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Psychology 3313 > Exam 2 > Flashcards

Exam 2 Flashcards

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1
Q

what are the characteristics of a light energy wave?

A

wavelength: color or shades of gray
amplitude: brightness

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2
Q

reflection

A

the bending of light back towards it’s source; accounts for most light we see

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3
Q

absorption

A

object retains light; cannot be seen but can be felt

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4
Q

refraction

A

the changing of light at a boundary such as that between air and water; responsible for forming images in the eye

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5
Q

optical functions

A

capture light and form detailed spatial images

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6
Q

protective functions

A

eyelid protects and cleans tears produced from lacrimal gland

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7
Q

neural functions

A

transduce light into neural signals, then relay and process those signals

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8
Q

fovea

A

high visual acuity found in the retina

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9
Q

what is a blind spot?

A

where topic n. and blood vessels exit the retina there are no photoreceptors and no vision

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10
Q

what cell populations are found in the retina?

A

photoreceptors- rods and cones

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11
Q

rods

A

scotopic vision- dim light
no color, low acuity
120 million in humans

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12
Q

cones

A

photopic vision- bright light
color, high acuity
6 million in humans

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13
Q

photopigment

A

outer segment of photoreceptors filled with light-sensative chemicals

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14
Q

what is the photopigment in rods?

A

rhodopsin: composed of opsin & retinal

retinal is the light absorbent

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15
Q

what is the photoreceptor in cones?

A

iodopsin

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16
Q

transduction

A

translation of physical stimulus into electrical signals used by the nervous system

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17
Q

the dark current

A

the steady depolarization maintained by photoreceptors when NO light is present

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18
Q

steps involved in signal transduction (in the dark)

A
  1. rhodopsin consists of opsin and retinal
  2. retinal is in 11-cis form
  3. photoreceptor cell produces cGMP
  4. cGMP causes sodium channels to open
  5. photoreceptor cell is DEPOLARIZED
  6. outcome = increased release of glutamate
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19
Q

steps involved in signal transduction (in the light)

A
  1. retinal absorbs a photon
  2. retinal changes to all-trans form and rhodopsin molecule breaks apart
  3. enzymes are released, which break down cGMP
  4. in the absence of cGMP, sodium channels close
  5. photoreceptor becomes HYPERPOLARIZED, the more light absorbed, the more hyperpolarized
  6. outcome = decreased release of glutamate
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20
Q

what cell is involved in transmitting light information from the retina?

A

bipolar cells?

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21
Q

receptive field

A

a location on the retina at which light affects the activity of a particular visual interneuron

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22
Q

types of receptive fields on the retina?

A

center: direct input from single set of photoreceptors
surround: indirect from horizontal cells connected to photoreceptors

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23
Q

what type of potentials do bipolar cells use?

A

graded potentials

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24
Q

what type of potentials do ganglion cells use?

A

action potentials

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25
Q

on-center light restricted to center

A

depolarizes bipolar cell

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26
Q

on- center light restricted to surround

A

relayed through horizontal cells; hyperpolarizes bipolar cell

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27
Q

off-center light restricted to center

A

hyerpolarizes bipolar cell

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28
Q

off-center light restricted to surround

A

relayed through horizontal cells; depolarizes bipolar cells

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29
Q

3 types of ganglion cells

A 
M cells (magno; large)
P cells (parvo; small)
K cells (koniocellular)
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30
Q

M cells

A

motion: large, low-contrast moving objects

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31
Q

P cells

A

color sensitive: small, high-contrast color objects

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32
Q

K cells

A

color sensitive

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33
Q

optic nerve

A

anterior portion, connects directly to eye

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34
Q

optic chiasma

A

area at the base of the brain where the optic nerves cross to form the optic tracts

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35
Q

optic tract

A

the fiber pathways between the optic chiasma and destinations in the forebrain and brainstem
- about 50% of fibers cross to opposite hemisphere

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36
Q

visual fields

A

projections from the right and left hemispheres

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37
Q

superior colliculus

A
  • located in the midbrain
  • guides head and eye movements
  • 10% of optic tract
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38
Q

lateral geniculate nucleus (LGN)

A
  • located in thalamus
  • projects to primary visual cortex
  • visual perception
  • 90% of optic tract
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39
Q

three layers of LGN

A

magnocellular
parvocellular
koinocellular

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40
Q

magnocelluar layer

A

input: M cells layers 1&2

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41
Q

parvocellular layer

A

input: P cells layers 3-6

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42
Q

koinocellular layer

A

input: K cells

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43
Q

simple receptive fields

A
  • receptive fields maintain antagonistic center surround
  • shape of receptive field elongated
  • respond to stimuli that have a particular slant or orientation
  • retinotopic mapping
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44
Q

complex cortical cell

A
  • larger receptive fields
  • no off region
  • shows preferred stimulus size and orientation but not location within visual field
  • sensitive to movement
  • perception of movement
  • retinotopic mapping
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45
Q

orientation column

A

responds to lines of a single angle for a single eye

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46
Q

ocular dominance column

A

responds to input from either the left or right eye but NOT both. preferred orientation changes.

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47
Q

simple cortical cells

A

orientation

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48
Q

complex cortical cells

A

movement

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49
Q

cortical module

A
  • integration of decomposed visual field
  • 1000 modules, each 2X2 mm
  • 8-10% of all modules devoted to input from fovea
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50
Q

“where” pathway

A
  • dorsal pathway
  • magnocellular projection
  • specialized for: movement, locating objects, and visual control of skilled actions
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51
Q

“what” pathway

A
  • ventral pathway
  • parvocellular projection
  • responds to object recognition, shapes, and color
  • associated with storage of long-term memory
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52
Q

fusiform facial area

A
  • part of the ventral stream
  • located within fusiform gyrus of inferior temporal lobe
  • responds predominantly to faces and members of learned categories
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53
Q

prosopagonosia

A

facial blindness where you can see all components of the face but cannot recognize that face specifically

  • injury or congenital
  • 1-3% of population
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54
Q

sensation

A

information from environment and its transmission to the CNS

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55
Q

perception

A

personalized interpretation of sensory data

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56
Q

akinetopsia

A
  • motion blindness
  • damage at the occipital-parietal junction
  • extremely rare
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57
Q

how is depth processed in the visual system?

A

stereopsis: depth from 2D image

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58
Q

monocular

A

perspective and depth seen through one eye

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59
Q

binocular

A
  • retinal disparity using BOTH eyes
  • slightly different views of the visual field provided by the two eyes
  • increases with the distance of objects from the viewer
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60
Q

trichromatic theory of color?

A

also known as the young-helmholtz theory

eye responds to 3 primary colors, allowing them to mix to see other colors

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61
Q

opponent process theory?

A

k cells: blue- yellow
p cells: red- green

  • p cells are primary in ganglion cells so they can see colored light and the cones respond accordingly
  • k cells take the output of short blue cones then take the sum of red and blue cones inout together to get the yellow (since there is no yellow cone)
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62
Q

what causes color blindness? what cones are affected?

A

cause: sex linked OR missing chromosome 7, can be dichromacy or monochromacy
- monochromacy: one or no cones are affected and everything is in a green filter
cones affected: deficits in red or green photopigment OR missing blue photopigment

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63
Q

color contrast

A

color can appear different based on its “context” or background

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64
Q

color constancy

A

colors perceived as the same, although they are different

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65
Q

hierarchical processing

A

visual world is decomposed then built back up from the simple to complex

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66
Q

feature detectors

A

aka grandmother cell; responds to particular features, angles, lines, movement, etc

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67
Q

frequency in terms of waves

A

the cycle per unit time or wavelength of sound

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68
Q

loudness

A

aka intensity; a function of sound wave amplitude

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69
Q

what are the major structures of the ear?

A 
ear canal 
pinna
eardrum 
semicircular canal 
vestibular nerve 
auditory nerve 
cochlear nerve 
cochlea 
eustachian tube 
vestibule
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70
Q

ossicles

A

transfer sound from air to fluid

  • malleus (hammer)
  • incus (anvil)
  • stapes (stirrup)
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71
Q

cochlea responds to…

A

vibrations from the middle ear

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72
Q

liquid pressure in the inner ear is initiated where?

A

the oval window

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73
Q

liquid pressure in the inner ear is relieved where?

A

the round window

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74
Q

what are the 3 chambers of the inner ear?

A

vestibular canal
cohlear duct
tympanic canal

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75
Q

endolymph

A

high K+ and low Na+

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76
Q

where are hair cells?

A

organ of corti

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77
Q

how are hair cells activated?

A

vibrations of basilar membrane bend and activate hair cells

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78
Q

what type of channels do hair cells open?

A

K+ channels

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79
Q

what membrane vibrates and activates the hair cells?

A

basilar membrane

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80
Q

frequency theory

A

groups of neurons in auditory nerve fire at the SAME frequency as original sound source

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81
Q

place theory

A

identifying the frequency of sound depends on the location of maximal vibration on the basilar membrane and which neurons are firing the most

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82
Q

sound localization

A

comparison of arrival times of sounds at each ear and differences in intensities

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83
Q

what structure is used for localizing sound in vertical plane?

A

pinna

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84
Q

what are the two types of skin?

A
  • hairy skin

- glabrous skin (hairless)

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85
Q

what are the 3 layers of skin?

A

epidermis
dermis
subcutaneous

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86
Q

what is a mechanoreceptor?

A

a touch receptor that physically opens and closes

87
Q

meissner’s corpuscles

A
  • encapsulated
  • rapid rate of adaptation
  • small receptive field
  • pressure
88
Q

pacinian corpuscles

A
  • encapsulated
  • rapid rate of adaptation
  • large receptive fields
  • vibration
89
Q

merkel’s disks

A
  • non-encapsulated
  • slow rate of adaptation
  • small receptive field
  • pressure
90
Q

ruffini’s endings

A
  • non-encapsulated
  • slow rate of adaptation
  • large receptive field
  • stretch
91
Q

how is touch info relayed to the brain?

A
  • mechanoreceptors
  • dorsal column
  • dorsal column nuclei
  • VP nucleus of the thalamus
  • primary sensory cortex
92
Q

organization of somatosensory cortex

A

primary - found in postcentral gyrus of parietal lobe

secondary - found in posterior parietal lobe

93
Q

plasticity of touch

A

somatosensory cortex rearranges itself in response to changes in the amount of input it receives

94
Q

olfactory stimuli

A

airborne, dissolve in mucus

95
Q

how are olfactory stimuli detected?

A

olfactory receptors

96
Q

where are olfactory receptors found?

A

olfactory epithelium

97
Q

how many olfactory receptors are there?

A

~1000

98
Q

mcclintock effect

A

pheromones sensed in the nose by vermonasal organ (VNO), they are released during menstruation stimulating VNO in women. alters hypothalamus output and induces synchronized menstruation

99
Q

glomeruli

A

structures found in olfactory bulbs that are single receptors (meaning they only respond to one type of receptor)

100
Q

olfactory input to the brain

A

olfactory cortex projects to the thalamus, limbic system, and neocortex

101
Q

5 categories of taste

A 
sweet
sour
bitter
salty
umami
102
Q

papillae

A

located on the tongue

each contains 1-100 taste buds

103
Q

where are taste receptors located?

A

in the taste buds which extend microvilli into saliva

104
Q

how is taste info relayed to the brain

A
  • taste receptors
  • CN VII, IX, X
  • gustatory nucleus
  • VPM nucleus of the thalamus
  • gustatory cortex
  • orbitofrontal cortex in frontal lobe encodes emotional qualities of taste
105
Q

super-taster

A

have a discriminating sense of taste; fatty and sugary food less appealing, reaction to bitter foods make them less fond of veggies

  • 1/4 are super tasters (more women)
  • 1/4 are not
  • remaining 1/2 are in-between
106
Q

examples of smooth muscle

A
  • digestive tract
  • arteries
  • reproductive system
107
Q

examples of striated muscle

A
  • skeletal muscle

- cardiac muscle

108
Q

what is a muscle fiber?

A

individual muscle cell

109
Q

what surrounds the muscle fiber?

A

muscle membrane, contains nicotinic ACh receptors

110
Q

what makes up the interior of a muscle fiber?

A

myofibrils

111
Q

actin

A

thin filaments

112
Q

myosin

A

thick filaments

113
Q

process of muscle fiber contraction

A
  1. fully relaxed
    - troponin prevents interaction between actin and myosin
    - action potential releases Ca2+, which binds with troponin
    - myosin and actin are free to interact
  2. partially contracted
    - myosin binds to actin
    - myosin filaments rotate and move relative to actin, shortening the sacromere
  3. fully contracted
    - reuptake of calcium frees troponin
    - troponin blocks interaction of myosin and actin once again
    - the filaments slide apart
114
Q

what are the 3 types of myosin filaments

A

type I fibers (slow twitch)

type IIa and type IIb fibers (fast twitch)

115
Q

type I (slow twitch)

A
  • predominate in muscles of back, neck, and legs
  • use aerobic metabolism
  • appear dark red bc of myoglobin
  • participates in endurance of movements
116
Q

type II a and b (fast twitch)

A
  • predominate in arms and shoulders
  • use anaerobic metabolism
  • appear white
  • participate in brief, powerful movements
117
Q

antagonistic pairs

A

allow for movement

118
Q

motor unit

A

consists of alpha motor neuron and all the muscle fibers it controls

119
Q

muscle spindles

A

where muscle stretch is monitored and controlled

120
Q

muscle fibers inside the spindle

A

intrafusal fibers

121
Q

muscle fibers outside the spindle

A

extrafusal fibers

122
Q

golgi tendon organs

A

located at the junction between muscle and its tendon that forms a feedback loop that limits contraction
- monitors and controls muscle contraction or force

123
Q

sensory fiber attached to golgi tendon organ

A

Ib sensory fiber

124
Q

motor cortex

A

planning, initiating, and directing voluntary movements

125
Q

brainstem centers

A

basic movements and postural control

126
Q

lateral pathway

A

serves long distance structures, including hands and feet

127
Q

ventromedial pathway

A

serves proximal structures, including neck and torso

128
Q

what role does the cerebellum play in movement?

A

timing of movements and integrates sensory and motor function to provide smooth, coordinated body movements and also error prediction

129
Q

what role does the basal ganglia play in movement?

A

responsible for the initiation and maintenance of movement

130
Q

major nuclei of the basal ganglia

A
  • dorsal striatum

- nucleus accumbens

131
Q

steps involved in the initiation of voluntary movement

A
  1. decision to make a movement originates in prefrontal cortex and parietal lobe
  2. movement is planned in SMA and PMA, incorporating input from the thalamus, basal ganglia, and cerebellum
  3. primary motor cortex sends signals via lateral pathway
  4. lateral pathway carries signals to spinal motor neurons , which initiate muscle contraction
132
Q

what type of toxins interfere with motor control?

A

ACh antagonist

133
Q

what causes myasthenia gravis and how is it treated?

A

it is an autoimmune disorder that causes extreme muscle weakness and fatigue. can be treated over time using AChE inhibitors

134
Q

what is ALS: amyotrophic lateral sclerosis? what are the possible causes? what factors are associated with increased risk of developing ALS?

A
  • degeneration of the motor neurons in the spinal cord and brain stem
  • possible causes: toxins, viruses, SOD-1 gene, and correlation with athletic activity
  • higher risk in men than women, also lean and more athletic people are more susceptible when they’re older
135
Q

what is Parkinson’s Disease? what are the direct causes? what are the treatments?

A
  • progressive difficulty in all movements, especially voluntary movement
  • direct cause due to degeneration of dopaminergic neurons in the substantia nigra
  • treatment: L-dopa
136
Q

when is genetic sex determined? what determines it?

A

determined at time of fertilization by sex chromosome

  • XX: female
  • XY: male
137
Q

examples of sex chromosome abnormalities

A
  • turner syndrome: XO
  • klinefelter syndrome: XXY
  • XYY
138
Q

gonads

A

internal organs

  • females: ovaries
  • males: testes
139
Q

SRY gene

A

if present then gonads develop into testes, if not then they become ovaries

140
Q

when do internal sex organs develop?

A

6 weeks, they are undifferentiated. during 3rd month they differentiate

141
Q

wolffian system

A

develops into seminal vesicles, vas deferens, and prostate

142
Q

mullerian system

A

develops into uterus, upper vagina, and fallopian tubes

143
Q

external genitalia of females and hormones involved

A
  • labia, clitoris, and outer vagina

- no hormonal activity required

144
Q

external genitalia of males and hormones involved

A
  • scrotum and testes

- 5-alpha-dihydrotestosterone needed ( loss results in ambiguous external genitalia )

145
Q

what is androgen insensitivity syndrome (AIS)?

A

abnormal androgen receptors disrupt normal development of the wolffian system, though testosterone and anti-mullerian hormone are released in normal manner

146
Q

what is congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH)?

A

adrenal glands released elevated levels of androgen

  • males, few observable effects
  • females, exposed to excessive androgen are born with ambiguous genitalia
147
Q

5-alpha-reductase deficiency

A

testosterone present in body but can’t be converted. at puberty unconverted testosterone produces male secondary sex characteristics

148
Q

organizational effects of hormones

A
  • permanent
  • sensitive period
  • hormonal effects on the differentiation and development of the sex organs, brain and behavior in early development
149
Q

activational effects of hormones

A

occurs in fully developed organism, beginning at time of puberty

150
Q

hormonal events that control sexual maturation and the development of secondary sex characteristics at puberty

A

hypothalamus releases gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) which then stimulates production of the follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH) from the pituitary which then secretes sex hormones from the gonads

151
Q

secondary sex characteristics in males

A

testosterone stimulates:

  • muscular development
  • maturation of external genitalia
  • facial hair
  • enlargement of larynx (deeper voice)
  • hairline on the head (baldness)
152
Q

secondary sex characteristics in females

A

estradiol stimulates:

  • breast growth
  • maturation of external genitalia and uterus
  • changes in deposition of body fat
  • menstrual cycle
153
Q

basic steps of menstrual cycle

A
  • pituitary increases FSH
  • follicles develop - ovum
  • estrogen stimulates LH release
  • LH initiates ovulation
  • estradiol - uterine wall
  • corpus luteum - progesterone
  • hormonal decrease
  • menstruation
154
Q

how do hormones affect cognition?

A

women > men in verbal tasks
- related to higher levels of estrogen
men > women in spatial tasks
- related to higher levels of androgens

155
Q

possible cause to drop in avg. puberty

A
  • increasing rates of obesity

- increased exposure to estrogen (like compounds)

156
Q

male rats during copulation

A
  • males mate with females only during ESTRUS
  • male mounts female
  • females exhibit lordosis: receptive posture in which the hindquarter is raised and the tail is turned to the side facilitating intromission by male
  • males eventually ejaculate
157
Q

what brain regions are sexually dimorphic?

A
  • sexually dimorphic nucleus of the preoptic area

- interstitial nuclei of the anterior hypothalamus

158
Q

what hormone is important for male and female sexual behavior?

A

testosterone

159
Q

aromatization

A

testosterone is transformed into estradiol, which produces masculinization in many animals

160
Q

alpha fetoprotein

A

found in the placenta; binds estrogen and prevents maternal estradiol from masculinizing the female brain

161
Q

why are female hyenas masculinized?

A

their mothers estradiol is not blocked by the placenta like in most other species

162
Q

how does sexual arousal vary between men and women?

A

men have a direct correlation between physical arousal and subjective arousal whereas women have a disconnect between physical and subjective arousal

163
Q

the coolidge effect

A

the propensity of an animal that appears sexually satiated to resume sexual activity when provided with a novel partner

164
Q

how do the brains of homosexuals and heterosexuals differ?

A

INAH-3 are smaller in homosexual men than among heterosexual men

165
Q

what evidence supports the idea that prenatal exposure to androgens is associated with homosexuality?

A

development of structures not involved in sexual behavior often reflect the influence of prenatal androgen exposure in women

  • otoaccoustic emissions
  • 2D:4D ratio
166
Q

oxytocin

A

neurohormone secreted during child birth and lactation; promotes pair bonding

  • secreted in thalamus
  • important in women
167
Q

vasopressin

A

neurohormone important in social behavior, sexual motivation, and pair bonding

  • found in periphery
  • important in men
168
Q

what are the roles of oxytocin and vasopressin in pair bonding?

A

before mating if the female or male are injected with oxytocin or vasopressin respectively then they bond well with one another. if they are injected with the antagonist of that hormone then they act opposite

169
Q

anisogamy

A

union between two gametes that differ in size and form

170
Q

sperm competition

A

the midpiece of the sperm determines swimming speed and power; in species with more promiscuous mating strategies both the testicles and the sperm’s midpiece are larger

171
Q

what type of face is particularly attractive?

A

symmetrical

172
Q

what body type is particularly attractive?

A
  • younger features on females
  • masculine men (sexual encounter)
  • less masculine men (long-term)
173
Q

what are the 4 biological rhythms?

A
  • ultradian
  • circadian
  • infradian
  • circannual
174
Q

ultradian

A

less than 24 hours

- ex: activity

175
Q

circadian

A

approximately 24 hours

- ex: sleep/wake cycle

176
Q

infradian

A

greater than 24 hours

- ex: menstrual cycle

177
Q

circannual

A

yearly

- ex: migration

178
Q

circadian rhythm

A

any rhythmic change that continues at close to a 24 hour cycle in the absence of external cues

  • body temperature
  • cortisol secretion
  • sleep and wakefulness
179
Q

how long is a free-running circadian rhythm?

A

24.2-24.9

180
Q

how is a free-running circadian rhythm measured?

A

zeitgeber

181
Q

how is wheel running used to assess daily activity rhythms?

A

animals are exposed to 12 hours of light and 12 hours of dark, since they are nocturnal they are more activity at night. even when the light/dark is removed they are still active around the same time due to their internal biological clocks

182
Q

entrainment

A

process of resetting the biological clock

183
Q

zeitgeber

A

“time-giver” - the stimuli that an organism uses to synchronize with the environment

184
Q

where is the mammalian master circadian located?

A

above the optic chiasma in the hypothalamus - suprachiasmatic nucleus

185
Q

when is the SCN most active?

A

during the day

186
Q

what evidence demonstrates that the SCN is the master circadian clock?

A

neurons from a heathy hamster can be put into a mutated hamster and that hamster will adapt to the normal ways

187
Q

phase shift

A

shift in activity in response to a synchronizing stimulus

  • spring shift = phase in advance
  • fall shift = phase in delay
188
Q

what is the pathway that relays light info to the SCN?

A

retinohypothalamic pathway

189
Q

melatonin

A

the hormone of darkness released by pineal gland

190
Q

how does jet lag and daylight savings interfere with the circadian rhythm an melatonin release?

A

cause a conflict between internal clock and external zeitgebers

191
Q

what is SAD? what systems are involved and how is it treated?

A 
Seasonal Affective Disorder 
caused by: 
 - overproduction of melatonin 
 - serotonergic system dysregulation 
 - sleep phase delays 
treatment:
 - phototherapy 
 - antidepressants
192
Q

what are the 3 physiological measures used to characterize wakefulness and sleeping?

A
  • rapid eye movement (REM)
  • non-REM (nREM)
  • slow wave sleep (SWS)
193
Q

sleep spindles

A

occur in ~0.5 sec bursts of 12 to 14 hz

194
Q

k-complexes

A

are sharp negative EEG potentials

195
Q

stage 1 - EEG

A

theta rhythms

196
Q

stage 2 - EEG

A

sleep spindles and k-complexes

197
Q

stage 3 & 4 - EEG

A

delta rhythms

198
Q

when do dreams occur?

A

during REM and nREM sleep

199
Q

when do the most vivid dreams occur?

A

during REM characterized by:

  • visual imagery
  • sense that the dreamer is “there”
200
Q

4 theories of dreams

A
  • hobson & mccarley: activation synthesis theory
  • crick & mitchison: forget irrelevant info
  • winson: integrate sensory experiences w/ memories
  • reveonsuo: threat simulation
201
Q

what brain regions control wakefulness?

A
  • locus coeruleus: releases norepinephrine

- anterior raphe nuclei: releases serotonin

202
Q

what brain regions control nREM sleep?

A
  • pre optic area of hypothalamus: inhibits wakefulness circuits, has nREM on cells
  • LC & RN: norepinephrine and serotonin release decreases, preparing brain for REM sleep
203
Q

what brain regions control REM sleep?

A

REM on area - rostral pontine reticular formation: responsible for rapid eye movement and muscle paralysis

REM off area - LC & RN: decrease before REM sleep dis-inhibits the pons, after 30 mins of REM the LC & RN reactivate inhibiting the pons

204
Q

dyssomnias

A

abnormality in the amount, quality or timing of sleep

ex: insomnia, narcolepsy, hypersomnia

205
Q

parasomnias

A

abnormal behavior or physiology during sleep

ex: nightmares, night terrors, somnambulism (sleepwalking), restless leg syndrome

206
Q

narcolepsy

A

unwanted sleep attacks

  • excessive daytime sleepiness
  • cataplexy
  • sleep paralysis
207
Q

cataplexy

A

sudden muscular paralysis while conscious

208
Q

sleep paralysis

A

similar loss of muscle control during transition between sleeping and waking

209
Q

hypersomnia

A

characterized by excessive daytime sleepiness

  • lack of OR interrupted sleep at night
  • nap frequently and inappropriately
  • anxiety, irritation, restlessness, slower thinking, memory difficulty
  • comorbid w/ many psychological disorders
210
Q

night terrors

A
  • within 4 hours of bedtime
  • disoriented, confused
  • caregivers: unaware of presence, inconsolable
  • no memory of event unless fully awakened
  • returns to sleep rapidly unless fully awakened
  • partial arousal from deep slow wave sleep
211
Q

nightmares

A
  • late in sleep cycle
  • upset, scared
  • comforted by caregivers
  • vivid recall of dream
  • return to sleep often delayed by fear
  • REM sleep
212
Q

somnambulism

A

“sleepwalking”

  • occurs during deepest stages of SWS
  • they can be woken up without harm
213
Q

REM behavior disorder

A

REM paralysis absent or minimized

  • act out dramatic and/or violent dreams
  • shouting and grunting
  • voluntary muscles become tonic or tensely contracted

Psychology 3313 (3 decks)

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