Exam 2 Flashcards

0
Q

2) What is catastorphizing? – p. 190

A

Exaggerating negative consequences of an event. One of 5 themes common in irrational beliefs.
3) What are group norms?- p. 197
Small groups (no more than 7-8 members) are more cohesive and function well with one leader. Large groups (more than 8-10 members) are effective for specific problems or issues. May be difficult to capture everyone’s attention. Group dynamics are verbal and nonverbal communications that occur within the group and group process is the development and culmination of the session-to-session interactions of the members that move the group towards its goals.

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1
Q

1) What is the definition of cognitive behavior therapy? –p. 187-188

A

Cognitive Behavior Therapy (CBT) is a highly structured psychotherapeutic method used to alter distorted beliefs and problem behaviors by identifying and replacing negative inaccurate thoughts and changing the rewards for behaviors. It operates on the following assumptions: people are disturbed not by an event but by the perception of the event, whenever and however a belief develops, the person believes it, Work and practice can modify beliefs that create difficulties in thinking. The goal of CBT is to restructure how a person perceives events in his/her life to facilitate behavioral and emotional changes.
Model of perception, thoughts, and mood states: the cycle of cognition

Event

+ Perception -

+ Mood status -

+ Feelings -

+ Thoughts -

+ Beliefs -

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2
Q

4) What are the types of crisis? –p. 303-304

A
  • Developmental Crisis: child develops positive characteristic after experiencing a crisis. If he or she develops less desirable traits, the crisis is not resolved
  • Situational Crisis: specific stressful event threatens a person’s biophysical integrity and results in some degree of psychological disequilibrium. It can be internal (such as a disease process) or external (moving, job promotion)
  • Traumatic Crisis: Initiated by unexpected, unusual events that can affect an individual or a multitude of people. People face hazardous events that include injury, trauma, destruction, or sacrifice (riots, war, rape, murder, kidnapping, earthquakes, floods)
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3
Q

5) Study the definition of uncomplicated grief. –p.

A
  • Uncomplicated Grief: painful and disruptive. Person may have physical response (tightening , SOB, empty feeling in abdomen). A sense of unreality sets in and there is increased emotional distance. Gradually accept sense of loss as reality.
  • Traumatic Grief: A more difficult and prolonged grief in which external factors influence the reactions and potential outcomes including: (1) suddenness and lack of anticipation; (2) violence, mutilation and destruction; (3) degree of preventability or randomness of the death; (4) multiple deaths (bereavement overload); and (5) mourner’s personal encounter with death involving a significant threat to personal survival.
  • Complicated Grief: Occurs in approx. 10-20% of bereaved persons. The person becomes frozen or stuck in a state of chronic mourning. Person feels bitter over loss and wishes life could revert to the time they were together. Characterized by intense longing and yearning for deceased lasting more than 6 months. Other characteristics include: trouble accepting the death, inability to now trust others, excessive bitterness r/t death, and feelings that life is meaningless without the other person.
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4
Q

Nj

A

Biologic assessment must include a physical ROS and though hx of medical problems with special attention to CNS fx, endocrine fx, anemia, chronic pain, autoimmune illness, diabetes, or menopause. Additional medical history includes: surgeries, hospitalizations, head injuries, loss of consciousness, pregnancies, childbirths, miscarriages and abortions. Complete list of Rx and OTC meds. Physical exam useful in establishing a baseline. Also includes evaluating patient for characteristic of neurovegetative symptoms: appetite and weight change, sleep disturbances, and decreased energy, tiredness, and fatigue.

14) Study tricyclic antidepressants (TCA) and suicide.-p. 413

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5
Q

12) What is parasuicide?-p.318

A

It is a voluntary, apparent attempt at suicide commonly called a suicidal gesture, but the aim is not death. Some may wish to truly die while others may wish to feel nothing for awhile

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6
Q

11) What drug would be prescribed for depression after someone has attempted suicide?- p.411

A

SSRI’s or SNRI’s. Not TCA (tricyclic antidepressants) because lethal dose is only 3-5 times greater than therapeutic dose.
.

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7
Q

13) Study Dysthymic disorder.-p. 402 How does it differ from Major Depression

A

?
Milder but more chronic major depressive episode (either a depressed mod or a loss of interest or pleasure in nearly all activities for at least 2 weeks) and is diagnosed when the depressed mood is present for most days for at least 2 years with 2 or more of the following: poor appetite or overeating, insomnia or oversleeping, low energy or fatigue, low self-esteem, poor concentration or difficulty making decisions, and feelings of hopelessness.

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8
Q

14) Study tricyclic antidepressants (TCA) and suicide.-p. 413

A

TCA are contraindicated because lethal dose is only 3-5 times greater than therapeutic dose. Most common effects are antihistamine (sedation and weight gain) and anticholinergic (potentiation of CNS drugs, blurred vision, dry mouth, constipation, urinary retention, sinus tachy, and decreased memory) side effects. Serum levels should be evaluated when overdose is suspected. Basic OD treatment includes induction of emesis, gastric lavage, and cardioresp. supportive care.

.

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9
Q

15) What food restrictions are associated with MAOI’s?-p. 413

A

Substances containing tyramine (aged cheese, beer, red wine); can cause a hypertensive crisis.

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10
Q

16) Why is a depressed client at risk for suicide if showing improvement?- p.421

A

AS patients begin to feel better and have increase energy, they may be at a greater risk for suicide. If a previously depressed pt appears o become energized overnight, he/she may have made a decision to commit suicide and be relieved that the decision is made. These indiv should be monitored to maintain safety

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11
Q

17) What would be a priority in the assessment of a depressed person ?-p. 406

A

Safety because these indiv experience self-destructive thoughts and suicidal ideation

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12
Q

18) Study interactions between fluoxetine and St John’s wort. P-414

A

Combination may cause hypertension.

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13
Q

19) Study Anhedonia- p. 416

A

Loss of interest or pleasure. May report not caring anymore, have decrease in libido, irritability and anger.

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14
Q

20) Study Mirtazapine- p. 411

A

• Drug class: Antidepressant
• Receptor affinity: belived to enhance entral noradrenergic and serotonergic activity antagonizing central presynaptic alpha2-andreneric receptors. Mechanism of action unknown
• Indications: treatment of depression
• Routes and Dosage: 15 and 30 mg tabs
i. Adults: initially, 15 mg/day as a single dose in the pm before bed. Max dose of 45 mg/day
ii. Geriatric: Use with caution; reduced dosage may be needed.
iii. Children: Safety and efficacy not estabilished
• Half-life: 20-40 hours
• Adverse Reactions: Somnolence, increased appetite, dizziness, weight ain, elevated cholesterol or triglyceride and transaminase levels, malaise, abd pain, htn, vasodilation, vomiting, anorexia, thirst, myasthenia, arthralgia, hypoesthesia, apathy, depression, vertigo, twitching, agitation, anxiety, amnesia, sinusitis, prutitis, UTI, mania (rare) agranulocytosis (rare)
• Boxed warning: suicidality in children, adolescencts, and young adults; use w/ caution in older adults and patients w/ impaired hepatic fx, breastfeeding

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15
Q

21) Study Lithium-p. 434-436

A

Most widely used mood stabilizer
• Drug class: mood stabilizer
• Receptor affinity: alters sodium transport in nerve and muscle cells, increases norepinephrine uptake and serotonin recptor sensitivity, slightly increases intraneuronal stores of catecholamines, delays some second messenger systems. Mechanism of action unknown
• Indications: Treatment and prevention of manic episodes in bipolar affective disorder
• Routes:
o Adults: In acute mania, optimal response is uaually 600 mg tid or 900 mg bid. Obtain serum levels twice weekly in acute phase. Maintence: use lowest possible does to alleviate symptoms and maintain level of 0.6-1.2 mEq/L. In uncomplicated maintenance, obtain serum levels every 2-3 months. Do not rely on serum levels alone; monitor for side effects
o Geriatric: increased risk for toxic effects; use lower dosage; monitor frequently
o Children: Safety and efficacy in children younger than 12 y/o has not been established.
• Half-life: Mean 24 hr (peak 1-4 hrs) steady state reached in 5-7 days
• Adverse reactions; weight gain
• Warning: Avoid use during pregnancy or while breastfeeding. Hepatic or renal impairments increase plasma concentration
• Teaching/Education: avoid alcohol or CNS depressants, notify prescriber of other meds (RX and OTC), may impair judgment, thinking or motor skills, do not abruptly discontinue use

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16
Q

22) Study Lamotrigine- p. 438

A
  • Drug class: Antiepileptic
  • Receptor affinity: Lamotrigine had a weak inhibitory effect on serotonin 5-HT3 receptor. It does not exhibit high affinity binding: adenosine A1 and A2; adrenergic alpha 1&2 and beta; dopamine D1 and D2; GABA A and B; Histamine H1; kappa opioid; muscarinic acetylcholine; and serotonin 5-HT2
  • Indications: Epilepsy, bipolar disorder (acute mood with standard therapy)
  • Routes and Dosage: available in tabs: 25 mg, 100 mg, 150 mg, and 200 mg scored
  • Chewable tabs: 2 mg, 5 mg, and 25 mg
  • Half-life: 32 hours but can increase if taking valproate
  • Selected adverse reactions: Dizziness, somnolence, and other S&S of CNS depression
  • Boxed warning: serious rashes requiring hospitalization and discontinuation of treatment; the incidence is 0.08%
  • Warning: hypersensitivity reaction, multiorgan failure, blood dyscrias, and suicidal behavior and ideation have occurred
  • Education: Do not drive or operate machinery until side effects are well established. If rash occurs you may need to be hospitalized and discontinue use. Death rarely occurs
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17
Q

24) What are the risks associated with Benzodiazepines?- p. 459-460

A

They are associated with rebound anxiety or anxiety that increases after peak effects of med decreases. They can decrease rate and depth of respirations. Symptoms of withdrawal more likely to occur after high dosage and long term therapy. Withdrawal symptoms can manifest as: psychological (apprehension, irritability, insomnia, and dysphoria), physiological (tremor, palpitations, vertigo, sweating, muscle spasms, and seizures), and perceptual (sensory, hypersensitivity, depersonalization, feelings of motion, metallic taste)

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18
Q

23) Describe the experience of panic disorder.- p. 452

A

Often characterized by sudden, discrete periods of intense fear or discomfort accompanied by physical (palpitations, chest discomfort, rapid pulse, nausea, dizziness, sweating, paresthesia’s, trembling, shaking, SOB) and cognitive (disorganized thinking, irrational fears, depersonalization, and decreased ability to communicate). Usually peaks at 10 min but can last 30 min. Can cause fear of death because it mimics symptoms of heart attack.

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19
Q

25) What nursing diagnosis is associated with agoraphobia?-p.453
Anxiety

A

Anxiety

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20
Q

26) What is a priority intervention when you have a patient experiencing a panic attack? p. 467

A

Social Isolation, Impaired Social Interaction, and Risk for Loneliness and sometimes Interrupted Family Processes

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21
Q

27) What medication used more frequently in clients experiencing panic disorders?-p. 458

A

Antidepressants (SSRI, SNRI, TCA and MAOIs) and antianxiety meds (benzodiazepines). Use of TCAs is declining and MAOIs are reserved for those who don’t respond to SSRIs and SNRIs.

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22
Q

28) Why do clients with OCD perform rituals?- p. 474

A

Patients will often feel increased anxiety and distress if ritual isn’t performed. They are necessary not pleasurable. Initially attempts to resist behavior, it fails, and repetitive behaviors are incorporated into daily routines.

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23
Q

29) What signs and symptoms are associated with anxiety?-p. 450 (Box 26.1).

A

• Cardiovascular:
i. Sympathetic: palpitations, heart racing, increased blood pressure
ii. Parasympathetic: Actual fainting, decreased blood pressure, decreased pulse rate
• Respiratory: rapid breathing, difficulty getting air, SOB, pressure of chest, shallow breathing, lump in throat, choking sensations, gasping, spasms of bronchi
• Neuromuscular: increased reflexes, startle reaction, eyelid twitching, insomnia, tremors, rigidity, spasm, fidgeting, pacing, strained face unsteadiness, generalized weakness, wobbly legs, clumsy motions
• Skin: flushed face, pale face, localized sweating (palms), generalized sweating, hot and cold spells, itching
• Gastrointestinal: loss of appetite, revulsion toward food, abd discomfort, diarrhea, abd pain, nausea, heartburn, vomiting
• Eyes: dilated pupils
• Urinary-Parasympathetic: Pressure to urinate, increased frequency
• Affective symptoms: edgy, impatient, uneasy, nervous, tense, wound up, anxious, fearful apprehensive, scared, frightened, alarmed, terrified, jittery, jumpy
• Sensory-Perceptual: mind is hazy, cloudy, foggy, dazed, objects appeared blurred or distant, environment seems different or unreal, feelings of unreality, self-consiousness, hypervigilance
• Thinking Difficulties: Cannot recall imp things, confused, unable to control thinking, difficulty concentrating, difficulty focusing attention, distractibility, blocking, difficulty reasoning, loss of objectivity and perspective, tunnel vision
• Conceptual: cognitive distortion, fear of losing control, fear of not being able to cope, fear of physical injury or death, fear of mental disorder, fear of negative evaluations, frightening visual images, repetitive fearful ideation
• Behavioral Symptoms: inhibited, tonic, immobility, flight, avoidance, speech dysfluency, impaired coordination, restlessness, postural collapse, hyperventilation

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24
Q

30) What is a quick acting medication used to relieve anxiety?- p.459-460 (Box 26.5)
Benzodiazepines (Xanax*, Ativan, clonazepam)

A

N

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25
Q

31) Why do individuals self injure?- p. 500

A

It is an effort to self-soothe by activating endogenous endorphins. Nurse can suggest using 5 senses exercise:

  1. Vision- go outside and look at star or flowers or leaves
  2. Hearing- listening to invigorating music or sounds of nature
  3. Smell- light a scented candle, boil a cinnamon stick in water
  4. Taste- drink soothing, warm, nonalcoholic beverage
  5. Touch- take a hot bubble bath, pet dog or cat, get a massage
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26
Q

32) How does DBT help clients change behavior?-p. 503-504

A

It combines behavior and cognitive therapies. Patients learn to understand their disorder by participating in establishing goals, collecting data about own behavior, identifying treatment targets, and working with therapist to change problematic behaviors. Core interventions include: problem solving, exposure techniques, skill training, reinforcement of positive behaviors, and cognitive modification. Skills groups are integral and teach patients emotional regulation (to manage intense labile moods), interpersonal effectiveness (to develop assertiveness and problem-solving skills), distress tolerance (helps to tolerate and accept distress as normal part of life), core mindfulness, and self-management skills

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27
Q

33) What are characteristics of someone diagnosed with Paranoid Personality Trait?-p. 527

A

Traits are longstanding suspiciousness and mistrust of persons in general. Refuse to assume personal responsibility for feelings, assign responsibility to others, and avoid relationships in which they are not in control or lose power. Actions are often misinterpreted as deception, deprecation, and betrayal.
success, power, beauty, or ideal love. Overvalue personal worth, direct affection towards themselves, and expect to be held in high esteem.

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28
Q

34) What are the characteristics of Narcissistic Personality?- p.-526

A

Traits are grandiose, have inexhaustible need for admiration, and lack of empathy. Starting in childhood, they believe they are superior, special, or unique. Preoccupied with fantasies of unlimited

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29
Q

35) What is Trichotillomania?- 533

A

Chronic self-destructing hair pulling resulting in noticeable hair loss, usually in the crown, occipital or parietal areas. Sometimes eyebrows or eyelashes. Patient usually has increase in tension immediately before pulling out hair or attempting to resist the behavior. After hair is pulled, feels sense of relief. May ritualistically eat hairs or discard them.

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30
Q

37) For someone who has Anorexia Nervosa (AN), what would be important to know when taking the client history?- p. 562

A

Depression is common and at risk to attempt suicide. Anxiety disorders such as OCD, phobias, and panic disorders are associated with anorexia nervosa. OCD is often a causative factor in AN

Social

Psychological

Biologic

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31
Q

38) What are the characteristics of a client with Bulimia nervosa (BN)?-p. 576

A

More prevalent than AN and generally older at age of onset than in AN. Individuals often binge and purge in secret and normal weight. Treatment can be delayed for years. Pts typically recover completely except in cases in which personality disorders and comorbid serious depression is present. Often overwhelmed and overly committed individuals, “social butterflies,” difficulty setting limits and establishing appropriate boundaries. They have enormous number of rules regarding food and food restriction. They feel shame, guilt, and disgust over binge eating and purging.

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32
Q

39) What nursing diagnosis would be associated with a client with Anorexia Nervosa?-p.568

A

Imbalanced Nutrition: Less Than Body Requirements

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33
Q

40) Study Borderline Personality Disorder (BPD): Characteristics and Risks.-p.495

A

One of most frequently diagnosed personality disorders with a higher proportion of women. More socially acceptable for women than men to seek help; childhood sexual abuse which more commonly affects girls and is strongest risk factors. Physical and sexual abuse appears to be a significant risk factor.

34
Q

41) Review interpersonal relationships on p. 493-494

A

People with BPD have an extreme fear of abandonment as well as a history of unstable insecure attachments. Often idealize others and establish intense relationships that violate other’s interpersonal boundaries, which leads to rejection. Ofen have poor sense of self, intense shame and self-hate follow rejection leading to SIB. Often restrict relationships to ones they feel in control. Do not want to feel burden to anyone. Assume people are tired of them reporting the same issue.

35
Q

42) Review priority care issues for Bipolar Disorder on p. 430

A

Safety is a priority Risk of suicide is always present in those having a depressive or manic episode.
.

36
Q

43) Review acute mania and medication administration on p. 438

A

During acute mania, patients may not believe that they have a psychiatric disorder and refuse to take mediation. Because their energy is still high they can be very creative in avoiding medication. Through patience and development of a trusting relationship, patients are more likely to begin to participate in a shared decision making process. Important for patients to have sense of empowerment and participation in treatment

37
Q

45) What is Bibliotherapy?-p. 142.

A

Reading of selected written materials to express feelings or gain insight under the guidance of a HCP. Provider needs to consider reading level before making assignment. Patient enriches there life in following ways: catharsis, problem solving, insight, anxiety reduction.

38
Q

46) What gender is anxiety more prevalent in?-p. 450

A

Women experience anxiety disorders more than men.

39
Q

47) What other terminology is used to define Antisocial Personality Disorder?-p.516.

A

Term psychopath or sociopath is used when describing a person with ASPD.

41
Q

48) What are characteristics of Antisocial Personality Disorder?-p. 516

A

It is characterized by marked patter of disregard for and violation of rights of others. The are arrogant, self-centered, feel privileged/entitled, self-serving, exploit and seek power over others. Can be charming, insensitive, callous, manipulative, act hastily and spontaneously, lack sense of personal obligation to fulfill social/financial responsibilities, lack remorse.

42
Q

Is the following statement true or false?

An expansive mood is characterized by euphoria.

A

False.
An elevated mood is characterized as euphoria. An expansive mood is one involving a lack of restraints in expression and overvalued self-importance.

43
Q
Which agent would most commonly be prescribed for a patient with bipolar I disorder?
Lamotrigine
Lithium
Carbamazepine
Divalproex
A

B. Lithium
Although divalproex, carbamazepine, and lamotrigine may be used as mood stabilizers, lithium is the most widely used mood stabilizer.

44
Q

Is the following statement true or false?

Protecting the patient from self-harm is crucial during a manic phase.

A

True.
During mania, patients usually violate others’ boundaries, and they may miss the cues indicating anger and aggression from others. Thus, protecting the patient from self-harm as well as harm from others is important.

45
Q

What is mania?

A

Mania: an abnormally and persistently
Elevated mood: euphoria or elation
Expansive mood: lack of restraints in expression; overvalued self-importance
Irritable mood: easily annoyed and provoked to anger
Manic episode: distinct period of mania
Mood lability: rapid shifts in mood with little or no change in external events

46
Q

Bipolar Disorders

A
Mania or hypomania alternating with depression (refer to Key Diagnostic Characteristic 25.1)
Bipolar I (major depressive, manic, or mixed episodes)
Bipolar II (major depression and hypomania)
Cyclothymic disorder (hypomania and depressive episodes not meeting full criteria for major depressive episode)
47
Q

Epipedilogy for bipolar

A

Symptoms before age 25 years
No gender differences in incidence
Female patients at greater risk for depression and rapid cycling than male patients
Male patients at greater risk for manic episodes
Common comorbid conditions: anxiety disorders (most prevalent: panic disorder and social phobia) and substance use)

48
Q

Etiology behind BPD

A
Biologic theories
Chronobiologic theories
Genetic factors
Kindling theory
Psychological and social theories
Focus on reducing environmental stress and trauma in genetically vulnerable individuals
49
Q

Anxiety disorders

A
Panic disorder
Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)
Generalized anxiety disorder (GAD)
Acute stress disorder (ASD)
Posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD)
Phobias
50
Q

Is the following statement true or false?

Panic is considered abnormal regardless of the situation and degree of threat.

A

False.
Panic is considered normal during periods of threat; it is considered abnormal when it is continuously experienced in situations of no real physical or psychological threat is present.

51
Q
Which agent would a nurse least likely expect to administer to a patient experiencing panic disorder? 
Fluoxetine
Sertraline 
Imipramine
Buspirone
A

D. Buspirone
Buspirone is more likely to be prescribed for a patient experiencing generalized anxiety disorder. Fluoxetine, sertraline, and imipramine are used to treat panic disorder

52
Q

Is the following statement true or false?
To meet the diagnostic criteria, a person with GAD must experience excessive worry and anxiety for a minimum of 3 months.

A

False.

To be diagnosed with GAD, a person must experience excessive worry and anxiety for at least 6 months.

53
Q
A patient with PTSD startles easily and reacts irritably to small annoyances. The nurse interprets this as which of the following? 
Hyperarousal
Intrusion
Avoidance
Numbing
A

Hyperarousal
Hyperarousal is manifested by being hypervigilant for signs of danger, becoming easily startled, reacting irritably to small annoyances and sleeping poorly. Intrusion refers to the individual continually experiencing the event through flashbacks and nightmares. Avoidance and numbing reflect complete powerlessness by the individual.

54
Q

Personality disorder

A

An enduring pattern of deviant inner experiences and behavior differing from cultural expectations
Pervasive and inflexible; stable over time
Leading to distress or impairment

55
Q

Borderline personality disorder

A

Disruptive pattern of instability related to self-identity, interpersonal relationships, and affects combined with marked impulsivity and destructive behavior
Problem areas
Regulating moods
Developing a self-identity
Maintaining interpersonal relationships
Maintaining reality-based thinking
Avoiding impulsive or destructive behavior

56
Q

Is the following statement true or false?
A person with a borderline personality disorder often experiences difficulties in his or her ability to relate to others.

A

True.
With borderline personality disorder, the person typically experiences a disturbance in interpersonal functioning such that he or she had difficulty maintaining interpersonal relationships.

57
Q

Epidemilogy of borderline personality

A

Prevalence estimated at 0.4% to 2.0% in general populations
In clinical populations, BPD is the most frequently diagnosed personality disorder; more women are diagnosed
Risk factors
Physical and sexual abuse
Parental loss and separation

58
Q

Which of the following reflects the psychoanalytic theory related to the cause of borderline personality disorder?
Increased dopamine secretion
Structural change in the limbic system
Lack of ability to separate from the primary caregiver
Issues of emotional vulnerability and dysregulation

A

Lack of ability to separate from the primary caregiver
One focus of the psychoanalytic view is separation-individuation in which the individual lacks the ability to separate from the primary caregiver and develop a separate and distinct personality. Increased dopamine secretion and limbic system changes reflect biologic theories. Issues of emotional vulnerability and dysregulation reflect the biosocial viewpoint.

59
Q

Is the following statement true or false?

Long-term use of psychopharmacologic agents is a primary mode of treatment for BPD.

A

False.
Less medication is better for patients with BPD. Patients should take medications only for target symptoms for a short time.

60
Q
A patient with BPD is receiving dialectical behavior therapy. Which type of skill training would least likely be involved? 
Mindfulness
Distress tolerance
Self-management
Self-awareness
A

D. Self-awareness
The nurse needs to develop self-awareness skills when working with patients diagnosed with BPD. Mindfulness, distress tolerance, and self-management skills are part of dialectical behavior therapy.

61
Q

Antisocial personality disorder

A

Marked pattern of disregard for and violation of the rights of others
Psychopath; sociopath
Chronic course
Arrogant, self-centered, feel privileged and entitled
Interpersonally engaging; lack empathy or human compassion
Deceit, manipulation
Hasty, temperamentally aggressive, and short

62
Q

Epidemilogy of antisocial personality disorder

A

3.6% of the population
Men more often diagnosed
Age of at least 18 years with history of one or more characteristics of conduct disorder before age 15 years
Incidence greater among Native Americans and lower among Asians compared with whites
Comorbid with mood, anxiety, and other personality disorders; alcohol and drug abuse

63
Q

Etiology of antisocial personality disorder

A

Biologic
Chromosome abnormality (XYY)
Serotonin deficiency and low dopamine levels
Limbic prefrontal and dorsolateral cortexes affected
Psychological
Unsatisfactory attachments; difficult temperament
Social
Chaotic families
Abuse or neglect, domestic violence

64
Q

Is the following statement true or false?
A person with antisocial disorder typically must be older than the age of 18 years and have shown some evidence of a conduct disorder.

A

True.
To be diagnosed with antisocial personality disorder, a person must be older than age 18 years and have a history of one or more of the characteristics of conduct disorder before the age of 15 years.

65
Q

Is the following statement true or false?
A person with obsessive-compulsive personality disorder experiences obsessions and compulsions just as a person with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD).

A

False.
OCPD is different from OCD. The person with OCPD does not experience compulsions and obsessions but does experience an intense preoccupation with orderliness, perfectionism, and control.

66
Q

Narrissitic personality disorder

A

Grandiose with an inexhaustible need for attention
Lacking empathy; feelings of superiority, specialness, or uniqueness; self-centered view; sense of entitlement
Epidemiology: 6.2%; men > women
Etiology: little evidence of biologic factors; possible result of parents’ overvaluation and overindulgence of a child
Nursing management: nurse self-awareness; focus on coexisting responses to other health care problems

67
Q

Schizoid personality disorder

A

Expressively impassive and interpersonally unengaged; unable to experience joy and pleasure in life
Introverted and reclusive, engage in solitary activities; lifelong loners
Interest in objects, things, abstractions
Epidemiology: rarely diagnosed in clinical settings; avoidant personality disorder as comorbid
Etiology:
Speculative
Possible defects in limbic or reticular regions of brain

68
Q
Which of the following would be considered a personality trait and not a disorder? 
Borderline personality
Avoidant personality
Paranoid personality
Schizotypal personality
A

C.
According to current recommendations, paranoid personality is being identified as a trait and not a disorder. Borderline, avoidant, and schizotypal are types of personality disorders.

69
Q

Is the following statement true or false?

A person with a histrionic personality trait demonstrates an air of superiority and self-centeredness.

A

True.
Histrionic personality trait is characterized by grandiosity and an inexhaustible need for attention as well as feelings of superiority and self-centeredness.

70
Q

Depression statistics

A

Is a common mental disorder
Globally-more than 350 million
Is the leading cause of disability worldwide
Major contributor to the global burden of disease
More women are affected than men

71
Q

Types of affect

A

Affect: The expression of mood
Blunted
Significantly reduced intensity of emotional expression
Flat
Absent or nearly absent affective expression
Inappropriate
Discordant affective expression
Labile
Varied, rapid and abrupt shifts in affective expression
Restricted or constricted
Mildly reduced in the range and intensity of emotional expression

72
Q

Depressive disorders

A

Also referred to a unipolar depression is a specific subset of mood disorders consisting of:
Major depressive disorder, single or recurrent

Dysthymic disorder

Depressive disorder not otherwise specified (NOS)

73
Q

Diagnostic criteria for major depressive disorder

A

Depressed mood or a loss of interest or pleasure in nearly all activities must be present for at least 2 weeks
Four of seven additional symptoms:
Disruption in sleep, appetite (or weight), concentration, energy
Psychomotor agitation or retardation
Excessive guilt or feelings of worthlessness
Suicidal ideation

74
Q

Dysthymic disorder

A

Dysthymic Disorder: is milder, but more chronic and is diagnosed when:
Depressed mood for most days for at least 2 years
Two or more of the following symptoms:
Poor appetite or overeating
Insomnia or oversleeping
Low energy or fatigue
Low self-esteem
Poor concentration or difficulty making decisions
Feelings of hopelessness

75
Q

Depression in older adults

A

Treatment is successful-response to treatment is slower
Commonly associated with chronic illness.
Heart disease, stroke, cancer
Symptoms possibly confused with those of dementia or stroke
Highest suicide rates in those older than age 65 years
Men
Greater success rate of suicide
in those over 85

76
Q

Antidepressants

A

Administering antidepressant therapy (refer to Table 24.1)
SSRIs-Prozac, Zoloft, Paxil, Luvox, Celexa, Lexapro

SNRIs- Effexor, Pristiq, Cymbalta, Serzone

Tricyclic antidepressants-Elavil, Anafranil, Tofranil

MAOIs-Nardil, Parnate, Marplan, Emsam

Others- Wellbutrin, Desyrel
Alpha-2 antagonist-Mirtazapin (Remeron)

77
Q

depression drug info

A

Tricyclic antidepressants should not be prescribed for patients at risk for suicide.
Lethal doses of TCAs are only 3-5 times the therapeutic dose.
Death results from cardiac arrhythmia, hypotension, or seizures

78
Q

MAOIs

A

Hypertensive Crisis
Avoid foods containing tryamine
Amino acid that regulates blood pressure
Aged cheese (Swiss, blue cheese), beer, red wine
Symptoms: sudden, severe headache, racing pulse, flushing, stiff neck, chest pain, nausea and vomiting, and sweating.

79
Q

Serotonin syndrome

A

Serotonin syndrome (refer to Box 24.5)
Caused by drug-induced excess of serotonin.
Develops within hours or days after initial dose or increase in dose.
Symptoms
Altered mental status
Agitation, myoclonus (twitching of muscles)
Fever, shivering, diaphoresis, ataxia (uncoordinated movement)
Diarrhea
Medication History-St Johns Wort

80
Q

CBT

A

Is a structured psychotherapeutic method used to alter distorted beliefs and problem behaviors by identifying and replacing negative inaccurate thoughts and changing the rewards for behaviors.
Relationship among thoughts, feelings, and behavior are examined and identified.
Dysfunctional thinking develops from a variety of human experiences and can become the predominant way the world is viewed.
Thoughts have a powerful effect on emotion and behavior. By changing dysfunctional thinking, a person can alter their emotional reaction to a situation and reinterpret the meaning of an event.

81
Q

Definitions of suicide

A

Suicidality: all suicide-related behaviors and thoughts of completing or attempting suicide and suicidal ideation
Suicidal ideation: thinking about and planning one’s own death
Suicide attempt: nonfatal, self-inflicted destructive act with explicit or implicit intent to die
Parasuicide: voluntary, apparent attempt at suicide, commonly called a suicidal gesture, in which the aim is not death
Lethality: the probability that a person will successfully complete suicide

82
Q

Suicide rates

A

Most suicides are committed with firearms
There is an increase in poisoning, intentional overdoses and hangings
Men-Hanging and firearms
Women-Poisoning and firearms

83
Q

biologic and genetic factors

A

Most people who attempt or complete suicide have severe depression and also childhood trauma.
Those who complete suicide have significantly low levels of the neurotransmitter: Serotonin
Those who have made near attempts have had low levels of Dopamine

Suicide runs in families
Emotional factors that accompany suicide are:
Low self-esteem
Guilt
Shame
Loss and Grief
Hopelessness, helplessness, and worthlessness

84
Q

The greatest predictor of a future suicide attempt is a previous attempt

A

true