage of cytoplasmic volume occupied by mitochondria between skeletal and cardiac muscle

A

Cardiac – 40%
Skeletal –2%
Many more in CARDIAC MUSCLE

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80
Q

______ granules are often found near the nuclei of cardiac muscle cells.

A

Lipofuscin pigment

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81
Q

Atrial muscle cells are somewhat ______ than ventricular muscles, with markedly fewer ______.

A
  • smaller

- T tubules

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82
Q

Explain how the contractile cells of the heart’s atria also serve an endocrine function.

A

Membrane-limited cytoplasmic granules release the peptide hormone atrial natriuretic factor (ANF) that acts on target cells in the kidney to affect Na+ excretion and water balance.
p.206 Junq

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83
Q

Short membrane invaginations, called ______, are often frequent at the smooth muscle cell surface.

A

caveolae

p.208 Junq

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84
Q

Smooth muscle fibers have rudimentary _____, but lack ______.

A
  • Rudimentary SR
  • Lack T-tubules.
    p. 208 Junq
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85
Q

What are the intermediate filaments associated with smooth muscle?
What is their function?

A
  • Desmin and Vimentin intermediate filaments
  • They form networks which support the contractile elements of smooth muscle, e.g. dense bodies.
    p. 332 Ross
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86
Q

Smooth muscle is not under voluntary control, and its fibers lack _____.

A

MEPs

p.209 Junq

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87
Q

What determines whether smooth muscle fibers contract as small groups or throughout an entire muscle to produce waves of contraction (two things)?

A

It is determined largely by the degree of autonomic innervation and the density of the gap junctions.

  • both conditions vary considerably in different organs*
    p. 209 Junq
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88
Q

Because smooth muscle is most often _______________, its nerve supply serves primarily to modify activity rather than to ______.

A
  • spontaneously active without nervous stimuli
  • rather than to initiate it.
    p. 209 Junq
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89
Q

Explain why and how smooth muscle has regenerative capabilities.

A
  • SM is composed of simpler, smaller, mononucleated cells and, thus, is capable of a more active regenerative response.
  • After injury, viable smooth muscle cells undergo mitosis and replace the damaged tissue.
    p. 210 Junq
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90
Q

List the components of the conducting portion of the respiratory system (7)

A

nasal cavities, nasopharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, bronchioles, and terminal bronchioles

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91
Q

List the components of the respiratory portion of the respiratory system (3)

A

bronchioles, alveolar ducts, and alveoli

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92
Q

What are the four components of the upper respiratory tract?

A
  • Sphenoid sinus
  • Frontal sinus
  • Nasal cavity
  • Pharynx
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93
Q

What are the four components of the lower respiratory tract?

A
  • Larynx
  • Trachea
  • Bronchi
  • Lungs
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94
Q

Which kind of epithelium is present in each the superior, middle, and inferior conchae (turbinates)?

A

Superior conchae —> Olfactory epithelium

Middle and Inferior conchae —> Respiratory epithelium

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95
Q

What are four functions of the nasal cavity?

A
  1. ) Humidifies by secretions.
  2. ) Warms by vascular loops.
  3. ) Traps particulate matter by mucus.
  4. ) IgA secretion by plasma cells.
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96
Q

The roof of the nasal cavities bear what kind of epithelium?

A

Olfactory

p.343 Junq

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97
Q

1.) What is ‘squamous metaplasia’ and what is it caused by? 2.) Where is it most likely to occur?

A
  1. ) A change from pseudostratified ciliated columnar to stratified squamous epithelium caused by heavy smoking, or industrial air pollution.
  2. ) Occurs particularly in the mucosa of bronchi.
    p. 344 Junq
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98
Q

What are two features that distinguish olfactory epithelium from respiratory epithelium?

A

olfactory epithelium has NO GOBLET CELLS, taller columnar cells (perhaps, confirm this!)

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99
Q

The nasal cavities open posteriorly into the _______, which is the first part of the ______ and continuous caudally with the ________, the posterior part of the oral cavity leading to the _______.

A
  • nasopharynx
  • pharynx
  • continuous caudally with the oropharynx
  • larynx
    p. 346 Junq
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100
Q
  1. ) What is the composition of the skeleton of the nasal cavity and sinuses?
  2. ) Pharynx?
A
  1. ) Cartilage/bone in nasal cavity and sinuses.

2. ) Skeletal muscle

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101
Q

Which cartilagenous portions of the larynx are formed by hyaline cartilage (3)?

A

thyroid, cricoid, and the inferior arytenoid cartilages

p.346 Junq

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102
Q

Which cartilagenous portions of the larynx are formed by elastic cartilage (4)?

A

epiglottis, cuneiform, corniculate, and the superior arytenoid cartilages
p.346 Junq

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103
Q

What type of epithelium covers the vocal folds (cords) and why?

A

Stratified squamous epithelium –protects mucosa from abrasion and desiccation from rapid air movement.
p.348 Junq

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104
Q

Describe the vocal ligament

A

Dense bundle of elastic CT supporting the free edge of each fold.
p.348 Junq

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105
Q

What type of epithelium predominates in the larynx? Exceptions?

A

Ciliated pseudostratified columnar predominates –The luminal surface of the vocal cords is covered with stratified squamous epithelium, as is most of the epiglottis.
p.670 Ross

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106
Q

What are the contents within the lamina propria of the epiglottis (4)?

A
  1. ) Mixed mucous and serous glands.
  2. ) Areolar tissue
  3. ) MALT (lymphoid tissue)
  4. ) Vocal fold –vocal (elastic) ligament –vocalis (striated) muscle.
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107
Q

A thick __________ is characteristic of tracheal epithelium.

A

basement membrane

p.673 Ross

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108
Q

Describe OSTEOCALCIN, i.e. where it comes from and what it does. What cofactor does it require?

A

Secreted by osteoblasts – it is a vitamin K dependent polypeptide which, together with various GP’s binds Ca2+ ions and raises their concentration locally.

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109
Q

Define lamina propria

A

The lamina propria is a thin layer of loose connective tissue, or dense irregular connective tissue, which lies beneath the epithelium and together with the epithelium constitutes the mucosa.

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110
Q

The lamina propria of brochi contain crisscrossing bundles of spirally arranged ______ and ______ which become more prominent in the ___________. Why do they become more prominent?

A
  • smooth muscle and elastic fibers
  • smaller bronchial branches.
  • they become more prominent because the cartilage eventually disappears and is replaced by smooth muscle (p.626 Wilson).
    p. 350 Junq
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111
Q

In the primary bronchi, most cartilage rings ___________, but as the bronchial diameter decreases, cartilage rings are gradually replaced with _____________.

A
  • nearly encircle the lumen (C-shaped hyaline cartilage ring)
  • isolated plates of hyaline cartilage
    p. 350 Junq
112
Q

Like the smooth muscle and elastic fibers, _____________ ( aka ______ ) also becomes relatively more abundant as bronchi become smaller and the cartilage and other connective tissue are reduced.

A

Mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue (MALT)

p.351 Junq

113
Q

What two histologic characteristics can be used to distinguish bronchi?

A
  1. ) Cartilage plates
  2. ) Circular layer of smooth muscle
    p. 676 Ross
114
Q

Bronchioles lack both ______ and ______ when compared to the bronchi.

A

Mucosal glands and cartilage

p.351 Junq

115
Q

The ciliated epithelial lining of bronchioles begins the ____________ /________. What is its purpose?

A
  • mucociliary apparatus / escalator.
  • Important in clearing debris and mucus by moving it UPWARD along the bronchial tree and trachea.
    p. 351 Junq
116
Q

In the larger bronchioles, the epithelium is ______________, but this decreases in height and complexity to become _________ or _______ in the smallest terminal bronchioles, which are ______ of the air conducting system.

A
  • ciliated pseudostratified columnar
  • ciliated simple columnar or simple cuboidal epithelium
  • the last parts of the air conducting system.
    p. 351 Junq
117
Q

The adenventita of the bronchioles contains what?

A

Dense connective tissue

118
Q
  1. ) Where are Clara cells present (2) and describe the morphology of Clara cells (3)
  2. ) Describe their functions (4)
A
  1. ) Terminal and respiratory brochioles
    a. ) Nonciliated
    b. ) Dome-shaped apical ends with c.) secretory granules.
  2. ) a.)Secretion of surfactanct
    b. ) Detoxification
    c. ) Secretion of antimicrobial peptides
    d. ) Stem cells (subpopulation)
    p. 351 Junq
119
Q

What characteristic allows Clara cells to function in detoxification?

A

Abundant SER

120
Q

Small bronchioles have a _______ epithelium.

A

simple cuboidal

p.677 Ross

121
Q

Terminal bronchioles are distal to the ______, past the last _______, and lead into _____________.

A
  • distal to the bronchi
  • past the last cartilage plate
  • lead into respiratory bronchioles
    p. 347 Netter
122
Q

Beyond the respiratory bronchioles are _______ and rotunda-shaped _______, which lead into _______.

A
  • alveolar ducts
  • alveolar sacs
  • alveoli proper
    p. 347 Netter
123
Q

The bronchiolar lamina propria still contains ______ and _______, producing folds in the mucosa.

A

elastic fibers and smooth muscle

p.351 Junq

124
Q

The respiratory bronchiolar mucosa is structurally identical to that of the terminal bronchioles, except for _____________________.

A
  • except for a few openings to the alveoli where gas exchange occurs.
    p. 352 Junq
125
Q

The mucosa lining of respiratory bronchioles consists of _______ cells and _______ cells, with _______ cells at the alveolar openings and extending into the alveolus.

A
  • Clara cells and ciliated cuboidal cells
  • simple squamous at the alveolar openings and extending into the alveolus.
    p. 352 Junq
126
Q

What makes up the lamina propria of respiratory bronchioles?

A

Smooth muscle and elastic connective tissue make up the lamina propria.
p.352 Junq

127
Q

What type of epithelium lines the alveolar ducts and alveoli?

A

Simple squamous epithelium

p.356 Junq

128
Q

What comprises the matrix of alveolar ducts and alveoli? What is its purpose?

A

Elastic and collagen fibers (reticular) –enables alveoli to expand with inspiration and contract passively with expiration; reticular fibers prevent both collapse and excessive distention of alveoli.
p.356 Junq

129
Q

Where are Alveolar pores (of Kohn) found and what is their function?

A

They penetrate the interalveolar septa (Figure 17–13, p.357 Junq) and connect neighboring alveoli that open to different bronchioles.

  • The pores equalize air pressure in these alveoli and permit collateral circulation of air when a bronchiole is obstructed*
    p. 356 Junq
130
Q

What three components make up the blood-air barrier?

A
  1. ) two to three highly attenuated, thin cells lining the alveolus.
  2. ) the fused basal laminae of these cells and of the capillary endothelial cells, and
  3. ) the thin endothelial cells of the capillary.
    i. e. fused basement membranes of the capillary and alveoli.
    p. 356 Junq AND p.634 Wilson
131
Q

Type 1 alveolar cells are _______ cells with _____ junctions.

A
  • squamous cells
  • occluding junctions
    p. 357 Junq
132
Q

Type II pneumocytes cells often occur in groups of two or three at points where __________.

A
  • two or more alveolar walls unite.

p. 357 Junq

133
Q

Type II cell nuclei are _______ and may have _______, and their cytoplasm is typically ______ stained with many _______.

A
  • rounded and may have nucleoli.
  • lightly stained with many vesicles.
    p. 357 Junq
134
Q
  1. ) What is the 1˚ role of type 2 pneumocytes?

2. ) _______ can be considered markers for type II cells, what do they do?

A
  1. ) Surfactant production –prevents alveolar wall collapse.
  2. ) Lamellar bodies – Stores surfactant.
    p. 357 Junq
135
Q

What are the required components of pulmonary surfactant (3)?

A
  1. ) DPPC (phospholipid)
  2. ) Cholesterol
  3. ) Surfactant proteins, i.e. SP (four of them –A, B, C, D).
    * SP-B and SP-C are REQUIRED for the maturation of DPPC and its proper orientation in the surfactant film*
    p. 358 Junq
136
Q

How can you distinguish active dust cells from type 2 pneumocytes?

A

Dust cells are slightly darker due to their content of dust and carbon from air and complexed iron (hemosiderin) from erythrocytes (Figure 17–14).
p.359 Junq

137
Q

What are the three possible fates for filled alveolar macrophages (dust cells)?

A
  1. ) Most migrate into bronchioles where they move up the mucociliary apparatus for removal in the pharynx.
  2. ) Others exit the lungs in the lymphatic drainage.
  3. ) Some remain in the interalveolar septa connective tissue for years.
    p. 359 Junq
138
Q

Where are dust cells found?

A

Found in the alveoli and interalveolar septum.

139
Q

What types of stains are used to identify blood and marrow cells on smears?

A

Romanovsky stains (e.g. Wright, Giemsa)

140
Q

What is the purpose of the biconcave structure of RBCs?

A

Biconcave structure helps maximize surface-to-volume ratio for O2 exchange.

141
Q

What method of energy production do RBCs employ? Why?

A

Anaerobic glycolysis –because they lack mitochondria.

p.238 Junq

142
Q

Why can RBCs not replace their own defective proteins?

A

Because they lack nuclei

143
Q

What is the average lifespan of an RBC?

A

120 days

144
Q

Describe the roles of spectrin and ankyrin in RBCs

A

Spectrin lattice (dimers of spectrin form the lattice) bound to underlying actin filaments are anchored to the membrane by ankyrin.

They support the bocincave shape and flexibility of the RBC membrane.
p.237 Junq

145
Q
  1. ) What do RBCs stain best with and why?

2. ) What characteristic does the cytoplasm of RBCs display?

A
  1. ) Stain uniformly with EOSIN due to the acidophilia of hemoglobin.
  2. ) Cytoplasmic granularity.
    p. 272 Ross
146
Q

______ hematocrit increases blood viscosity.

A

Elevated hematocrit.

p.237 Junq

147
Q

Erythrocyte differentiation includes loss of the ______ and _____, shortly before the cells are released by bone marrow into the circulation.

A
  • nucleus and organelles

p. 238 Junq

148
Q

Senescent or worn-out RBCs displaying such changes are removed from the circulation, mainly by _______ of the ______, _______, and __________.

A
  • macrophages of the spleen, liver, and bone marrow.

p. 238 Junq

149
Q

All granulocytes are _______ cells with a life span of _________.

A
  • terminally differentiated cells
  • only a few days
    p. 238 Junq
150
Q

Describe the Golgi complexes, RER, and mitochondria of granulocytes. How do granulocytes generate energy?

A

Their Golgi complexes and rough ER are poorly developed. They have few mitochondria and depend largely on glycolysis for their low energy needs.
p.238 Junq

151
Q

What type of stain works best with agranulocytes?

A

The BASIC STAIN –AZURE A.

152
Q

Describe the morphology of agranulocyte nuclei

A

Spherical (lymphocyte – LARGE nucleus dominates that cytoplasm) or indented (monocyte) –but NOT LOBULATED.
p.238 Junq

153
Q

What two major types of WBCs are included in the azurophilic group?

A

lymphocytes and monocytes

p.238 Junq

154
Q

What is myeloperoxidase (MPO) and where does it come from?

A
  • It is one of the contents of the 1˚ azurophilic granules from neutrophils.
  • Generates hypochlorite and other agents toxic to bacteria.
    p. 241 Junq
155
Q

What are the three contents of the 1˚ azurophilic granules from neutrophils and what do they do?

A
  1. ) MPO: Generates hypochlorite (toxic to bacteria).
  2. ) Lysozyme: Degrades bacterial cell walls.
  3. ) Defensins: Disrupts bacterial cell walls.
    p. 241 Junq
156
Q
  1. ) Describe the morphology of 2˚ (specific) granules relative to the 1˚ granules (azurophilic) of neutrophils.
  2. ) What are the contents of 1˚ granules and what do they do?
A
  1. ) Specific 2˚ granules are smaller and less dense.
  2. ) -Collagnases: ECM-degrading enzyme
    - Bacteriocidal proteins.
    p. 241 Junq
157
Q

Give two main identifying characteristics of eosinophils (one pertaining to the nucleus).

A
  1. ) Bilobed nucleus.
  2. ) Abundance of large, acidophilic specific granules typically staining pink or red.
    p. 242 Junq
158
Q

What accounts for the granule acidophilia of eosinophils?

A

Major basic protein (MBP): 50% of total granule population.

p.242 Junq

159
Q

What is the purpose of of the specific granules within eosinophils?

A

To kill parasitic worms.

p.242 Junq

160
Q

The number of circulating eosinophils increases during ________ and _______.

A

Helminthic infections and allergic reactions.

p.242 Junq

161
Q

Eosinophils also modulate inflammatory responses by releasing what three things?

A

chemokines, cytokines, and lipid mediators

p.242 Junq

162
Q

Describe the morphology of a typical basophil nucleus

A

Two irregular lobes (but large granules typically obscure its shape).
p.242 Junq

163
Q

How do the specific granules of basophils stain and with what stain?

A

Basophil specific granules typically stain purple with the basic dye of blood smears.

164
Q

The strong basophilia of the granules in basophils is due to the presence of _______ and other ________.

A

heparin and other sulfated GAGs.

p.243 Junq

165
Q

What two substances (similar to those of mast cells) do basophils release in an inflammatory response and what do they do?

A

Histamine: Dilates blood vessels.
Heparin: Anti-coagulant.
Eosinophil chemotactic factor: ???

166
Q

What immunoglobulin do basophils have surface receptors for?

A

IgE

p.243 Junq

167
Q

Which two types of cells are central to allergic response?

A

Mast cells and basophils.

168
Q

What is the smallest type of leukocyte? Describe the morphology of its nucleus.

A

Lymphocytes –Belongs to a family with SPHERICAL NUCLEI.

p.243 Junq

169
Q
  1. ) How are lymphocyte families subdivided?

2. ) What are the three types?

A
  1. ) Cluster of Differentiation Markers (CD Markers).
  2. ) B-lymphocytes, T-lymphocytes, natural killer (NK) cells.
    p. 244 Junq
170
Q

Compare the average size of lymphocytes to that of RBCs

A

≈ the same size.

p.244 Junq

171
Q

Monocytes are precursors to what three types of cells? Also other cells of what general family?

A

Macrophages, osteoclasts, microglia, and other cells of the mononuclear phagocyte system in CT.
p.245 Junq

172
Q

All monocyte-derived cells are ________ cells and have important roles in _______ of tissues.

A

antigen-presenting cells and have important roles in immune defense of tissues.
p.245 Junq

173
Q

The cytoplasm of the monocyte is ______ and contains many small _______ or ______ granules

A

basophilic and contains many small lysosomes or azurophilic granules
p.245 Junq

174
Q

What organelles are present in monocyte?

A

Mitochondria and small areas of rough ER are present, along with a Golgi apparatus involved in the formation of lysosomes.
p.245 Junq

175
Q

Describe the morphology of the monocyte nucleus

A

The monocyte nucleus is large and usually distinctly indented or C-shaped.
p.245 Junq

176
Q

What is the origin of platelets?

A

Fragments of cytoplasm derived from MEGAKARYOCYTES in bone marrow

177
Q
  1. ) What is the functions of platelets?

2. ) What is their circulating lifespan?

A
  1. ) Platelets promote blood clotting and help repair minor tears or leaks in the walls of small blood vessels, preventing loss of blood from the microvasculature.
  2. ) ≈ 10 days
    p. 246 Junq
178
Q

What are the two distinct regions of platelets?

A
  1. ) Hyalomere: Very light peripheral zone.
  2. ) Granulomere: Dark central zone.
    p. 246 Junq
179
Q

Name and describe four features of platelets on EM

A
  1. ) Glycocalyx: Involved in adhesion and activation during blood coagulation.
  2. ) Marginal bundle: Peripheral bundles of microtubules and microfilaments that help maintain the platelets shape.
  3. ) Open canalicular system: Vesicles connected to invaginations of the plasma membrane –may facilitate platelets’ uptake of factors from plasma.
  4. ) Dense tubular system: Derived from ER –Stores Ca2+ ions.
    p. 247 Junq AND p.148 Wilson (good image)
180
Q
  1. ) Where are dense (delta) granules found and what do they do?
  2. ) Alpha granules?
A
  1. ) Platelets –Electron-dense granules that contain ADP, ATP, and serotonin taken up from plasma.
  2. ) Platelets –Contain platelet-derived growth factor (PDGF).
    p. 247 Junq
181
Q

Most of the stained granules seen in platelets with the LM are _______ granules.

A

Alpha

pp.247-248 Junq

182
Q

Describe the origin of platelets

A 
Membranes partition megakaryocyte (MKCs) cytoplasm into individual platelets. 
-MKCs extend long processes called protoplatelets into lumen of sinusoids (in marrow). 
-Platelets separate from the ends of protoplatelet cytoplasmic processes. 
#43, p.149 Wilson
183
Q

Describe the four roles of platelets in homeostasis

A

1.) Aggregate at site of injury to control blood loss from leaks in vasculature.
2.) Promote formation of a FIBRIN blood clot.
3.) Cause clot RETRACTION.
4.) Play role in activating PLASMIN to lyse blood clot.
#44

184
Q

List the sites of hematopoiesis during the embryonic period, second, and thirds trimesters.

A

Early embryo –Yolk sac mesoderm.
Second trimester –Liver (1˚) and spleen (2˚).
Third trimester –Bone marrow.

185
Q

Under certain conditions, such as _______ or ______, yellow marrow reverts to red.

A

severe bleeding or hypoxia

p.251 Junq

186
Q

The hematopoietic niche in marrow includes what three things?

A

the stroma, osteoblasts, and megakeryocytes.

p.254 Junq

187
Q

Within hematopoietic bone marrow, between the hematopoietic cords run the _______, which have ___________, through which newly differentiated blood cells and platelets enter the circulation (Figure 13–5).

A
  • sinusoids
  • discontinuous endothelium
    p. 254 Junq
188
Q

What is Nissl stain? What does it bind/what acid-base qualities does it bear?

A

Nervous tissue stain – Similar to hematoxylin; basophilic stain that binds to DNA structures: RER, ribosomes, Nissl bodies.

189
Q

From which embryonic structures do the CNS and PNS originate?

A

CNS: Neural tube.
PNS: Neural crest cells –cells that separated and migrated from neuroepithelium (mesenchymal in origin).
pp.160-161 Junq

190
Q

When and where does nervous tissue begin to develop?

A

Develops from ectoderm (outermost of the three early embryonic layers) beginning in the 3rd week of development.

191
Q
  1. ) Where are bipolar neurons found (4)?

2. ) Where are pseudounipolar neurons found?

A
  1. ) Found in retina, olfactory mucosa, and the inner ear/cochlear and vestibular ganglia.
  2. ) Sensory neurons in DRG (spinal ganglia).
    p. 161 Junq
192
Q

What are the intermediate filaments of neurons and where are they found?

A

Neurofilaments –found in the cell bodies and processes.

p.164 Junq

193
Q

What is the function of dendrites?

A
  • Principal signal reception and processing sites on neurons.
  • Make it possible for one neuron to receive and integrate a great number of axon terminals from other nerve cells.
    p. 164 Junq
194
Q

Most synapses impinging on neurons occur on _________.

A

dendritic spines

p.164 Junq

195
Q

What part of the neuron serves as the initial processing sites for synaptic signals?

A

Dendritic spine

p.164 Junq

196
Q

What three organelles are NOT found in axons?

A

RER, Nissl bodies, free ribosomes.

197
Q

What three structures (two are organelles) are found in the greatest numbers at a presynaptic terminal?

A
  1. ) Synaptic vesicles (containing NTs).
  2. ) Mitochondria
  3. ) Smooth ER
    p. 166 Junq
198
Q

Excitatory neurons are _____ mediated. Name three excitatory NTs.

A
  • Na+ mediated (depolarizing).

- ACh, glutamate, serotonin.

199
Q

Inhibitory neurons are _____ mediated. Name two inhibitory NTs.

A
  • Cl- mediated (hyperpolarizing)

- GABA, glycine

200
Q

Define anterograde and retrograde transport and their associated motor proteins.

A

Anterograde: From cell body to terminals (periphery).
• Kinesin.
Retrograde: From terminals (periphery) to cell body.
• Dynein.

201
Q

What is neuropil?

A

The fibrous intercellular network surrounding cells of the CNS.
p.167 Junq

202
Q

Which types of astrocytes predominate in white matter, and which in gray matter?

A

Fibrous Astrocytes: Typical in white matter.
Protoplasmic Astrocytes: Predominate in gray matter.
p.170 Junq

203
Q

What are the intermediate filaments associated with astrocytes? What is their clinical significance?

A
  • Glial fibrillary acid protein (GFAP): Bundles of intermediate filaments that reinforce the larger processes of astrocytes.
  • Serves as a unique marker for astrocytes –the MOST COMMON SOURCE OF BRAIN TUMORS.
    p. 170 Junq
204
Q

What is CSF? What cells creates and moves it and where are they located?

A 
Cerebrospinal Fluid (CSF): An ultrafiltrate of plasma created by EPENDYMAL CELLS located in the ventricles of the brain and central canal of spinal cord. 
pp.172-173 Junq
205
Q

Unlike other glial cells, microglia can ________, scanning the tissue for ________ and _______.

A
  • migrate through the neuropil.
  • damaged cells and invading microorganisms.
    p. 173 Junq
206
Q

What is the origin of microglia?

A

Originate from CIRCULATING BLOOD MONOCYTES – belonging to the same family as macrophages and other ANTIGEN-PRESENTING CELLS (monocytes).
p.173 Junq

207
Q

How does one histologically demonstrate microglial processes?

A

Immunohistochemistry using antibodies against cell surface antigens of immune cells demonstrates microglial processes.
p.173 Junq

208
Q

What are the differences between Schwann cells and oligodendrocytes?

A

Schwann: PNS only, one or many Schwann to myelinate ONE AXON.
Oligodendrocyte: CNS only, one OD can myelinate MANY axons.
p.174 Junq

209
Q

What is the origin of Schwann cells?

A

They differentiate from precursors in the NEURAL CREST.

p.174 Junq

210
Q

What is the role of satellite cells and where are they found?

A
  • They form an intimate covering over the large neuronal cell bodies in the ganglia of the PNS.
  • Regulation of the microenvironment.
    p. 174 Junq
211
Q

Blood vessels penetrate the CNS through long _________ covered by _______.

A

Long perivascular spaces covered by pia mater.

p.176 Junq

212
Q

Where (specifically) are ependymal cells found?

A

Covering the pia mater located on the villus of the choroid plexus.
p.179 Junq

213
Q

What are the components of CSF?

A

Made from water removed from blood; contains Na+, K+, and Cl-, but very little protein.
p.179 Junq

214
Q

The ____________ determines whether the ganglion will be a sensory or an autonomic ganglion.

A

direction of the nerve impulse

p.184 Junq

215
Q

What are the two main roles of perineurium?

A
  • Surround fascicles of nerves.

- Blood nerve barrier.

216
Q

Give the function (and description) and relative collagen distribution for the layered nerve coverings (epi-, endo-, peri-). Which is most prevalent?

A
  • Epineurium: Dense CT; External nerve covering.
    1: 1 ratio of Type I and Type III.

-Perineurium: Surrounds fascicles; blood-nerve barrier.
Types III & IV.

-Endoneurium: Loose CT surrounding individual fibers.
Mostly Type I –merges with Type IV

Type 1 most prevalent

217
Q

Describe the three coatings of muscle (where they lie) and their relative collagen distributions (epimysium, perimysium, endomysium).

A

Epimysium: Surrounds the muscle.
• Mostly Type I; little type III.

Perimysium: Envelops fascicles.
• Types I, III, and V.

Endomesium: Envelops each fiber.
• Types I, III, IV, and V.

218
Q

Where is ANP created and what does it do?

A

Created in ATRIAL MYOCYTES –ANP lowers BP by causing the body to excrete increased concentrations of Na+.
p.273 Wilson

219
Q

Where is the SA node (what chamber and near what important vessel) and what contraction does it stimulate?

A

SA node (pacemaker): Wall of R atrium, near superior vena cava.

  • Stimulates atrial contraction.
    p. 214 Junq
220
Q

The coronary arteries (main vessels that supply the heart) are located in which tissue layer?

A

EPICARDIUM

221
Q

Where does the cardiac skeleton attach?

A

chordae tendineae

p.214 Junq

222
Q

What are the three functions of the cardiac skeleton?

A
  1. ) Anchoring and supporting the heart valves
  2. ) Providing firm points of insertion for cardiac muscle
  3. ) Helping coordinate the heartbeat by acting as electrical insulation between atria and ventricles.
    p. 214 Junq
223
Q
  1. ) Name the two AV valves and which side they are on

2. ) What closes the valve, and what prevents back flow (i.e. collapse of the valve into the previous chamber)?

A

1.) Tricuspid valve: Right side (tRicuspid = Right)
Bicuspid valve – aka Mitral valve: Left side

2.) BP pressure closes valve; Chordae Tendineae: Prevent valve prolapse.

224
Q

What is the state of the four valves (open or closed) during relaxation and contraction?

A
  1. ) Relaxation
    - Tricuspid (R): Open
    - Mitral: Open
    - Aortic: Closed
    - Pulmonary: Closed
  2. ) Contraction
    - Tricuspid (R): Closed
    - Mitral: Closed
    - Aortic: Open
    - Pulmonary: Open
225
Q

Arterial blood ______ and _______ become less variable as distance from the heart increases.

A

VELOCITY AND PRESSURE

p.218 Junq

226
Q

High capillary blood flow in the skin allows ______ of heat, while reduced capillary blood flow allows _______ of heat.

A
  • dissipation
  • conservation
    p. 223 Junq
227
Q
  1. ) What do arteriovenous shunts do/what are they?
  2. ) The media and adventitia are ______ in these arteriovenous shunts (or arteriovenous anastomoses) and richly innervated by ______ and ______ nerve fibers.
A

1.) They are arterioles that can bypass capillary networks and connect directly to venules (e.g. for thermoregulation).

  1. ) Thicker
    - sympathetic and parasympathetic nerve fibers.
    p. 223 Junq
228
Q

What is the function of the portal system?

A

1st capillary bed (receiving molecules) —> Portal vein —> 2nd capillary bed (distributing molecules in high concentration)

This arrangement allows molecules entering the blood in the first set of capillaries to be delivered quickly and at high concentrations to surrounding tissues at the second capillary bed, which is important in the anterior pituitary gland and liver.
p.224 Junq

229
Q

The _______ gets thicker as veins get larger.

A

Adventitia

230
Q

Low pressure blood entering veins get back to the heart how? (two ways)

A
  1. ) By contraction of smooth muscle fibers in the MEDIA.
  2. ) By external compressions from surrounding muscles and other organs.
    p. 227 Junq
231
Q

In veins, valves project from the ______ to prevent backflow of blood.

A

tunica intima

p.227 Junq

232
Q
  1. ) What layer tends to be most prominent in veins?

2. ) Arteries?

A
  1. ) Adventita

2. ) Media

233
Q

Large Veins: The adventitial layer is thicker than the _____ in large veins and frequently contains _______________.

A
  • Thicker than the media
  • longitudinal bundles of smooth muscle
    p. 227 Junq
234
Q

Junctions between _________ are the loosest of the microvasculature. What characteristic bodily response does this facilitate?

A
  • endothelial cells of postcapillary venules
  • characteristic loss of fluid here during the inflammatory response, leading to TISSUE EDEMA.
    p. 228 Junq
235
Q

Where does lymph empty back into the blood? (two places)

A

Lymphatic vessels ultimately converge as two large trunks: 1.) Thoracic duct (near junction of left internal jugular and left subclavian veins) and…
2.) Right lymphatic duct (near confluence of right subclavian and right internal jugular veins).

Both of which empty lymph back into the blood.
p.228 Junq

236
Q

Lymph vessels facilitate the spread of what three things throughout the body? What is the medical implication?

A

pathogens, parasites, and malignant cells.

  • These can disrupt lymphatic drainage and produce swelling or LYMPH EDEMA.
    p. 228 Junq
237
Q

Hypertension is due to a wide variety of mechanisms that increase _____________.

A

arteriolar constriction

p.222 Junq

238
Q

True capillaries branch from _________.

A

metarterioles

p.225 Junq

239
Q

At the beginning of each true capillary, precapillary sphincters (muscle fibers) contract and relax _______, causing blood to pass through capillaries in a _______ manner.

A
  • contract and relax CYCLICALLY (5-10 cycles per min).
  • Pulsatile manner.
    p. 225 Junq
240
Q

_______ is more abundant in the interterritorial parts of the collagen matrix.

A

Collagen.

241
Q

Describe the staining characteristics of immature and mature bone, which stain works best and why.

A
  • The matrix in immature bone stains more intensely with hematoxylin (because the matrix of immature bone has more ground substance than does the matrix of mature bone).
  • The matrix of mature bone stains more intensely with eosin.
    p. 223 Ross
242
Q

Volkmann’s canals are not surrounded by __________, a key feature in their histologic identification.

A

concentric lamellae

p.222 Ross

243
Q

_______ is not associated with bone development in intramembranous ossification.

A

Hyaline cartilage.

244
Q

Close to the endosteum (lining spongy bone –adjacent to marrow cavity), you will find the _______, because most ________ occurs near the spongy bone on the inside.

A
  • osteoclasts

- resorption

245
Q

When and where do 1˚ and 2˚ ossification centers appear?

A

1˚ Ossification Centers: Ossification within the diaphysis.
Begins in many bones as early as the first trimester

2˚ Ossification Centers: Appear later at the epiphyses of the cartilage model and develop in a similar manner.
Appear at around the time of birth

246
Q

In what blood centrifugation layer will fibrinogen be found?

A

Plasma

247
Q

What are cytokines? What releases them?

A
  • Factors released that trigger loosening of intercellular junctions in endothelial cells of local postcapillary venules.
  • Released by macrophages.
248
Q
  1. ) At which stage of erythropoiesis does Hb begin to fill cytoplasm? What morphologic changes occur due to this?
  2. ) What other major change occurs at this stage?
A
  1. ) Polychromatophilic Erythroblast: The largely basophilic (from ribosomes and RER synthesizing RNA for Hb) cytoplasm starts to show EOSINOPHILIA from Hb.
  2. ) Nucleus becomes pyknotic and displaces toward the edge of the cell.
249
Q

Describe the three functions of colony stimulating factor (and what are CSFs?).

A

1) Glycoproteins that stimulate proliferation of progenitor and precursor cells
2) Promote cell differentiation and…
3) Maturation within specific lineages.
p. 251 Junq

  • Essentially, they affect–
    1. ) cell division
    2. ) differentiation or
    3. ) cell function.
    p. 297 Ross
250
Q
  1. ) At which stage does the first visible sign of specific granules appear during differentiation of granulocytes?
  2. ) When do 1˚ azurophilic granules appear?
A
  1. ) MYELOCYTE (3rd stage) —> p.257 Junq.

2. ) 1˚ azurophilic granules (blue/purple) seen during promyelocyte stage.

251
Q

Where are the CSFs for erythropoiesis (erythropoietin) and thrombopoiesis (thrombopoietin) synthesized?

A

erythropoiesis (erythropoietin) –KIDNEY cells
thrombopoiesis (thrombopoietin) –LIVER hepatocytes
p.297 Ross

252
Q
  1. ) Which cardiac tissue layer(s) makes pericardial fluid?

2. ) Where does it secrete into? Lined by what?

A
  1. ) Serous pericardial layer – Parietal (outer portion) and Visceral (inner portion – aka Epicardium) pericardium.
  2. ) Pericardial cavity (between visceral and parietal); lined by mesothelium.
253
Q

The great vessels enter and leave the heart as the ______ pericardium.

A

Parietal –roots the great vessels.

254
Q

The pericardial cavity is lined by ______ cells.

A

Mesothelial cells.

255
Q

The epicardium is a simple squamous _________ supported by a layer of loose connective tissue containing blood vessels and nerves

A

mesothelium

p.213 Junq

256
Q

The external tunic of the heart, the epicardium, is the site

of the _______ _______ and contains considerable __________.

A
  • coronary vessels
  • adipose tissue
    p. 216 Junq
257
Q
  1. ) Purkinje fibers are essentially ________ cells.

2. ) How are they different?

A
  1. ) Modified cardiac muscle cells (contractile AND conductive).
  2. ) Larger in diameter, fewer myofibrils, paler staining (due to glycogen).
    p. 269 Wilson
258
Q

How do Purkinje fibers stain relative to normal cardiac muscle cells? Why?

A

Lighter because of GLYCOGEN in their cytoplasm

259
Q
  1. ) Where is the AV node?
  2. ) AV bundles (of His)?
  3. ) What and where do the fiber go after the AV bundles?
A
  1. ) Floor of the right atrium
  2. ) IV septum down to the apex
  3. ) Branch into Purkinje fibers that extend into myocardium of the ventricles.
    p. 214 Junq
260
Q

What are the junctional components of intercalated discs?

A

Desmosomes, fascia adherens, gap junctions.

261
Q
  1. ) Describe the location of the coronary arteries in terms of tissue layers and where they receive blood.
  2. ) At which cardiac stage do they receive blood and how?
A
  1. ) Located in the epicardium behind cusps of aortic valves (sinuses).
  2. ) Feeds the heart during DIASTOLE –Elastic rebound forces blood through coronary arteries between contractions.
262
Q

Right Ventricle tends to be ______-SHAPED

Left Ventricle tends to be _____-SHAPED

A

R ventricle: POUCH-shaped

L Ventricle: CIRCLE-shaped

263
Q

Adventitia of large vessels contains _________ fibers (______ nerves)

A
  • autonomic unmyelinated

- vasomotor

264
Q

The _______ layer of elastic arteries contains smaller blood vessels, the _______, which supply the outer half of the _______.

A
  • adventitial
  • vasa vasorum
  • tunica media
    p. 274 Wilson
265
Q

What are the four functions of tunica intima?

A
  1. ) Regulates vascular tone and blood flow – Relaxation (NO) or Constriction (ACE).
  2. ) Inflammation and local immune response (pro- or anti-inflammation).
  3. ) Secretes growth factors promoting proliferation of WBCs (growth inhibition or promotion)
  4. ) Anti- or prothrombosis (present an anti-thrombotic surface on which blood will not clot –secretes HEPARIN).
266
Q
  1. ) Describe the location (layer) and morphology of olfactory receptor cell nuclei.
  2. ) The Olfactory receptor cells function as ______ neurons whose axons penetrate the ______ to join the ______.
A
  1. ) Middle layer, ciliated, their apical swelling being the dendritic process.
  2. ) Bipolar neurons, penetrate the basement membrane to joint the olfactory nerve.
    p. 616 Wilson
267
Q
  1. ) What is another name for small granule cells?
  2. ) What type of cell are they and what do they secrete?
  3. ) Where are they found?
A
  1. ) Kulchitsky cells
  2. ) Neuroendocrine cells –secretes SEROTONIN.
  3. ) Found in respiratory epithelium of the trachea.
    p. 623 Wilson
268
Q

What changes do the bronchi undergo as they branch distally (3)?

A

Walls become thinner with the loss of cartilage plates and the presence of a more simplified epithelium.
p.624 Wilson

269
Q
  1. ) There are no mucous glands starting at what respiratory level? Why?
  2. ) What related structures still persist below this level and why?
A
  1. ) Bronchioles (Intrapulmonary bronchi right proximal have seromucous), because you don’t want mucous near the airways.
  2. ) Ciliated cells; because if mucous or other matter does get down there, you want to be able to remove it.
270
Q

_________ becomes relatively more abundant as bronchi become smaller and the cartilage and other connective tissue are reduced.

A

mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue (MALT)

p.351 Junq

271
Q

At what respiratory level do goblet cells end? What other distinguishing characteristics does this level have?

A

Terminal bronchioles – Simple cuboidal and Clara cells.

272
Q

At what respiratory levels are Clara cells found?

A

Primary and terminal bronchioles.

273
Q

______ ______ are distinct feature of the brush cell.

A

Blunt microvilli

274
Q

Smooth muscle around the alveolar openings appears as _______ “______” between adjacent alveoli.

A

eosinophilic “knobs”

p.356 Junq

275
Q

Alveoli form outpockets from the ______ and are lined by ________.

A
  • from the Alveolar sac
  • Lined by flattened type I pneumocytes
    p. 632 Wilson
276
Q

What is the most abundant PG in hyaline cartilage and what are its two main GAGs?

A

Aggrecan – with chondroitin and keratan sulfate GAGs.

Histology (9 decks)

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