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Exam 2 Flashcards

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1
Q

Sterilization

A

complete destruction or elimination of all living microorganisms.

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2
Q

Medical asepsis

A

reduction in numbers of infectious agents, which, in turn, decreases the probability of infection but does not necessarily reduce it to zero.

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3
Q

Surgical asepsis

A

procedure used to prevent contamination by microbes and endospores before, during, or after surgery using sterile technique.

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4
Q

Chemical asepsis

A

The use of disinfectants or antiseptics to alter the environment available to the microbe.

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5
Q

Exogenous transmitted diseases

A

result from an encounter with a microbe in the environment.

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6
Q

Endogenous transmitted diseases

A

result of encounters with organisms already present in or on the body.

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7
Q

Nosocomial infection

A

hospital acquired condition. Generally occurring 72 hours after admittance.

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8
Q

iatrogenic infection

A

an infection that is the result of intervention with a physician.

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9
Q

Transmission based precautions:

A

Designed to place a barrier to the spread of highly infectious diseases between persons with such diseases ask the persons caring for them. Three routes: Air, Droplet, contact

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10
Q

Transmission based precautions: Airborne

A

Examples: tuberculosis, chicken pox and measles. Precautions: private room, standard precautions, mask for patient.

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11
Q

Transmission based precautions: Droplet

A

Spread by sneezing, coughing, talking, etc. Examples: influenza, rebel, pneumonias, meningococcal meningitis. Precautions: Private room, mask, standard precautions.

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12
Q

Transmission bases precautions: Contact

A

Direct contact: person actually touches an infected or colonized body surface. Indirect contact: person comes in contact with an object that has been contaminated. Precautions: private room, gloves, wear gown, standard precautions.

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13
Q

Standard precautions:

A

precautions used to prevent the transmission of disease by body fluids and substances.

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14
Q

Sterile field

A

the work area where sterile supplies are placed for procedures. It is considered free of microorganisms.

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15
Q

Exams using sterile technique:

A 
Angiography
Atrhrography
Myelography
Hysterosalpingography
Exams in the operating room
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16
Q

Only ____ items are used in sterile fields.

A

sterile

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17
Q

If in doubt about the sterility of an object:

A

Consider it unsterile

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18
Q

Sterile field must be ______ to be considered sterile.

A

continually monitored

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19
Q

T/F: Create sterile fields as close to time of use as possible

A

True

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20
Q

Sterile persons should avoid:

A

unsterile areas

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21
Q

Anything below level of table or level of waist is considered:

A

unsterile

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22
Q

The undersurface of the drape is considered:

A

unsterile

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23
Q

Sleeves on gowns are considered:

A

sterile

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24
Q

Front of waist is considered:

A

sterile

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25
Q

Back of gown and below waist is considered:

A

unsterile

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26
Q

Persons in sterile gown and gloves must pass each other:

A

back to back

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27
Q

A sterile person may touch only:

A

what is sterile

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28
Q

Unsterile persons ________ reach above or over a sterile field.

A

cannot

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29
Q

T/F: Sterile materials are still considered sterile when wet.

A

False

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30
Q

If solution soaks through a sterile field to non sterile, then:

A

wet area may be redraped.

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31
Q

Sterile gloves must be kept _____ and ______ waist level.

A

in sight/above.

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32
Q

Sterile field is established using:

A

a sterile drape

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33
Q

How to confirm that the package containing the drape is sterile

A

Must be clean and dry
Check expiration date
Not opened

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34
Q

Opening a sterile package:

A

Place package on center of surface.
Open package away from you.
Do not let any unsterile object touch insides of package.
Drop sterile towels on sterile field while wrapping away from sterile field.
Drop approximately 6 inches above the field at a slight angle.
Use free hand to hold back wrapping from touching sterile field.

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35
Q

Neonatal Contact shielding:

A

placing lead directly on infant’s gonad

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36
Q

Neonatal shadow shielding

A

hanging a piece of lead in the beam to cast a shadow in the collimator light

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37
Q

Shadow shielding requires:

A

low levels of ambient light

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38
Q

Contact shielding has a greater potential for

A

cross-infection

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39
Q

What two things are major threats resulting significant morbidity and mortality each year in neonatal unit?

A

Sepsis and nosocomial infections

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40
Q

Nonaseptic

A

the use of equipment and exams where it is unnecessary to maintain a sterile environment.

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41
Q

NG tubes

A

plastic or rubber tubes inserted through the nasopharynx into stomach. Primarily used for decompression or removal of flatus (gas) and fluid from stomach.

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42
Q

When NG tubes are used for feeding, they are connected to:

A

an electronic pump that controls and measures intake as well as signals any interruption in feeding.

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43
Q

RT’s perform abdominal films on patients with NG tubes to:

A

confirm placement of these tubes

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44
Q

Be careful when moving patients with NG tubes….why?

A

Because you may dislodge the tube.

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45
Q

NG tubes are generally hooked to:

A

low pressure suction.

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46
Q

If patient is continually being suctioned then:

A

Dr’s orders are needed to stop in order to remove pt from room.

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47
Q

Removal of NG tube is usually performed by

A

a nurse

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48
Q

_____ are typically all that is needed to handle the end of an NG tube.

A

Gloves

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49
Q

During occasions when RT is assisting patient using urinal:

A

Provide privacy
Offer a washcloth
Do not discard urine if being monitored.

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50
Q

Describe process of emptying urinal when urine is not being monitored.

A 
Wear gloves
empty contents
rinse with cold water
place with soiled supplies
remove gloves
wash hands
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51
Q

Things to remember when using bedpans

A

Used for dedication and for urination for female
If necessary to move patient, use two people.
Fracture pan is lower to accommodate trauma patient.
Wear gloves/wash.

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52
Q

Hypotonic enema

A

uses tap water to cleanse colon.

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53
Q

Hypertonic enema

A

used when patient can t tolerate large amounts of fluid.

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54
Q

Barium enema is used for:

A

to diagnose pathology and conditions of colon or lower GI tract.

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55
Q

The most common complication of a barium enema is

A

damage to the rectal wall due to overinflation of the balloon catheter.

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56
Q

Double-contrast barium enema indicated for:

A 
diarrhea
high risk-cases
polyps
family history
personal history of cancer
rectal bleeding
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57
Q

Single-contrast barium enema indicated for:

A 
gross pathology
fistulas
acute appendicitis or diverticulitis
intussusception
obstruction
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58
Q

What kinds of drugs are used with barium enema?

A

Glucagon is administered immediately before exam to relieve bowel spasm.

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59
Q

Post barium enema instructions

A

Lack of bowel movement 24 hours post procedure should prompt patient to contact physician.
Symptoms such as bleeding, weakness, constipation & abdominal pain should be brought to physicians’s attention.

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60
Q

What is a colostomy?

A

surgical creation of an opening between the colon and surface of the body, due to trauma, cancer, diverticulitis, colitis, etc. May be permanent or temporary.

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61
Q

Emergency

A

a situation in which the condition of a patient or a sudden change in medical status requires immediate action

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62
Q

General priorities during an emergency situation

A 
Ensure open airway
Control bleeding
Prevent or treat shock
Attend to wounds or fractures
Provide emotional support
Continually reevaluate and follow up appropriately.
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63
Q

Emergency cart

A

Emergency cart contains drugs and equipment needed to respond to life threatening situations

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64
Q

AED

A

Automatic External Defibrillator. Application of external electrical shock to restore normal cardiac rhythm and rate

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65
Q

PAD

A

Public Access Defibrillation. Can be fully automatic or semi-automatic.

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66
Q

Ventricular fibrillation

A

is a fluttering or ineffective cardiac rhythm that results in heart’s inability to pump blood. AED helps restore ventricular rhythm.

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67
Q

The simplest way to classify head injuries is

A

level of consciousness

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68
Q

Level of consciousness are

A 
Alert & conscious
Drowsy but responds
     Alert someone
Unconscious
     Get help
Comatose & unresponsive
     Call a code
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69
Q

Signs of Deteriorating Situations

A

Irritability

Lethargy

Slowing pulse rate

Slowing respiratory rate

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70
Q

Response by RT during medical emergency

A

Maintain open airway

Move pt as little as possible

Procedure stopped

Medical assistance obtained ASAP

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71
Q

Shock:

A

general term indicating a failure of the circulatory system to support vital body functions.

72
Q

Types of shock

A

Hypovolemic
Cardiogenic
Neurogenic
Vasogenic

73
Q

Hypovolemic

A

caused by loss of blood or tissue fluid

74
Q

Cardiogenic

A

caused by variety of cardiac disorders

75
Q

Neurogenic

A

caused by spinal anesthesia or damage to upper spinal cord

76
Q

Vasogenic

A

caused by sepsis, deep anesthesia or anaphylaxis

77
Q

What are the two types of shock that are most likely to be encountered in the x-ray department?

A

Hypovolemic or Anaphylactic. This is contributed to a result of reaction to contrast media.

78
Q

What are the causes of shock?

A

Sudden change in body temp, pain, stress and anxiety.

79
Q

Signs and symptoms of shock are:

A 
Restlessness
Apprehension/general anxiety
Decreasing blood pressure
Tachycardia
Pallor
Cold & clammy skin
80
Q

RT’s reaction to shock:

A

Stop the procedure
Ensure maintenance of the patient’s body temperature
Call for medical assistance
Measure patient’s vital signs while waiting for assistance

81
Q

Anaphylactic shock is a type of:

A

vasogenic shock

82
Q

Re: Anaphylactic shock due to contrast media….Because the most severe reaction can result in death (due to cardiac arrest)….

A

contrast media should never be administered without first taking an adequate history

83
Q

Regarding anaphylactic shock, the most severe reactions happen (how fast?)

A

quickly.

84
Q

Mild reactions to contrast media:

A

Uticaria (hives)
Sneezing
Itching

85
Q

Monitoring of the patient after the exam can identify

A

any unlikely delayed reaction

86
Q

Although reactions to contrast media may be mild:

A

they may be an indication of the beginning of a more serious reaction

87
Q

How is a reaction to contrast media treated?

A

Antihistamine is administered to counter the allergic reaction

88
Q

Serious reactions to contrast media:

A

Laryngeal edema
Shock
Cardiac arrest

89
Q

RT’s reaction to serious reaction to contrast media:

A

Physician notified ASAP & vital signs taken

90
Q

What are some examples of radiological procedures that require that the patient be fasting and places diabetic patients in a compromised situation?

A

Upper GI, Sm Bowel studies, Barium Enema, etc.

91
Q

Hypoglycemia

A

Condition where excessive insulin is present.

If patient has an insufficient amount of glucose they will go into insulin shock or insulin reaction.

92
Q

Symptoms of hypoglycemia

A

Intensely hungry, weak, shaky, sweat excessively, confused, irritable, possibly aggressive and mildly hostile

93
Q

Treatment of hypoglycemia

A

Glucose tablets
Orange juice
Sugared soft drink
Candy bar,any form of carbohydrate
Pt should sit quietly until food has taken effect (10-15 min.)
No food should be administered to an unconscious patient

94
Q

Hyperglycemia

A

A condition where excess sugar is in the blood

Condition may develop gradually so may not be noticed by a technologist

95
Q

Symptoms of hyperglycemia

A

rapid thirst & urination, dry mucosa, rapid and deep breathing, drowsiness and confusion

96
Q

How to treat hyperglycemia

A

Patient needs to be treated with insulin
Seek medical help ASAP
If left untreated condition will lead to diabetic coma

97
Q

Other terms associated with hyperglycemia are

A

hyperosmolar coma and ketoacidosis

98
Q

Asthma or respiratory distress occurs in the radiology department since it seems to be brought on by

A

stressful situations

99
Q

Symptoms of asthma

A

wheezing

100
Q

Reaction of the RT to asthma attack:

A

Stop the procedure
Assist pt to sitting position
Maintain calm demeanor

101
Q

If the patient cannot speak due to an airway obstruction:

A

the Heimlich maneuver would be appropriate.

102
Q

RT’s reaction to choking:

A

Ascertain that the patient is choking
“Can you speak?”

Encourage patient to cough

Abdominal thrust (Heimlich maneuver)

103
Q

How to perform the Heimlich on an unconscious patient:

A

Patient placed in supine position
Heel of hand on victim’s abd above navel, below sternum
Pressure applied in quick upward thrust

104
Q

Heimlich maneuver for a pregnant patient:

A

Chest thrust used in place of abdominal thrust

105
Q

Heimlich on infants

A

combination of back blows and chest thrusts

106
Q

Cardiac arrest

A

Sudden stopage of cardiac output

If not treated leads to permanent organ damage or death

107
Q

Symptoms of cardiac arrest

A

crushing chest pain, may also be readiating down left arm

108
Q

RT reaction to cardiac arrest

A

CALL FOR HELP IMMEDIATELY

BEGIN CPR

109
Q

Why must CPR be administered immediately for cardiac arrest?

A

Cerebral functions are generally impaired if brain is deprived of oxygen for 4 – 6 minutes.

110
Q

What are the ABC’s of CPR?

A

Airway
Breathing
Circulation

111
Q

Possible complications of CPR

A 
Rib fractures
Fractured sternum
Pneumothorax
Lacerated liver and spleen
Fat emboli
112
Q

What is a CVA?

A

Cerbrovascular Accident (stroke or brain attack.)

113
Q

What are symptoms of a stroke?

A 
paralysis on one or both sides
Slurred speech
Complete loss of speech
Extreme dizziness
Loss of vision
Complete loss of consciousness
114
Q

Does a stroke come on quickly, or over a number of hours.

A

Can be either.

115
Q

What is a TIA?

A

transient ischemic attack (mini-stroke)

116
Q

What are the symptoms of a TIA?

A 
Same symptoms as a stroke, however they last less than 24 hours.
paralysis on one or both sides
Slurred speech
Complete loss of speech
Extreme dizziness
Loss of vision
Complete loss of consciousness
117
Q

Some examples of minor medical emergencies are:

A

Nausea, epitaxis, vertigo, syncope, seizures, falls, wounds, burns.

118
Q

RT’s reaction to nausea

A

Provide emesis basin and a cold wash cloth. Encourage patient to breathe slowly and deeply through mouth. Allow patient time to relax, position them upright or semi upright, and if that’s not possible, turn their head to the side.

119
Q

Epitaxis

A

nosebleed.

120
Q

RT reaction to nosebleed

A

Have patient lean forward and pinch nostril. If pressure fails, use moist compress. If bleeding does not stop within 15 minutes, medical assistance should be obtained.

121
Q

What is vertigo?

A

Diziness

122
Q

What is syncope?

A

Fainting. Temporary state of shock as result of lack of blood flow to brain

123
Q

Vertigo and syncope are experienced by patients who have been:

A

bedridden or had limited mobility for an extended amount of time. Vertigo patients should be assisted to seated or recumbent position.

124
Q

Patients arising from radiographic table will experience vertigo as a result of

A

orthostatic hypotension

125
Q

Steps to increase blood flow to head following syncope:

A

Patient assisted to recumbent position with feet elevated
Tight clothing loosened
Most cloth applied to forehead

126
Q

Characteristics of seizures

A

Caused by variety of factors
Range from mild to severe
Characterized by involuntary contraction of muscles
Last for a minute to several minutes

127
Q

RT reaction to patient seizure

A 
Prevent pt from injuring themselves
Do not attempt to restrain patient
Never place hand in mouth
Move pt to floor, away from objects
Place pillow under head
Assure open airway
Note where seizure began
One-sided or two-sided
Length of seizure
128
Q

RT reaction to falls

A

RT should attempt to minimize physical impact of fall so as to minimize injury for both technologist and patient

129
Q

Hemorrhage

A

bleed outside a vessel

130
Q

RT reaction to hemorrhage

A

Apply pressure
May take 10 min. to clot
Dressing should not be removed
If necessary apply clean dressing
If extremity is bleeding, place above level of heart unless contraindicated
This will slow blood flow and result in less blood loss

131
Q

How to handle a patient with burns

A

Care must be taken by RT to maintain proper infection control and minimize pain while positioning image receptors under patient during an exam
Burns are extremely painful injuries – extra gentle care is required when handling burn victim

132
Q

Wound Dehiscence

A

Reopening of a wound/incision. Patient’s sutures separate

Abdominal contents come out of peritoneal cavity

133
Q

RT reaction to wound dehiscence

A

Do not attempt to replace tissue into Abd
Cover area with sterile dressing
Seek medical attention ASAP

134
Q

Beginning 20th century, what were the major causes of death in US due to infectious diseases

A

Pneumonia
TB
Diptheria

135
Q

Infection

A

the establishment & growth of a microorganism on or in a host.

136
Q

Pathogenic microorganisms cause

A

infectious diseases

137
Q

Pathogens have ability to:

A

Multiply in large numbers
Cause tissue damage
Secrete exotoxins

138
Q

Pathogens are divided into what 4 infectious agents?

A 
Bacteria-
    can remain viable for many years & then germinate
Viruses – 
    needs a host/unresponsive to antibiotics
Fungi- 
    ex. Athlete’s foot
Protozoan parasites
    ex. malaria
139
Q

Six steps of Establishment of Infectious Disease

A
  1. Encounter
  2. Entry
  3. Spread
  4. Multiplication
  5. Damage
  6. Outcome
    Encounters are numerous and span a lifetime.
140
Q

Encounter

A

involves the infectious organism coming in contact with the host.

141
Q

Congenital

A

microorganisms able to pass through placenta to create infection
ex: rubella and syphillis

142
Q

Entry

A 
Ingression: microorganisms adhere to the surface of the cell and excrete toxins 
Example: 
Digestive system
Diarrhea
Respiratory system
pneumonia
143
Q

Entry

A

Penetration involves microorganisms invading past the epithelial barrier
Example:
Cuts & Wounds
Mosquito bites

144
Q

Spread

A

the propagation of infectious organisms

Spread of infection depends on the site of infection and type

145
Q

Most important barrier of spreading disease is:

A

the immune system

146
Q

Most important means of controlling spread of microorganisms is through

A

hand washing

147
Q

Multiplication

A

Number of infectious agents need to multiply before impact is noticed

148
Q

Incubation period

A

time frame in which the infection has set in until the time a substantial number of microbes has multiplied or increased

149
Q

Direct damage

A

Cells are destroyed in the host by poisons secreted by the infectious agent
In a matter of hours enough organisms may be present to cause a complete obstruction in a major organ system
Ex: snake bite
Effects usually immediate

150
Q

Indirect damage

A

The host is infected in such a way that their metabolism can be altered and it is just a matter of time before serious results take effect.
Ex. Botulism
Usually delayed effect

151
Q

Three possible outcomes of infection:

A

The host gains control and eliminates the infection
The infection overcomes the host’s immune system.
There is a compromise and a coexistence.

152
Q

Four factors are involved in the spread of diseases

A
  1. host
  2. infectious microorganism
  3. mode of transmission
  4. reservoir
153
Q

Vector

A

carrier that transfers an infective agent from one host to another

154
Q

Fomite

A

inanimate object able to harbor pathogenic microorganisms, serving as an agent of transmission

155
Q

Reservior

A

The site where an infectious organism can remain alive

Transmission can continue to occur

156
Q

Compromised patient

A

Patients who have weakened resistance to infectious organisms because of their admitting illness
Hospital patients have a greater sensitivity to infection

157
Q

Sources of infection

A 
Medical Personnel
Patient Flora
Contaminated hospital environment
Blood-borne pathogens
Invasive procedures
158
Q

Infection from medical personel

A

Can be Direct or indirect, through Ingestion or inhalation from food handlers or surgeons.

159
Q

Examples of patient flora

A

Skin
Gastrointestinal system
Genitourinay system
Respiratory system

160
Q

Examples of contaminated hospital environment

A

Mildew
Improperly sterilized surgical equipment
Contaminated IV solution
Fomites

161
Q

Blood-borne pathogens

A

Disease-causing microorganisms that may be present in human blood
Considered nosocomial infections

162
Q

Invasive procedures

A

Any surgery & insertion of devices as needles, vascular catheters, endotracheal tubes & endoscopes

163
Q

Defenses of the body

A

Mechanical, chemical, cellular

164
Q

Mechanical defenses of the body

A

skin, handwashing

165
Q

chemical defenses of the body

A

Sebaceous/sweat glands

Mucous membranes

166
Q

Cellular defenses of the body

A

Acidity of the stomach

167
Q

Chemotherapy

A

Treatment of a disease by chemical agents

168
Q

Static chemotherapy

A

chemo drugs that inhibit growth but do not kill them off

169
Q

Bacteriocidal chemotherapy

A

ability to kill susceptible microbes

170
Q

Immunization

A

security against a particular disease

171
Q

Vaccine

A

any preparation used as a preventive inoculation to confer immunity against a specific disease

172
Q

Environmental control agencies

A

Department of Health and Human Services (DHHS), Center for Disease Control and prevention (CDC), US Dept of Labor’s Occupational Safety & Health Administration (OSHA), World Health Organization (WHO)

173
Q

Responsibilities of Dept. of Health & Human Services (HHS) & Centers for Disease Control & Prevention (CDC)

A

make the recommendations and guidelines for environmental control of infectious disease in U.S.

174
Q

Responsibilities of US Dept of Labor’s Occupational Safety & Health Administration (OSHA)

A

enforces policies.

175
Q

Responsibilities of World Health Organization (WHO)

A

issues recommendations for infection control

176
Q

Extravasation

A

Fluid leaking into the surrounding tissue.

Nursing procedures (7 decks)

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